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MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 1

Set 1 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 60 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the main objective of the STCW Medical Care (MC) course under Regulation VI/4-2?

  • A. Train designated officers to provide advanced medical care, administer drugs, and coordinate Radio Medical Advice (RMA)
  • B. Basic hand washing
  • C. Certify hospital surgeons
  • D. Galley cooking
Answer: A — Train designated officers to provide advanced medical care, administer drugs, and coordinate Radio Medical Advice (RMA)
STCW Medical Care equips officers to manage severe trauma and medical emergencies at sea.

2. What international publication serves as primary medical guide on merchant ships?

  • A. Dictionary
  • B. Gray's Anatomy
  • C. International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
  • D. Merck Index
Answer: C — International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
IMGS provides standardized medical treatment guidelines for seafarers.

3. What information must be prepared before contacting Radio Medical Advice (RMA)?

  • A. Fuel remaining
  • B. Patient vital signs (Pulse, BP, Temp, Respiration), medical history, symptoms, and current medicine
  • C. Weather forecast
  • D. Passport number
Answer: B — Patient vital signs (Pulse, BP, Temp, Respiration), medical history, symptoms, and current medicine
Structured vital signs allow tele-medical doctors to give accurate diagnostic treatment orders.

4. What intramuscular (IM) injection site is safest for adult patients?

  • A. Upper outer quadrant of Gluteal muscle (buttock) or Deltoid muscle (shoulder)
  • B. Elbow joint
  • C. Knee center
  • D. Heel of foot
Answer: A — Upper outer quadrant of Gluteal muscle (buttock) or Deltoid muscle (shoulder)
Upper outer gluteal quadrant avoids the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels.

5. What is recommended CPR compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult cardiac arrest?

  • A. 10:10
  • B. 5 compressions to 1 breath
  • C. 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths
  • D. 50:5
Answer: C — 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths
Standard CPR protocol mandates 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths.

6. What splint is designed to immobilize fractured femur (thigh bone) fractures?

  • A. Finger splint
  • B. Thomas Traction Splint
  • C. Wooden ruler
  • D. Inflatable arm splint
Answer: B — Thomas Traction Splint
Thomas splints apply longitudinal traction, reducing hemorrhage from broken femurs.

7. What immediate treatment is given for severe arterial bleeding on an arm?

  • A. Direct pressure over wound with sterile dressing, elevation of limb, and pressure dressing
  • B. Hot grease
  • C. Seawater wash
  • D. Ice block
Answer: A — Direct pressure over wound with sterile dressing, elevation of limb, and pressure dressing
Direct pressure over bleeding site is the fastest control for arterial hemorrhage.

8. What medical guide provides instructions for treating chemical poisoning on ships?

  • A. Load Line
  • B. MARPOL Annex IV
  • C. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
  • D. COLREG 1972
Answer: C — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
MFAG provides chemical antidote tables and toxic casualty management.

9. What condition is characterized by crushing chest pain radiating to left arm and sweating?

  • A. Ankle sprain
  • B. Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack) / Angina Pectoris
  • C. Appendicitis
  • D. Food poisoning
Answer: B — Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack) / Angina Pectoris
Substernal crushing chest pain radiating to left arm is classic myocardial infarction.

10. What drug is given sublingually (under tongue) for rapid relief of acute angina chest pain?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) / Nitroglycerin
  • C. Aspirin
  • D. Penicillin
Answer: B — Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) / Nitroglycerin
GTN dilates coronary arteries rapidly when absorbed under the tongue.

11. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/4-2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board operations?

  • A. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • B. Applicable only during drydock operations
  • C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • D. Optional adherence based on vessel size
Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/4-2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Medical Care on Board.

12. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Medical Care on Board on board?

  • A. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
  • B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • C. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
Answer: A — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Medical Care on Board operations.

13. What is normal resting heart rate (pulse) for a healthy adult?

  • A. 60 to 100 beats per minute
  • B. 20-30 bpm
  • C. 150-200 bpm
  • D. 120 bpm
Answer: A — 60 to 100 beats per minute
Normal adult resting pulse ranges between 60 and 100 bpm.

14. What is normal blood pressure for an adult patient?

  • A. 200/120 mmHg
  • B. 120/80 mmHg
  • C. 300/150 mmHg
  • D. 70/40 mmHg
Answer: B — 120/80 mmHg
Systolic ~120 mmHg and Diastolic ~80 mmHg represent normal baseline BP.

15. What is the primary danger of severe burns covering over 20% of body surface area?

  • A. Tooth loss
  • B. High blood sugar
  • C. Severe hypovolemic shock due to fluid/plasma loss and infection
  • D. Ankle swelling
Answer: C — Severe hypovolemic shock due to fluid/plasma loss and infection
Major burns leak plasma rapidly, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation.

16. What method estimates total body surface area (TBSA) burned in adult patients?

  • A. Beaufort Scale
  • B. Richter Scale
  • C. Wallace Rule of Nines
  • D. Glasgow Coma Scale
Answer: C — Wallace Rule of Nines
The Rule of Nines divides body areas into multiples of 9% to assess burn severity.

17. What is first step in treating heat stroke (core temp > 40°C)?

  • A. Wool blankets
  • B. Sauna
  • C. Hot coffee
  • D. Move victim to cool space, remove clothing, spray cool water, apply ice packs to groin/axillae
Answer: D — Move victim to cool space, remove clothing, spray cool water, apply ice packs to groin/axillae
Rapid external cooling reduces dangerous body core temperatures to prevent brain damage.

18. What instrument is used to examine ear canal and eardrum?

  • A. Otoscope
  • B. Stethoscope
  • C. Ophthalmoscope
  • D. Sphygmomanometer
Answer: A — Otoscope
Otoscopes illuminate and magnify the ear canal and tympanic membrane.

19. What condition is suspected if patient has right lower quadrant abdominal pain and fever?

  • A. Stroke
  • B. Asthma
  • C. Migraine
  • D. Acute Appendicitis
Answer: D — Acute Appendicitis
Right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness indicates acute appendicitis.

20. What technique opens airway of an unconscious victim without suspected spinal injury?

  • A. Turning head upside down
  • B. Slapping back
  • C. Flexing neck
  • D. Head-tilt / Chin-lift maneuver
Answer: D — Head-tilt / Chin-lift maneuver
Head-tilt/chin-lift lifts tongue away from back of throat, opening airway.

21. What airway technique is mandatory if spinal injury is suspected in unconscious casualty?

  • A. Extreme head-tilt
  • B. Sitting upright
  • C. Jaw-thrust maneuver without tilting head
  • D. Twisting neck
Answer: C — Jaw-thrust maneuver without tilting head
Jaw-thrust opens airway while maintaining neutral spinal alignment.

22. What class of medication is Morphine Sulphate, and how must it be stored on board?

  • A. Narcotic analgesic (controlled drug); stored in locked safe with key kept by Master
  • B. Antibiotic
  • C. Vitamin
  • D. Antacid
Answer: A — Narcotic analgesic (controlled drug); stored in locked safe with key kept by Master
Morphine is a controlled narcotic requiring secure safe storage and log entries.

23. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Medical Care on Board?

  • A. STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • B. Port State Control advisory note only
  • C. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • D. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Medical Care on Board.

24. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • B. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • C. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
  • D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

25. What scale assesses patient level of consciousness based on Eye, Verbal, and Motor responses?

  • A. Apgar Score
  • B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
  • C. Beaufort Scale
  • D. Pain Scale
Answer: B — Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
GCS scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully conscious), quantifying neurological state.

26. What is primary treatment for severe hypothermia (core temp < 30°C)?

  • A. Force running
  • B. Handle gently, remove wet clothes, wrap in warm insulation, rewarm core gradually
  • C. Alcohol drinks
  • D. Boiling bath
Answer: B — Handle gently, remove wet clothes, wrap in warm insulation, rewarm core gradually
Gentle gradual rewarming avoids cardiac ventricular fibrillation caused by cold blood surge.

27. What bandage immobilizes a fractured collarbone (clavicle)?

  • A. Tourniquet
  • B. Finger splint
  • C. Figure-of-eight bandage or Arm sling with broad collar-and-cuff
  • D. Adhesive plaster
Answer: C — Figure-of-eight bandage or Arm sling with broad collar-and-cuff
Figure-of-eight bandages pull shoulders back, holding clavicle fragments aligned.

28. What is Anaphylactic Shock?

  • A. Mental shock
  • B. Muscle cramp
  • C. Life-threatening severe allergic reaction causing airway swelling and blood pressure drop
  • D. Electric shock
Answer: C — Life-threatening severe allergic reaction causing airway swelling and blood pressure drop
Anaphylaxis requires immediate intramuscular Epinephrine (Adrenaline 1:1000) administration.

29. What emergency drug is administered IM immediately for Anaphylactic Shock?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
  • C. Vitamin C
  • D. Aspirin
Answer: B — Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
Adrenaline relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and reverses vasodilation in anaphylactic collapse.

30. What condition is indicated by facial drooping, arm weakness, and slurred speech?

  • A. Malaria
  • B. Seasickness
  • C. Kidney stone
  • D. Acute Stroke / Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
Answer: D — Acute Stroke / Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) identifies acute stroke symptoms.

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