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MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 2

Set 2 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 60 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 2 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What equipment measures blood arterial oxygen saturation (SpO2)?

  • A. Spirometer
  • B. Pulse Oximeter
  • C. Salinometer
  • D. Thermometer
Answer: B — Pulse Oximeter
Pulse oximeters clip onto fingers, measuring pulse rate and SpO2 percentage.

2. What is correct procedure for cleansing a dirty wound before dressing?

  • A. Pour diesel
  • B. Scrub with wire brush
  • C. Wash with sterile saline / clean water, remove debris, disinfect edges, apply sterile dressing
  • D. Cover with dirty rag
Answer: C — Wash with sterile saline / clean water, remove debris, disinfect edges, apply sterile dressing
Copious saline irrigation removes dirt and bacteria, preventing wound infection.

3. What condition is treated by oral rehydration salts (ORS) or intravenous normal saline?

  • A. Earache
  • B. Severe Dehydration caused by gastroenteritis or heat illness
  • C. Head concussion
  • D. High BP
Answer: B — Severe Dehydration caused by gastroenteritis or heat illness
ORS restores essential fluid volume and electrolytes lost through vomiting or diarrhea.

4. What instruction applies to administering antibiotics on board?

  • A. Give for tiredness
  • B. Complete full prescribed course under RMA direction, checking patient allergy history
  • C. Stop after 1 tablet
  • D. Mix with alcohol
Answer: B — Complete full prescribed course under RMA direction, checking patient allergy history
Antibiotic courses must be completed fully as prescribed to prevent bacterial resistance.

5. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Medical Care on Board?

  • A. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • B. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • C. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
  • D. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
Answer: A — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

6. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • B. No written record is required
  • C. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
  • D. Verbal update to port agent without logging
Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

7. What is a compound (open) fracture?

  • A. Bone fracture where broken bone end pierces through skin surface
  • B. Sprain
  • C. Hairline crack
  • D. Dislocation
Answer: A — Bone fracture where broken bone end pierces through skin surface
Open fractures carry high risk of osteomyelitis infection; sterile dressing is required.

8. What maneuver clears upper airway obstruction in a choking conscious adult?

  • A. Sit upside down
  • B. Heimlich Maneuver (Abdominal Thrusts) and back blows
  • C. Glass of water
  • D. Slap face
Answer: B — Heimlich Maneuver (Abdominal Thrusts) and back blows
Sub-diaphragmatic abdominal thrusts force air up trachea to dislodge food objects.

9. What is the function of a urinary Foley catheter?

  • A. Wash stomach
  • B. Measure BP
  • C. Drain urine continuously from bladder into collection bag
  • D. Feed soup
Answer: C — Drain urine continuously from bladder into collection bag
Foley catheters relieve painful urinary retention and monitor fluid output.

10. What is diabetic hypoglycemia, and how is it treated in a conscious patient?

  • A. High fever; treated by ice
  • B. High BP; treated by salt
  • C. Low pulse; treated by coffee
  • D. Low blood sugar; treated by fast-acting oral glucose / sugary drinks
Answer: D — Low blood sugar; treated by fast-acting oral glucose / sugary drinks
Hypoglycemia causes confusion; oral sugar restores blood glucose rapidly.

11. What position keeps airway clear for an unconscious breathing victim?

  • A. Recovery Position (Lateral recumbent position)
  • B. Seated upright
  • C. Flat on back
  • D. Face down
Answer: A — Recovery Position (Lateral recumbent position)
Recovery position allows fluids/vomit to drain out of mouth, preventing airway aspiration.

12. What device delivers electrical shock to restore normal heart rhythm in Ventricular Fibrillation?

  • A. Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
  • B. Cautery pen
  • C. Ultrasonic cleaner
  • D. Pulse oximeter
Answer: A — Automated External Defibrillator (AED)
AEDs analyze cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks to re-establish sinus rhythm.

13. What symptom indicates internal bleeding in chest cavity (Hemothorax)?

  • A. Severe dyspnea, decreased breath sounds on affected side, pale skin, rapid weak pulse
  • B. Leg rash
  • C. High fever
  • D. Tooth pain
Answer: A — Severe dyspnea, decreased breath sounds on affected side, pale skin, rapid weak pulse
Hemothorax compresses lungs and causes hypovolemic shock due to internal thoracic bleeding.

14. What instruction applies to removing an impaled object from a wound?

  • A. Pull out forcefully
  • B. Push deeper
  • C. DO NOT remove object; stabilize in place with ring pads and bulky dressings
  • D. Twist back and forth
Answer: C — DO NOT remove object; stabilize in place with ring pads and bulky dressings
Impaled objects plug damaged blood vessels; pulling them out causes fatal hemorrhage.

15. What antiseptic solution is standard for skin disinfection before minor surgery or suturing?

  • A. Soapy water
  • B. Povidone-Iodine (10%) or Chlorhexidine gluconate (2-4%)
  • C. Engine petrol
  • D. Vinegar
Answer: B — Povidone-Iodine (10%) or Chlorhexidine gluconate (2-4%)
Povidone-iodine and chlorhexidine destroy skin bacteria prior to invasive procedures.

16. Who must be contacted prior to administering controlled medicines or performing invasive procedures?

  • A. Family member
  • B. Charterer
  • C. Radio Medical Advice (RMA) doctor via TMAS
  • D. Customs clerk
Answer: C — Radio Medical Advice (RMA) doctor via TMAS
TMAS doctors provide professional telemedical authorization and diagnostic support 24/7.

17. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Medical Care on Board guidelines?

  • A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • B. High-visibility vest only
  • C. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
  • D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

18. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
  • B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • C. Temperature check only
  • D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
Answer: A — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

19. What is the purpose of the Ship's Pharmacy Log / Controlled Drug Register?

  • A. Track ship draft
  • B. Record entry, issuance, dosage, patient name, and doctor authorization for controlled supplies
  • C. List food stores
  • D. Record paint
Answer: B — Record entry, issuance, dosage, patient name, and doctor authorization for controlled supplies
Controlled drug logs are statutory records audited by Flag State and Port State Control.

20. What condition is treated by Trendelenburg position (legs elevated 30 cm above heart level)?

  • A. Head injury
  • B. Pulmonary edema
  • C. Hypovolemic / Simple fainting Shock (improving venous return to brain)
  • D. Stroke
Answer: C — Hypovolemic / Simple fainting Shock (improving venous return to brain)
Leg elevation shifts venous blood from lower extremities toward heart and central circulation.

21. What precaution is taken when eyes are exposed to acid or alkali liquid chemicals?

  • A. Rub eye with towel
  • B. Apply alcohol drops
  • C. Put bandage without washing
  • D. Hold eyelids open and irrigate continuously with saline/water for 15-20 minutes
Answer: D — Hold eyelids open and irrigate continuously with saline/water for 15-20 minutes
Copious continuous water flushing washes out corrosive chemicals before permanent tissue destruction.

22. What vaccine protection is mandatory for seafarers to prevent Tetanus infection from dirty metal wounds?

  • A. Rabies
  • B. Polio vaccine
  • C. Tetanus Toxoid booster (every 10 years or after dirty puncture wound)
  • D. Yellow fever
Answer: C — Tetanus Toxoid booster (every 10 years or after dirty puncture wound)
Tetanus toxoid immunizes against Clostridium tetani neurotoxin from dirty metal wounds.

23. What is primary sign of tension pneumothorax after chest trauma?

  • A. Severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from affected side, absent breath sounds
  • B. Arm rash
  • C. High fever
  • D. Tooth pain
Answer: A — Severe respiratory distress, tracheal deviation away from affected side, absent breath sounds
Tension pneumothorax traps air under pressure in pleural cavity, collapsing lung and shifting trachea.

24. What procedure is performed in tension pneumothorax emergencies when lung is collapsing?

  • A. Cough syrup
  • B. Needle Decompression (inserting cannula in 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line)
  • C. CPR compressions
  • D. Warm compress
Answer: B — Needle Decompression (inserting cannula in 2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular line)
Emergency needle decompression releases trapped pleural air pressure, restoring cardiac return.

25. What equipment immobilizes spinal cord injuries during casualty transfer?

  • A. Soft pillow
  • B. Folding chair
  • C. Rigid Cervical Collar, Spinal Backboard, and Head Immobilizer blocks
  • D. Canvas stretcher without straps
Answer: C — Rigid Cervical Collar, Spinal Backboard, and Head Immobilizer blocks
Rigid collars and spine boards maintain complete spinal alignment during transport.

26. What is normal body core temperature of a healthy human being?

  • A. 42.0°C
  • B. 30.0°C
  • C. 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F - 99.5°F)
  • D. 25.0°C
Answer: C — 36.5°C to 37.5°C (97.7°F - 99.5°F)
Normal human body temperature centers around 37.0°C (98.6°F).

27. What medication is administered to treat acute anaphylaxis or severe asthma attacks?

  • A. Paracetamol
  • B. Antacid
  • C. Inhaled Salbutamol (Ventolin) and Intramuscular Epinephrine
  • D. Aspirin
Answer: C — Inhaled Salbutamol (Ventolin) and Intramuscular Epinephrine
Salbutamol bronchodilates constricted airways; Epinephrine reverses systemic allergic collapse.

28. Who holds legal responsibility for maintaining valid ship's medical chest and certificate?

  • A. Chief Cook
  • B. Pilot
  • C. The Master (delegated to designated Medical Officer)
  • D. Customs inspector
Answer: C — The Master (delegated to designated Medical Officer)
The Master is legally responsible under SOLAS/MLC for maintaining certified medical stores.

29. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
  • B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
  • C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
  • D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

30. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Medical Care on Board?

  • A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
  • B. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
  • C. Crew List document
  • D. Bill of Lading description
Answer: B — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

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