Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home
Answer Key

MC exit exam questions and answers

All 60 questions from the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these MC questions MC mock exit exam, 30 marks MC exit exam sets and syllabus

60 of 60 shown

Nothing in this key matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 1 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the main objective of the STCW Medical Care (MC) course under Regulation VI/4-2?

  • A. Train designated officers to provide advanced medical care, administer drugs, and coordinate Radio Medical Advice (RMA)
  • B. Basic hand washing
  • C. Certify hospital surgeons
  • D. Galley cooking
Answer: A — Train designated officers to provide advanced medical care, administer drugs, and coordinate Radio Medical Advice (RMA)
STCW Medical Care equips officers to manage severe trauma and medical emergencies at sea.

2. What international publication serves as primary medical guide on merchant ships?

  • A. Dictionary
  • B. Gray's Anatomy
  • C. International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
  • D. Merck Index
Answer: C — International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
IMGS provides standardized medical treatment guidelines for seafarers.

3. What information must be prepared before contacting Radio Medical Advice (RMA)?

  • A. Fuel remaining
  • B. Patient vital signs (Pulse, BP, Temp, Respiration), medical history, symptoms, and current medicine
  • C. Weather forecast
  • D. Passport number
Answer: B — Patient vital signs (Pulse, BP, Temp, Respiration), medical history, symptoms, and current medicine
Structured vital signs allow tele-medical doctors to give accurate diagnostic treatment orders.

4. What intramuscular (IM) injection site is safest for adult patients?

  • A. Upper outer quadrant of Gluteal muscle (buttock) or Deltoid muscle (shoulder)
  • B. Elbow joint
  • C. Knee center
  • D. Heel of foot
Answer: A — Upper outer quadrant of Gluteal muscle (buttock) or Deltoid muscle (shoulder)
Upper outer gluteal quadrant avoids the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels.

5. What is recommended CPR compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult cardiac arrest?

  • A. 10:10
  • B. 5 compressions to 1 breath
  • C. 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths
  • D. 50:5
Answer: C — 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths
Standard CPR protocol mandates 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths.

6. What splint is designed to immobilize fractured femur (thigh bone) fractures?

  • A. Finger splint
  • B. Thomas Traction Splint
  • C. Wooden ruler
  • D. Inflatable arm splint
Answer: B — Thomas Traction Splint
Thomas splints apply longitudinal traction, reducing hemorrhage from broken femurs.

7. What immediate treatment is given for severe arterial bleeding on an arm?

  • A. Direct pressure over wound with sterile dressing, elevation of limb, and pressure dressing
  • B. Hot grease
  • C. Seawater wash
  • D. Ice block
Answer: A — Direct pressure over wound with sterile dressing, elevation of limb, and pressure dressing
Direct pressure over bleeding site is the fastest control for arterial hemorrhage.

8. What medical guide provides instructions for treating chemical poisoning on ships?

  • A. Load Line
  • B. MARPOL Annex IV
  • C. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
  • D. COLREG 1972
Answer: C — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
MFAG provides chemical antidote tables and toxic casualty management.

9. What condition is characterized by crushing chest pain radiating to left arm and sweating?

  • A. Ankle sprain
  • B. Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack) / Angina Pectoris
  • C. Appendicitis
  • D. Food poisoning
Answer: B — Myocardial Infarction (Heart Attack) / Angina Pectoris
Substernal crushing chest pain radiating to left arm is classic myocardial infarction.

10. What drug is given sublingually (under tongue) for rapid relief of acute angina chest pain?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) / Nitroglycerin
  • C. Aspirin
  • D. Penicillin
Answer: B — Glyceryl Trinitrate (GTN) / Nitroglycerin
GTN dilates coronary arteries rapidly when absorbed under the tongue.

11. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/4-2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board operations?

  • A. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • B. Applicable only during drydock operations
  • C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • D. Optional adherence based on vessel size
Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/4-2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Medical Care on Board.

12. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Medical Care on Board on board?

  • A. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
  • B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • C. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
Answer: A — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Medical Care on Board operations.

13. What is normal resting heart rate (pulse) for a healthy adult?

  • A. 60 to 100 beats per minute
  • B. 20-30 bpm
  • C. 150-200 bpm
  • D. 120 bpm
Answer: A — 60 to 100 beats per minute
Normal adult resting pulse ranges between 60 and 100 bpm.

14. What is normal blood pressure for an adult patient?

  • A. 200/120 mmHg
  • B. 120/80 mmHg
  • C. 300/150 mmHg
  • D. 70/40 mmHg
Answer: B — 120/80 mmHg
Systolic ~120 mmHg and Diastolic ~80 mmHg represent normal baseline BP.

15. What is the primary danger of severe burns covering over 20% of body surface area?

  • A. Tooth loss
  • B. High blood sugar
  • C. Severe hypovolemic shock due to fluid/plasma loss and infection
  • D. Ankle swelling
Answer: C — Severe hypovolemic shock due to fluid/plasma loss and infection
Major burns leak plasma rapidly, requiring immediate fluid resuscitation.

16. What method estimates total body surface area (TBSA) burned in adult patients?

  • A. Beaufort Scale
  • B. Richter Scale
  • C. Wallace Rule of Nines
  • D. Glasgow Coma Scale
Answer: C — Wallace Rule of Nines
The Rule of Nines divides body areas into multiples of 9% to assess burn severity.

17. What is first step in treating heat stroke (core temp > 40°C)?

  • A. Wool blankets
  • B. Sauna
  • C. Hot coffee
  • D. Move victim to cool space, remove clothing, spray cool water, apply ice packs to groin/axillae
Answer: D — Move victim to cool space, remove clothing, spray cool water, apply ice packs to groin/axillae
Rapid external cooling reduces dangerous body core temperatures to prevent brain damage.

18. What instrument is used to examine ear canal and eardrum?

  • A. Otoscope
  • B. Stethoscope
  • C. Ophthalmoscope
  • D. Sphygmomanometer
Answer: A — Otoscope
Otoscopes illuminate and magnify the ear canal and tympanic membrane.

19. What condition is suspected if patient has right lower quadrant abdominal pain and fever?

  • A. Stroke
  • B. Asthma
  • C. Migraine
  • D. Acute Appendicitis
Answer: D — Acute Appendicitis
Right lower quadrant pain with rebound tenderness indicates acute appendicitis.

20. What technique opens airway of an unconscious victim without suspected spinal injury?

  • A. Turning head upside down
  • B. Slapping back
  • C. Flexing neck
  • D. Head-tilt / Chin-lift maneuver
Answer: D — Head-tilt / Chin-lift maneuver
Head-tilt/chin-lift lifts tongue away from back of throat, opening airway.

21. What airway technique is mandatory if spinal injury is suspected in unconscious casualty?

  • A. Extreme head-tilt
  • B. Sitting upright
  • C. Jaw-thrust maneuver without tilting head
  • D. Twisting neck
Answer: C — Jaw-thrust maneuver without tilting head
Jaw-thrust opens airway while maintaining neutral spinal alignment.

22. What class of medication is Morphine Sulphate, and how must it be stored on board?

  • A. Narcotic analgesic (controlled drug); stored in locked safe with key kept by Master
  • B. Antibiotic
  • C. Vitamin
  • D. Antacid
Answer: A — Narcotic analgesic (controlled drug); stored in locked safe with key kept by Master
Morphine is a controlled narcotic requiring secure safe storage and log entries.

23. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Medical Care on Board?

  • A. STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • B. Port State Control advisory note only
  • C. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • D. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/4-2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Medical Care on Board.

24. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • B. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • C. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
  • D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

25. What scale assesses patient level of consciousness based on Eye, Verbal, and Motor responses?

  • A. Apgar Score
  • B. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
  • C. Beaufort Scale
  • D. Pain Scale
Answer: B — Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
GCS scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully conscious), quantifying neurological state.

26. What is primary treatment for severe hypothermia (core temp < 30°C)?

  • A. Force running
  • B. Handle gently, remove wet clothes, wrap in warm insulation, rewarm core gradually
  • C. Alcohol drinks
  • D. Boiling bath
Answer: B — Handle gently, remove wet clothes, wrap in warm insulation, rewarm core gradually
Gentle gradual rewarming avoids cardiac ventricular fibrillation caused by cold blood surge.

27. What bandage immobilizes a fractured collarbone (clavicle)?

  • A. Tourniquet
  • B. Finger splint
  • C. Figure-of-eight bandage or Arm sling with broad collar-and-cuff
  • D. Adhesive plaster
Answer: C — Figure-of-eight bandage or Arm sling with broad collar-and-cuff
Figure-of-eight bandages pull shoulders back, holding clavicle fragments aligned.

28. What is Anaphylactic Shock?

  • A. Mental shock
  • B. Muscle cramp
  • C. Life-threatening severe allergic reaction causing airway swelling and blood pressure drop
  • D. Electric shock
Answer: C — Life-threatening severe allergic reaction causing airway swelling and blood pressure drop
Anaphylaxis requires immediate intramuscular Epinephrine (Adrenaline 1:1000) administration.

29. What emergency drug is administered IM immediately for Anaphylactic Shock?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
  • C. Vitamin C
  • D. Aspirin
Answer: B — Epinephrine (Adrenaline)
Adrenaline relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and reverses vasodilation in anaphylactic collapse.

30. What condition is indicated by facial drooping, arm weakness, and slurred speech?

  • A. Malaria
  • B. Seasickness
  • C. Kidney stone
  • D. Acute Stroke / Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
Answer: D — Acute Stroke / Cerebrovascular Accident (CVA)
FAST (Face, Arm, Speech, Time) identifies acute stroke symptoms.

Set 2 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What equipment measures blood arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2)?

  • A. Spirometer
  • B. Pulse Oximeter
  • C. Salinometer
  • D. Thermometer
Answer: B — Pulse Oximeter
Pulse oximeters clip onto fingers, measuring pulse rate and SpO2 percentage.

2. What is correct procedure for cleansing a dirty wound before dressing?

  • A. Pour diesel
  • B. Scrub with wire brush
  • C. Wash with sterile saline / clean water, remove debris, disinfect edges, apply sterile dressing
  • D. Cover with dirty rag
Answer: C — Wash with sterile saline / clean water, remove debris, disinfect edges, apply sterile dressing
Copious saline irrigation removes dirt and bacteria, preventing wound infection.

3. What condition is treated by oral rehydration salts (ORS) or intravenous normal saline?

  • A. Earache
  • B. Severe Dehydration caused by gastroenteritis or heat illness
  • C. Head concussion
  • D. High BP
Answer: B — Severe Dehydration caused by gastroenteritis or heat illness
ORS restores essential fluid volume and electrolytes lost through vomiting or diarrhea.

4. What instruction applies to administering antibiotics on board?

  • A. Give for tiredness
  • B. Complete full prescribed course under RMA direction, checking patient allergy history
  • C. Stop after 1 tablet
  • D. Mix with alcohol
Answer: B — Complete full prescribed course under RMA direction, checking patient allergy history
Antibiotic courses must be completed fully as prescribed to prevent bacterial resistance.

5. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Medical Care on Board?

  • A. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • B. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • C. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
  • D. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
Answer: A — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

6. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • B. No written record is required
  • C. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
  • D. Verbal update to port agent without logging
Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

7. What is a compound (open) fracture?

  • A. Bone fracture where broken bone end pierces through skin surface
  • B. Sprain
  • C. Hairline crack
  • D. Dislocation
Answer: A — Bone fracture where broken bone end pierces through skin surface
Open fractures carry high risk of osteomyelitis infection; sterile dressing is required.

8. What maneuver clears upper airway obstruction in a choking conscious adult?

  • A. Sit upside down
  • B. Heimlich Maneuver (Abdominal Thrusts) and back blows
  • C. Glass of water
  • D. Slap face
Answer: B — Heimlich Maneuver (Abdominal Thrusts) and back blows
Sub-diaphragmatic abdominal thrusts force air up trachea to dislodge food objects.

9. What is the function of a urinary Foley catheter?

  • A. Wash stomach
  • B. Measure BP
  • C. Drain urine continuously from bladder into collection bag
  • D. Feed soup
Answer: C — Drain urine continuously from bladder into collection bag
Foley catheters relieve painful urinary retention and monitor fluid output.

10. What is diabetic hypoglycemia, and how is it treated in a conscious patient?

  • A. High fever; treated by ice
  • B. High BP; treated by salt
  • C. Low pulse; treated by coffee
  • D. Low blood sugar; treated by fast-acting oral glucose / sugary drinks
Answer: D — Low blood sugar; treated by fast-acting oral glucose / sugary drinks
Hypoglycemia causes confusion; oral sugar restores blood glucose rapidly.

11. What position keeps airway clear for an unconscious breathing victim?

  • A. Recovery Position (Lateral recumbent position)
  • B. Seated upright
  • C. Flat on back
  • D. Face down
Answer: A — Recovery Position (Lateral recumbent position)
Recovery position allows fluids/vomit to drain out of mouth, preventing airway aspiration.

12. What device delivers electrical shock to restore normal heart rhythm in Ventricular Fibrillation?

  • A. Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
  • B. Cautery pen
  • C. Ultrasonic cleaner
  • D. Pulse oximeter
Answer: A — Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
AEDs analyze cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks to re-establish sinus rhythm.

13. What symptom indicates internal bleeding in chest cavity (Hemothorax)?

  • A. Severe dyspnea, decreased breath sounds on affected side, pale skin, rapid weak pulse
  • B. Leg rash
  • C. High fever
  • D. Tooth pain
Answer: A — Severe dyspnea, decreased breath sounds on affected side, pale skin, rapid weak pulse
Hemothorax compresses lungs and causes hypovolemic shock due to internal thoracic bleeding.

14. What instruction applies to removing an impaled object from a wound?

  • A. Pull out forcefully
  • B. Push deeper
  • C. DO NOT remove object; stabilize in place with ring pads and bulky dressings
  • D. Twist back and forth
Answer: C — DO NOT remove object; stabilize in place with ring pads and bulky dressings
Impaled objects plug damaged blood vessels; pulling them out causes fatal hemorrhage.

15. What antiseptic solution is standard for skin disinfection before minor surgery or suturing?

  • A. Soapy water
  • B. Povidone-Iodine (10%) or Chlorhexidine gluconate (2-4%)
  • C. Engine petrol
  • D. Vinegar
Answer: B — Povidone-Iodine (10%) or Chlorhexidine gluconate (2-4%)
Povidone-iodine and chlorhexidine destroy skin bacteria prior to invasive procedures.

16. Who must be contacted prior to administering controlled medicines or performing invasive procedures?

  • A. Family member
  • B. Charterer
  • C. Radio Medical Advice (RMA) doctor via TMAS
  • D. Customs clerk
Answer: C — Radio Medical Advice (RMA) doctor via TMAS
TMAS doctors provide professional telemedical authorization and diagnostic support 24/7.

17. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Medical Care on Board guidelines?

  • A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • B. High-visibility vest only
  • C. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
  • D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

18. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
  • B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • C. Temperature check only
  • D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
Answer: A — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

19. What is the purpose of the Ship's Pharmacy Log / Controlled Drug Register?

  • A. Track ship draft
  • B. Record entry, issuance, dosage, patient name, and doctor authorization for controlled supplies
  • C. List food stores
  • D. Record paint
Answer: B — Record entry, issuance, dosage, patient name, and doctor authorization for controlled supplies
Controlled drug logs are statutory records audited by Flag State and Port State Control.

20. What condition is treated by Trendelenburg position (legs elevated 30 cm above heart level)?

  • A. Head injury
  • B. Pulmonary edema
  • C. Hypovolemic / Simple fainting Shock (improving venous return to brain)
  • D. Stroke
Answer: C — Hypovolemic / Simple fainting Shock (improving venous return to brain)
Leg elevation shifts venous blood from lower extremities toward heart and central circulation.

21. What precaution is taken when eyes are exposed to acid or alkali liquid chemicals?

  • A. Rub eye with towel
  • B. Apply alcohol drops
  • C. Put bandage without washing
  • D. Hold eyelids open and irrigate continuously with saline/water for 15-20 minutes
Answer: D — Hold eyelids open and irrigate continuously with saline/water for 15-20 minutes
Copious continuous water flushing washes out corrosive chemicals before permanent tissue destruction.

22. What vaccine protection is mandatory for seafarers to prevent Tetanus infection from dirty metal wounds?

  • A. Rabies
  • B. Polio vaccine
  • C. Tetanus Toxoid booster (every 10 years or after dirty puncture wound)
  • D. Yellow fever
Answer: C — Tetanus Toxoid booster (every 10 years or after dirty puncture wound)
Tetanus toxoid immunizes against Clostridium tetani neurotoxin from dirty metal wounds.

23. What is primary sign of tension pneumothorax after chest trauma?

  • A. Severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from affected side, absent breath sounds
  • B. Arm rash
  • C. High fever
  • D. Tooth pain
Answer: A — Severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from affected side, absent breath sounds
Tension pneumothorax traps air under pressure in pleural cavity, collapsing lung and shifting trachea.

24. What procedure is performed in tension pneumothorax emergencies when lung is collapsing?

  • A. Cough syrup
  • B. Needle Decompression (inserting cannula in 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line)
  • C. CPR compressions
  • D. Warm compress
Answer: B — Needle Decompression (inserting cannula in 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line)
Emergency needle decompression releases trapped pleural air pressure, restoring cardiac return.

25. What equipment immobilizes spinal cord injuries during casualty transfer?

  • A. Soft pillow
  • B. Folding chair
  • C. Rigid Cervical Collar, Spinal Backboard, and Head Immobilizer blocks
  • D. Canvas stretcher without straps
Answer: C — Rigid Cervical Collar, Spinal Backboard, and Head Immobilizer blocks
Rigid collars and spine boards maintain complete spinal alignment during transport.

26. What is normal body core temperature of a healthy human being?

  • A. 42.0°C
  • B. 30.0°C
  • C. 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F - 99.5°F)
  • D. 25.0°C
Answer: C — 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F - 99.5°F)
Normal human body temperature centers around 37.0°C (98.6°F).

27. What medication is administered to treat acute anaphylaxis or severe asthma attacks?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Antacid
  • C. Inhaled Salbutamol (Ventolin) and Intramuscular Epinephrine
  • D. Aspirin
Answer: C — Inhaled Salbutamol (Ventolin) and Intramuscular Epinephrine
Salbutamol bronchodilates constricted airways; Epinephrine reverses systemic allergic collapse.

28. Who holds legal responsibility for maintaining valid ship's medical chest and certificate?

  • A. Chief Cook
  • B. Pilot
  • C. The Master (delegated to designated Medical Officer)
  • D. Customs inspector
Answer: C — The Master (delegated to designated Medical Officer)
The Master is legally responsible under SOLAS/MLC for maintaining certified medical stores.

29. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
  • B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
  • C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
  • D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

30. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
  • B. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
  • C. Crew List document
  • D. Bill of Lading description
Answer: B — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these MC questions as a timed paper MC exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses