EFA exit exam questions and answers

All 291 questions from the Elementary First Aid (EFA) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked, and 281 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt 8 Sep 2026.

Practise these EFA questions EFA mock exit exam, 30 marks EFA exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What is called the voice box?

A. Trachea
B. Larynx
C. None of the above
D. Epiglottis

Answer: B — Larynx

The larynx, commonly known as the voice box, contains the vocal cords and is responsible for producing sound and speech.

2. In topographic anatomy, the term lateral means:

A. Above the midline of the body
B. Away from the midline of the body
C. Below the midline of the body
D. Towards the midline of the body

Answer: B — Away from the midline of the body

In topographic anatomy, the term 'lateral' refers to a position away from the midline of the body or toward the side.

3. Where does the partly digested food in liquid form go after it leaves the stomach?

A. Small intestine
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Large intestine

Answer: A — Small intestine

After partially digesting in the stomach, food moves into the small intestine where most of the digestion and nutrient absorption occurs.

4. Urine enters the bladder through which structure?

A. Nephron
B. Urethra
C. Bowman's capsule
D. Ureter

Answer: D — Ureter

Urine travels from the kidneys down to the bladder through tubes called ureters.

5. Which system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response?

A. Central nervous system
B. Endocrine system
C. Parasympathetic nervous system
D. Sympathetic nervous system

Answer: D — Sympathetic nervous system

The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the 'fight-or-flight' response, preparing the body to react to perceived threats by increasing heart rate and diverting blood flow.

6. What is the correct sequence for the primary survey?

A. D-A-B-C-R
B. R-A-B-C-D
C. D-R-A-B-C
D. A-B-C-D-R

Answer: C — D-R-A-B-C

The correct sequence for the primary survey in first aid is Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation (DRABC).

7. Which of the following are considered crucial protective equipment?

A. Mask
B. Eye shield
C. All of the above
D. Gloves

Answer: C — All of the above

Gloves, masks, and eye shields are all considered crucial protective equipment to prevent the transmission of infections and protect against bodily fluids.

8. You are taking blood pressure by palpation. A radial pulse indicates a blood pressure of at least:

A. 60 mmHg
B. 90 mmHg
C. 80 mmHg
D. 70 mmHg

Answer: C — 80 mmHg

When taking blood pressure by palpation, the presence of a radial pulse typically indicates a systolic blood pressure of at least 80 mmHg.

9. An unconscious seaman is lying on his back and not breathing. What is the first thing you do?

A. Give rescue breaths
B. Call for help
C. Check for a pulse
D. Tilt his head back as far as it will go

Answer: D — Tilt his head back as far as it will go

When an unconscious seaman is not breathing, the first step to open the airway is to tilt the head back and lift the chin, ensuring the tongue is pulled away from the throat.

10. If you suspect a head or neck injury, you should:

A. Move the victim as quickly as possible
B. Support the head and neck in the position found
C. None of the above
D. Try to straighten the victim's neck

Answer: B — Support the head and neck in the position found

If a head or neck injury is suspected, it is crucial to support the head and neck in the position they are found to prevent further damage to the spinal cord.

11. When a victim is having a neck injury, you should:

A. Try to align his head and neck
B. Move his head gently
C. None of the above
D. Hold his head still

Answer: D — Hold his head still

When a victim has a suspected neck injury, the primary action is to hold their head still to avoid exacerbating any spinal trauma.

12. You suspect a head and neck injury in a victim who is unresponsive and not breathing. How would you open the airway to give breaths?

A. Use a suction device
B. None of the above
C. Tilt the head back and lift the chin
D. Jaw thrust technique

Answer: D — Jaw thrust technique

For a victim with suspected head or neck injury who is unresponsive and not breathing, the jaw thrust technique is used to open the airway, as it minimally disturbs the cervical spine.

13. Check the carotid artery for a pulse on:

A. The ankle
B. The groin
C. The side of his neck
D. The wrist

Answer: C — The side of his neck

The carotid artery, used for checking a pulse in an unresponsive adult, is located on the side of the neck.

14. Fainting happens when:

A. The heart stops beating
B. The person is dehydrated
C. The person is anxious
D. The brain does not get enough blood with oxygen

Answer: D — The brain does not get enough blood with oxygen

Fainting, or syncope, occurs when the brain temporarily does not receive enough oxygenated blood, leading to a brief loss of consciousness.

15. If there is no response from the crew when you are doing the primary survey, you should:

A. Give rescue breaths
B. Check for a pulse
C. None of the above
D. Call 108 and return to the crew

Answer: D — Call 108 and return to the crew

If there is no response from the crew during the primary survey, the immediate next step is to call for emergency medical assistance (e.g., 108 or ship's medical officer) and then return to the victim.

16. Shock is the condition where:

A. The person is dehydrated
B. The body loses a lot of blood
C. The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body
D. The person is in pain

Answer: C — The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body

Shock is a critical condition where the cardiovascular system fails to deliver adequate blood supply to all parts of the body, leading to a lack of oxygen in tissues.

17. What is the CPR procedure for a six-year-old boy?

A. 15 compressions, 4 breaths
B. 30 compressions, 2 breaths
C. 15 compressions, 2 breaths
D. 30 compressions, 4 breaths

Answer: A — 15 compressions, 4 breaths

For CPR on a child between puberty and adulthood (or a larger child), the recommended ratio is 15 compressions followed by 2 breaths.

18. What is the proper rate of chest compressions in CPR?

A. 80 per minute
B. 100 per minute
C. 120 per minute
D. 60 per minute

Answer: B — 100 per minute

The proper rate for chest compressions during CPR, for both adults and children, is 100 to 120 compressions per minute.

19. If an AED is available but does not have child pads or child energy setting, what should you do for a six-year-old non-responsive victim?

A. None of the above
B. Do not use the AED
C. Call for help
D. Use the AED with adult pads

Answer: D — Use the AED with adult pads

If an AED is available without child pads or a child setting, it is recommended to use the adult pads for a child victim, ensuring they do not touch each other.

20. When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?

A. Apply direct pressure
B. Elevate the limb
C. Apply a tourniquet
D. Call for help

Answer: A — Apply direct pressure

When managing external bleeding, the immediate action is to apply direct pressure to the wound to control blood loss.

21. You feel a sudden short pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at the bottom of your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe. What type of wound do you probably have?

A. Avulsion
B. Laceration
C. Abrasion
D. Puncture

Answer: D — Puncture

A tack sticking into the foot through the shoe describes a puncture wound, which is caused by a sharp object penetrating the skin. This is distinct from abrasions (superficial scraping) or lacerations (tearing of tissue).

22. What are splints made of?

A. All of the above
B. Wood
C. Cardboard
D. Clean plastic

Answer: D — Clean plastic

Splints can be made from various materials, including rigid items like wood or cardboard, or flexible materials like plastic. The key is to immobilize the injured area effectively and safely, ensuring no further harm occurs.

23. What should you do if you think a crew has internal bleeding?

A. None of the above
B. Apply pressure to their abdomen
C. Give them something to drink
D. Call for help

Answer: D — Call for help

Internal bleeding is serious and requires immediate medical attention. Signs like severe pain, dizziness, or a rigid abdomen necessitate calling for professional medical help promptly; do not give the victim anything to eat or drink.

24. Burns that involve all layers of skin are:

A. Third-degree burns
B. Full-thickness burns
C. First-degree burns
D. Second-degree burns

Answer: B — Full-thickness burns

Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, involve damage to all layers of the skin, and potentially underlying tissues. They are characterized by a white, leathery, or charred appearance and may be painless due to nerve damage.

25. First aid for frostbite is:

A. Rub the affected area
B. Give some hot coffee
C. Give some warm water
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Give some warm water

For frostbite, the affected area should be gently rewarmed in warm (not hot) water, typically around 40°C (104°F). Rubbing the area can cause further damage, and hot drinks can be detrimental as they can redistribute blood flow away from extremities.

26. What is the recommended amount of time to wash your hands?

A. 40 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Answer: B — 5 minutes

Washing hands for a minimum of 20 seconds is crucial for effectively removing transient microorganisms and preventing the spread of infections, aligning with public health recommendations for hand hygiene. Longer durations, like 30 or 40 seconds, may offer slightly better results, but 5 minutes is excessive for routine handwashing.

27. You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by:

A. Taking over-the-counter pain medication
B. Applying a compression bandage
C. All of the above
D. Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation (RICE)

Answer: D — Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation (RICE)

The RICE protocol (Rest, Immobilization, Cold, Elevation) is the foundational treatment for sprains and strains to reduce swelling, pain, and inflammation. While compression bandages and pain medication can offer symptomatic relief, they are adjuncts to the primary RICE management strategy.

28. Mouth-to-nose respiration should be used only when:

A. The victim has a broken jaw
B. The victim is unconscious
C. It is impossible to open the victim's mouth
D. The victim has a severe head injury

Answer: C — It is impossible to open the victim's mouth

Mouth-to-nose respiration is a crucial alternative technique indicated when the victim's mouth cannot be opened due to significant facial trauma, jaw injuries, or foreign body obstruction. This ensures ventilation is still possible, maintaining oxygenation until advanced medical care is available.

29. Toxic substances can affect the body in the following ways:

A. All of the above
B. Through the skin
C. Through the lungs
D. Through the eyes

Answer: A — All of the above

Toxic substances can enter the body via multiple routes, including inhalation through the lungs, dermal absorption through the skin, and ingestion or direct contact with the eyes. Recognizing these entry points is vital for appropriate first aid and prevention of further exposure.

30. What should you do if you think a crew member has internal bleeding?

A. Monitor the victim's vital signs and seek medical attention if they worsen
B. Give the victim pain medication
C. Apply a cold compress to the abdomen
D. Call your local emergency phone number for help

Answer: D — Call your local emergency phone number for help

Internal bleeding is a serious condition that requires immediate professional medical intervention. While monitoring vital signs is important, definitive management necessitates seeking emergency medical services promptly rather than attempting home care like cold compresses or pain medication.

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is a sign of severe airway obstruction?

A. High-pitched inhalation noise
B. Forceful cough
C. All of the above
D. Wheezing

Answer: C — All of the above

Severe airway obstruction is characterized by the inability to breathe effectively, leading to signs such as paradoxical breathing, high-pitched noises on inhalation (stridor), wheezing, and potentially cyanosis if oxygenation is compromised. A forceful cough can indicate a partial obstruction, but these other signs point to a more critical situation.

2. Infant CPR is administered to any child under the age of:

A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 24 months
D. 18 months

Answer: B — 12 months

Infant CPR guidelines typically define an infant as a child under one year of age, excluding newborns. This age distinction is important for applying appropriate techniques, such as two-finger chest compressions and ensuring correct airway positioning.

3. An atraumatic splint could be used for which of the following injuries?

A. An ankle sprain
B. A rib fracture
C. A wrist fracture
D. A mid-shaft femur fracture

Answer: D — A mid-shaft femur fracture

An atraumatic splint, such as a Hare or Sager splint, is designed for immobilizing mid-shaft long bone fractures, particularly the femur, without causing further injury. Ankle sprains, wrist fractures, or rib fractures typically do not require this specialized type of splinting.

4. To flush an eye that has been exposed to a chemical, hold the affected eye:

A. At the same level as the unaffected eye
B. It doesn't matter
C. Lower than the unaffected eye
D. Higher than the unaffected eye

Answer: C — Lower than the unaffected eye

When flushing a chemical from the eye, holding the affected eye lower than the unaffected one allows the contaminated water to drain away from the unaffected eye. This prevents cross-contamination and ensures thorough irrigation of the exposed eye.

5. You find an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing. The scene is safe. What is your next step?

A. Activate the emergency response system
B. Check for a pulse
C. Perform CPR
D. Administer rescue breaths

Answer: A — Activate the emergency response system

Upon finding an unresponsive, non-breathing adult in a safe scene, the immediate priority is to activate the emergency response system (call for help or send someone to do so). This ensures that professional medical assistance is on its way before initiating CPR.

6. Dressings and pads are used to:

A. Help control bleeding and keep germs out
B. Provide warmth
C. All of the above
D. Immobilize injuries

Answer: A — Help control bleeding and keep germs out

Dressings and pads serve a dual purpose: to apply direct pressure to control bleeding and to provide a sterile barrier that prevents pathogens from entering the wound. While they might offer minimal warmth, their primary functions are hemostasis and infection control.

7. What method of manhandling technique would you use if a crew member is unconscious?

A. Simple forward and aft carry
B. Fireman's lift
C. Neither of the above options
D. Both the above options

Answer: D — Both the above options

When a crew member is unconscious, safe and effective extrication requires specific techniques. Both the Fireman's lift and the simple forward and aft carry are recognized methods suitable for moving an incapacitated individual, depending on the situation and rescuer's capability.

8. The treatment for fever is:

A. All of the above
B. Ibuprofen
C. Acetaminophen
D. Aspirin

Answer: C — Acetaminophen

While aspirin and ibuprofen are NSAIDs that can reduce fever, acetaminophen (paracetamol) is often the preferred first-line treatment for fever management, particularly in individuals who may have contraindications to NSAIDs. All can be effective depending on the cause and individual patient factors.

9. Hypovolemic shock results from:

A. A stroke
B. A heart attack
C. An allergic reaction
D. Decreased volume of blood

Answer: D — Decreased volume of blood

Hypovolemic shock occurs when the body loses a significant volume of blood or fluids, leading to a decrease in circulating blood volume and inadequate tissue perfusion. Other causes of shock, such as anaphylactic or cardiogenic shock, stem from different underlying mechanisms.

10. What is the average heartbeat of an adult at rest?

A. 50-60 beats per minute
B. 60-100 beats per minute
C. 120-140 beats per minute
D. 100-120 beats per minute

Answer: B — 60-100 beats per minute

A normal resting heart rate for an adult typically falls within the range of 60 to 100 beats per minute. Rates outside this range may indicate underlying medical conditions or the need for further assessment.

11. Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak, ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises, and cyanosis are signs of:

A. Asthma
B. Pneumonia
C. Severe airway obstruction
D. Heart failure

Answer: C — Severe airway obstruction

The signs described—difficulty breathing, weak cough, wheezing, stridor, and cyanosis—are classic indicators of a severe airway obstruction, which impedes airflow to the lungs. While these symptoms can occur in other conditions, they most directly point to a compromised airway.

12. Which of the following should be done for a crew member experiencing a heat-related illness?

A. Give the victim plenty of fluids to drink
B. All of the above
C. Move the victim to a cool, shaded area
D. Apply cool, wet cloths to the body

Answer: B — All of the above

Managing heat-related illnesses involves a multi-faceted approach including cooling the body with wet cloths, encouraging fluid intake if conscious and able to swallow, and moving the person to a cooler environment. These actions collectively help reduce body temperature and prevent further heat injury.

13. Is it advisable to cover a tourniquet with clothes or bandages?

A. Only in an emergency
B. Yes
C. No
D. It doesn't matter

Answer: C — No

A tourniquet should never be covered with clothing or bandages, as this can obscure the site, impede assessment of its effectiveness, and potentially delay vital medical attention. The tourniquet and the wound site should remain visible for medical personnel.

14. You have a casualty who is not breathing but has injuries to the face that prevent you from performing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation. What do you do?

A. Attempt to open the victim's mouth using a jaw thrust maneuver
B. Give rescue breaths through the nose
C. Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute
D. Call for immediate medical assistance

Answer: C — Perform chest compressions only at a rate of 100-120 per minute

When mouth-to-mouth resuscitation is impossible due to facial injuries, chest compressions are critical for maintaining circulation. Performing continuous chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute is the recommended approach for CPR in such situations according to current guidelines.

15. What do you do after giving rescue breaths to an unconscious adult?

A. Check for a pulse
B. Administer CPR
C. Continue rescue breaths
D. Assess the victim's pupils

Answer: A — Check for a pulse

Following the administration of rescue breaths in unresponsive, non-breathing individuals, the immediate next step is to check for a pulse. This assessment determines whether chest compressions are necessary as part of CPR.

16. Can you use an adult AED on an infant?

A. No
B. Only if the infant is at least 6 months old
C. Yes
D. Only if the infant is at least 1 year old

Answer: A — No

Adult AEDs are not recommended for use on infants under eight years old or weighing less than 55 pounds. Paediatric pads and attenuator devices are designed to deliver a lower energy shock appropriate for infants and children, minimizing the risk of cardiac damage.

17. Difficulty breathing may be a sign of:

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Heart attack
C. All of the above
D. Asthma attack

Answer: C — All of the above

Difficulty breathing is a cardinal sign that can manifest in numerous critical conditions, including cardiac arrest, acute asthma exacerbations, and severe allergic reactions (anaphylaxis). Prompt recognition and intervention are essential for all these possibilities.

18. The type of shock that is caused by a severe infection is called:

A. Septic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Anaphylactic shock

Answer: A — Septic shock

Septic shock is a life-threatening condition caused by a severe infection that triggers a widespread inflammatory response, leading to dangerously low blood pressure and organ dysfunction. While other types of shock involve circulatory issues, septic shock is specifically linked to infection.

19. After discovering a possible fracture, you should assess which of the following before and after splinting?

A. All of the above
B. Level of consciousness, pupil response, and motor function
C. Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate
D. Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation

Answer: D — Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation

Before and after splinting any suspected fracture, it is crucial to assess the '5 Ps': Pain, Pallor, Pulses, Paresthesia (sensation), and Paralysis. Specifically, assessing distal circulation (pulse, capillary refill) and nerve function (sensation) helps ensure the splint is not too tight and does not cause further injury.

20. If you want to be a first aider at work, you should:

A. Get certified in CPR
B. Take a first aid course
C. Arrange for your employer to put you on a first aiders course
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Becoming a competent first aider requires formal training and certification. Taking a recognized first aid course, obtaining CPR certification, and ensuring employer support are all essential steps to be adequately prepared to provide care.

21. When is the best time to administer CPR?

A. As soon as possible after a cardiac incident
B. When the victim's breathing is shallow or labored
C. Only after the victim has been moved to a safe location
D. When the victim's heart rate is below 60 beats per minute

Answer: A — As soon as possible after a cardiac incident

Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is most effective when initiated as soon as possible after a person's heart stops beating (cardiac arrest). Immediate chest compressions are vital to maintain blood flow to the brain and vital organs until advanced medical care can be provided.

22. Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds?

A. Call for medical assistance
B. Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing
C. Control bleeding by applying a tourniquet
D. Elevate the injured limb

Answer: B — Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing

The primary and immediate step in managing bleeding wounds is to apply direct pressure using a clean or sterile dressing to help control hemorrhage. Elevating the limb and applying a tourniquet are secondary measures, used if direct pressure is insufficient for severe bleeding.

23. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/1-1, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Elementary First Aid operations?

A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
B. Verbal recommendation without documentation
C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
D. Applicable only during drydock operations

Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations

STCW Code Table A-VI/1-1 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Elementary First Aid.

24. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Elementary First Aid on board?

A. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
B. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch

Answer: B — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Elementary First Aid operations.

25. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Elementary First Aid?

A. STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
C. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
D. Port State Control advisory note only

Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions

STCW Code Section A-VI/1-1 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Elementary First Aid.

26. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Elementary First Aid tasks, what immediate action is required?

A. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
B. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
C. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
D. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue

Answer: A — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

27. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Elementary First Aid?

A. Once every 5 years during special survey
B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
C. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking

Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)

Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

28. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Elementary First Aid?

A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
B. Verbal update to port agent without logging
C. No written record is required
D. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board

Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters

Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

29. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Elementary First Aid guidelines?

A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
B. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
C. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
D. High-visibility vest only

Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards

Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

30. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Elementary First Aid?

A. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
C. Temperature check only
D. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration

Answer: D — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration

Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

Set 3 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Elementary First Aid?

A. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
C. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits

Answer: A — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies

Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

2. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Elementary First Aid?

A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
B. Bill of Lading description
C. Crew List document
D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Answer: D — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

3. When caring for someone who is allergic to bees and has just been stung, you should:

A. Give them an injection with their Epi-pen
B. Apply a heat pack to ease pain
C. Apply a cold pack
D. Both A and C

Answer: D — Both A and C

If a person with a known severe bee allergy is stung, assist them immediately with their prescribed epinephrine auto-injector (Epi-pen) to prevent anaphylaxis, and apply a cold pack to reduce local swelling and pain.

4. Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are:

A. Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat
B. Swelling of the face, neck, and tongue
C. Rash, dizziness, or confusion
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Signs of an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis include respiratory distress (tightness in chest/throat), angioedema (swelling of face, neck, tongue), skin hives/rashes, and neurological symptoms like dizziness or confusion.

5. When caring for a person who is suffering from heat cramps, you should:

A. Apply cold packs
B. Give cool water or sports drink
C. Have them keep walking slowly to work the cramp out
D. Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation

Answer: B — Give cool water or sports drink

Heat cramps are caused by the depletion of water and electrolytes from heavy sweating. First aid involves resting in a cool environment, gentle stretching, and drinking cool water or electrolyte solutions.

6. What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion?

A. Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin
B. Rapid weak pulse
C. Rapid, shallow breathing
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Heat exhaustion presents with heavy sweating, cool clammy or flushed skin, dizziness, headache, nausea, a rapid and weak pulse, and fast shallow breathing.

7. Which of the following characteristics describe heat stroke?

A. Causes very high body temperature
B. Hot, red, or dry skin
C. Rapid weak pulse and shallow breathing
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Heat stroke is a severe medical emergency characterized by a body temperature above 40°C (104°F), hot red dry or moist skin, rapid weak pulse, and confusion or loss of consciousness.

8. When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should NOT:

A. Soak affected part in warm water (100°F to 105°F)
B. Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm
C. Handle the area gently
D. Avoid breaking blisters

Answer: B — Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm

You must never rub frostbitten skin vigorously, as frozen ice crystals in the tissues will cause severe cellular and tissue damage.

9. Which statement regarding hypothermia is correct?

A. Is not life threatening
B. Victims must be heated up as fast as possible
C. Is caused only by exposure to temperatures below freezing
D. Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70°F (21°C)

Answer: D — Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70°F (21°C)

Hypothermia can develop in water temperatures below 70°F (21°C) because water conducts heat away from the body 25 times faster than air.

10. Snake bites can be very serious. When caring for a snake bite victim, which should you NOT do?

A. Wash the wound gently
B. Apply ice to the bitten area
C. Keep bitten part still and below the heart
D. Get professional medical care promptly

Answer: B — Apply ice to the bitten area

Never apply ice, cold packs, tourniquets, or attempt to cut or suck venom from a snake bite. Keep the victim calm and still with the bite site below heart level.

11. When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths should you give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?

A. Hard and fast
B. Smooth and fast
C. Slowly and gently
D. Long and hard

Answer: C — Slowly and gently

Deliver rescue breaths slowly and gently over 1 second, giving just enough volume to see the chest rise, to prevent gastric inflation and regurgitation.

12. Your role in making the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system work effectively includes which four steps?

A. Elevate, Identify, decide, execute
B. Check, call, care, protect
C. Recognize, decide, call, provide
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Recognize, decide, call, provide

The four key steps in citizen emergency response are: Recognize the emergency, Decide to act, Call emergency services (EMS), and Provide first aid care until help arrives.

13. When should you give rescue breathing?

A. Conscious choking victim
B. Unconscious choking victim
C. Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing
D. Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse

Answer: D — Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse

Rescue breathing is indicated for a patient who is in respiratory arrest (not breathing) but still has a palpable pulse (heart is beating). If there is no pulse, full CPR is required.

14. What would you do if a victim had a severed (amputated) body part?

A. Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze
B. Place the wrapped part in a clean plastic bag
C. Put the sealed plastic bag on ice and take it to the hospital with victim
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Preserve amputated tissue by wrapping it in sterile dressing, sealing in a watertight bag, placing the bag on ice (not submerged directly), and sending it with the patient.

15. What should you do for a victim who is suspected of having internal bleeding?

A. Keep the victim quiet and lying down
B. Bend knees to make them comfortable
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Both A and B

For suspected internal bleeding, keep the casualty resting quietly and lying flat to minimize shock. Bending the knees helps relax the abdominal wall and reduce discomfort.

16. To care for a victim with an open (sucking) chest wound, you should:

A. Cover the wound completely with a sterile absorbent gauze pad
B. Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through
C. Apply an ice pack to the wound
D. Both A and C

Answer: B — Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through

An occlusive or airtight dressing (taped on three sides) must be applied over a sucking chest wound to prevent external air from entering the thoracic cavity.

17. Internal bleeding can be caused by:

A. Trauma and physical injury
B. Medical illness or disease
C. Medications such as blood thinners
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Internal bleeding can occur secondary to blunt or penetrating trauma, medical conditions (e.g. gastrointestinal ulcers), or pharmacological anticoagulation.

18. When caring for a choking infant, what position should the infant be held in?

A. Upside down by the ankles and shoulders
B. Face up on a flat surface
C. Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body
D. Face down on your knee with head higher than the body

Answer: C — Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body

Hold the infant face-down along your forearm, supporting the head and jaw, with the head positioned lower than the trunk to deliver effective back blows.

19. Closed soft tissue wounds should be cared for by:

A. Heat application and elastic bandages
B. Ice application and elevation
C. Applying direct pressure on the area to cut down on bleeding under skin
D. Both B and C

Answer: D — Both B and C

First aid for closed soft tissue injuries uses the RICE protocol: applying cold/ice packs, compression/pressure to minimize swelling and internal bruising, and elevation.

20. What should you do for a chemical burn?

A. Flush with water, dry, and cover
B. Flush with large amounts of water and apply ointment
C. Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives
D. Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives

Answer: D — Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives

Continuous, copious irrigation with cool running water for at least 15 to 20 minutes (or until medical help arrives) is critical to dilute and remove chemical agents.

21. What is the most common reason an infant’s heart stops?

A. Allergies
B. Traumatic injury
C. Breathing and respiratory problems
D. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS)

Answer: C — Breathing and respiratory problems

In infants and young children, cardiac arrest is most frequently the end result of respiratory failure and hypoxia rather than primary cardiac disease.

22. When is it appropriate to move an injured victim?

A. When you need to care for another victim with more critical injuries
B. When the victim is in immediate environmental danger
C. When it is necessary to provide proper lifesaving care
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Casualties should only be moved when immediate danger threatens life (fire, collapse, toxic fumes), to access a more critically injured person, or to deliver effective care (e.g. firm surface for CPR).

23. What do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and you are sure that there is no head, neck, or spine injury?

A. Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward
B. Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly backward
C. Have the victim lie down flat on their back
D. None of the above

Answer: A — Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward

Sit the casualty upright and lean them slightly forward so blood drains outward, preventing blood from entering the airway or being swallowed.

24. Which of the following heat-related illnesses is the most serious?

A. Heat Stroke
B. Heat Exhaustion
C. Heat Cramps
D. Heat Rash

Answer: A — Heat Stroke

Heat stroke is the most severe heat emergency, characterized by thermoregulatory breakdown and core temperature over 40°C, carrying high risk of mortality.

25. To encourage people to help others in emergency situations, laws that protect rescuers from liability when acting in good faith are called:

A. The Good-Will Law
B. The First Aid No-Fault Law
C. The Good Samaritan Law
D. The Rescuer Protection Act

Answer: C — The Good Samaritan Law

Good Samaritan laws protect voluntary first responders and bystanders from legal liability when providing reasonable emergency assistance in good faith.

26. Signals of serious head and spine injuries include:

A. Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose
B. Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spine
C. Seizures, severe headaches, or slurred speech
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Symptoms of severe cranial or spinal trauma include cerebrospinal fluid/blood leakage from ears/nose, anatomical deformities, altered consciousness, seizures, and neurological impairment.

27. Anaphylaxis (severe allergic reaction) is primarily treated with:

A. Analgesic tablet
B. A tablet under the tongue
C. An Epi-pen injection of adrenaline (epinephrine)
D. An injection of insulin

Answer: C — An Epi-pen injection of adrenaline (epinephrine)

Intramuscular epinephrine (adrenaline) via an EpiPen is the lifesaving first-line medical treatment to reverse severe airway bronchospasm and hypotension during anaphylaxis.

28. Which form of hyperthermia (high body temperature illness) is the most severe?

A. Heat stress
B. Heat cramps
C. Heat stroke
D. Heat exhaustion

Answer: C — Heat stroke

Heat stroke represents the most severe form of hyperthermia, causing severe thermoregulatory failure and rapid multi-organ injury without prompt cooling.

29. Standard contents of a marine first aid kit include the following EXCEPT:

A. Micropore tape
B. Macropore
C. Bandages
D. Scissors

Answer: B — Macropore

Standard first aid kits contain micropore surgical tape, bandages, antiseptic dressings, and scissors. 'Macropore' is not a standard first aid supply.

30. What is the most severe type of burn involving deep subcutaneous tissues?

A. 1st degree burn
B. 2nd degree burn
C. 3rd degree burn
D. Superficial burn

Answer: C — 3rd degree burn

Third-degree burns are full-thickness burns that destroy the entire epidermis and dermis and damage underlying fat, muscle, or bone, requiring advanced medical graft care.

Set 4 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. When assessing an unconscious person during the primary survey, you check the following EXCEPT:

A. Airway
B. Circulation
C. Breathing
D. Bleeding point

Answer: D — Bleeding point

The primary survey focuses on immediate ABC life threats (Airway, Breathing, Circulation). Identifying minor bleeding points and fractures is conducted during the secondary survey.

2. Which historical emblem is traditionally associated with First Aid and humanitarian ambulance services?

A. The Maltese cross
B. The cross of Gibraltar
C. The Sudanese cross
D. The cross of the dead

Answer: A — The Maltese cross

The eight-pointed Maltese cross is the historical symbol of the Order of St John and is globally associated with first aid, medical care, and ambulance brigades.

3. What is the proper immediate treatment for heat stroke?

A. Rapid cooling of the body
B. Covering with a blanket
C. Exercise
D. Drinking alcohol

Answer: A — Rapid cooling of the body

Rapid cooling of the body (immersing in cold water, applying wet cold towels, ice packs at neck, groin, and armpits) is the most critical first aid intervention for heat stroke.

4. First aid is required when:

A. A person next to you is injured or suddenly ill
B. A person next to you is already dead
C. A person next to you is behaving normally
D. A person next to you is angry

Answer: A — A person next to you is injured or suddenly ill

First aid is the immediate assistance provided to a person who is injured or experiencing sudden acute illness to preserve life and promote recovery.

5. Severe heat stroke affects the body's vital organs EXCEPT:

A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Kidneys
D. Bones

Answer: D — Bones

Heat stroke causes hyperthermic damage and potential failure of vital visceral organs (brain, heart, kidneys, liver), but does not directly compromise the skeletal bones.

6. The primary objective of first aid is:

A. To diagnose injuries and long-term conditions
B. To determine hospital administrative priorities
C. To give immediate treatment to preserve life and prevent harm
D. To shift patient to hospital without emergency intervention

Answer: C — To give immediate treatment to preserve life and prevent harm

The principal objective of first aid is to provide immediate, temporary basic medical intervention to preserve life, prevent condition deterioration, and promote recovery.

7. What is the primary physiological cause of muscle cramps during physical exertion?

A. Over-exertion, dehydration, or lactic acid buildup due to inadequate oxygen
B. Over-hydration and low salt intake
C. Lack of sleep
D. High carbohydrate diet

Answer: A — Over-exertion, dehydration, or lactic acid buildup due to inadequate oxygen

Muscle cramps occur when muscles are over-exerted in hot conditions, leading to electrolyte imbalance, dehydration, and lactic acid accumulation in muscle fibers.

8. What are the three fundamental aims (3 Ps) of First Aid? Preserve Life, Prevent further harm, and:

A. Promote recovery
B. Provide comfort only
C. Post treatment
D. Prescribe medicines

Answer: A — Promote recovery

The three core principles (3 Ps) of first aid are: 1. Preserve life, 2. Prevent deterioration/further harm, and 3. Promote recovery.

9. What is hypothermia?

A. Abnormally low core body temperature
B. High body temperature
C. Blood vessels moving closer to skin
D. Elevated pulse rate due to heat

Answer: A — Abnormally low core body temperature

Hypothermia is defined as a dangerously low core body temperature (below 35°C or 95°F) resulting from heat loss exceeding the body's rate of heat production.

10. The most effective first aid treatment for chemical burns is to immediately:

A. Apply ointment to the burned area
B. Flood the affected area with water
C. Wrap the burn in a sterile dressing
D. Apply an ice pack to the burned area

Answer: B — Flood the affected area with water

Immediate flooding of the burn area with copious clean running water for at least 15–20 minutes dilutes and flushes away chemical residues, preventing deeper tissue destruction.

11. Effective HIV prevention efforts can be made difficult by all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Physician's ambiguity or reluctance to discuss screening
B. Social stigma and discrimination
C. Language and communication barriers
D. Widespread public awareness and preventive education

Answer: D — Widespread public awareness and preventive education

Public awareness, education, and open health communication facilitate and enhance HIV prevention, while social stigma, language barriers, and lack of clinical dialogue hinder it.

12. In antiretroviral therapy (ART), a second-line therapy regimen is typically composed of a minimum of how many drugs?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 3
D. 10

Answer: C — 3

Standard second-line antiretroviral therapy (ART) protocols recommended by global health bodies (such as the WHO) require a combination of at least 3 active antiretroviral drugs.

13. How many major species (types) of HIV are known to exist?

A. 4
B. 1
C. 2 (HIV-1 and HIV-2)
D. 3

Answer: C — 2 (HIV-1 and HIV-2)

There are two recognized species/types of Human Immunodeficiency Virus: HIV-1 (responsible for the global pandemic) and HIV-2 (primarily localized to West Africa).

14. The window period (seronegative period before antibodies are detectable) can last for up to:

A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months

Answer: A — 3 months

The window period for standard antibody testing is typically up to 3 months (90 days), after which over 99% of infected individuals develop detectable antibodies.

15. The only definitive way to halt the widespread transmission of HIV is through:

A. Through regular treatment of infected persons only
B. Isolation of infected persons
C. Comprehensive prevention and education
D. Avoiding all social contact with infected persons

Answer: C — Comprehensive prevention and education

Prevention through education, safe practices, universal medical precautions, and barrier protection is the most effective approach to preventing the spread of HIV.

16. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by:

A. Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
B. Airborne particles
C. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D. Hepatitis A Virus

Answer: C — Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), a retrovirus that attacks and destroys the CD4+ T cells of the immune system.

17. At what stage following transmission is the highest concentration of virus actively found in the bloodstream?

A. Pre-exposure window period
B. Acute HIV infection stage
C. Latent reservoir stage
D. Clinical latency period

Answer: B — Acute HIV infection stage

During the acute (primary) infection phase, the virus multiplies rapidly, resulting in peak viral loads in the blood and highly increased risk of transmission.

18. What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with HIV/AIDS globally?

A. Pink eye (Conjunctivitis)
B. Sinusitis
C. Tuberculosis (TB)
D. Otitis media

Answer: C — Tuberculosis (TB)

Tuberculosis (TB) is the leading opportunistic infection and the leading cause of death among people living with HIV worldwide.

19. What kind of first aid should be given to a person with frostbite?

A. Give the person a cigarette
B. Heat the affected areas with hot-water bottles
C. Apply hand or body heat to the affected parts skin-to-skin. (e.g. frozen hand in person's opposite armpit)
D. Rub the affected area with alcohol

Answer: C — Apply hand or body heat to the affected parts skin-to-skin. (e.g. frozen hand in person's opposite armpit)

For frostbite, gradual rewarming with body heat (skin-to-skin contact like placing frozen fingers in armpits) is recommended. Never rub affected areas or apply extreme direct dry heat.

20. What does the AMA recommend untrained bystanders do if they witness a cardiac emergency?

A. Call for help but do not perform CPR
B. Nothing
C. Call for help and perform CPR
D. Call for help and perform hands-only CPR

Answer: D — Call for help and perform hands-only CPR

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

21. The ACTION of the drug refers to:

A. The harmful effects
B. The side effects
C. The expected effects
D. The method of administration

Answer: C — The expected effects

The therapeutic action of a medication refers to the intended, expected physiological response and clinical effect produced in the body.

22. You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would:

A. Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight line
B. Roll the victim onto one side
C. Position victim onto one side
D. Attempt to keep the victim from moving

Answer: D — Attempt to keep the victim from moving

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

23. What should you do for a diabetic person who acts confused or irritable?

A. Call the doctor
B. Give sugar to eat or drink
C. Assist by giving a shot of insulin
D. Wait to see if the person improves

Answer: B — Give sugar to eat or drink

An alert diabetic casualty showing confusion, sweating, or irritability is typically experiencing hypoglycemia; administering quick-acting oral carbohydrates (sugar/candy/fruit juice) is the critical first-line aid.

24. Tetanus is a condition:

A. That involves specific infection in the lower jaw
B. That only occurs in the third world
C. That is caused by a virus
D. That can be prevented by immunization

Answer: D — That can be prevented by immunization

Tetanus (caused by Clostridium tetani bacteria entering deep puncture wounds) is an acute toxin-mediated disease that is effectively prevented through active immunization and booster shots.

25. What is the immediate step to be followed when tourniquet is applied?

A. Physicians help
B. Radio medical advice
C. First aid
D. Shock

Answer: B — Radio medical advice

Applying a tourniquet is a critical life-saving measure for uncontrollable limb hemorrhage; radio medical advice or emergency physician consultation must be contacted immediately for surgical evacuation.

26. The most critical factor in defibrillation is:

A. The time from collapse to defibrillation
B. The skill of the AED responder
C. The patient's previous cardiac history
D. The type of defibrillator used

Answer: A — The time from collapse to defibrillation

In cardiac arrest due to shockable rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless VT), time from collapse to defibrillation is the single most critical determinant of casualty survival.

27. A girl is unconscious, she is heavily dressed and her skin is reddish, dry and hot. What should you do?

A. Call medical help, begin CPR
B. Call for help; loosen tight clothing check for breathing and pulse
C. Check for breathing and pulse. Call medical help, get the girl out of the heat, loosen tight clothing, and cool her off any way you can
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Check for breathing and pulse. Call medical help, get the girl out of the heat, loosen tight clothing, and cool her off any way you can

Hot, red, dry skin and altered mental status signal severe heat stroke. Immediate priority is calling emergency services, moving the victim out of the heat, and active rapid cooling.

28. The secondary assessment of the patient consists of a head-to-toe examination and a check of the:

A. Pressure points
B. Procedures for administering CPR
C. Manual stabilization of the head
D. Vital signs

Answer: D — Vital signs

The secondary survey consists of a detailed head-to-toe physical assessment and continuous monitoring of baseline vital signs (pulse, respiration, blood pressure, temperature, pupils).

29. Pelvic fracture can cause severe and even life-threatening bleeding into the:

A. Pelvic areas
B. Abdominal cavities
C. Large intestine
D. A & B

Answer: D — A & B

Pelvic ring fractures frequently cause extensive retroperitoneal and abdominal vascular trauma, resulting in massive, life-threatening internal blood loss.

30. How should you REACT to an emergency?

A. Assess the scene for safety
B. Estimate the number of victims, and call medical help
C. Get the first aid kit and put on personal protective equipment before helping
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is: "All of the above". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

Set 5 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What should you do for a person with an object like a knife, stuck in their leg?

A. Rinse the wound with water, and apply antibiotic ointment and a sterile dressing
B. Quickly remove the object and apply direct pressure to stop the bleeding
C. Always cut the object shorter to make it easier to transport the person
D. Call medical help, control bleeding, and stabilize the object in place

Answer: D — Call medical help, control bleeding, and stabilize the object in place

Never remove an impaled or embedded foreign object at the scene. Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings and bandaging to prevent further tissue and vessel damage.

2. Muscles are attached to the bones by:

A. Ligaments
B. Meninges
C. Cartilage
D. Tendons

Answer: D — Tendons

Tendons are strong fibrous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones, facilitating joint movement and physical locomotion.

3. When performing CPR on a child you give:

A. 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions
B. 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions
C. 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions
D. 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions

Answer: D — 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

4. A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should:

A. Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding
B. Call your local emergency phone number
C. Remove the glass and then control the bleeding
D. Both A and B

Answer: D — Both A and B

Never remove an impaled or embedded foreign object at the scene. Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings and bandaging to prevent further tissue and vessel damage.

5. If someone gets diabetic shock, what do you do?

A. Drive the bus straight to the hospital
B. Ask him where his insulin is and give him a shot
C. Do not give him food or drink
D. Make him comfortable; give him a non-diet drink, candy, or something with sugar in it

Answer: D — Make him comfortable; give him a non-diet drink, candy, or something with sugar in it

6. If Mouth-to-Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. What is the complete rate when performing ECC?

A. Complete 15 compressions at the rate of 80 compressions per minute
B. Complete 20 compressions at the rate of 60 compressions per minute
C. Complete 25 compressions at the rate of 75 compressions per minute
D. Complete 10 compressions at the rate of 40 compressions per minute

Answer: A — Complete 15 compressions at the rate of 80 compressions per minute

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

7. To clear the victim's airway, you should:

A. Push chin down, tilt head back
B. Lift chin up, turn head to the left
C. Lift chin up, tilt head forward
D. Lift chin up, tilt head back

Answer: D — Lift chin up, tilt head back

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

8. A blood-soaked dressing on the arm indicates that bleeding has not yet been controlled. You should now:

A. Remove the dressing and check the wound
B. Apply pressure to the femoral artery
C. Place a clean dressing on top and apply more pressure
D. Apply a tourniquet

Answer: C — Place a clean dressing on top and apply more pressure

When sterile dressings become saturated with blood, do not remove them as this disrupts active clotting; instead, apply additional dressings directly on top and maintain firm pressure.

9. A rapid body survey should take no longer than:

A. 30 seconds
B. 45 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds

Answer: A — 30 seconds

The correct answer is: "30 seconds". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

10. When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult chest thrusts. For an infant you would give back blows and chest thrusts in the ratio of:

A. 3, 3, 3
B. 5, 3, 3
C. 5, 5, 5
D. 3, 5, 5

Answer: C — 5, 5, 5

11. Where is the carotid artery located?

A. Inside the wrist just above the hand
B. On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe
C. Behind the kneecap
D. Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder

Answer: B — On the neck to the right or left of the windpipe

The carotid artery is situated in the anterior neck adjacent to the trachea (windpipe) and is the primary site used to check central pulse in unresponsive adults.

12. A man is having a heart attack, he has medication with him, what should you do?

A. Give the medicine to him, placing it under the tongue. Call medical help
B. Assist him with the medicine. Call medical help, reassure him until help arrives
C. Call medical help, place medicine in mouth and begin CPR
D. Have the victim lay down. Call medical help

Answer: B — Assist him with the medicine. Call medical help, reassure him until help arrives

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

13. Insulin is produced in the:

A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Gall bladder

Answer: C — Pancreas

Insulin is an essential endocrine hormone produced and secreted by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas to regulate blood glucose homeostasis.

14. A casualty has been injured by crushing his hand in an item of machinery. Which of the following should never be done?

A. Give the patient a shot of alcohol to help ease the pain
B. Apply direct pressure to the wound
C. Have the casualty lie down
D. Give the patient some water provided there is no injury to the abdomen

Answer: A — Give the patient a shot of alcohol to help ease the pain

The correct answer is: "Give the patient a shot of alcohol to help ease the pain". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

15. You are part of a team of two First Aiders in a resuscitation situation. What is the rhythm of resuscitation with two First Aiders?

A. 10 compressions within every 3 inflations
B. 5 compressions after every 1 inflation
C. 3 compressions after every 1 inflation
D. 7 inflations before every 5 compressions

Answer: B — 5 compressions after every 1 inflation

The correct answer is: "5 compressions after every 1 inflation". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

16. If Mouth-to-Mouth (M-T-M) ventilation by itself is unsuccessful and the casualty's heart stops, or has stopped beating, you must perform External Chest Compression (ECC) in conjunction with M-T-M. When performing ECC, where do you place your hand on the casualty's body?

A. Place the heel of your two hands on the top of the breastbone
B. Place the heel of your hand on the top of the heart position. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand
C. The correct position of your hands are of no importance
D. Place the heel of one hand, two finger breadths above the bottom of breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand

Answer: D — Place the heel of one hand, two finger breadths above the bottom of breastbone. Cover the hand with the heel of the other hand

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

17. What is meant by an open fracture?

A. One where an end of one of the bones pierces the skin
B. One where more than one bone is involved
C. One where the bone has broken into more than one piece
D. One that occurs at the end of a bone

Answer: A — One where an end of one of the bones pierces the skin

18. What is the rhythm when performing mouth-to-mouth ventilation in combination with chest compressions by one first aider only?

A. 15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations
B. 10 compressions followed by 3 full ventilations
C. 5 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations
D. 20 compressions followed by 5 full ventilations

Answer: A — 15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations

The correct answer is: "15 compressions followed by 2 full ventilations". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

19. After checking for open airway, giving the first two inflations and checking the pulse to make sure that the heart is beating, what is the rate of inflations given until natural breathing is restored?

A. 12 - 16 times per minute
B. 25 - 27 times per minute
C. 10 - 12 times per minute
D. 6 - 8 times per minute

Answer: A — 12 - 16 times per minute

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

20. The acronym SAMPLE stands for signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, past history, and:

A. Location of pain
B. Last bowel movement
C. Last meal
D. Latest related injury

Answer: C — Last meal

SAMPLE is an assessment mnemonic representing Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last oral intake (last meal), and Events leading to injury.

21. Which one of the following is not a system of the body:

A. Respiratory
B. Musculoskeletal
C. Endocrine
D. Follicular

Answer: D — Follicular

The correct answer is: "Follicular". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

22. The most important step in managing shock is to:

A. Keep the patient warm
B. Give CPR as soon as possible
C. Give first aid for the illness or injury
D. Elevate the lower extremities

Answer: C — Give first aid for the illness or injury

Shock represents systemic circulatory failure where tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery are inadequate to meet cellular metabolic demands. Immediate first aid includes bleeding control, warmth, and elevation.

23. A small percentage of casualties with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have a hypoxic drive. These patients breathe because of a:

A. High oxygen level
B. Low oxygen level
C. High carbon dioxide level
D. Low carbon dioxide level

Answer: B — Low oxygen level

The correct answer is: "Low oxygen level". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

24. The emergency responder is one link in the chain of services known as the:

A. Emergency Patient Care (EPC) system
B. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system
C. Professional Emergency Care (PEC) system
D. Community Medical Care (CMC) system

Answer: B — Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system

The correct answer is: "Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

25. The acronym used to assist the emergency responder assessing the patient's level of responsiveness is:

A. SAMPLE
B. EMCA
C. OPQRST
D. AVPU

Answer: D — AVPU

The correct answer is: "AVPU". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

26. An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure to the wound fails to control the bleeding. The correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the:

A. Carotid
B. Radial
C. Femoral
D. Brachial

Answer: D — Brachial

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

27. Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the return of normal color is done to check for:

A. Normal blood circulation to that part
B. The presence of fractured fingers
C. Pain in the area
D. A lack of oxygen in the blood

Answer: A — Normal blood circulation to that part

The correct answer is: "Normal blood circulation to that part". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

28. Which one of the following conditions may mimic the signs of acute alcohol intoxication?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Absence seizures
D. Anaphylactic shock

Answer: A — Hypoglycemia

The correct answer is: "Hypoglycemia". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

29. Which one of the following breathing diseases is included in C.O.P.D.:

A. Croup
B. Hyperventilation
C. Emphysema
D. Dyspnea

Answer: C — Emphysema

The correct answer is: "Emphysema". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

30. A condition where air builds up in the pleural space, collapses the lung and puts pressure on the heart is called:

A. Closed pneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Open pneumothorax

Answer: B — Tension pneumothorax

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

Set 6 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Oxygen humidification is recommended if you are administering oxygen for longer than:

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 90 minutes

Answer: B — 30 minutes

The correct answer is: "30 minutes". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

2. You find a male patient with obvious difficulty breathing. He is using his neck muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red blotches on his chest, and his neck is swelling. You suspect:

A. Anaphylaxis
B. Bronchitis
C. Emphysema
D. Asthma

Answer: A — Anaphylaxis

Tendons are strong fibrous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones, facilitating joint movement and physical locomotion.

3. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR, you should:

A. Hold the casualty's mouth closed
B. Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing air into the casualty
C. Tilt the head back less than for the mouth-to-mouth method of AR
D. Keep the mouth and nose closed between breaths

Answer: A — Hold the casualty's mouth closed

The correct answer is: "Hold the casualty's mouth closed". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

4. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the ratio of compressions to ventilations should be:

A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 30:2
D. 35:2

Answer: C — 30:2

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

5. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway place the flange at the corner of the mouth with the tip reaching:

A. The angle of the patient's jaw
B. The top of the patient's ear
C. The patient's earlobe
D. Two-finger width from the flange

Answer: C — The patient's earlobe

The correct answer is: "The patient's earlobe". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

6. A guideline for normal systolic blood pressure in an adult male would be:

A. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg
B. 65 plus the man's age up to 120 mm Hg
C. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm Hg
D. 100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg

Answer: D — 100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg

The correct answer is: "100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm Hg". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

7. A second dose should be offered to the patient with chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:

A. Before the first dose of nitro
B. After the first dose of nitro
C. After the second dose of nitro
D. After the third dose of nitro

Answer: B — After the first dose of nitro

The correct answer is: "After the first dose of nitro". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

8. When suctioning a non-breathing adult casualty, a first aider should:

A. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip touches the mouth
B. Insert the suction tip deep into the larynx
C. Suction for no more than 15 seconds
D. Insert the tip with the curved side towards the tongue

Answer: C — Suction for no more than 15 seconds

The correct answer is: "Suction for no more than 15 seconds". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

9. A flail chest results when:

A. Three ribs are broken on each side of the chest
B. Part of the spine becomes separated from the ribs
C. The breastbone is broken in three places
D. Several ribs are broken in more than one place

Answer: D — Several ribs are broken in more than one place

Severe thoracic trauma can compromise ventilation. Flail chest involves multiple rib fractures causing paradoxical chest wall motion, requiring urgent stabilization and oxygen therapy.

10. Which of the following devices provides the highest percentage of O2 delivery?

A. Nasal cannula
B. Plastic facemask
C. Partial rebreathing mask
D. Non-rebreathing mask

Answer: D — Non-rebreathing mask

The correct answer is: "Non-rebreathing mask". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

11. Status epilepticus refers to:

A. Normal seizure patterns in epilepsy
B. Seizures caused by a high fever
C. Continuous seizure activity
D. Seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes

Answer: C — Continuous seizure activity

The correct answer is: "Continuous seizure activity". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

12. You suspect a patient's pain is due to myocardial infarction rather than angina because the pain:

A. Is under the sternum
B. Radiates to neck, jaw and arms
C. Is not relieved by rest or medication
D. Lasts for about 3 minutes

Answer: C — Is not relieved by rest or medication

The correct answer is: "Is not relieved by rest or medication". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

13. OPQRST is used to assess:

A. Pain
B. Level of consciousness
C. Vision
D. Hearing

Answer: A — Pain

The correct answer is: "Pain". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

14. The recommended oxygen flow rate for nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:

A. 1-6 litres/min
B. 6-8 litres/min
C. 8-12 litres/min
D. 10-15 litres/min

Answer: A — 1-6 litres/min

The correct answer is: "1-6 litres/min". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

15. When aligning the head in the eyes-front neutral position, watch for:

A. Pulse, movement, sensation
B. Crepitus, pain, resistance
C. Pain, circulation, retention
D. Tingling, numbness, paralysis

Answer: B — Crepitus, pain, resistance

The correct answer is: "Crepitus, pain, resistance". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

16. A conscious casualty who has suffered a stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his airway open and help him breathe, you should:

A. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down
B. Place him in a semi-sitting position
C. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side up
D. Place him on his back

Answer: A — Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down

Unilateral facial droop, slurred speech, and arm drift are classic signs of stroke (cerebrovascular accident). Position the airway open and arrange immediate emergency transport.

17. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder onto a concrete floor. Your first action should be:

A. Take a SAMPLE history
B. Perform a secondary survey
C. Take charge and perform a scene survey
D. Assess the rate and quality of breathing

Answer: C — Take charge and perform a scene survey

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

18. The correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for two-rescuer CPR on a child is:

A. 5:1
B. 15:2
C. 5:2
D. 15:1

Answer: B — 15:2

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

19. To determine whether a c-spine injury has occurred, you should think about the Mechanism of Injury. This can best be described as:

A. The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body
B. The circumstances after the injury
C. The weather conditions at the time of the incident
D. The area of the body that is injured

Answer: A — The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

20. Shock is best defined as:

A. Inadequate circulation to the body's tissues
B. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the lungs
C. Inadequate elimination of waste products from the body
D. Inadequate amount of insulin

Answer: A — Inadequate circulation to the body's tissues

21. The AED will shock a patient:

A. With a sinus rhythm
B. In asystole
C. In ventricular fibrillation
D. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

Answer: C — In ventricular fibrillation

In cardiac arrest due to shockable rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless VT), time from collapse to defibrillation is the single most critical determinant of casualty survival.

22. When transporting a patient, a shock should be administered:

A. Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded
B. Whenever the machine indicates shock necessary
C. When the vehicle is stopped
D. When the vehicle is traveling at less than 20 km per hour

Answer: C — When the vehicle is stopped

23. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:

A. Directly on a pacemaker
B. Two inches away from the pacemaker
C. Within one inch of the pacemaker
D. At least one inch away from the pacemaker

Answer: D — At least one inch away from the pacemaker

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

24. In the hypothermic patient, you should limit the number of shocks to a maximum of:

A. 1 defibrillation attempt
B. 2 defibrillation attempts
C. 3 defibrillation attempts
D. 4 defibrillation attempts

Answer: C — 3 defibrillation attempts

25. You have shocked a casualty and there are signs of circulation. You should:

A. Remove the AED from the scene
B. Leave the AED attached to the casualty
C. Disconnect the cables from the AED
D. Remove the pads from the chest

Answer: D — Remove the pads from the chest

26. The most immediate serious complication associated with burns:

A. Shock
B. Infection
C. Scarring
D. Hypothermia

Answer: A — Shock

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

27. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator when it bursts into flames. The casualty has a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the mouth and nose and both arms are reddened. You should classify this burn as:

A. Critical
B. Superficial
C. Moderate
D. Minor

Answer: A — Critical

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

28. The body surface burned: the area of the palm of the hand represents what percentage of the total body surface?

A. One percent (1%)
B. Two percent (2%)
C. Five percent (5%)
D. Nine percent (9%)

Answer: A — One percent (1%)

29. An abrasion is:

A. Deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding
B. Partial or complete loss of a body part
C. Objects through soft tissue
D. The result of a scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis

Answer: D — The result of a scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis

The correct answer is: "The result of a scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

30. A soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called:

A. A laceration
B. An avulsion
C. A contusion
D. A concussion

Answer: C — A contusion

The correct answer is: "A contusion". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

Set 7 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted:

A. Conduction, convection, evaporation, and refrigeration
B. Submersion, convection, radiation and respiration
C. Flat against the splint
D. In a position of function (holding a roll of bandage/soft fist)

Answer: D — In a position of function (holding a roll of bandage/soft fist)

Proper immobilization with splints stabilizes broken bone ends, reduces severe pain, controls internal bleeding, and prevents neurovascular injury. Assess circulation, sensation, and motor function before and after.

2. Crepitus is:

A. Poor distal circulation
B. A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together
C. A type of splint
D. A type of fracture

Answer: B — A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together

The correct answer is: "A grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

3. In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use:

A. An arm sling supported with broad bandages
B. A St. John tubular sling tie down the injured side
C. A St. John tubular sling tie down the uninjured side
D. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder

Answer: C — A St. John tubular sling tie down the uninjured side

4. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to come out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a:

A. Sprain
B. Fracture
C. Dislocation
D. Strain

Answer: C — Dislocation

The correct answer is: "Dislocation". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

5. After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation:

A. In the injured limb only
B. Distal to the injury
C. Proximal to the injury
D. At the site of the fracture

Answer: B — Distal to the injury

6. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the:

A. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle
B. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle
C. Femur and ankle
D. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle

Answer: A — Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle

The correct answer is: "Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

7. The longest, strongest bone in the body is the:

A. Humerus
B. Fibula
C. Tibia
D. Femur

Answer: D — Femur

The correct answer is: "Femur". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

8. If the patient has an open fracture responders should:

A. Attempt to push bones back into the wound
B. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends
C. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding
D. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site

Answer: B — Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends

9. You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of:

A. Soft spots in the infant's skull
B. Infant's pupils react too differently than adults
C. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully
D. The startle reflex

Answer: A — Soft spots in the infant's skull

The correct answer is: "Soft spots in the infant's skull". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

10. When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped?

A. Chest
B. Pelvis
C. Legs
D. Head

Answer: A — Chest

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

11. Cerebral contusions are:

A. Usually controlled with direct pressure
B. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain
C. Usually associated with scalp lacerations
D. Almost always seen in children

Answer: B — Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain

The correct answer is: "Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

12. Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury:

A. Increase in pulse rate
B. Constant respiratory rate
C. Increase in blood pressure
D. A decrease in blood pressure

Answer: C — Increase in blood pressure

The secondary survey consists of a detailed head-to-toe physical assessment and continuous monitoring of baseline vital signs (pulse, respiration, blood pressure, temperature, pupils).

13. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are:

A. Eye, verbal and motor responses
B. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement
C. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response
D. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement

Answer: A — Eye, verbal and motor responses

The correct answer is: "Eye, verbal and motor responses". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

14. "Raccoon eyes" indicates:

A. Possible eye injury
B. Possible fracture of the jaw
C. Possible scalp laceration
D. Possible head injury

Answer: D — Possible head injury

The correct answer is: "Possible head injury". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

15. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should:

A. Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly
B. Not worry about the spinal injury because the person is mobile
C. Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting
D. Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid for it

Answer: A — Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly

The correct answer is: "Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

16. A skeletal injury to the lower back could result from direct trauma to the:

A. Cervical vertebrae
B. Thoracic vertebrae
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Coccygeal vertebrae

Answer: C — Lumbar vertebrae

The correct answer is: "Lumbar vertebrae". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

17. Which one of the following is a function of the skin?

A. Regulation of oxygen levels
B. Production of proteins
C. Regulation of body temperature
D. Removal of carbon dioxide

Answer: C — Regulation of body temperature

The correct answer is: "Regulation of body temperature". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

18. Urine is expelled from the body through the:

A. Kidneys
B. Bladder
C. Ureters
D. Urethra

Answer: D — Urethra

The correct answer is: "Urethra". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

19. When communicating with patients:

A. Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact
B. Stay as close to the patient as possible
C. Use medical terminology to enhance credibility
D. Hide facts if the situation is serious

Answer: A — Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact

The correct answer is: "Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

20. Remove contact lenses only if:

A. There is a chemical burn to the eye
B. The eyeball is injured
C. Transport time is short
D. The casualty is wearing hard lenses

Answer: A — There is a chemical burn to the eye

The correct answer is: "There is a chemical burn to the eye". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

21. You discover a particle embedded in the casualty's cornea. You should:

A. Remove the particle with a moist corner of a facial tissue or clean cloth
B. Flush the eye with water for 10 minutes
C. Use a splinter forceps to remove the particle
D. Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help

Answer: D — Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help

The correct answer is: "Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

22. Signs and symptoms of intense light burns to the eyes include:

A. Bleeding from the conjunctiva
B. Gritty feeling in the eyes
C. Lacerations to the globe
D. Cataracts formation immediately

Answer: B — Gritty feeling in the eyes

23. Eye injuries that include lacerations:

A. Should be covered with clean, moist dressings
B. Indicate possible skull fracture
C. Usually involve a great deal of bleeding
D. Require moderate pressure on the eye to control bleeding

Answer: C — Usually involve a great deal of bleeding

The correct answer is: "Usually involve a great deal of bleeding". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

24. Irrigate eyes with:

A. Diluted vinegar
B. Saline solution
C. An appropriate chemical antidote
D. Sodium bicarbonate

Answer: B — Saline solution

The correct answer is: "Saline solution". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

25. Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen include:

A. Excessive hunger or thirst
B. Hypertension and bradycardia
C. Distension with rebound tenderness
D. Fever with deep, shallow breathing

Answer: C — Distension with rebound tenderness

The correct answer is: "Distension with rebound tenderness". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

26. Signs that a hernia is serious include:

A. Pain and tenderness at site
B. Pale, ashen skin color at site
C. Hernia can be pushed back into body
D. Hernia is above the diaphragm

Answer: A — Pain and tenderness at site

The correct answer is: "Pain and tenderness at site". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

27. Which one of the following is not crucial in cases of abdominal distress:

A. Establish the exact medical cause of the pain
B. Monitor the patient for signs of hypovolemic shock
C. Be prepared to deal with vomiting
D. Give oxygen by non-rebreather mask

Answer: A — Establish the exact medical cause of the pain

The correct answer is: "Establish the exact medical cause of the pain". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

28. In the case of abdominal evisceration, the emergency responder should:

A. Irrigate the wound before dressing it
B. Give oxygen by nasal cannula
C. Dress the wound with a moist, sterile dressing
D. Gently reposition the organs in the abdominal cavity

Answer: C — Dress the wound with a moist, sterile dressing

The correct answer is: "Dress the wound with a moist, sterile dressing". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

29. "Referred pain":

A. Occurs when the sensation of pain is delayed
B. Results when the two nervous systems come into contact
C. Is pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source
D. Is the description of pain as recorded on the patient care report

Answer: C — Is pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source

The correct answer is: "Is pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

30. Trauma to male and female genitalia:

A. Often involves significant bleeding
B. Is not usually painful because of protected nerve endings
C. Usually results in sterility
D. Often results in post-traumatic infection

Answer: A — Often involves significant bleeding

The correct answer is: "Often involves significant bleeding". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

Set 8 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. The priorities of MCIs (Mass Casualty Incidents) include all but one of the following:

A. Overestimating the resources that may be required
B. Comprehensive individual definitive care of all patients on scene
C. Planning for the positioning of all vehicles
D. Arranging for advanced level care providers at the scene

Answer: B — Comprehensive individual definitive care of all patients on scene

The correct answer is: "Comprehensive individual definitive care of all patients on scene". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

2. To help control bleeding after the baby is born:

A. Pack the vagina with pads
B. Massage the mother's uterus
C. Elevate the mother's legs above heart level
D. Place the mother on her right side

Answer: B — Massage the mother's uterus

The correct answer is: "Massage the mother's uterus". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

3. Crowning occurs:

A. In the first stage of labour
B. In the second stage of labour
C. In the third stage of labour
D. In the fourth stage of pregnancy

Answer: B — In the second stage of labour

The correct answer is: "In the second stage of labour". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

4. When suctioning a newborn you should use:

A. A bulb syringe
B. A V-Vac suction device
C. A straw
D. A battery powered suction device

Answer: A — A bulb syringe

The correct answer is: "A bulb syringe". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

5. One of the most difficult things to assess in infants and young children is:

A. Blood pressure
B. Pain
C. Adequate perfusion
D. Level of consciousness

Answer: B — Pain

The correct answer is: "Pain". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

6. Assessments of children should take into consideration:

A. No splints should be used in calls designed for adult patients
B. Abdominal injuries are less serious since muscles are less developed
C. The skull has not completely fused, so head injuries are uncommon
D. Chest injury is likely to involve organs without damage to ribs

Answer: D — Chest injury is likely to involve organs without damage to ribs

The correct answer is: "Chest injury is likely to involve organs without damage to ribs". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

7. The responder who suspects a child to be the victim of abuse should:

A. Question parents immediately
B. Focus on management of injuries to the child
C. Gather evidence and question bystanders
D. Immediately remove the child from parents or caregivers

Answer: B — Focus on management of injuries to the child

The correct answer is: "Focus on management of injuries to the child". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

8. A child with history of a sore throat, fever and painful swallowing, has breathing difficulties. You should:

A. Arrange for immediate transport to a medical facility
B. Start mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration
C. Stand by and encourage coughing
D. Begin abdominal thrusts

Answer: A — Arrange for immediate transport to a medical facility

The correct answer is: "Arrange for immediate transport to a medical facility". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

9. The mammalian diving reflex refers to:

A. An increase in heart rate and respiration
B. A decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood vessels
C. An increase in heart rate and constriction of pupils
D. A decrease in heart rate and constriction of peripheral blood vessels

Answer: D — A decrease in heart rate and constriction of peripheral blood vessels

The correct answer is: "A decrease in heart rate and constriction of peripheral blood vessels". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

10. Three common scuba related emergencies are:

A. Air embolism, decompression sickness and mammalian reflex
B. Air embolism, decompression sickness and barotrauma
C. Decompression sickness, the bends and barotrauma
D. Air embolism, barotrauma and the squeeze

Answer: B — Air embolism, decompression sickness and barotrauma

The correct answer is: "Air embolism, decompression sickness and barotrauma". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

11. In cases of near drowning:

A. The lungs are often filled with water and require deep suctioning
B. Laryngospasm prevents water from entering the lungs
C. Abdominal thrusts should always be performed before ventilating the patient
D. Manual suction devices are not powerful enough to remove water and fluids from the Airway

Answer: B — Laryngospasm prevents water from entering the lungs

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

12. To reduce the risk of respiratory infection and pneumonia where medical care is delayed, responders should:

A. Have the patient breathe deeply and cough
B. Provide the patient with adequate hydration
C. Position the patient in the position of comfort
D. Ensure the patient is kept warm and at rest

Answer: A — Have the patient breathe deeply and cough

The correct answer is: "Have the patient breathe deeply and cough". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

13. You have been helping in a water rescue when one of the divers begins to have problems. You suspect air embolism. This patient should receive:

A. Oxygen at 15 lpm
B. Oxygen at 6 lpm
C. Epinephrine
D. Inhaled steroids

Answer: B — Oxygen at 6 lpm

The correct answer is: "Oxygen at 6 lpm". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

14. When positioning a patient, responders should consider that:

A. Raising arms and legs will produce swelling
B. Semi-sitting will improve blood flow to the heart
C. Knees raised will reduce pressure on the abdomen
D. Recovery position will often improve breathing

Answer: C — Knees raised will reduce pressure on the abdomen

The correct answer is: "Knees raised will reduce pressure on the abdomen". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

15. When caring for wounds over extended periods, always:

A. Remove dressings and bandages regularly to check the wound
B. Clean wounds with antiseptic before applying dressings
C. Apply a tourniquet to prevent excessive bleeding
D. Check regularly for signs of infection or reduced circulation

Answer: D — Check regularly for signs of infection or reduced circulation

The correct answer is: "Check regularly for signs of infection or reduced circulation". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

16. When administering medication, responders should consider that:

A. Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, and right method
B. Right nutrition, right method, right time, right person, right amount
C. Right medication, right action, right person, right time, right responsibility
D. Right medication, right amount, right person, right responsibility, right action

Answer: A — Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, and right method

The correct answer is: "Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, and right method". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

17. Lividity refers to:

A. Stiffening of the joints postmortem
B. Cooling of the body postmortem
C. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity
D. The beginning signs of decomposition

Answer: C — Settling of blood in the body due to gravity

The correct answer is: "Settling of blood in the body due to gravity". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

18. Later signs of death include:

A. Staining, milky corneas and flushed skin
B. Staining, lividity and decomposition
C. Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas
D. Rigor mortis, flushed skin and decomposition

Answer: C — Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas

The correct answer is: "Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

19. Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical shock. The first thing to do is:

A. Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing
B. Ask a bystander to help you move the victim
C. Place the victim on one side with the head down
D. Make sure the power is turned off

Answer: D — Make sure the power is turned off

20. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most likely wrong?

A. He is having a seizure
B. He has internal bleeding
C. He is having a heart attack
D. He is having a diabetic emergency

Answer: B — He has internal bleeding

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

21. You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool water if:

A. The burns are very deep
B. There are burns with open blisters
C. The burns are minor with no open blisters
D. You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above

Answer: D — You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

22. In general a splint should be:

A. Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured limb
B. Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation
C. Tied with cravats over the injured area
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation

23. A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is breathing fast and seems pale and restless. He is probably:

A. Having a stroke
B. Having a heart attack
C. In shock
D. Choking

Answer: C — In shock

The correct answer is: "In shock". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

24. You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. Your first call should be to:

A. The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number
B. The victim's physician
C. The hospital emergency department
D. The local pharmacy

Answer: A — The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number

The correct answer is: "The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

25. Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim?

A. Remove nearby objects that might cause injury
B. Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the victim's teeth
C. Try to hold the person still
D. All of the above

Answer: A — Remove nearby objects that might cause injury

The correct answer is: "Remove nearby objects that might cause injury". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

26. Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when:

A. You have to move or transport the victim
B. You can do so without hurting the victim
C. You have splinting materials available
D. Both A and B

Answer: D — Both A and B

Tendons are strong fibrous connective tissues that attach skeletal muscles to bones, facilitating joint movement and physical locomotion.

27. For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your local emergency phone number?

A. A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee
B. A 68 year old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and arms
C. A 26 year old woman who has sunburn on her shoulders
D. All of the above

Answer: B — A 68 year old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and arms

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

28. A 15 year old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would:

A. Cover the burned area
B. Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives
C. Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives
D. Immediately drive the victim to the hospital

Answer: C — Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance arrives

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

29. Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing?

A. To prevent infection
B. To cool burned area
C. To keep the burned area warm
D. Both A and C

Answer: A — To prevent infection

When sterile dressings become saturated with blood, do not remove them as this disrupts active clotting; instead, apply additional dressings directly on top and maintain firm pressure.

30. A woman has fallen and turned her ankle. She says she heard something snap. She looks pale and is sweating. What should you do?

A. Have the victim walk on the injured ankle
B. Care for the injury as if it were serious
C. Apply heat and elevate the injury
D. Apply a dressing and loosely bandage

Answer: B — Care for the injury as if it were serious

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

Set 9 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What does 'A' stand for in the acronym DRABC?

A. Ambulance
B. Alert
C. Airway
D. Accident

Answer: C — Airway

The correct answer is: "Airway". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

2. What is the best way to control bleeding?

A. Direct pressure
B. Use of a tourniquet
C. Elevation
D. Pressure points

Answer: A — Direct pressure

The correct answer is: "Direct pressure". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

3. A burn should be immersed or placed under water for at least:

A. 5 min
B. 10 min
C. 15 min
D. 20 min

Answer: B — 10 min

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

4. The symptoms of shock include:

A. Low blood pressure
B. Rapid, shallow breathing
C. Rapid, weak pulse
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

5. When caring for someone who has suffered an electric shock, you would not:

A. Check breathing and pulse
B. Check for possible fractures
C. Cool the burned areas
D. Treat for shock

Answer: B — Check for possible fractures

6. Fluid should not be given by mouth when internal injury is suspected:

A. Ears
B. Nose
C. IV injections
D. Mouth

Answer: D — Mouth

The correct answer is: "Mouth". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

7. How should you open the airway of an unconscious casualty?

A. Head tilt and chin lift
B. Jaw thrust
C. Head tilt and jaw thrust
D. Lift the chin

Answer: A — Head tilt and chin lift

The correct answer is: "Head tilt and chin lift". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

8. What steps would you take to control bleeding from a nosebleed?

A. Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose
B. Sit casualty down, lean backward and pinch soft part of nose
C. Lie casualty down and pinch soft part of nose
D. Lie casualty down and pinch top of the nose

Answer: A — Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose

The correct answer is: "Sit casualty down, lean forward and pinch soft part of nose". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

9. What is fainting?

A. A response to fear
B. An unexpected collapse
C. A brief loss of consciousness
D. A sign of flu

Answer: C — A brief loss of consciousness

The correct answer is: "A brief loss of consciousness". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

10. What is the definition of "hurry cases"?

A. Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
B. Any condition that threatens victim's life
C. Any illness where the victim vomits
D. Any accident requiring arm sling

Answer: B — Any condition that threatens victim's life

The correct answer is: "Any condition that threatens victim's life". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

11. An unconscious casualty is lying on their back and has a broken leg, what position is best for the casualty?

A. Leave them as they are
B. Sitting up position
C. Recovery position
D. Lying down with the legs raised

Answer: C — Recovery position

The correct answer is: "Recovery position". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

12. To treat a first degree burn you should:

A. Apply a good quality burn cream or ointment
B. Clean the area thoroughly with hot soapy water
C. Apply a constricting band between the burn and the heart
D. Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain

Answer: D — Apply cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain

Burn care prioritizes cooling with clean, running water, preventing hypothermia, covering with sterile dry/non-stick dressings to minimize infection, and treating for shock.

13. What should a casualty with a severe allergy carry at all times?

A. Insulin
B. HCQ
C. Adrenaline
D. Aspirin

Answer: C — Adrenaline

The correct answer is: "Adrenaline". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

14. What is the ratio of compressions to breaths when performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)?

A. 15 breaths : 1 compression
B. 20 breaths : 2 compressions
C. 30 compressions : 2 breaths
D. 30 breaths : 2 compressions (adults) & 15 breaths : 1 compression (children)

Answer: C — 30 compressions : 2 breaths

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

15. Which of the following includes the top layers of skin and involves blistering?

A. First degree burn
B. Second degree burn
C. Third degree burn
D. All of the above

Answer: B — Second degree burn

The correct answer is: "Second degree burn". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

16. When dealing with an unconscious casualty we should check up to how long for normal breathing?

A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Answer: B — 10 seconds

The correct answer is: "10 seconds". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

17. What is the best method of avoiding accidents in the workplace?

A. By wearing safety equipment
B. Doing things in one's own way
C. By observing safety precautions
D. Doing things with highly skilled working practice

Answer: C — By observing safety precautions

The correct answer is: "By observing safety precautions". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

18. What will be the effect if a person shows the symptoms of drowsiness?

A. Activeness
B. Laziness
C. Conscious
D. Unconscious

Answer: D — Unconscious

The correct answer is: "Unconscious". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

19. Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury?

A. Always wearing a safety belt when working
B. Limiting intake of alcohol
C. Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol
D. Both A and B

Answer: D — Both A and B

20. A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels under the skin is called:

A. A scrape
B. A cut
C. A bruise
D. An avulsion

Answer: C — A bruise

The correct answer is: "A bruise". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

21. When performing CPR on an adult how deep should the chest compression be?

A. 1 1/2 inches
B. 2 inches
C. 2 1/2 inches
D. 3 inches

Answer: B — 2 inches

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

22. When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand you should:

A. Remove the object, flush with cold water and transport to hospital
B. Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it
C. Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it

Never remove an impaled or embedded foreign object at the scene. Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings and bandaging to prevent further tissue and vessel damage.

23. A victim is coughing up blood with bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the abdomen. Pulse is weak and rapid. The victim is showing signs of:

A. Massive head injuries
B. Internal bleeding
C. Drug overdose
D. Possible poisoning

Answer: B — Internal bleeding

The correct answer is: "Internal bleeding". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

24. How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for open bleeding wounds?

A. Wash your hands immediately after giving care
B. Avoid direct contact with the blood
C. Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

25. You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for:

A. An accident involving a lightning strike
B. A person found unconscious for unknown reasons
C. A fall from a height greater than the victim's height
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

When a casualty is found injured after a fall, suspect spinal trauma and minimize any movement to avoid secondary neurological injury while waiting for medical assistance.

26. The accepted treatment for a femur or thigh fracture is:

A. Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
B. This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training
C. Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
D. Bind both legs with two long splints using two cravats, one above and one below the break

Answer: B — This type of fracture is best handled by a traction splint applied by those with special training

27. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:

A. Remove the shoe and check for swelling using the capillary reflex method
B. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
C. Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle splint and apply heat if possible
D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness

Answer: B — Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels

The correct answer is: "Keep the shoe on, apply an ankle bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

28. A crew has his finger severed off, what action would be the best?

A. Put the severed end of the finger back in place, wrap entire finger in sterile gauze and transport to hospital immediately
B. Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice and transport both finger and the victim to the hospital
C. Place the severed finger in a plastic bag, have the crew place the bag under his armpit and transport immediately to the hospital
D. Place a tourniquet at the stub where the finger severed to control bleeding and transport to hospital immediately

Answer: B — Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice and transport both finger and the victim to the hospital

The correct answer is: "Wrap the severed finger in sterile gauze, place it in a plastic bag, put the bag on ice and transport both finger and the victim to the hospital". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

29. When performing CPR on a child how deep should the chest compression be?

A. 1 1/2 inches
B. 2 inches
C. 2 1/2 inches
D. 3 inches

Answer: A — 1 1/2 inches

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

30. Which of the following techniques is not suitable for moving an unconscious victim?

A. Improvised stretcher
B. Four-handed seat carry
C. Two-person carry
D. Blanket drag

Answer: B — Four-handed seat carry

The correct answer is: "Four-handed seat carry". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

Set 10 — 21 EFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following correctly describes the CPR technique for an adult?

A. Four cycles of 15 compressions followed by one breath each minute
B. One cycle of one breath and 10 compressions each 2 to 3 inches deep per minute
C. Twelve cycles of one breath and 5 compressions per minute
D. Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute

Answer: D — Four cycles of two breaths and 15 compressions per minute

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

2. Severe bleeding is a "hurry case". Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Bleeding can seldom be stopped with direct pressure
B. A tourniquet is almost always required to control serious bleeding
C. Should the first sterile pad used become blood soaked, immediately remove it and apply another
D. Try to avoid direct contact with blood by using gloves or clean barrier

Answer: D — Try to avoid direct contact with blood by using gloves or clean barrier

The correct answer is: "Try to avoid direct contact with blood by using gloves or clean barrier". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

3. You have a casualty that is muttering to themselves but not making any sense. The face appears to be drooping on one side. What might be wrong with them?

A. They are having a heart attack
B. They are in shock after witnessing an accident
C. They may be having a stroke
D. None of the above

Answer: C — They may be having a stroke

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

4. What damage could occur if a first aider's hands are placed at the tip of the sternum (xiphoid process) during heart compressions?

A. The patient may vomit as his stomach is squeezed
B. The lungs may be punctured leading to severe loss of breath
C. The ribs might be cracked
D. The liver might be torn leading to severe internal bleeding

Answer: C — The ribs might be cracked

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

5. The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is:

A. Tea
B. Coffee
C. Whiskey and water
D. Ammonia inhalant

Answer: D — Ammonia inhalant

The correct answer is: "Ammonia inhalant". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

6. If someone suffers a heart attack and has ceased breathing, you should:

A. Immediately give stimulant by force if necessary
B. Make the victim comfortable in a bunk
C. Immediately start CPR
D. Administer oxygen

Answer: C — Immediately start CPR

The human ear comprises the outer, middle, and inner ear, serving the dual sensory functions of acoustic hearing and vestibular balance (equilibrium).

7. A comminuted fracture is one where the bone has:

A. Broken into pieces which are floating
B. Broken where only part of the bone is fractured
C. Broken cleanly with each end attached
D. Broken and is affecting muscles and nerves

Answer: A — Broken into pieces which are floating

8. In order to initiate CPR on a drowning victim:

A. Start chest compressions before the victim is removed from the water
B. Drain water from the lungs before ventilating
C. Begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation
D. Do not tilt the head back since it may cause vomiting

Answer: C — Begin mouth-to-mouth ventilation

9. Some people are very allergic to insect bites and stings. The condition is called:

A. Septic shock
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Anaphylactic shock

Answer: D — Anaphylactic shock

The correct answer is: "Anaphylactic shock". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

10. The goal of medical first aid service on board is to:

A. Satisfactory treatment of male seamen
B. Provide treatment for those in need of urgent medical care
C. To provide help to seamen in time of financial need
D. To provide help in the sea of disabled people

Answer: B — Provide treatment for those in need of urgent medical care

The correct answer is: "Provide treatment for those in need of urgent medical care". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

11. When performing abdominal thrusts, how many thrusts do you do in a series?

A. 1 to 5 thrusts
B. 6 to 10 thrusts
C. 15 to 20 thrusts
D. 30 to 40 thrusts

Answer: B — 6 to 10 thrusts

The correct answer is: "6 to 10 thrusts". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

12. What does the ABC of first aid stand for?

A. The letters in the alphabet
B. Air, breathing, circulation
C. Airway, breathing, circulation
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Airway, breathing, circulation

The correct answer is: "Airway, breathing, circulation". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

13. If a person is choking you should do nothing as long as:

A. They are coughing
B. They are still conscious
C. Their face has not turned blue
D. They start crying

Answer: A — They are coughing

The correct answer is: "They are coughing". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

14. Before giving CPR you should make sure:

A. They are not bleeding
B. They are conscious or unconscious / unresponsiveness is confirmed
C. They are not vomiting
D. They are not dead

Answer: B — They are conscious or unconscious / unresponsiveness is confirmed

15. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?

A. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
B. 15 compressions then 4 inflations
C. 30 compressions then 2 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

Answer: C — 30 compressions then 2 inflations

Untrained bystanders witnessing sudden cardiac arrest are advised to call emergency services and perform hands-only chest compressions to maintain vital organ perfusion until help arrives.

16. Advanced communications system and technology stipulated by WHO where medical advice can be sought by:

A. Telemedicine
B. Satellite communication
C. Radio Medical Advice (RMA)
D. Compulsory onboard specialized

Answer: C — Radio Medical Advice (RMA)

The correct answer is: "Radio Medical Advice (RMA)". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

17. Which of the following is not a good approach to managing stress:

A. Talking directly to the person who is causing the stress
B. Giving yourself a treat like comfort food or a cocktail
C. Accepting that there are things beyond your control
D. Trying cognitive therapy to learn new coping skills

Answer: B — Giving yourself a treat like comfort food or a cocktail

The correct answer is: "Giving yourself a treat like comfort food or a cocktail". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

18. A high-fiber, low-fat diet and regular exercise can help to:

A. Increase CVD
B. Increase weight
C. Lose weight / maintain cardiovascular health
D. None

Answer: C — Lose weight / maintain cardiovascular health

The correct answer is: "Lose weight / maintain cardiovascular health". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

19. Which of the following is a laboratory procedure developed to provide an objective behavioural measure of the tendency to binge eat?

A. Palatability test
B. Food pre-load test
C. Full capacity test
D. Fully loaded test

Answer: B — Food pre-load test

The correct answer is: "Food pre-load test". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

20. Pick one of the following familial factors that plays a role in the development of eating disorders:

A. Parental attitudes to sex
B. Parental obesity
C. Parental attitudes to the media
D. Parental attitudes to education

Answer: B — Parental obesity

The correct answer is: "Parental obesity". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

21. Body dissatisfaction is associated with triggering bouts of:

A. Purging
B. Binging
C. Dieting
D. Shopping

Answer: C — Dieting

The correct answer is: "Dieting". This aligns with maritime first aid standards, DG Shipping exam syllabi, and international emergency resuscitation guidelines.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these EFA questions as a timed paper EFA exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses

EFA exit exam questions and answers

Set 1 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 3 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

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Set 8 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 9 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 10 — 21 EFA exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 1 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

Set 2 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

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Set 4 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

Set 5 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

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Set 8 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

Set 9 — 30 EFA exit exam questions with answers

Set 10 — 21 EFA exit exam questions with answers