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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 7

Set 7 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 23 of 203 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 7 — 23 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. The maintenance of fluids and nutrition is key to extended patient care and can be provided by:

  • A. Allow the patient to consume any foods they would like to make them feel more comfortable.
  • B. Use small amounts of liquids and foods to determine whether the patient can tolerate the intake.
  • C. Even if the patient is not thirsty or hungry the responder must insist on intake.
  • D. Giving fluids and food to all patients regardless of MOI.
Answer: B — Use small amounts of liquids and foods to determine whether the patient can tolerate the intake.
If medical evacuation is delayed, small, frequent amounts of clear liquids help determine tolerance. Large volumes of fluids or food should be avoided, especially if surgery or anesthesia might be required upon arrival at a medical facility, to minimize the risk of aspiration.

2. When administering medication, responders should consider that:

  • A. Right nutrition, , right method, right time, right person, right amount
  • B. Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.
  • C. Right medication, right amount, right person, right responsibility, right action
  • D. Right medication, right action, right person, right time, right responsibility
Answer: B — Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.
The 'five rights' of medication administration are a global standard to ensure patient safety. They are the right medication, right amount, right person, right time, and right method of administration.

3. To give ear drops to an adult, the ear should be pulled:

  • A. Downward and forward.
  • B. Downward and backward.
  • C. Upward and forward.
  • D. Upward and backward.
Answer: D — Upward and backward.
When administering ear drops to an adult, the ear canal should be straightened by pulling the pinna (auricle) upward and backward. This technique aligns the canal for better penetration of the medication toward the tympanic membrane.

4. Provincial first aid legislation prescribes the contents of:

  • A. First aid stations, training programs and equipment manufacturers.
  • B. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and first aid manuals.
  • C. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and training.
  • D. First aid boxes, first aid reports and record keeping.
Answer: C — First aid boxes, first aid rooms and training.
Provincial or national workplace safety legislation typically mandates the provision and contents of first-aid kits, the standards for first-aid rooms, and the requirements for certified first-aid training. These regulations ensure a baseline standard of emergency care at work.

5. First aid stations must:

  • A. Be at least 6 square meters in size
  • B. Have oxygen available Ambulance Operation/Maintenance
  • C. Be easily accessible to workers
  • D. Have a shower
Answer: C — Be easily accessible to workers
First aid stations must be located where they are easily accessible to workers at all times. Quick access is critical during a medical emergency to ensure that life-saving treatment can be initiated without unnecessary delays.

6. Footprints can best be described as:

  • A. The area of contact between the road surface and the tires.
  • B. Skid patterns on dry pavement.
  • C. Footsteps used to get into the back of the ambulance.
  • D. The type of tread on the tire.
Answer: A — The area of contact between the road surface and the tires.
In the context of vehicle operations, 'footprint' refers to the patch of the tire that is in direct contact with the road surface at any given moment. This contact area is crucial for traction, steering, and braking efficiency.

7. Ground guides or spotters should be situated:

  • A. Front and centre of the vehicle.
  • B. On the front left side of the vehicle.
  • C. On the front right side of the vehicle.
  • D. Behind the vehicle on the driver side.
Answer: D — Behind the vehicle on the driver side.
Ground guides or spotters should always be positioned where they can clearly see the vehicle driver and be seen in the driver's mirrors, typically behind the vehicle on the driver's side. This ensures constant visual communication during maneuvers.

8. When completing the patient narrative:

  • A. Do not include negative data.
  • B. Try to establish an accurate diagnosis.
  • C. Record the signs and symptoms as accurately as possible.
  • D. Always use medical terminology.
Answer: C — Record the signs and symptoms as accurately as possible.
Patient care reports or narratives should be strictly objective, recording observed signs (objective) and reported symptoms (subjective) as accurately as possible. The goal is to provide a clear, factual account rather than attempting a diagnostic conclusion.

9. A patient refuses your care. You should:

  • A. Proceed with patient assessment and management and ignore the refusal.
  • B. Have the patient and a witness sign the "Refusal of Care" form.
  • C. Fill out and personally sign a "Refusal of Care" form.
  • D. Find a relative or family member to give you consent.
Answer: B — Have the patient and a witness sign the "Refusal of Care" form.
When a competent adult refuses care, it is legally imperative to document the refusal properly to protect the responder. Having the patient and a witness sign a 'Refusal of Care' form validates that the risks of refusal were explained and understood.

10. Sublingual medication is given:

  • A. By inhalation using a metered dose inhaler.
  • B. By injection using an auto-injector.
  • C. Under the patient’s tongue.
  • D. As a tablet to be swallowed.
Answer: C — Under the patient’s tongue.
Sublingual medication is designed to be placed under the tongue, where it is quickly absorbed into the bloodstream through the rich network of capillaries in the sublingual mucosa, bypassing the digestive system for a rapid effect.

11. Contraindications of a medication tell responders:

  • A. The expected results of the medication.
  • B. When a medication should not be given to the patient.
  • C. When the medication is commonly used for patients.
  • D. Actions that might not be desirable yet occur along with desired effects.
Answer: B — When a medication should not be given to the patient.
Contraindications are conditions or factors that serve as reasons to withhold a specific medication. They indicate when a drug could be harmful to a patient rather than beneficial, based on medical history or current symptoms.

12. The ACTION of the drug refers to:

  • A. The harmful effects.
  • B. The expected effects.
  • C. The side effects.
  • D. The method of administration.
Answer: B — The expected effects.
The action of a drug refers to the desired therapeutic effect it is expected to produce in the body. This is the physiological change that the medication is intended to achieve to treat the patient's condition.

13. To manage severe toothaches, responders should:

  • A. Advise the patient to chew on the other side of the mouth.
  • B. Advise the patient to suck on ice cubes to dull the pain.
  • C. Advise the patient to drink hot liquids to sooth discomfort.
  • D. Extract the tooth with the assistance of a second responder.
Answer: A — Advise the patient to chew on the other side of the mouth.
To manage severe toothache, the patient should be advised to avoid chewing on the affected side to prevent further irritation or damage. This minimizes mechanical stress on the damaged tooth and associated inflamed nerves.

14. When handling a knocked-out tooth you should:

  • A. Place the tooth back in the patient's mouth.
  • B. Place the tooth in a cup of milk.
  • C. Wrap the tooth in dry gauze.
  • D. Place the tooth in a mild acidic solution using vinegar.
Answer: B — Place the tooth in a cup of milk.
A knocked-out (avulsed) tooth is best preserved in milk, which provides a balanced pH and nutrient environment that helps keep the periodontal ligament cells alive. This significantly increases the success rate of reimplantation if performed promptly.

15. Lividity refers to:

  • A. Stiffening of the joints post mortem.
  • B. The beginning signs of decomposition.
  • C. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity.
  • D. Cooling of the body post mortem.
Answer: C — Settling of blood in the body due to gravity.
Lividity (livor mortis) is a post-mortem change characterized by the settling of blood in the lower (dependent) parts of the body due to gravity. This occurs because the heart is no longer pumping to circulate blood.

16. Later signs of death include:

  • A. Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas.
  • B. Staining, lividity and decomposition.
  • C. Rigor mortis, flushed skin and decomposition.
  • D. Staining, milky corneas and flushed skin.
Answer: A — Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas.
Rigor mortis (stiffening of muscles), livor mortis (lividity/blood settling), and cloudy or milky corneas (due to corneal dehydration) are definitive late signs of death. Flushed skin is not a sign of death.

17. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/4-1, what is the mandatory requirement regarding deck and engine room operational protocols during Medical First Aid operations?

  • A. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • C. Applicable only during drydock operations
  • D. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
Answer: D — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/4-1 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Medical First Aid.

18. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing deck and engine room operational protocols for Medical First Aid on board?

  • A. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • B. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • C. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
  • D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
Answer: C — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Medical First Aid operations.

19. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for deck and engine room operational protocols concerning Medical First Aid?

  • A. Port State Control advisory note only
  • B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
  • C. STCW Code Section A-VI/4-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • D. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
Answer: C — STCW Code Section A-VI/4-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/4-1 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Medical First Aid.

20. In the event of an emergency involving deck and engine room operational protocols during Medical First Aid tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • B. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • C. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
  • D. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Answer: D — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

21. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for deck and engine room operational protocols be conducted for Medical First Aid?

  • A. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
  • B. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • C. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • D. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
Answer: C — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

22. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to deck and engine room operational protocols in Medical First Aid?

  • A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • B. No written record is required
  • C. Verbal update to port agent without logging
  • D. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

23. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling deck and engine room operational protocols under Medical First Aid guidelines?

  • A. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
  • B. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • C. High-visibility vest only
  • D. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
Answer: B — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

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