PST exit exam questions and answers

All 268 questions from the Personal Survival Techniques (PST) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked, and 267 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt 8 Sep 2026.

Practise these PST questions PST mock exit exam, 30 marks PST exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) is considered as:

A. Secondary means of alerting device
B. None of the above
C. Primary means of alerting device
D. Both primary and secondary

Answer: A — Secondary means of alerting device

An EPIRB is a secondary means of alerting, as the primary means is typically through GMDSS radio communications (DSC) initiated from the bridge. The EPIRB serves as a reliable emergency beacon for locating the vessel during abandonment.

2. How can a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART) effective range be maximized?

A. It should be as high as possible
B. The SART should be placed in water immediately after activation
C. The SART should be put on high power mode
D. Mount the SART horizontally with respect to rescue vessel radar

Answer: A — It should be as high as possible

A SART operates by reflecting radar signals from search and rescue vessels. Because it is a line-of-sight device, keeping it as high as possible above the sea surface significantly increases its detection range by radar scanners.

3. On a passenger ship, muster of passengers must be carried out:

A. Within one week after boarding the person
B. Within 24 hours of leaving the port
C. Anytime by surprise as decided by the master
D. Whenever the passengers are settled out

Answer: B — Within 24 hours of leaving the port

Passenger safety is paramount. Regulations require that passengers be mustered and instructed in emergency procedures, including the use of lifejackets and knowledge of the assembly station, within 24 hours of boarding.

4. The Thermal Protective Aid (TPA) should permit the wearer to remove it in the water:

A. Not more than five minutes
B. Not more than 15 minutes
C. Not more than two minutes
D. Not more than 10 minutes

Answer: C — Not more than two minutes

A Thermal Protective Aid (TPA) is designed to protect survivors from hypothermia. LSA regulations require that the TPA be designed to be easily donned and removed in the water within two minutes, ensuring quick access or disposal if required.

5. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on Communication channel required in all portable survival craft equipment?

A. Channel 16
B. Channel 06
C. Channel 70
D. Channel 13

Answer: A — Channel 16

VHF Channel 16 is the international distress and safety frequency, and it is the designated channel for all follow-on communications between a survival craft and the assisting rescue vessel.

6. How many survival craft VHF walkie-talkies are required to be carried on cargo ships above 500 Gross Registered Tonnage (GRT)?

A. Three numbers
B. Two numbers
C. Five numbers
D. Four numbers

Answer: A — Three numbers

SOLAS regulations require that cargo ships of 500 GRT and above carry at least three two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatuses for use in survival craft to ensure communication with rescue vessels during abandonment.

7. You are at sea in an inflatable life raft in high altitudes, the greatest danger is:

A. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
B. Starvation
C. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
D. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature

Answer: D — Hypothermia caused by cold temperature

In a survival craft, the lack of thermal protection and the inability to generate body heat in a wet environment makes hypothermia the primary killer. While cold can affect air pressure, the human physiological limit is the most critical factor.

8. Prior to lowering the lifeboat, the most important item to check is:

A. Sail
B. Life preservers
C. Boat plug
D. Oars

Answer: C — Boat plug

The boat plug, often called a drain plug, must be securely inserted before lowering the lifeboat. If omitted, the boat will flood immediately upon launching, potentially leading to swamping or sinking.

9. You are on a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information is essential for rescuers?

A. Time of the day
B. Nature of distress
C. Your position by latitude and longitude
D. Your radio call sign

Answer: C — Your position by latitude and longitude

Under GMDSS and IAMSAR procedures, the most essential data for an effective search is the precise geographic location. Latitude and longitude allow the Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC) to direct assets to the correct area.

10. What is the type of battery used for EPIRB and your SART?

A. Lithium non-rechargeable
B. None of the above
C. Solar rechargeable cells
D. Lead acid battery

Answer: A — Lithium non-rechargeable

EPIRBs and SARTs require reliable, long-lasting power sources. Lithium batteries are used because they offer a long shelf-life, high energy density, and reliability in extreme temperatures.

11. Which statement concerning locating signals in the GMDSS is false?

A. Locating signals are transmitted by survival craft VHF transceivers
B. Locating signals are not transmitted by auto alarm generators
C. Locating signals are transmitted by search and rescue radar transponders
D. Locating signals are intended to facilitate the finding of distress vessel or survivors

Answer: A — Locating signals are transmitted by survival craft VHF transceivers

Survival craft VHF transceivers are communication devices, not 'locating signals' within the context of GMDSS. Locating signals, such as SARTs or AIS-SART, are specifically designed to be detected by radar or AIS for target identification.

12. The person aboard a vessel signaling by raising and lowering his or her outstretched arms to each side is indicating:

A. All is clear, it is safe to approach
B. All is clear, it is safe to pass
C. Danger, stay away
D. distress signal

Answer: D — distress signal

According to the International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) manual and COLREGs Annex IV, this physical gesture is a recognized visual signal of distress.

13. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter in water. You should inflate your life jacket:

A. Upon entering the helicopter
B. After clear of the helicopter
C. After reaching the water but prior to exiting the helicopter
D. Prior to reaching the water

Answer: B — After clear of the helicopter

Inflating a life jacket inside a capsizing helicopter can trap the occupant and prevent escape through narrow exits. It must be inflated only once the survivor is clear of the fuselage to ensure buoyancy.

14. Choose the right combination of VHF channels for emergency communication during search and rescue for ship-to-ship and ship-to-aircraft communication:

A. Channel 06 and 30
B. Channel 16 and 06
C. Channel 21 and 23
D. Channel 70 and 16

Answer: B — Channel 16 and 06

Channel 16 is the international distress, safety, and calling frequency. Channel 06 is the primary designated inter-ship safety channel for coordinated search and rescue operations.

15. Davit-launched life raft can be boarded:

A. By jumping down onto it
B. Through the escape tube
C. From the water only
D. At the deck

Answer: D — At the deck

Davit-launched life rafts are designed to be inflated and boarded at the embarkation deck, allowing survivors to enter the craft safely before it is lowered into the water.

16. Cargo ships of 100 meters and above but less than 150 meters should have how many life buoys?

A. 30
B. 8
C. 12
D. 14

Answer: A — 30

According to SOLAS Chapter III, ships of 100 meters and upwards but less than 150 meters in length must carry a minimum of 12 lifebuoys.

17. Which onboard equipment will detect a signal from a search and rescue radar transponder (SART)?

A. Satellite communication terminals
B. Digital selective calling (DSC) receiver
C. X-band radar
D. S-band radar

Answer: C — X-band radar

A SART is designed to operate in the 9 GHz band (X-band). When pulsed by an X-band radar, the SART sends back a specific response that appears on the radar display as a line of 12 dots.

18. With a sprinkler system and air system on and all hatches shut, the survival craft will provide protection from:

A. Fire and toxic environment
B. Storm or a hurricane
C. Sea creatures
D. Nuclear environment

Answer: A — Fire and toxic environment

Enclosed survival craft feature water spray systems for hull cooling and air support systems (compressed air cylinders) to allow the engine and occupants to survive while transiting through fire or smoke.

19. What must be the characteristics of a lifebuoy attached with a self-igniting light and smoke?

A. Two hours of light with two hours of smoke
B. 15 minutes of light with 15 minutes of smoke
C. One hour of light with 15 minutes of smoke
D. Two hours of light with two candle luminous intensity with 15 minutes of smoke

Answer: D — Two hours of light with two candle luminous intensity with 15 minutes of smoke

SOLAS requirements state that a lifebuoy with a self-igniting light must provide at least 2 cd for 2 hours, and a smoke signal must provide at least 15 minutes of smoke.

20. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills as soon as possible after entering into a life raft is to:

A. Assist in sleeping
B. Prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting
C. Prevent impact judgment due to motion-induced deliriousness
D. Reduce appetite by decreasing nausea

Answer: B — Prevent loss of body moisture by vomiting

Seasickness induces vomiting, which leads to rapid dehydration. In a survival situation, maintaining hydration is critical to longevity, making early prevention of fluid loss vital.

21. The rescue vessel is approaching an activated SART at a distance of five miles. What indication appears on the rescue vessel radar screen?

A. Wide arcs
B. series of 12 equally spaced blips outward from the SART's position along its line of bearing
C. Concentric circles
D. SOS symbol appears on the display of the radar screen

Answer: B — series of 12 equally spaced blips outward from the SART's position along its line of bearing

When a SART is within range, it responds to the ship's X-band radar pulses by displaying a series of 12 dots spaced 0.6 nautical miles apart along the line of bearing from the radar.

22. On what frequency do EPIRBs transmit information to satellites on emergency activation?

A. 406 MHz
B. 121.5 MHz
C. 243 MHz
D. 156.8 MHz

Answer: A — 406 MHz

406 MHz is the frequency dedicated for satellite-based distress alerting via the Cospas-Sarsat system, which provides global coverage and identifies the vessel.

23. What is the biggest danger to life when your vessel has collided with another ship?

A. Possibility of Capsizing
B. Building of compartments
C. Oil pollution
D. Damage to the ship

Answer: A — Possibility of Capsizing

After a collision, loss of intact stability or reserve buoyancy due to flooding leads to capsizing, which is the most immediate threat to the lives of all personnel on board.

24. What should be the duration and luminous intensity of a hand flare?

A. 60 seconds with 15,000 candles
B. 120 seconds with 30,000 candles
C. 60 seconds with 30,000 candles
D. 120 seconds with 15,000 candles

Answer: A — 60 seconds with 15,000 candles

SOLAS LSA Code mandates that hand flares must have a luminous intensity of at least 15,000 candela and burn for a minimum of 60 seconds.

25. One of the main characteristics of a life jacket is:

A. To swim
B. To float
C. All of the above
D. To maintain the face of an unconscious person above the water level

Answer: D — To maintain the face of an unconscious person above the water level

A key requirement for a life jacket is the ability to turn an unconscious person's face out of the water within a specified time, preventing drowning.

26. Crew duties to passengers in an emergency especially in a passenger vessel involve:

A. All of the above
B. Warn all passengers
C. Seeing that they have suitably donned the life jackets in a correct manner
D. Keeping the movement of the passengers towards the muster station

Answer: A — All of the above

During an emergency, the crew is responsible for the safety of passengers, which includes alerting them, guiding them to muster stations, and ensuring lifejackets are donned correctly.

27. What indication does an EPIRB give on activation?

A. Gives out a printout of distress message sent
B. Strobe lights or flashes on top of the EPIRB
C. Voice prompt saying EPIRB is activated
D. All of the above

Answer: B — Strobe lights or flashes on top of the EPIRB

EPIRBs are required to have a visual indicator, typically a flashing strobe light, which assists rescuers in locating the unit during nighttime or low-visibility operations.

28. How many buoyant orange smoke floats should be kept on the bridge of a vessel?

A. Six
B. Two
C. None
D. Four

Answer: C — None

Buoyant smoke signals are typically associated with lifebuoys or lifeboats, but for the bridge area specifically, the carriage requirement for buoyant orange smoke floats is zero.

29. A life jacket has:

A. Reflective tape
B. Whistle and light
C. Whistle, reflective tape, and a light
D. Only a whistle

Answer: C — Whistle, reflective tape, and a light

Modern SOLAS-compliant life jackets must be equipped with a whistle to attract attention and a light to provide visibility in dark or low-light conditions.

30. How do you know how many persons a lifeboat can accommodate?

A. None of the above
B. No limitations, you can put maximum persons inside
C. Number of persons it can hold is clearly marked on the outside of the lifeboat
D. Ask your chief officer

Answer: C — Number of persons it can hold is clearly marked on the outside of the lifeboat

The maximum number of persons permitted on board a survival craft must be clearly and permanently marked on the exterior of the craft for quick reference during an emergency.

Set 2 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the primary function of the painter line on an inflatable life raft before launching?

A. Serves as operating line to trigger CO2 gas inflation cylinder when pulled
B. Used for tying crew bags
C. Acts as electric cable for canopy light
D. Secures sea anchor

Answer: A — Serves as operating line to trigger CO2 gas inflation cylinder when pulled

Unrolling the painter line (25-36m length) to its end operates the inflation valve mechanism to instantly inflate the raft.

2. What is the required length of a life raft painter line for a raft stowed at a height of 10 meters above the waterline?

A. At least 15 meters plus stowage height (minimum 25 meters total)
B. 10 meters
C. 5 meters
D. 100 meters

Answer: A — At least 15 meters plus stowage height (minimum 25 meters total)

SOLAS LSA Code mandates painter length to be at least 15m plus the distance from stowage position to waterline in lightest seagoing condition (min 28m for high stowage).

3. What safety feature prevents an inflatable life raft from over-inflating and bursting when CO2 gas discharges rapidly?

A. Safety relief valves fitted on each main buoyancy chamber
B. Manual drain cocks
C. Rubber expansion bellows
D. Automatic air release zipper

Answer: A — Safety relief valves fitted on each main buoyancy chamber

Overpressure relief valves automatically vent excess CO2 gas if pressure exceeds design operating limit (approx 2 psi / 0.14 bar).

4. What device inside a life raft container automatically activates the canopy light when the raft inflates?

A. Water-activated or mechanical pull-switch connected to battery pack
B. Solar panel switch
C. Manual toggle switch on roof
D. Remote control radio signal

Answer: A — Water-activated or mechanical pull-switch connected to battery pack

As inflation chambers expand, a mechanical pull pin or sea-water contact activates the lithium battery powering internal and top canopy lights.

5. How many hand flares are required in a SOLAS Pack A life raft equipment pack?

A. 6 red hand flares
B. 2 red hand flares
C. 10 red hand flares
D. 12 red hand flares

Answer: A — 6 red hand flares

SOLAS LSA Code requires 6 red hand-held flares (burning at >= 15,000 cd for >= 1 minute) per Pack A liferaft.

6. What type of first aid kit items are specially provided in a SOLAS life raft survival equipment pack?

A. Waterproof band-aids, burn treatment dressing, pain relievers, and anti-seasickness tablets
B. Surgical scalpel and bone saws
C. Penicillin injections
D. Intravenous blood bags

Answer: A — Waterproof band-aids, burn treatment dressing, pain relievers, and anti-seasickness tablets

Life raft first aid kits contain waterproof dressings, bandages, burn treatment, analgesics, and anti-motion sickness medication.

7. What is the purpose of the retro-reflective tape patches applied to life rafts, lifejackets, and immersion suits?

A. To reflect searchlight beams from rescue ships and helicopters for high visibility at night
B. To absorb solar heat
C. To prevent shark attacks
D. To seal fabric tears

Answer: A — To reflect searchlight beams from rescue ships and helicopters for high visibility at night

IMO-approved retro-reflective material reflects incoming light rays directly back to source, aiding night optical/infrared detection.

8. What is the function of the rain-water catchment system on a life raft canopy?

A. To collect rainwater into internal storage hoses and plastic collection bags for drinking
B. To wash raft floor
C. To cool CO2 cylinders
D. To fill ballast pockets

Answer: A — To collect rainwater into internal storage hoses and plastic collection bags for drinking

Canopy gutters channel rainwater into interior tubes, providing vital extra fresh water during prolonged ocean survival.

9. What action should survivors take when a rescue helicopter approaches a life raft for winch retrieval?

A. Allow winch hook to touch sea water first to discharge static electricity before touching hook
B. Grab winch hook while suspended in air
C. Tie winch cable to life raft arch tube
D. Stand up on upper canopy roof

Answer: A — Allow winch hook to touch sea water first to discharge static electricity before touching hook

Helicopters build high electrostatic charges; grounding the winch cable in sea water prevents severe electric shock to survivors.

10. What is the correct method for securing a rescue strap (strop) lowered from a search and rescue helicopter?

A. Pass strop over head and under both armpits, pull padded ring tight against chest, face winch operator
B. Hold strop by hands only
C. Loop strop around feet
D. Tie strop to lifejacket neck strap

Answer: A — Pass strop over head and under both armpits, pull padded ring tight against chest, face winch operator

The padded rescue strop goes under both arms, cinched tight in front so survivor cannot slip out during vertical lift.

11. What is the function of a buoyant rescue quoit and line attached to an inflatable life raft?

A. To throw to survivors in the water near the raft to haul them safely to the boarding ramp
B. To measure ocean depth
C. To tie up to dock posts
D. To anchor raft

Answer: A — To throw to survivors in the water near the raft to haul them safely to the boarding ramp

A buoyant ring (quoit) attached to at least 30m of floating line is thrown to nearby survivors in the water.

12. What is the purpose of the inflatable floor in a SOLAS life raft?

A. Provides thermal insulation against cold sea water under the floor
B. Increases raft speed
C. Stores spare paddles
D. Acts as fresh water tank

Answer: A — Provides thermal insulation against cold sea water under the floor

The double-layer inflatable floor traps air, insulating survivors' feet and bodies from hypothermic sea-water heat transfer.

13. Under SOLAS regulations, how often must inflatable life rafts be landed ashore for servicing at an authorized service station?

A. Every 12 months (annual servicing)
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 2 years
D. Only after actual deployment

Answer: A — Every 12 months (annual servicing)

SOLAS III/20.8 mandates annual inspection and pressure testing of inflatable life rafts and HRUs at approved servicing stations.

14. What marking must be clearly stenciled on the outside of an inflatable life raft container?

A. Maker's name, serial number, SOLAS pack type, capacity (number of persons), and date of last service
B. List of crew names
C. Ship radio callsign only
D. Fuel consumption rate

Answer: A — Maker's name, serial number, SOLAS pack type, capacity (number of persons), and date of last service

Containers must display approved capacity, pack type (A or B), servicing station mark, last service date, and drop height limit.

15. What is the function of the manual inflation valve (topping valve) on a life raft chamber?

A. Allows connection of hand pump to add air or depress button to vent over-pressure
B. Connects to ship's main air compressor
C. Fills raft with sea water
D. Drains fuel

Answer: A — Allows connection of hand pump to add air or depress button to vent over-pressure

Non-return topping valves allow topping-up inflation using bellows or manual pressure relief if chambers over-expand in tropical heat.

16. What color is mandated for the outer canopy of all SOLAS inflatable life rafts and lifeboats?

A. International High-Visibility Orange
B. Dark Navy Blue
C. Sea Green
D. Black

Answer: A — International High-Visibility Orange

High-contrast international orange provides maximum visual recognition against sea background for air and surface searchers.

17. What is the purpose of the radar reflector packed with a life raft equipment kit?

A. To enhance the life raft's radar cross-section signal on searching ships' radar screens
B. To generate electrical power
C. To mirror sunlight flashes
D. To receive satellite radio broadcasts

Answer: A — To enhance the life raft's radar cross-section signal on searching ships' radar screens

A metal corner reflector elevates radar echo intensity, making small fiber/rubber rafts visible to 3cm and 10cm marine radars.

18. What action should be taken if the CO2 system inflates only one main buoyancy tube of a life raft?

A. Board raft carefully, locate non-return transfer valves or use hand pump to inflate second chamber
B. Abandon raft and swim away
C. Puncture inflated tube with knife
D. Open bottom drain plug

Answer: A — Board raft carefully, locate non-return transfer valves or use hand pump to inflate second chamber

Each main tube supports full rated capacity; topping up upper/lower tubes via hand bellows restores full double-buoyancy structure.

19. What is the purpose of the safety whistle attached to a SOLAS lifejacket?

A. To sound audible distress signals to nearby rescuers in fog or low visibility
B. To scare away birds
C. To signal engine room watchkeepers
D. To blow water out of lifejacket

Answer: A — To sound audible distress signals to nearby rescuers in fog or low visibility

Non-pealable high-pitch safety whistles produce loud acoustic signals that penetrate sea noise to guide rescuers in darkness or fog.

20. What is the requirement for retro-reflective material patches on an inflatable life raft canopy?

A. Fitted around top arch, canopy sides, and floor bottom to reflect searchlights from any angle
B. Fitted inside floor storage bag only
C. Not required on life rafts
D. Fitted on CO2 cylinder only

Answer: A — Fitted around top arch, canopy sides, and floor bottom to reflect searchlights from any angle

Retro-reflective tape strips must be placed on top and sides of canopy and under hull (if capsized) for 360-degree night searchlight reflection.

21. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for operational safety and hazard prevention under Personal Survival Techniques?

A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
B. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
C. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits

Answer: B — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies

Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

22. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Personal Survival Techniques?

A. Bill of Lading description
B. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
D. Crew List document

Answer: C — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

23. The number of lifebuoys on ship is dependent on:

A. Minimum of 15
B. What owners provide
C. Length of the vessel
D. Minimum of 10

Answer: C — Length of the vessel

SOLAS regulations specify the number of lifebuoys based on the length of the vessel (e.g., under 100m, 100-150m, etc.).

24. EPIRB stands for:

A. Escape Position Indicating Radar Beacon
B. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon
C. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Beacon
D. Escape Position Indicating Radio Beacon

Answer: B — Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon

EPIRB is the internationally recognized acronym for Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon, a device used to alert rescue authorities of a maritime distress situation.

25. Which of the following requirements for Immersion suit is correct?

A. All of the above
B. Allow the wearer to climb a vertical ladder of 5mtrs
C. Allow the wearer to jump from 4.5m
D. Donned within 2 minutes

Answer: A — All of the above

Immersion suits must meet stringent LSA code standards, including rapid donning, the ability to jump safely, and mobility for tasks like climbing ladders.

26. How much faster does the human body lose heat in the water?

A. 10
B. 26
C. 20
D. 36

Answer: B — 26

The human body loses heat approximately 26 times faster in water than in air of the same temperature, making cold water exposure a life-threatening emergency.

27. When person floating in the water in group, they should be in:

A. Help position
B. Huddle position
C. None of the above
D. Yoga position

Answer: B — Huddle position

The Huddle position reduces the exposed surface area of the body and promotes shared body heat among survivors, significantly delaying the onset of hypothermia.

28. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with hydrostatic release unit be secured to the ship?

A. Directly to a secure point on the ship
B. Secured to the part of hydrostatic release that is designed to break free
C. It should not be secured anyway
D. Secured via weak link to a secured point on the ship

Answer: D — Secured via weak link to a secured point on the ship

The painter is the line that triggers the inflation of the raft; it must be connected via a weak link so the raft can break free if the ship sinks before the raft is manually released.

29. LTA is used as:

A. Heaving line
B. Mooring Line
C. Messenger line
D. Lashing line

Answer: C — Messenger line

LTA stands for Line Throwing Apparatus. It is used to fire a rocket-propelled line to another ship or shore as a messenger line for hauling heavier mooring or rescue lines.

30. Life jacket light shall be capable of providing luminous intensity of ______ for a period of ______:

A. .75cd/6hrs
B. .50cd/6hrs
C. .75cd/8hrs
D. .50cd/8hrs

Answer: C — .75cd/8hrs

SOLAS LSA Code requires that a life jacket light must provide a luminous intensity of at least 0.75 cd for a period of at least 8 hours.

Set 3 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. Lifeboat must be stowed in such a way that they can be launched in ______ mins:

A. 15 mins
B. 20 mins
C. 10 mins
D. 05 mins

Answer: C — 10 mins

SOLAS requires that for cargo ships, lifeboats must be capable of being boarded and launched in less than 10 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given.

2. A distress signal on deck:

A. NC Flag
B. Pyrotechnics
C. All of the above
D. Open fire

Answer: C — All of the above

In an emergency, all available means to attract attention, including pyrotechnics, fire, and recognized flag signals (like N over C), should be used.

3. SART stands for:

A. Search and Rescue Radar Transmitor
B. Search and Rescue Radar Transformer
C. Search and Rescue Radar Transmission
D. Search and Rescue Radar Transponder

Answer: D — Search and Rescue Radar Transponder

SART is the acronym for Search and Rescue Radar Transponder, which acts as a secondary aid to help rescue craft locate survivors via their onboard radar.

4. Your vessel has been in collision and you are not sure if your vessel is sinking or not, How will you handle this situation?

A. Wait and see how the situation is developing
B. Search for missing person, continue to monitor the situation and prepare for event management in case it becomes necessary
C. Make sure that the lifeboat has as much fuel as possible and make your course for nearest land
D. Leave the vessel and stay not closer than 5 NM

Answer: B — Search for missing person, continue to monitor the situation and prepare for event management in case it becomes necessary

In a potential sinking, the priority is to account for all personnel (search), maintain awareness of the ship's integrity (monitor), and prepare emergency systems (contingency).

5. What is a fire wire?

A. Wire for pulling fire hoses upto the top bridge
B. Wire for securing smoke divers
C. Wire for handling fire bucket
D. Wire for pulling burning ships off the pier

Answer: D — Wire for pulling burning ships off the pier

A fire wire is a wire rope provided on tankers at the bow and stern to enable tugs to pull the vessel away from a pier in the event of a fire.

6. Quantity of water in lifeboat per person:

A. 2Ltrs
B. 4Ltrs
C. 3Ltrs
D. 5Ltrs

Answer: C — 3Ltrs

SOLAS requires 3 liters of fresh water per person for lifeboats, which is sufficient for initial survival needs while awaiting rescue.

7. How many servival craft walkie talkie required as per SOLAS for a ship of more than 500GT?

A. 5
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2

Answer: D — 2

SOLAS requires a minimum of three two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus for ships of 500 GT and above to ensure communication between the survival craft and the rescuing vessel.

8. Quantity of water in Life raft per person:

A. 1.5 Ltrs
B. 2.5 Ltrs
C. 2 Ltrs
D. 3 Ltrs

Answer: A — 1.5 Ltrs

SOLAS standards for liferaft equipment specify a lower water requirement than for lifeboats, providing 1.5 liters of water per person.

9. What equipment is provided in Life raft to help you keep warm in cold weather?

A. TPA for each person
B. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to help insulation in addition to the TPA
C. At least 10% or 2 TPA of the total crew
D. The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to give additional insulation from the cold

Answer: B — The floor of the raft has a second layer which can be inflated to help insulation in addition to the TPA

Insulated floors in liferafts help prevent conduction heat loss from the cold sea water, which is a critical design feature for survival in cold climates.

10. Which of the listed requirements do not corresponds to present regulation the life raft shall have:

A. Manually controlled lamp fitted inside the liferaft
B. Floor preventing the ingress of water
C. All entrances fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the life raft
D. Manually controlled lamp visible of at least two miles fitted at the top of the canopy

Answer: C — All entrances fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the life raft

Rigid boarding ramps are not a universal requirement for all liferafts; however, they must be designed for safe entry, and internal/external lights are standard safety features.

11. Your vessel have been in collision with another vessel, you are taking in water and you have to prepare for leaving the vessel. How will you act?

A. Assist your friends to collect their personal belonging
B. Just jump overboard and be ready
C. Collect your own personal belongings
D. Send a distress message and collect survival suits/Thermal bags

Answer: D — Send a distress message and collect survival suits/Thermal bags

A professional response involves immediate communication of the distress to authorities, followed by orderly preparation using thermal protection and survival equipment.

12. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:

A. In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire and explosion
B. Wherever space is available
C. In a state of readiness so that two crew members can prepare
D. On the starboard side of the ship

Answer: C — In a state of readiness so that two crew members can prepare

SOLAS mandates that survival craft must be stowed in a state of readiness, so that two crew members can prepare them for launching within the prescribed time limits.

13. Which one of the listed requirements regarding LSA do not corresponds to present regulations?

A. All prescribed LSA shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material
B. All prescribed LSA shall be of a highly visible colour
C. All prescribed LSA shall be fitted with a retro reflective material which will assist in detection
D. All prescribed LSA shall be resistant to deterioration where exposed to sunlight

Answer: A — All prescribed LSA shall be made of non-combustible or fire retardant material

LSA is generally required to be fire-resistant; however, the term 'non-combustible' is a strict standard that may not apply to all individual components of every piece of life-saving equipment.

14. Which one of the listed requirements regarding launching appliances for survival craft and rescue boat do not corresponds to present regulation?

A. Launching appliances shall be constructed for minimum amount of routine maintainance
B. The launching mechanism shall be arranged for actuating from a position within the survival craft or rescue boat in addition to a position on the ships deck
C. Parts requiring regular maintenance by ships crew shall be readily accessible
D. All launching appliances shall be capable of recovering survival craft and rescue boats with their crew

Answer: D — All launching appliances shall be capable of recovering survival craft and rescue boats with their crew

Launching appliances are generally designed for launching, not for recovery, with the specific exception of designated rescue boats which must be recoverable.

15. Maximum carrying capacity of a lifeboat:

A. 100 Persons
B. 150 Persons
C. 25 Persons
D. 50 Persons

Answer: B — 150 Persons

Under current SOLAS regulations, the maximum carrying capacity of a lifeboat is limited to 150 persons.

16. An Immersion suit shall permit the person wearing it:

A. Jump from a height of not less than 4.5m
B. Perform normal duties associated with abandoning ship
C. All of the above
D. Climb up and down a vertical ladder of atleast 5m in length

Answer: C — All of the above

Immersion suits must allow the user to perform all necessary abandon-ship tasks, including climbing ladders and jumping from specified heights without sustaining injury.

17. Checking and servicing life rafts as per PMS is:

A. Once a year
B. Once in 5 years
C. Twice a year
D. Based on condition of Liferaft

Answer: A — Once a year

Liferafts must be serviced at an approved shore-based facility every 12 months (annually) to ensure the inflation system and emergency pack remain in operational condition.

18. Before lifting a Lifeboat from water it should be ensured that:

A. Engine is going astern
B. Falls wires are clear and secured tightly
C. Sea anchor is streamed
D. Bottom plug is secured tight

Answer: B — Falls wires are clear and secured tightly

Before lifting a lifeboat, it is critical to ensure that the falls wires are properly seated in the blocks and secured to the boat's releasing gear. This prevents the boat from tilting or dropping during the hoist, ensuring a stable and safe recovery process.

19. Which one of the routine test and inspection of LSA is not required by regulations:

A. General emergency alarm to be tested daily
B. Survival craft and Rescue boats with launching appliances shall be visually inspected weekly
C. Lifeboat engine should be run for atleast 3 mins every week
D. Inspection of Lifeboat equipments shall be carried out monthly

Answer: A — General emergency alarm to be tested daily

The general emergency alarm is tested during fire and abandon ship drills, which are required to be held at least once a month, not daily. Other options represent standard weekly or monthly maintenance routines under SOLAS LSA Code requirements.

20. The function of hydrostatic release unit is:

A. For releasing lifeboat from sinking vessel
B. Substitute for limit switch of gravity davits
C. To automatically unhook the lashing and release the life raft when the ship sinks
D. For releasing life raft in bad weather

Answer: C — To automatically unhook the lashing and release the life raft when the ship sinks

The hydrostatic release unit (HRU) is designed to operate automatically at a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters. When a vessel sinks, the pressure forces a piston to cut a weak link, allowing the liferaft to float free and inflate, thus preventing it from being pulled down by the sinking vessel.

21. Lifeboat should have:

A. 2 Buoyant rescue quoits, attached to not less than 30mtrs buoyant line
B. 1 buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 15mtrs buoyant line
C. 2 buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 15mtrs buoyant line
D. 1 Buoyant rescue quoits, attached to not less than 30mtrs buoyant line

Answer: A — 2 Buoyant rescue quoits, attached to not less than 30mtrs buoyant line

SOLAS Chapter III, LSA Code requires each lifeboat to be equipped with two buoyant rescue quoits, each attached to a buoyant line of not less than 30 meters in length. These are essential for recovering persons from the water.

22. The muster list shows who is the designated GMDSS operator. What do the letters GMDSS stand for?

A. General Maritime Distress and Safety System
B. Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
C. Global Maritime Distress and Security System
D. Global Marine Distress and Safety System

Answer: B — Global Maritime Distress and Safety System

GMDSS stands for Global Maritime Distress and Safety System. It is an internationally agreed-upon set of safety procedures, types of equipment, and communication protocols used to increase safety and make it easier to rescue distressed ships, boats, and aircraft.

23. A mobile unit in distress should transmit the appropriate alarm signal followed by the distress call and message on one or all international distress frequencies. Which of the following sets of frequencies is correct?

A. 500 kHz, 1642 kHz, and 156.8 MHz
B. 400 kHz, 2182 kHz, and 121.5 MHz
C. 600 kHz, 2182 kHz, and 156.5 MHz
D. 500 kHz, 2182 kHz, and 156.8 MHz

Answer: D — 500 kHz, 2182 kHz, and 156.8 MHz

The frequency 500 kHz (radiotelegraphy), 2182 kHz (radiotelephony), and 156.8 MHz (VHF Channel 16) are the designated international distress and calling frequencies. While technology has shifted toward DSC, these remain the core frequencies for distress alerting.

24. Using spoken communication, what is the code word used to indicate a distress message?

A. Mayday
B. Emergency
C. Pan Pan
D. Securite

Answer: A — Mayday

In GMDSS, 'Mayday' is the international radiotelephony distress signal. It is spoken three times to indicate a station is in grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance.

25. What action should the GMDSS operator take in a distress situation when embarking a survival craft?

A. Leave them on board the main vessel
B. Switch on only the EPIRB
C. Keep EPIRB and SART switched off until a ship is seen
D. Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave them on

Answer: D — Switch on EPIRB and SART immediately and leave them on

EPIRBs and SARTs are essential survival equipment. When abandoning ship, the GMDSS operator must ensure they are switched on and taken into the survival craft to provide continuous location data for search and rescue units.

26. What do the letters E.P.I.R.B. stand for?

A. Emergency Place Indicating Radio Beacon
B. Emergency Position Indicating Radar Beacon
C. Electronic Position Indicating Radio Beacon
D. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon

Answer: D — Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon

EPIRB stands for Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon. These devices are designed to transmit distress signals to satellites, providing the location of a vessel in distress to rescue authorities.

27. EPIRB alerting is a:

A. Primary means of distress alerting
B. Non-essential means of distress alerting
C. Tertiary means of distress alerting
D. Secondary means of distress alerting

Answer: D — Secondary means of distress alerting

EPIRB alerting is considered a secondary means or a component of the alerting process. Primary alerting often involves GMDSS DSC equipment (VHF/MF/HF) which provides immediate notification to nearby vessels and shore stations.

28. EPIRB works on which satellite system?

A. Iridium
B. COSPAS-SARSAT
C. GPS / GLONASS
D. Inmarsat

Answer: B — COSPAS-SARSAT

EPIRBs operate using the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system. This international system detects and locates distress signals transmitted by radio beacons on 406 MHz.

29. LEOSAR stands for:

A. Low Earth Orbiting Systems for Search and Rescue
B. Long Earth Orbiting Satellites for SAR
C. Light Earth Orbiting Satellites for SAR
D. Low Earth Orbiting Satellites for SAR

Answer: D — Low Earth Orbiting Satellites for SAR

LEOSAR stands for Low Earth Orbiting Search and Rescue. These satellites circle the earth in polar orbits, enabling the system to detect and locate beacons anywhere on the globe.

30. How many EPIRBs are carried on board a ship as per Solas regulations?

A. Three
B. Two
C. Four
D. One

Answer: D — One

SOLAS regulations require all cargo ships and passenger ships on international voyages to carry at least one float-free satellite EPIRB, typically stored on the bridge or an easily accessible deck.

Set 4 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. All self-propelled vessels on an international voyage must be equipped with how many emergency position indicating radio beacons?

A. One approved category 1 EPIRB
B. One category 2 EPIRB
C. None
D. Two approved category 1 EPIRBs

Answer: A — One approved category 1 EPIRB

All self-propelled vessels on international voyages are required to carry one approved category 1 EPIRB, which is designed to float free from the ship and activate automatically if the vessel sinks.

2. Which position is shown by an EPIRB?

A. Dead reckoning position
B. Estimate position
C. Estimated time of arrival
D. Real time position

Answer: D — Real time position

Modern EPIRBs (406 MHz) typically include an integrated GPS receiver, which provides the precise real-time position of the vessel in distress to the rescue coordination center.

3. A VHF EPIRB is designed to be used in which GMDSS sea area?

A. Area A3
B. Area A2
C. Area A4
D. Area A1

Answer: D — Area A1

4. The battery used in EPIRBs, SARTs, and portable VHF radios is a:

A. 6V Alkaline battery
B. 12V Lead-acid battery
C. 12V Ni-Cad battery
D. 12V Primary lithium battery

Answer: D — 12V Primary lithium battery

Primary lithium batteries are used in GMDSS survival equipment because they provide a high energy density, long shelf life, and stable voltage output in extreme temperatures, which is essential for emergency gear.

5. The capacity of a lithium battery should be enough to last for how long when activated?

A. 96 Hours
B. 24 Hours
C. 72 Hours
D. 48 Hours

Answer: D — 48 Hours

SOLAS requires that survival craft batteries for GMDSS equipment (like portable VHF) must have sufficient capacity to operate for at least 48 hours to ensure communication during extended rescue operations.

6. The shelf life of a standard GMDSS survival craft battery is:

A. 1 to 2 years
B. 6 months
C. 3 to 5 years
D. 10 years

Answer: C — 3 to 5 years

Standard GMDSS survival craft batteries are designed to maintain their chemical integrity for 3 to 5 years. Regular replacement is required to ensure they meet operational standards during an actual emergency.

7. Batteries used specifically for an EPIRB have a very long shelf life of:

A. 1 year
B. 5 years or more
C. 2 years
D. 3 years

Answer: B — 5 years or more

EPIRB batteries are specialized high-capacity lithium units engineered for reliability. Their rigorous manufacturing and testing standards allow them to have a shelf life of 5 years or more.

8. Each EPIRB shall be tested using the integrated test circuit and output indicator every:

A. Week
B. Six months
C. Month
D. Year

Answer: C — Month

To ensure functionality without exhausting the battery or causing false alerts, EPIRBs are tested monthly using their internal built-in test (BITE) circuit and an output indicator, as prescribed by maintenance schedules.

9. An EPIRB signal is designed to be received ultimately by the:

A. Coast Guard station only
B. RCC / MRCC (Maritime Rescue Coordination Center)
C. Passing aircraft only
D. Ship's agent

Answer: B — RCC / MRCC (Maritime Rescue Coordination Center)

The EPIRB signal is processed by the COSPAS-SARSAT system and routed to the nearest Maritime Rescue Coordination Center (MRCC), which coordinates the search and rescue efforts.

10. The time delay in detection and relaying of an EPIRB transmission in global mode can be up to:

A. 30 minutes
B. 2 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 4 hours

Answer: B — 2 hours

While satellite processing is fast, the orbit of polar-orbiting satellites can result in a time delay. Under optimal conditions, this can be up to 2 hours before the signal is relayed to an MRCC.

11. Your Master ensures that the EPIRB is:

A. Serviced every 6 months
B. Tested weekly
C. Tested monthly
D. Tested yearly

Answer: C — Tested monthly

The Master ensures compliance with maintenance requirements by scheduling the monthly internal self-test of the EPIRB, which verifies that the battery, circuitry, and transmitter are operational.

12. HRU stands for:

A. Hydraulic Release Unit
B. Hydrostatic Release Unit
C. Hydrostatic Rescue Utility
D. High Rescue Unit

Answer: B — Hydrostatic Release Unit

HRU stands for Hydrostatic Release Unit, a device designed to release liferafts and EPIRBs automatically when a ship sinks to a specific depth, usually between 1.5 and 4 meters.

13. What does the standard IMO symbol with concentric circles and a mini radar indicator mean?

A. EPIRB
B. Two-way VHF
C. Radar reflector
D. SART

Answer: D — SART

The IMO symbol with concentric circles and a mini radar indicator is the international identifier for a SART, marking its location so survivors can easily find it during an emergency.

14. How can a SART's detection range be increased?

A. By wrapping it in cloth
B. It should be held as high as possible
C. By turning it off horizontally
D. By placing it inside the water

Answer: B — It should be held as high as possible

A SART's detection range is limited by the curvature of the earth and the height of the radar antenna. Holding the SART as high as possible increases the line-of-sight range for searching vessels or aircraft.

15. In the search and rescue radar transponder (SART), how is this device activated?

A. Via satellite signal
B. Automatically when submerged
C. It is carried into the survival craft and switched on by the occupants
D. Remotely from the bridge

Answer: C — It is carried into the survival craft and switched on by the occupants

A SART is a portable device that must be manually removed from its stowage by crew members when abandoning ship and activated by the occupants in the survival craft.

16. How long must a SART operate in standby mode?

A. 5 days
B. 24 hours
C. 96 hours
D. 48 hours

Answer: C — 96 hours

A SART must have enough battery capacity to operate in standby mode for 96 hours, ensuring it remains ready to respond to interrogating radar signals for the duration of a search.

17. A SART works on which radar frequency band?

A. band
B. X-band
C. Ka-band
D. S-band

Answer: B — X-band

SARTs operate on the X-band (9 GHz) frequency, as this is the standard frequency used by marine radar systems to detect navigation hazards and objects like lifeboats.

18. What is the precise frequency and wavelength at which a SART operates?

A. 156.8 MHz
B. 3 GHz, 10 cm (S-band)
C. 406 MHz
D. 9 GHz, 3 cm (X-band)

Answer: D — 9 GHz, 3 cm (X-band)

SARTs operate at the 9 GHz frequency, which corresponds to a wavelength of approximately 3 cm. This matches the standard marine navigation radar, allowing the SART to appear as a series of dots on the radar screen.

19. How many radar transponders (SARTs) are required to be carried on board ships for use in survival crafts?

A. Two (or one on each side of the ship)
B. Three
C. One only
D. Four

Answer: A — Two (or one on each side of the ship)

SOLAS requirements state that ships must carry at least two SARTs (or one on each side) to ensure reliable detection from any direction and redundancy in case one device fails.

20. Which of the following is considered a distress signal on deck?

A. Flag NC
B. Open fire
C. Pyrotechnics
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

All listed items—pyrotechnics (flares), fire (on deck), and the display of international code flags (like flag NC)—are recognized international distress signals under COLREGs and other maritime safety protocols.

21. Your vessel has been in a collision with another vessel. You are taking in water and you have to prepare for leaving the vessel. How will you act?

A. Wait on deck without any equipment
B. Drop anchor and hide in your cabin
C. Send a distress message and collect survival suits and thermal bags
D. Immediately jump overboard

Answer: C — Send a distress message and collect survival suits and thermal bags

Upon collision, the priority is to communicate the situation to ensure rescue can be initiated. Gathering survival suits and thermal protection is vital for maintaining body temperature in case abandonment becomes necessary.

22. Your vessel has been in a collision and you are not sure if your vessel is sinking or not. How will you handle this situation?

A. Turn off all alarms to prevent panic
B. Search for missing persons, continue to monitor the situation, and prepare for abandonment in case it becomes necessary
C. Disregard the collision and continue steaming
D. Order immediate abandonment without checking

Answer: B — Search for missing persons, continue to monitor the situation, and prepare for abandonment in case it becomes necessary

Immediate, uncoordinated abandonment is dangerous. The crew must search for casualties and monitor vessel stability to make an informed decision, ensuring the ship is truly beyond saving before departing.

23. An alarm signal consisting of seven short blasts followed by one prolonged blast is sounded by the ship's whistle and alarm bells. What are you to do?

A. Proceed to the engine room workshop
B. Remain in your bunk
C. Go to your lifeboat/muster station
D. Go to the galley for food

Answer: C — Go to your lifeboat/muster station

The signal of seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast on the whistle and alarm bells is the mandatory general emergency alarm, requiring all crew to report to their assigned muster stations.

24. Your vessel is a tanker in ballast and the two vessels are interlocked after a collision. After ensuring all people are well taken care of, you try to separate the two vessels. What should be your greatest concern?

A. Missing the next port schedule
B. Losing your anchor
C. Damaging the ship's paint
D. That the separation may cause sparks that can possibly ignite the oil or any other flammable substances

Answer: D — That the separation may cause sparks that can possibly ignite the oil or any other flammable substances

When separating vessels, friction can generate sparks or heat. On a tanker, this poses an extreme risk of igniting flammable vapors, which could lead to an explosion or fire, making safety precautions paramount.

25. Which one of the given requirements regarding the manning and supervision of survival craft corresponds to Solas regulations?

A. Any crew member can command a survival craft
B. Lifeboats don't require any assigned person-in-charge
C. Only the Chief Cook can manage survival craft
D. deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be used

Answer: D — deck officer or certificated person shall be placed in charge of each survival craft to be used

SOLAS Chapter III stipulates that for every survival craft, a certificated person or deck officer must be placed in charge to ensure orderly launching, navigation, and coordination of the survivors.

26. Where do you find the minimum drill requirements for merchant vessels?

A. In the ISPS code
B. In the Solas convention
C. In the MARPOL convention
D. In the STCW convention

Answer: B — In the Solas convention

SOLAS (International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea) mandates minimum requirements for safety drills, including lifeboat, fire, and abandonment drills, to ensure crew readiness.

27. What is most important when preparing for shipboard emergencies?

A. Having a high speed engine
B. Having a clean uniform
C. That people are well trained
D. Having the best food on board

Answer: C — That people are well trained

The effectiveness of emergency response is entirely dependent on the proficiency and training of the crew. Well-trained personnel can react calmly and execute complex procedures even under high-stress conditions.

28. When should abandonment of a ship be undertaken?

A. When the ship runs out of fresh water
B. As a last resort on orders from the Master
C. As soon as a minor fire starts
D. At any time individual crew members feel like it

Answer: B — As a last resort on orders from the Master

Abandonment is a critical, life-threatening procedure. It must only be done as a last resort, after the Master has evaluated that the ship is no longer safe to stay aboard and has officially given the order.

29. Posters or signs shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching controls. Which of the following details does NOT explicitly need to be displayed according to this specific regulation?

A. Illustrate the purpose of controls and procedures for launching
B. Give recommendations for survival
C. Give warning notices
D. Give information on survival craft capacity

Answer: D — Give information on survival craft capacity

While capacity is vital, the specific regulation regarding posters in the vicinity of launching controls focuses on operational instructions, safety warnings, and survival recommendations, rather than the specific capacity of the craft.

30. In an emergency situation, is it a good idea to jump overboard and swim towards a launched lifeboat?

A. Yes, always jump with your shoes off
B. As a general rule, don't jump into the sea
C. Jump only if the water is warm
D. Yes, it is the quickest option

Answer: B — As a general rule, don't jump into the sea

Jumping into the sea poses risks of injury, hypothermia, and separation. The general rule is to enter the water carefully and only when necessary, as abandoning the vessel via controlled launching is always preferred.

Set 5 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the working duration of a Man Overboard (MOB) smoke float?

A. 30 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes

Answer: B — 15 minutes

MOB smoke floats, attached to lifebuoys, are designed to produce dense orange smoke for at least 15 minutes to provide a visual marker for locating a person in the water.

2. Lifeboats can be safely lowered using painters when the vessel is making headway up to a speed of:

A. 5 knots
B. 10 knots
C. 12 knots
D. 2 knots

Answer: A — 5 knots

Modern lifeboats are designed for launching while a ship has headway. Regulations and testing ensure they can be safely launched using painters at a speed of up to 5 knots in calm water.

3. How much water is provided in a standard life raft per person?

A. 3 liters
B. 1 liter
C. 1.5 liters
D. 0.5 liters

Answer: C — 1.5 liters

To ensure survival during the critical first days after abandonment, SOLAS requires that 1.5 liters of fresh water be provided for every person the survival craft is certified to carry.

4. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys required on a cargo ship of length over 200 meters?

A. 14
B. 12
C. 8
D. 10

Answer: A — 14

For a vessel over 200 meters, the number of lifebuoys required by SOLAS is 14. This quantity is mandated to ensure rapid accessibility from any point on the deck during an emergency.

5. What is the percentage requirement for child life jackets on a cargo vessel?

A. 15 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 5 percent
D. 10 percent

Answer: D — 10 percent

SOLAS requires that vessels carry lifejackets for all persons on board, plus an additional 10% for children, to ensure there are correctly sized life-saving appliances for all passengers and crew.

6. Once you hear the fire alarm, where must you proceed?

A. Proceed to your designated muster station
B. To the bridge
C. To your cabin to sleep
D. To the lifeboats directly

Answer: A — Proceed to your designated muster station

Upon hearing the fire alarm or general emergency alarm, all crew must proceed immediately to their designated muster station as specified in the Muster List. This ensures accountability and allows for the orderly execution of emergency procedures.

7. What is the regulatory donning time allowed for an immersion suit?

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Answer: C — 2 minutes

According to the LSA Code, an immersion suit must be designed to be donned within a period of 2 minutes, excluding the removal of any clothing, ensuring rapid response in survival situations.

8. When a group of persons is floating in cold water without a craft, they should form which protective position?

A. Horizontal starfish position
B. Huddle position
C. Single line position
D. Swimming in circles

Answer: B — Huddle position

The huddle position is a heat escape lessening posture (HELP) used by survivors in cold water to minimize heat loss through radiation and conduction by keeping trunks close together.

9. Which one of the listed requirements regarding rigid life rafts does NOT correspond to present regulations?

A. All the entrances must be fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding life rafts at sea
B. It shall be fitted with an efficient painter
C. It must be highly visible
D. The floor shall prevent the ingress of water

Answer: A — All the entrances must be fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding life rafts at sea

While life rafts are equipped with boarding ladders or means to assist access, rigid boarding ramps are not a universal requirement for all life rafts.

10. Checking and servicing life rafts as per the Planned Maintenance System (PMS) is carried out:

A. Monthly
B. Every 2 years
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once a year (Every 12 months)

Answer: D — Once a year (Every 12 months)

SOLAS regulations require that life rafts must be serviced at an approved shore-based facility at intervals not exceeding 12 months to ensure the integrity of the raft, inflation system, and emergency packs.

11. Before lifting a lifeboat from the water back to its davits, it must be ensured that:

A. The drain plug is wide open
B. Falls are clear and secured tightly (hooked securely)
C. The engine is still running at full speed
D. All gear is thrown overboard

Answer: B — Falls are clear and secured tightly (hooked securely)

For the safe recovery of a lifeboat, it is critical to ensure that the falls are properly secured to the hooks and the release gear is in the correct position to prevent accidental disengagement during hoisting.

12. Which one of the listed routine tests and inspections of LSA is NOT required on a daily/weekly basis by present regulations?

A. Lifeboat engine test weekly
B. Testing of life jacket lights
C. General emergency alarm to be tested daily
D. Inspection of lifeboats weekly

Answer: C — General emergency alarm to be tested daily

The General Emergency Alarm is required to be tested periodically (e.g., weekly), but there is no regulatory requirement for it to be tested on a daily basis.

13. Lifeboats should have:

A. No rescue lines attached
B. One rescue quoit with a 10-meter line
C. Wire lines instead of ropes
D. Two buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30 meters of buoyant line

Answer: D — Two buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30 meters of buoyant line

The LSA Code stipulates that every lifeboat must carry two buoyant rescue quoits, each attached to a buoyant line of at least 30 meters, to facilitate the rescue of a person in the water.

14. The luminous intensity of a hand flare should not be less than:

A. 15,000 cd
B. 5,000 cd
C. 20,000 cd
D. 10,000 cd

Answer: A — 15,000 cd

The LSA Code mandates that hand flares must have a luminous intensity of not less than 15,000 candela to ensure visibility during distress signaling.

15. A Line Throwing Apparatus (LTA) is fundamentally used to pass a:

A. Messenger line
B. Anchor chain
C. Fuel hose line
D. Heavy mooring wire

Answer: A — Messenger line

The Line Throwing Apparatus is a pyrotechnic device designed to fire a projectile carrying a thin 'messenger line' from one ship to another or to shore, which is then used to pull over heavier tow lines or moorings.

16. A life jacket light shall have a source of energy capable of providing a luminous intensity of ______ for a period of ______:

A. 1.5 cd / 2 hours
B. 10 cd / 12 hours
C. 0.75 cd / 8 hours
D. 0.5 cd / 4 hours

Answer: C — 0.75 cd / 8 hours

Read as 0.75 cd in standard LSA code

17. Lifeboats must be stored in such a way on a cargo ship that they can be fully launched within a maximum of:

A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Answer: A — 10 minutes

SOLAS regulations require that cargo ships be fitted with survival craft that can be boarded and launched within a maximum period of 10 minutes to ensure quick evacuation.

18. Where are additional life jackets kept on board a vessel?

A. In conspicuous, clearly marked places on deck or at muster stations
B. Hidden inside cabins
C. Locked inside the steering gear room
D. In the paint locker

Answer: A — In conspicuous, clearly marked places on deck or at muster stations

Life jackets must be stowed in conspicuous and clearly marked places, such as near cabin entrances or at muster stations, to ensure they are immediately accessible during an emergency.

19. Which of the listed requirements regarding the storage of lifeboats and life rafts does NOT correspond to present Solas regulations?

A. Life rafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stored amidships secured to means for transfer to either side
B. They must be stored in a state of continuous readiness
C. They must be safely secured
D. They must not interfere with other survival craft

Answer: A — Life rafts intended for throw-overboard launching shall be stored amidships secured to means for transfer to either side

Life rafts intended for throw-overboard launching do not need to be stored amidships; they are typically stored near the ship's side to facilitate a quick, direct drop into the water.

20. Vessels of 100 meters and over in length should have a minimum of how many lifebuoys?

A. 8 lifebuoys
B. 12 lifebuoys
C. 6 lifebuoys
D. 10 lifebuoys

Answer: D — 10 lifebuoys

According to the LSA Code, for vessels of 100 meters and over in length, a minimum of 10 lifebuoys is required to be distributed along the sides of the ship.

21. The function of a hydrostatic release unit (HRU) is:

A. To automatically unhook the lashing and release the life raft when the ship sinks
B. To launch the lifeboat manually
C. To pump water out of the life raft
D. To measure the depth of the sea

Answer: A — To automatically unhook the lashing and release the life raft when the ship sinks

A Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) is a pressure-sensitive device that automatically releases the life raft's lashing when submerged to a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters, allowing the raft to float free as the ship sinks.

22. What are the characteristics of Carbon Dioxide (CO2)?

A. It is bright green in color
B. It is heavier than oxygen
C. It is lighter than oxygen
D. It supports combustion

Answer: B — It is heavier than oxygen

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a colorless, odorless gas that is heavier than air (and oxygen). It suppresses fire by displacing oxygen in the environment, effectively smothering the fire.

23. Which one of the listed requirements regarding buoyant smoke signals does NOT correspond to present regulations? The buoyant smoke signal shall:

A. Give a bright red light during the entire emission time
B. Not ignite explosively
C. Emit smoke of a highly visible color
D. Continue to emit smoke when submerged in water

Answer: A — Give a bright red light during the entire emission time

Smoke signals emit smoke, not a bright light

24. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for survival craft corresponds to present Solas regulations?

A. Only manual hand-cranks can be used for lowering
B. Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times observes the survival craft and lifeboats
C. The operator on deck cannot see the craft during lowering
D. Launching must take at least 1 hour

Answer: B — Launching and recovery arrangements shall be such that the operator at all times observes the survival craft and lifeboats

Launching and recovery systems must be designed so that the operator in charge of the launching procedure has a clear view of the survival craft throughout the entire process to maintain safety.

25. Which one of the listed requirements regarding a lifeboat's propulsion system does NOT correspond to present regulations?

A. The engine must run on fuel with a flashpoint of 43°C or less
B. The engine must be capable of starting at 15°C below zero
C. The engine shall be provided with an electric power starting system with rechargeable energy batteries only
D. The engine must be an internal combustion engine

Answer: C — The engine shall be provided with an electric power starting system with rechargeable energy batteries only

Lifeboats must have secondary manual/hydraulic starting mechanisms

26. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship and fire drills does NOT correspond to present regulations?

A. Drills must be recorded in the logbook
B. Passengers must be trained to launch lifeboats
C. On all short international voyages, muster of passengers shall take place as soon as possible after departure
D. Every crew member must participate monthly

Answer: C — On all short international voyages, muster of passengers shall take place as soon as possible after departure

For short voyages, it should be before or immediately at departure

27. After the first 24 hours in a life raft, how much water is allocated per person per day?

A. 0.5 Liter (half liter)
B. 1.5 Liters
C. 2 Liters
D. 1 Liter

Answer: A — 0.5 Liter (half liter)

To preserve physiological function in a survival situation, the intake of water is restricted. For the first 24 hours, no water is consumed, followed by a ration of 0.5 liters per person per day.

28. Which of the following items shall be included in each fire drill?

A. Painting the fire hydrants
B. Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers, and relevant communication equipment
C. Dismantling the main fire pump
D. Emptying all fuel tanks

Answer: B — Checking the operation of watertight doors, fire doors, fire dampers, and relevant communication equipment

Fire drills must be realistic and include the operation of fire pumps, communication equipment, and the closing of fire-resisting doors and dampers to ensure all crew are familiar with fire-fighting systems.

29. How should the painter of a life raft fitted with a hydrostatic release unit be secured to the ship?

A. Shackled directly to a heavy structural frame
B. Tied to the railing with a simple knot
C. Secured via a weak link to a secure point on the ship
D. Left loose on the deck

Answer: C — Secured via a weak link to a secure point on the ship

The painter is attached to the ship via a 'weak link' so that if the ship sinks, the hydrostatic release unit activates, the raft floats free, and the painter eventually breaks, preventing the raft from being dragged down.

30. Which one of the listed requirements regarding partially enclosed lifeboats does NOT correspond to present regulations? The canopy between rigid covers shall be:

A. Easily erectable
B. Completely opaque with no light entering
C. Insulated against cold and heat
D. It has windows to admit sufficient daylight inside the boat with the canopy closed

Answer: D — It has windows to admit sufficient daylight inside the boat with the canopy closed

Partially enclosed lifeboats must have a canopy that provides protection but also includes windows to allow daylight to enter, ensuring the interior is not completely dark for the occupants.

Set 6 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is considered a general emergency on board a ship?

A. Loss of stability during cargo operations
B. Hull failure
C. Uncontrolled venting or cargo jettisoning on a gas tanker
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

A general emergency refers to any catastrophic event that threatens the safety of the ship or personnel, including hull failure, uncontrolled cargo incidents, or stability loss, requiring immediate muster.

2. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stability of inflatable life rafts does NOT correspond to present regulations? The stability of inflatable life rafts shall be such that:

A. It can withstand high winds
B. In the event of capsizing, it will automatically attain a position providing an enable water escape
C. It can be towed easily
D. It has water pockets underneath

Answer: B — In the event of capsizing, it will automatically attain a position providing an enable water escape

Inflatable life rafts don't automatically self-right unless they are specially designed self-righting types

3. Retro-reflective tape is provided on which equipment?

A. Lifeboats and life rafts
B. Fire hoses and nozzles
C. Anchor chains and windlass
D. Main engine control panel

Answer: A — Lifeboats and life rafts

Retro-reflective tape is required on all LSA, including lifeboats, life rafts, and life jackets, to make them visible at night by reflecting light from searchlights or other sources.

4. How much lifeboat capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more than 85 meters in length?

A. 150% total capacity anywhere
B. 200% on each side
C. 50% on each side
D. 100% of the ship's complement on each side

Answer: D — 100% of the ship's complement on each side

For cargo ships of 85 meters and above, SOLAS requires that lifeboats be carried on each side of the ship with a total capacity of 100% of the ship's complement on each side.

5. Which one of the listed requirements regarding rescue boat equipment does NOT correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include:

A. searchlight
B. Buoyant oars or paddlers
C. buoyant biler
D. Immersion suits for the total number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate

Answer: D — Immersion suits for the total number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate

Regulations only specify them for the actual rescue boat crew, not full capacity

6. A SART typically uses a lithium primary battery of:

A. 1.5 Volts
B. 6 Volts
C. 12 Volts
D. 24 Volts

Answer: C — 12 Volts

The SART is a survival craft transponder that, as per IMO performance standards, typically utilizes a 12-volt battery to provide sufficient power for its 96-hour standby and 8-hour transmission requirement.

7. What is the minimum number of channels required for a portable 2-way VHF radio used for survival craft?

A. Channel 70
B. Channel 12 only
C. Channel 16
D. Channels 6, 13, and 16

Answer: C — Channel 16

A portable two-way VHF radio for survival craft must be capable of operating on Channel 16, which is the international distress, safety, and calling channel.

8. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communication channel and is mandatory in all portable survival craft equipment?

A. Channel 6
B. Channel 22
C. Channel 13
D. Channel 16

Answer: D — Channel 16

Channel 16 is the mandatory calling and distress frequency. Once contact is established on Channel 16, the survival craft and rescuers switch to a 'follow-on' channel to keep the distress frequency clear.

9. GMDSS regulations require that cargo vessels carry two-way VHF for survival craft. How many are required and when did the regulations fully apply?

A. 1 set per lifeboat station
B. 5 sets for any container ship
C. 2 sets for all ships built after 2000
D. 3 sets; new builds from February 1992, other ships from February 1995

Answer: D — 3 sets; new builds from February 1992, other ships from February 1995

GMDSS requirements dictate that cargo vessels must carry at least 3 sets of two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatuses for use in survival craft to ensure effective communication during abandonment.

10. Batteries fitted in an EPIRB, SART, etc., are to be changed when:

A. They look old and dusty
B. Every 6 months automatically
C. Only after they drain out completely during an emergency
D. Battery to be changed as per the expiry date mentioned by the maker

Answer: D — Battery to be changed as per the expiry date mentioned by the maker

Batteries for safety equipment like SARTs and EPIRBs have a limited service life due to chemical degradation. They must be replaced by the manufacturer's specified expiry date to ensure reliability.

11. If a distress signal is received on board, what should you do?

A. Try to make contact with the vessel in distress
B. All of the alternatives together
C. Contact SAR authorities via the nearest coastal radio station
D. Post an extra lookout

Answer: B — All of the alternatives together

Upon receiving a distress signal, a vessel is under legal and moral obligation to assist, which involves notifying SAR authorities, maintaining a sharp lookout, and attempting to establish communication.

12. What is the minimum required duration of a buoyant smoke marker?

A. 1 minute
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 3 minutes

Answer: D — 3 minutes

A buoyant smoke marker is a distress signal that must produce smoke for a duration of at least 3 minutes to provide a sustained visual reference for search and rescue aircraft or vessels.

13. Life jackets should be stored in:

A. Readily accessible spaces
B. The steering flat
C. Sealed boxes requiring tools to open
D. Under lock and key by the Chief Mate

Answer: A — Readily accessible spaces

Life jackets must be stored in readily accessible spaces so that they can be retrieved quickly without hindrance, even in the dark or during vessel movement.

14. Which one of the listed requirements regarding lifeboat fittings does NOT correspond to present regulations? All lifeboats shall be fitted with:

A. Lifelines becketed around the outside
B. continuous bright flame burning bucket around the outside of the lifeboat
C. An efficient drain valve
D. rudder and tiller

Answer: B — continuous bright flame burning bucket around the outside of the lifeboat

Lifeboats are not required to be fitted with a burning bucket around the outside; such a device would be hazardous and inefficient. The other options listed are standard mandatory requirements.

15. Every lifeboat is required to be launched and maneuvered in water at least once in every:

A. Three months
B. Year
C. Month
D. Two months

Answer: A — Three months

SOLAS requires that each survival craft must be stowed, launched, and maneuvered in the water at intervals of at least once every three months during a drill.

16. After abandoning ship, survivors in a lifeboat must be given:

A. Double rations of water if they feel hot
B. Seawater to drink
C. No water for the first 24 hours
D. Rations and water immediately

Answer: C — No water for the first 24 hours

To avoid dehydration induced by the body attempting to process the salt content of seawater, survivors are instructed not to drink water for the first 24 hours to stabilize their fluid balance.

17. Fire-protected lifeboats, when waterborne, should be capable of protecting their full complement when subjected to a continuous oil fire that envelops the boat for a period of not less than:

A. 5 minutes
B. 8 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 20 minutes

Answer: B — 8 minutes

Fire-protected lifeboats (tanker lifeboats) are specifically designed to withstand extreme heat and must be capable of surviving for at least 8 minutes in a continuous oil fire.

18. An enclosed lifeboat is fitted with a self-contained air support system. With the engine running, what is the minimum period of time the air should remain safe and breathable?

A. 5 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Answer: C — 10 minutes

Enclosed lifeboats must have a self-contained air support system capable of providing breathable air for at least 10 minutes, protecting occupants from toxic smoke or fumes during launching.

19. The smoke detector panel indicates a fire in a cargo hold loaded with general cargo. What first action should be taken?

A. Run fire hoses into the hold immediately
B. Increase the mechanical ventilation speed
C. Open all hatches to look inside
D. Close the ventilation system and other openings to the hold in order to choke the fire

Answer: D — Close the ventilation system and other openings to the hold in order to choke the fire

In the event of a fire in a cargo hold, the immediate first step is to cut off the oxygen supply by closing all ventilation dampers and sealing the compartment to starve the fire.

20. Lifebuoy self-igniting lights shall be capable of burning continuously for a period of not less than:

A. 1 hour
B. 4 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 8 hours

Answer: C — 2 hours

Lifebuoy self-igniting lights must be able to operate continuously for at least 2 hours to provide a visual marker in the water for search and rescue teams.

21. The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling winch is intended to:

A. Stop the boat instantly if a cable snaps
B. Increase the lifting speed of the winch motor
C. Automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity
D. Lock the davit arms in the stowed position

Answer: C — Automatically control the speed of lowering by gravity

The centrifugal brake is a safety feature on the lifeboat winch that automatically regulates the lowering speed by gravity, preventing the boat from descending too fast.

22. If the water is rising in the bilge of a survival craft, you should first:

A. Use a hand flare to signal for help
B. Start drilling holes to let water out
C. Abandon the survival craft
D. Check the bilge drain plug

Answer: D — Check the bilge drain plug

A rising water level in the bilge indicates either a leak or an improperly secured drain plug; therefore, the plug must be the first item checked to prevent flooding.

23. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the:

A. Electric winch motor
B. Governor brake
C. Hand crank handle
D. Limit switch

Answer: B — Governor brake

The governor brake (or centrifugal brake) is the primary mechanism that limits the speed of the lifeboat during gravity lowering to a safe rate of descent.

24. The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to:

A. Turn on the lifeboat internal lights
B. Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position
C. Stop the boat from lowering too fast into the water
D. Release the hooks automatically

Answer: B — Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position

The limit switch is a safety device that cuts off the power to the winch motor when the lifeboat reaches the final stowed position, preventing damage to the davits.

25. Most lifeboats are equipped with which type of rudder configuration?

A. Flap rudder
B. Unbalanced rudder
C. Semi-balanced rudder
D. Balanced rudder

Answer: B — Unbalanced rudder

Most lifeboats utilize an unbalanced rudder configuration, which is simpler to design and maintain, providing adequate maneuverability for the relatively low speeds at which lifeboats travel.

26. At what speed and for how long must a fully loaded motor lifeboat operate in calm water?

A. 5 knots for 6 hours
B. 6 knots for 24 hours
C. 10 knots for 48 hours
D. 4 knots for 12 hours

Answer: B — 6 knots for 24 hours

A fully loaded motor lifeboat is required to have an engine capable of propelling the boat at a speed of at least 6 knots in calm water for a period of 24 hours.

27. Which item in the lifeboat is considered a regulatory study/instructional material?

A. Engineering blue print of the ship
B. Instructions on how to survive on board the craft
C. Nautical almanac
D. Solas Consolidated Edition

Answer: B — Instructions on how to survive on board the craft

LSA Code regulations mandate that survival craft must carry manuals or instructions detailing survival techniques and the operation of craft equipment to assist survivors in maintaining their safety and welfare after abandoning ship.

28. What is the standard minimum length of a lifeboat painter?

A. 50 meters
B. 30 meters
C. 15 meters
D. 10 meters

Answer: C — 15 meters

Under the International Life-Saving Appliance (LSA) Code, the lifeboat painter must have a length of at least 15 meters to ensure safe tethering and deployment during launching operations.

29. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel of an enclosed lifeboat?

A. It automatically pumps out the bilges
B. It stabilizes the boat's rolling
C. It prevents release of the hooks until the keel of the boat is fully under water
D. It prevents the engine from starting out of the water

Answer: C — It prevents release of the hooks until the keel of the boat is fully under water

The hydrostatic interlock is a critical safety mechanism designed to prevent the accidental release of lifeboat hooks while the craft is still suspended in the davits; it only allows release once the buoyancy of the water triggers the mechanism.

30. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside (parallel) to heavy waves and sea could cause it to:

A. Align smoothly
B. Capsize
C. Pitch heavily
D. Go faster

Answer: B — Capsize

Steering broadside to heavy seas exposes the lifeboat to the full force of waves hitting the beam, which significantly increases the risk of the craft rolling to the point of capsizing.

Set 7 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. With the water sprinkler system and the air system turned on and all hatches shut, an enclosed survival craft will provide protection from:

A. Shark attacks
B. Heavy rain only
C. External fire and a toxic gas environment
D. High pressure waves only

Answer: C — External fire and a toxic gas environment

Enclosed survival craft feature air support systems and water spray protection to provide a secure environment, protecting occupants from the intense thermal radiation of an external oil fire and preventing the ingress of hazardous smoke or toxic gases.

2. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

A. Carrying capacity of persons
B. Dimensions of the boat
C. Name of the parent vessel
D. Total weight of the boat with full load

Answer: D — Total weight of the boat with full load

Dimensions, capacity, and ship name are painted, while weight details are on the builder's plate

3. Every lifeboat requires to be launched into the water and maneuvered at least once in every:

A. Three months
B. Six months
C. Month
D. Two months

Answer: A — Three months

SOLAS requirements state that every lifeboat shall be launched with its assigned operating crew aboard and maneuvered in the water at least once every three months as part of mandatory drills.

4. The mandatory distress pyrotechnics required to be kept inside a lifeboat container are:

A. Rocket parachutes + Line throwers
B. Sound signals + Strobe lights
C. Rocket parachutes + Hand flares + Buoyant smoke signals
D. Red flags and matches

Answer: C — Rocket parachutes + Hand flares + Buoyant smoke signals

The LSA Code specifies that a lifeboat must be equipped with rocket parachute flares, hand flares, and buoyant smoke signals to ensure survivors have various means of visual distress signaling for both day and night detection.

5. When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should:

A. Wait for calmer weather or specific instructions before transferring personnel
B. Immediately order everyone to jump into the sea
C. Tie the lifeboat directly to the rescue ship's propeller
D. Turn off the lifeboat engine and abandon helm controls

Answer: A — Wait for calmer weather or specific instructions before transferring personnel

Transferring personnel from a lifeboat to a rescue vessel in heavy seas is extremely dangerous; the person in charge must prioritize safety and await favorable conditions or specific instructions to prevent injury or loss of life.

6. Which of the following survival equipment items is considered consumable?

A. Anti-seasickness tablets
B. Drinking water
C. Food rations
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Consumable items in survival equipment include food, water, and medication (such as anti-seasickness tablets), which are depleted during use and must be replenished or maintained for ongoing survival.

7. Which will be the worst of emergencies that you would face if it happens at sea?

A. Minor galley fire
B. Generator tripping
C. Foundering (Sinking completely)
D. Loss of Wi-Fi

Answer: C — Foundering (Sinking completely)

Foundering is the most severe maritime emergency as it involves the total loss of the vessel's buoyancy, requiring an immediate and total abandonment of the ship into survival craft.

8. A life jacket has which of the following mandatory safety attachments on it?

A. Compass + Knife
B. Flare gun + EPIRB
C. Line thrower + Mirror
D. Retro-reflective tape + Whistle + Light

Answer: D — Retro-reflective tape + Whistle + Light

SOLAS regulations require all life jackets to be fitted with a whistle for audible signaling, a light to assist in night-time location, and retro-reflective material to enhance visibility in search and rescue operations.

9. Which of these requirements regarding the launching and recovery arrangements for rescue boats corresponds to Solas regulations?

A. They must take at least 30 minutes to prepare
B. They must only be handled by the Captain
C. They can only be launched when the ship is completely stopped
D. Embarkation and launching arrangements shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in less than 5 minutes

Answer: D — Embarkation and launching arrangements shall be such that the rescue boat can be boarded and launched in less than 5 minutes

To ensure rapid response in emergency recovery operations, SOLAS mandates that rescue boat embarkation and launching arrangements must be designed to be ready for boarding and deployment within 5 minutes.

10. When a person who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, how should the boat normally approach with the wind?

A. With wind directly on the beam and victim to windward
B. At full speed from windward side
C. Just off the bow and the victim to leeward
D. Directly from astern

Answer: C — Just off the bow and the victim to leeward

A rescue boat should approach a person in the water with the windward side providing a lee; the victim should be positioned to leeward to prevent the boat from drifting onto the casualty.

11. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in immediate danger of drowning, how should the rescue boat maneuver?

A. Perform an elegant, slow Williamson turn
B. Make the most direct and safest immediate approach
C. Circle the person three times before stopping
D. Wait for sunrise

Answer: B — Make the most direct and safest immediate approach

In cases of immediate danger, the rescue boat must prioritize the most direct and safest approach to extract the victim from the water as quickly as possible to prevent drowning.

12. In moderate sea conditions, when loaded with its full complement of persons and equipment, the recovery time of a fast rescue boat (FRB) shall be not more than:

A. 10 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 6 minutes

Answer: D — 6 minutes

SOLAS standards for Fast Rescue Boats (FRB) stipulate that they must be capable of being recovered in moderate sea conditions within 6 minutes when fully loaded with crew and equipment.

13. Inflatable rescue boats shall be marked externally with which information?

A. Serial number, the maker's name, and the date of manufacture
B. Total weight of rubber used
C. Names of all the crew members on board
D. Next port of call

Answer: A — Serial number, the maker's name, and the date of manufacture

Inflatable rescue boats must be clearly marked with manufacturing details, including the serial number, manufacturer's name, and date of manufacture, for maintenance tracking and safety certification.

14. The outboard engine of a Fast Rescue Boat (FRB) is approved to run using which fuel type?

A. Gasoline / Petrol
B. Marine Gas Oil (MGO) only
C. Heavy Fuel Oil (HFO)
D. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG)

Answer: A — Gasoline / Petrol

The outboard engines of Fast Rescue Boats are designed for high-performance operation and are approved to use gasoline, which provides the necessary power-to-weight ratio for rapid rescue deployment.

15. The Public Address (PA) system shall be a loudspeaker installation enabling the broadcast of emergency messages into:

A. Open decks only
B. All spaces where crew members or passengers, or both, are normally present, and to muster stations
C. Only the bridge and engine room
D. Only the cargo control room

Answer: B — All spaces where crew members or passengers, or both, are normally present, and to muster stations

The Public Address system is a crucial communication tool mandated by SOLAS to ensure emergency instructions are clearly broadcast to all muster stations and areas where crew or passengers are located.

16. The liquid inside a standard wet card magnetic compass is a specific mixture of:

A. Glycerin and heavy oil
B. Distilled water and pure ethylene alcohol
C. Seawater and kerosene
D. Pure acetone

Answer: B — Distilled water and pure ethylene alcohol

The compass card in a liquid-filled magnetic compass is suspended in a mixture of distilled water and pure ethylene alcohol, which prevents freezing at low temperatures and ensures smooth damping of the card.

17. What does the standard graphical IMO symbol showing a boat being lowered horizontally by two wires indicate?

A. Lower rescue boat
B. Launch life raft
C. Fast rescue boat recovery
D. Evacuation slide usage

Answer: A — Lower rescue boat

The IMO graphical symbol depicting a boat being lowered horizontally by two wires is the standard safety sign for a rescue boat, used to indicate the location and operation of the launch gear.

18. You are picking up a person who has fallen overboard. A rescue boat should normally approach the casualty with the:

A. Victim to windward
B. Engine completely turned off 50 meters away
C. Victim to leeward
D. Boat moving astern

Answer: C — Victim to leeward

Approaching a casualty to leeward is essential to create a sheltered area (a lee) and prevent the rescue boat from being pushed by the wind directly onto the person in the water.

19. All rescue boats shall be capable of being launched, utilizing painters where necessary, with the parent ship making headway at speeds up to:

A. 12 knots under any condition
B. 5 knots in calm water
C. 2 knots in heavy seas
D. 10 knots in calm water

Answer: B — 5 knots in calm water

To ensure rescue boats can be effectively deployed while the ship is moving, they must be capable of launching and maneuvering at speeds of at least 5 knots in calm water.

20. An inflatable life raft is stabilized against flipping and wind drift primarily by:

A. Rigging lines on top
B. The weight of its canopy
C. heavy iron keel
D. The water-filled stability pockets underneath it

Answer: D — The water-filled stability pockets underneath it

Water-filled stability pockets, also known as water pockets or bags, located under the life raft fill with seawater immediately upon inflation to add weight and lower the center of gravity, preventing capsizing.

21. After abandoning ship, survivors inside a survival craft must be given:

A. Water and food immediately on boarding
B. Seawater to preserve fresh water
C. No fresh water for the first 24 hours (unless injured)
D. Double water rations to handle panic

Answer: C — No fresh water for the first 24 hours (unless injured)

To prevent dehydration, initial rationing protocols often restrict fresh water intake during the first 24 hours unless the survivor is suffering from severe heat or injury, as the body's metabolic demand is lower.

22. Every inflatable life raft, inflatable life jacket, and Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) shall be professionally serviced at an approved station every:

A. 5 years
B. 12 months (every year)
C. 24 months
D. 6 months

Answer: B — 12 months (every year)

SOLAS requires mandatory annual servicing for all inflatable life-saving appliances, including life rafts, life jackets, and hydrostatic release units, to ensure they remain in operational condition.

23. How much fresh water is available per person in a standard Lifeboat container?

A. 5 Liters
B. 1.5 Liters
C. 2 Liters
D. 3 Liters

Answer: D — 3 Liters

In accordance with LSA Code requirements, every lifeboat must be provided with 3 liters of fresh water for every person the boat is permitted to accommodate.

24. If you have to abandon ship into cold water, what type of clothing preparation is best?

A. Put on extra layers of clothing, preferably with a waterproof layer on top
B. Wear wool clothing only without any footwear
C. Put on your heavy work boiler suit only
D. Strip down to minimal light clothing to swim faster

Answer: A — Put on extra layers of clothing, preferably with a waterproof layer on top

In cold water, survival depends on thermal insulation; wearing multiple layers of clothing, particularly a waterproof outer layer, helps trap heat and protects the skin from rapid cooling.

25. How much fresh water is provided per person inside an inflatable life raft equipment pack?

A. 0.5 Liter
B. 1 Liter
C. 1.5 Liters
D. 3 Liters

Answer: C — 1.5 Liters

The LSA Code mandates that an inflatable life raft equipment pack must contain 1.5 liters of fresh water per person, which is sufficient to sustain survival until rescue occurs.

26. What critical step should be done before throwing a throw-overboard life raft pack into the sea, after securing its painter to a strong point?

A. Cut the container bands with an axe
B. Check that there is nothing and no casualties in the sea directly below
C. Throw the oars first
D. Inflate it on deck first

Answer: B — Check that there is nothing and no casualties in the sea directly below

It is critical to ensure the area below the launching position is clear of persons or debris before throwing an inflatable life raft to prevent injury to those in the water.

27. How should the painter of a life raft fitted with a hydrostatic release unit (HRU) be secured to the ship structure?

A. Kept completely unattached until launching
B. Shackled directly onto the main steel deck without any links
C. Wrapped loosely around the railing tubes
D. Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship

Answer: D — Secured via a weak link to a secure part of the ship

The painter is secured to the ship via a weak link to ensure that if the ship sinks, the raft will automatically detach once the tension exceeds the weak link's breaking strength, preventing the raft from being pulled down by the ship.

28. Referring to the Solas convention, how often should every crew member on a cargo ship participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill?

A. Every six months
B. Weekly
C. Every two months
D. Monthly

Answer: D — Monthly

SOLAS regulation III/19 requires that every crew member participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month to maintain competency in emergency procedures.

29. What constitutes the formal abandon ship signal?

A. The chief engineer stopping the main engine
B. Any crew member shouting on the PA system
C. The sounding of the continuous fog horn automatically
D. verbal or alarms command given only by the Master or his deputy

Answer: D — verbal or alarms command given only by the Master or his deputy

The abandon ship signal is a formal emergency command issued only by the Master or their authorized deputy to ensure the decision is deliberate, documented, and fully coordinated.

30. What are the core physical/smothering characteristics of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) when used for firefighting?

A. It displaces oxygen
B. It is in itself not dangerous (not toxic/poisonous in low levels)
C. All of the above
D. It is heavier than oxygen

Answer: C — All of the above

Carbon Dioxide is an effective fire extinguishing agent because it is heavier than air, displaces oxygen, and is non-conductive, making it suitable for electrical fires; however, it is an asphyxiant requiring caution.

Set 8 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. What is an immersion suit?

A. boiler suit used for cleaning fuel tanks
B. lightweight swimming outfit for divers
C. chemical splash suit used for cargo sampling
D. Special protective clothing to insulate and protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold sea

Answer: D — Special protective clothing to insulate and protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold sea

An immersion suit is a protective garment designed to provide high thermal insulation to a person, significantly delaying the onset of hypothermia in cold sea water.

2. How would you know exactly how many people a specific lifeboat is certified to safely hold?

A. By guessing from its length
B. It is written inside the main engine casing plate only
C. By looking up the vessel's crew list only
D. The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boat's bow

Answer: D — The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boat's bow

The capacity of a lifeboat is a mandatory safety specification and must be clearly and permanently marked on the exterior of the boat to allow for rapid verification during emergencies.

3. Match the term "immersion suit" with its most fundamental functional objective:

A. Protection against shark bites
B. Fire protection suit
C. Protection against cold/hypothermia
D. High speed swimming visibility

Answer: C — Protection against cold/hypothermia

The primary design objective of an immersion suit is to reduce the loss of body heat in cold water, thereby preventing hypothermia and extending the survival time of the wearer.

4. What is one of the most dangerous psychological or physiological states a survivor in cold water may suffer from?

A. Dehydration within 5 minutes
B. Hyperventilation only
C. Hypothermia
D. Seasickness only

Answer: C — Hypothermia

Hypothermia is the most significant physiological risk in cold water environments; it occurs when the body's core temperature drops, leading to impaired function and eventually death if not treated.

5. Standard Solas life jackets must have which auxiliary components attached to them?

A. Compass and flare
B. Light, whistle, and retro-reflective tape
C. GPS tracker and radio
D. Knife and signaling mirror

Answer: B — Light, whistle, and retro-reflective tape

LSA requirements mandate that life jackets must include a light, a whistle, and retro-reflective tape to improve the ability of search and rescue teams to spot the wearer.

6. LSA stands for:

A. Life Saving Arrangement
B. Low Safety Area
C. Life Saving Appliance
D. Life Security Apparatus

Answer: C — Life Saving Appliance

LSA is the standard maritime acronym for Life Saving Appliance, which encompasses all equipment required under the SOLAS Convention to ensure the safety of lives at sea.

7. How is the painter attached to a lifeboat released once the boat is waterborne and ready to move away?

A. Unwind 50 meters of rope from the drum
B. It cannot be released and must be dragged along
C. Remove the toggle pin which will instantly release the painter eye
D. It must be cut with a hack-saw

Answer: C — Remove the toggle pin which will instantly release the painter eye

The painter is attached using a slip-toggle or a quick-release mechanism that allows the crew to manually detach the painter instantly once the lifeboat is waterborne and clear of the ship's side.

8. The limit switch of a lifeboat davit will stop the davit arms automatically before they reach their hard stowed position at a distance of:

A. 36 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 6 inches
D. 24 inches

Answer: B — 12 inches

Davit limit switches are safety devices that cut power to the davit winch motor before the boat hits the davit arms, with a standard clearance of approximately 12 inches (0.3 meters).

9. On a passenger ship, the formal muster of newly embarked passengers must be carried out:

A. Within 12 hours of arrival at the next port
B. Within 24 hours of leaving the port
C. Exactly 3 days into the voyage
D. Only if the sea becomes rough

Answer: B — Within 24 hours of leaving the port

Safety regulations for passenger ships require that a muster of newly embarked passengers must take place before or immediately after departure, but no later than 24 hours after arrival.

10. You are at sea inside an inflatable life raft in high latitudes. The greatest physical threat to your life is:

A. Sea predators and sharks
B. Lack of food rations
C. Hypothermia caused by cold temperatures
D. Heavy rain damaging the canopy fabric

Answer: C — Hypothermia caused by cold temperatures

In high latitudes, the extreme cold of the water leads to rapid heat loss; therefore, protection against hypothermia is the most critical survival priority for those in life rafts.

11. You are on a survival craft broadcasting a distress message via VHF. What information is absolutely essential for rescue forces to locate you?

A. The number of years you have spent at sea
B. Your precise position by latitude and longitude
C. The ship's cargo manifest details
D. The name of the shipowner

Answer: B — Your precise position by latitude and longitude

Accurate position coordinates (latitude and longitude) are the single most important piece of information for rescue forces to navigate to the location of the survival craft.

12. Which statement concerning locating signals within the GMDSS infrastructure is FALSE?

A. Radiolocation tracking relies on transponders
B. SARTs provide radar locating signals
C. Locating signals are transmitted by Survival Craft VHF handheld transceivers automatically on 406 MHz
D. Locating signals are intended to guide rescuers to the scene

Answer: C — Locating signals are transmitted by Survival Craft VHF handheld transceivers automatically on 406 MHz

SARTs or EPIRBs transmit tracking data, not standard handheld VHF speech channels

13. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills (ASAP) as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to:

A. Improve your vision in low light
B. Prevent the critical loss of body moisture/water by vomiting
C. Increase your internal body temperature
D. Help you sleep comfortably

Answer: B — Prevent the critical loss of body moisture/water by vomiting

Seasickness induces vomiting, which causes rapid and critical fluid loss in the body. Taking medication immediately helps maintain hydration levels, which are vital for long-term survival.

14. What visual signal indication does an Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) give when it is activated?

A. It projects a laser beam into the sky
B. An audible siren sounds loudly
C. Continuous green smoke emission
D. built-in strobe light flashes continuously

Answer: D — built-in strobe light flashes continuously

Once activated, an EPIRB sends a distress signal via satellite and simultaneously flashes an integrated high-intensity strobe light to assist visual location by aircraft or vessels at night.

15. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/1-3, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Personal Survival Techniques operations?

A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
B. Verbal recommendation without documentation
C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
D. Applicable only during drydock operations

Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations

STCW Code Table A-VI/1-3 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Personal Survival Techniques.

16. What operating frequency is used by a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART) to interact with shipboard X-band radars?

A. 9 GHz (9.2 to 9.5 GHz)
B. 3 GHz (2.9 to 3.1 GHz)
C. 406 MHz
D. 156.8 MHz (Ch 16)

Answer: A — 9 GHz (9.2 to 9.5 GHz)

SART operates in the 9 GHz 3cm X-band radar frequency range, producing a line of 12 dots/arcs on navigating radar screens.

17. What signal does a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART) create on an X-band radar screen when interrogated?

A. A line of 12 dots extending outward along the line of bearing
B. A flashing red circle
C. A steady triangular icon
D. A continuous audio tone

Answer: A — A line of 12 dots extending outward along the line of bearing

When triggered by 9 GHz radar pulses, SART displays 12 blips extending 8 nautical miles radially on the radar display.

18. What satellite frequency is utilized by modern Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRBs) for COSPAS-SARSAT distress alerts?

A. 406 MHz
B. 121.5 MHz only
C. 2182 kHz
D. 9 GHz

Answer: A — 406 MHz

406 MHz EPIRBs transmit digitally encoded vessel identification data to COSPAS-SARSAT satellite networks for global distress alerting.

19. What mechanism allows a float-free EPIRB to automatically release from a sinking ship?

A. Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) at a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters
B. Manual pull pin only
C. Thermal fuse at 100 degrees C
D. Solenoic electrical switch from bridge

Answer: A — Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) at a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters

HRUs cut the securing mechanism at 1.5 - 4 m water depth, allowing the buoyant EPIRB to float free and activate automatically.

20. What is the minimum requirement for rocket parachute flares carried in a SOLAS life raft?

A. 4 rocket parachute flares
B. 2 rocket parachute flares
C. 6 rocket parachute flares
D. 8 rocket parachute flares

Answer: A — 4 rocket parachute flares

SOLAS LSA Code mandates 4 rocket parachute flares, 6 hand flares, and 2 buoyant smoke signals per life raft equipment pack A.

21. What altitude and burning duration are required for a SOLAS rocket parachute flare?

A. Reaches at least 300m altitude, burns for at least 40 seconds at 30,000 candela
B. Reaches 100m altitude, burns for 10 seconds
C. Reaches 500m altitude, burns for 5 minutes
D. Reaches 50m altitude, burns for 20 seconds

Answer: A — Reaches at least 300m altitude, burns for at least 40 seconds at 30,000 candela

SOLAS rocket parachute flares must reach >=300m altitude, deploy a parachute, and burn bright red (>=30,000 cd) for not less than 40s.

22. What color smoke is emitted by a SOLAS buoyant smoke signal used during daytime emergency signaling?

A. Bright orange smoke
B. Black smoke
C. White smoke
D. Dark blue smoke

Answer: A — Bright orange smoke

Buoyant smoke signals emit vivid orange smoke for at least 3 minutes to pinpoint survival craft locations to rescue aircraft and ships.

23. How is a life raft painter line connected to the ship structure when fitted with a Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU)?

A. Secured to the weak link mechanism on the HRU
B. Shackled rigidly directly to main deck rail without HRU
C. Tied to ship's propeller shaft
D. Left unfastened on deck

Answer: A — Secured to the weak link mechanism on the HRU

The painter line attaches to the weak link of the HRU; when HRU cuts the container free, rising buoyancy pulls the painter to inflate the raft, breaking the weak link.

24. What is the breaking strength of the weak link incorporated into a life raft HRU system?

A. 2.2 kN (+/- 0.4 kN)
B. 10.0 kN
C. 0.5 kN
D. 50.0 kN

Answer: A — 2.2 kN (+/- 0.4 kN)

The weak link breaks at approximately 2.2 kN (220 kg force), strong enough to pull the inflation cable but weak enough to break free as the ship sinks.

25. What is the primary function of a sea anchor (drogue) deployed from a survival craft?

A. To reduce drift rate and keep the raft heading into the wind/sea to prevent capsizing
B. To anchor the life raft to the sea floor in 1000m depth
C. To attract fish for food
D. To propel the raft forward against current

Answer: A — To reduce drift rate and keep the raft heading into the wind/sea to prevent capsizing

Sea anchors provide hydrodynamic drag, keeping the craft head-on to sea swells and dramatically reducing leeway drift speed.

26. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing operational safety and hazard prevention for Personal Survival Techniques on board?

A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
C. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Personal Survival Techniques operations.

27. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Personal Survival Techniques?

A. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
B. Port State Control advisory note only
C. STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
D. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969

Answer: C — STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions

STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Personal Survival Techniques.

28. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Personal Survival Techniques tasks, what immediate action is required?

A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
D. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Answer: D — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

29. What is the correct procedure for jumping into the water from height while wearing a SOLAS lifejacket?

A. Look straight ahead, cross feet at ankles, hold lifejacket down with hands, cover nose/mouth
B. Dive head first with arms outstretched
C. Jump feet first while holding lifejacket above head
D. Somersault forward into water

Answer: A — Look straight ahead, cross feet at ankles, hold lifejacket down with hands, cover nose/mouth

Jumping vertical feet-first, ankles crossed, holding chest collar down prevents neck injury from impact buoyancy and protects airways.

30. How much thermal insulation must a SOLAS immersion suit provide to a survivor in 5 degree C calm water?

A. Body core temperature does not fall more than 2 degrees C after 6 hours
B. Body temperature remains constant for 24 hours
C. Body temperature drops by 10 degrees C after 1 hour
D. Prevents frostbite for 30 minutes only

Answer: A — Body core temperature does not fall more than 2 degrees C after 6 hours

SOLAS LSA code requires insulated immersion suits to prevent body core temperature from dropping more than 2 deg C after 6 hours in 0-2 deg C water.

Set 9 — 28 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. What is a Thermal Protective Aid (TPA)?

A. A waterproof aluminum-coated bag or suit that reduces evaporative and convective body heat loss
B. An electrically heated thermal blanket powered by batteries
C. A woolen sleeping bag for bridge watchkeeping
D. A rubber wetsuit for scuba diving

Answer: A — A waterproof aluminum-coated bag or suit that reduces evaporative and convective body heat loss

TPAs are low thermal conductivity metallic plastic enclosures supplied in survival craft to wrap hypothermic survivors and retain body heat.

2. What is the minimum required buoyancy provided by an adult SOLAS lifejacket?

A. 150 Newtons (or 275 N for heavy weather suits)
B. 50 Newtons
C. 500 Newtons
D. 20 Newtons

Answer: A — 150 Newtons (or 275 N for heavy weather suits)

SOLAS inherently buoyant or inflatable adult lifejackets must provide at least 150 N of buoyancy (turning unconscious survivor face-up within 5s).

3. How soon after entering a life raft should survivors take anti-seasickness (motion sickness) tablets?

A. As soon as possible before seasickness symptoms begin
B. Only after vomiting has continued for 24 hours
C. Just before rescue vessel arrives
D. Never take tablets in survival craft

Answer: A — As soon as possible before seasickness symptoms begin

Anti-seasickness medicine is effective as a preventative; once nausea/vomiting starts, tablets cannot be absorbed and dehydration accelerates.

4. What is the fresh water ration allocation per person provided in a SOLAS Life Raft Pack A?

A. 1.5 liters per person
B. 0.5 liters per person
C. 5.0 liters per person
D. 10.0 liters per person

Answer: A — 1.5 liters per person

Pack A liferafts contain 1.5 liters of airtight packaged drinking water per person (Pack B for short voyages contains no water).

5. During the first 24 hours in a life raft, what is the medical rule regarding fresh water consumption?

A. No water should be issued during the first 24 hours (unless injured/sick) to conserve supplies and body fluid balance
B. Drink full 1.5 liters immediately on boarding
C. Drink 500 ml every hour
D. Mix sea water with fresh water 50/50

Answer: A — No water should be issued during the first 24 hours (unless injured/sick) to conserve supplies and body fluid balance

Except for casualties, water is withheld for 24 hours because the human body retains fluid initially; conserving water extends survival endurance.

6. Why must sea water NEVER be ingested by survivors in a life raft?

A. High salt concentration causes kidney dehydration, rapid delirium, and fatal kidney failure
B. It causes immediate tooth decay
C. It turns body skin green
D. It causes temporary loss of speech

Answer: A — High salt concentration causes kidney dehydration, rapid delirium, and fatal kidney failure

Kidneys require more fresh water to excrete sea salt than the volume ingested, accelerating fatal cellular dehydration.

7. How is a capsized inflatable life raft righted by a single survivor in the water?

A. Stand on the CO2 cylinder, grab the righting straps on the bottom, lean back with wind at back
B. Push upward from under the center canopy
C. Swim under raft and inflate spare chamber
D. Wait for helicopter to flip raft

Answer: A — Stand on the CO2 cylinder, grab the righting straps on the bottom, lean back with wind at back

Righting straps are molded along the raft bottom; standing on gas bottle and pulling straps uses body weight and wind assistance to flip raft upright.

8. What safety equipment is attached to a SOLAS lifebuoy fitted at the ship's bridge wings for quick release?

A. Self-igniting light and self-activating orange smoke signal (MOB marker)
B. 200m line with anchor
C. EPIRB and SART bundle
D. Immersion suit

Answer: A — Self-igniting light and self-activating orange smoke signal (MOB marker)

Quick-release bridge wing lifebuoys (4.3 kg minimum mass) release combined 2-hour light and 15-minute smoke markers for daytime/nighttime MOB marking.

9. What is the purpose of water pockets (ballast bags) fitted under the bottom of an inflatable life raft?

A. To fill with sea water to provide stability against capsizing in wind and waves
B. To store fresh drinking water
C. To catch rain water
D. To hold survival food rations

Answer: A — To fill with sea water to provide stability against capsizing in wind and waves

Weighted sea-water ballast pockets under the floor provide low center of gravity and suction resistance against wind gusts flipping empty rafts.

10. What battery shelf-life is required for SOLAS lifejacket lights and survival craft equipment lights?

A. 5 years
B. 1 year
C. 10 years
D. 6 months

Answer: A — 5 years

SOLAS position-indicating lights, HRUs, and pyrotechnics specify a maximum operational service life / expiry of 5 years.

11. What minimum duration must a SOLAS lifejacket position-indicating light operate continuously once activated?

A. 8 hours at 0.75 candela intensity
B. 2 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

Answer: A — 8 hours at 0.75 candela intensity

Lifejacket lights must provide white light of >=0.75 cd in all directions of upper hemisphere for at least 8 hours.

12. What method should be used by survivors in a life raft to maintain body warmth in cold climates?

A. Huddle close together, close entrance flaps, deploy floor insulation, use TPAs
B. Vigorous continuous jumping on raft floor
C. Keep entrance flaps wide open for draft
D. Pour sea water over clothing

Answer: A — Huddle close together, close entrance flaps, deploy floor insulation, use TPAs

Conserving heat requires trapping air layers: huddling, closing canopy entrances, inflating double-floor insulation, and wearing TPAs.

13. What is the primary signaling device used by a life raft lookout during daylight to attract distant ships or aircraft?

A. Heliograph (signaling mirror)
B. Whistle
C. Red hand flare
D. Flashlight

Answer: A — Heliograph (signaling mirror)

A heliograph reflects sunlight flashes visible over 10-15 miles to aircraft and vessels on clear days without expending pyrotechnics.

14. What SOLAS regulation specifies the mandatory emergency drills for crew members on passenger and cargo ships?

A. SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19
B. SOLAS Chapter I Regulation 5
C. SOLAS Chapter VII Regulation 2
D. SOLAS Chapter XII Regulation 1

Answer: A — SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19

SOLAS III/19 requires every crew member to participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month (or within 24h of port departure if >25% crew changed).

15. What is the function of the knife kept in a pocket near the painter attachment point outside a life raft canopy?

A. To cut the painter line after all survivors have boarded and raft is ready to clear the sinking ship
B. To catch fish
C. To puncture damaged air chambers
D. To open canned food

Answer: A — To cut the painter line after all survivors have boarded and raft is ready to clear the sinking ship

A safety pocket contains a buoyant, blunt-tipped safety knife to sever the painter before the sinking vessel drags the life raft underwater.

16. What is the purpose of the inner double canopy and arch tubes on an inflatable life raft?

A. Traps insulating air layer between canopies to maintain internal temperature and protect against wind/rain
B. Holds emergency solar panels
C. Provides lookout platform for survivors
D. Stores rainwater collection drums

Answer: A — Traps insulating air layer between canopies to maintain internal temperature and protect against wind/rain

Double-walled canopy arches automatically inflate to support the roof, creating a dead-air insulating barrier against extreme cold and heat.

17. How should a survivor in the water approach a floating life raft to board it safely?

A. Approach from the windward side or boarding ladder, use boarding ramp/ladder, pull in using grab lines
B. Climb over top of upper canopy arch
C. Swim underneath raft floor
D. Pull hard on sea anchor line

Answer: A — Approach from the windward side or boarding ladder, use boarding ramp/ladder, pull in using grab lines

Boarding via the inflatable ramp or ladder at the entrance prevents damaging canopy structure and avoids getting trapped under floor.

18. What equipment item inside a life raft pack is used to repair small punctures in buoyancy tubes?

A. Puncture clamps (sealing clamps) and rubber repair patches with adhesive
B. Duct tape only
C. Steel wire and pliers
D. Hot soldering iron

Answer: A — Puncture clamps (sealing clamps) and rubber repair patches with adhesive

Life raft equipment packs include screw-type emergency sealing clamps for immediate leak stoppage and rubber patch kits for permanent repairs.

19. What is the function of the topping-up pump (bellows hand pump) supplied in a life raft?

A. To manually top up pressure in main buoyancy chambers or canopy arches if pressure drops due to cold air contraction
B. To pump out bilge water from vessel deck
C. To inflate lifejackets
D. To spray water over canopy

Answer: A — To manually top up pressure in main buoyancy chambers or canopy arches if pressure drops due to cold air contraction

Air contracts in cold weather; hand bellows allow survivors to maintain structural pressure in buoyancy tubes.

20. What visual signal is displayed on a ship's lifebuoy to indicate its location at night?

A. White self-igniting electric light capable of burning for at least 2 hours
B. Green flashing laser
C. Red strobe light burning for 10 minutes
D. Yellow acoustic buzzer

Answer: A — White self-igniting electric light capable of burning for at least 2 hours

SOLAS requires at least half of all lifebuoys to be fitted with automatic self-igniting white lights (>= 2 cd) operating for >= 2 hours.

21. What is the primary danger of hypothermia when immersed in cold sea water (< 15 degrees C)?

A. Rapid loss of body core heat leading to exhaustion, unconsciousness, cardiac arrest, and drowning
B. Sunburn and heat stroke
C. Immediate bone fractures
D. Loss of vision within 2 minutes

Answer: A — Rapid loss of body core heat leading to exhaustion, unconsciousness, cardiac arrest, and drowning

Cold water conducts heat 25 times faster than air; core cooling below 35 deg C causes muscular paralysis, ventricular fibrillation, and death.

22. What is the purpose of the HELP position (Heat Escape Lessening Posture) for a single person in cold water wearing a lifejacket?

A. Cross arms over chest, press thighs tightly together, keep head above water to protect high heat-loss areas
B. Swim fast continuously to generate body heat
C. Tread water vigorously with arms and legs
D. Float face down in water

Answer: A — Cross arms over chest, press thighs tightly together, keep head above water to protect high heat-loss areas

HELP position protects high heat-loss regions (groin, armpits, head/neck), reducing cooling rate by 50% compared to active swimming.

23. What form of group formation should survivors in the water adopt while waiting for rescue?

A. Huddle position: form a tight circle facing inward, wrap arms around each other's lifejackets
B. Spread out 50 meters apart in a long line
C. Swim in opposite directions
D. Dive under water repeatedly

Answer: A — Huddle position: form a tight circle facing inward, wrap arms around each other's lifejackets

Huddling conserves collective body heat, creates a larger visual target for rescuers, and boosts psychological morale.

24. What SOLAS marking is required on all lifejackets, lifebuoys, and immersion suits?

A. Vessel name, port of registry, and retro-reflective tape fitted according to IMO resolution
B. Master's home address
C. Company stock market ticker
D. Engine horsepower rating

Answer: A — Vessel name, port of registry, and retro-reflective tape fitted according to IMO resolution

LSA equipment must be permanently marked with ship name and port of registry in block capital letters, plus approved retro-reflective material patches.

25. What type of food ration is provided in a SOLAS survival craft equipment pack?

A. High-calorie vacuum-packed energy biscuits (not less than 10,000 kJ per person)
B. Canned salted meat
C. Fresh fruit and vegetables
D. Dehydrated soups requiring boiling water

Answer: A — High-calorie vacuum-packed energy biscuits (not less than 10,000 kJ per person)

Rations provide >=10,000 kJ (2400 kcal) per person of non-protein, non-thirst-provoking, palatable energy bars.

26. What is the function of the hand-held orange smoke flare in a life raft signaling kit?

A. Daytime visual pinpointing for rescue aircraft and ships
B. Nighttime long-range illumination
C. Heating life raft interior
D. Repelling sharks

Answer: A — Daytime visual pinpointing for rescue aircraft and ships

Orange smoke creates a dense wind-drifted smoke column highly visible to daytime search aircraft.

27. What is the requirement for testing a SART on board during routine safety inspections?

A. Switch to 'Test' mode briefly, observe visual indicator light and audible beeper, verify response on 9 GHz radar screen
B. Deploy into sea water for 4 hours
C. Disassemble internal circuit board
D. Connect to 220V AC mains

Answer: A — Switch to 'Test' mode briefly, observe visual indicator light and audible beeper, verify response on 9 GHz radar screen

SART testing uses the built-in self-test mode to confirm transmitter circuits, LED/beeper response, and radar indication without triggering false alarms.

28. What action must be taken with a Pyrotechnic device (flare) that has reached its manufacturer expiration date?

A. Landed ashore to an authorized disposal facility according to local/flag state regulations
B. Fired off from bridge deck during port stay
C. Thrown into ship incinerator
D. Dumped in harbor waters

Answer: A — Landed ashore to an authorized disposal facility according to local/flag state regulations

Expired pyrotechnics are dangerous explosive hazardous waste; they must be disposed of via licensed shore reception contractors.

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Practise these PST questions as a timed paper PST exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses

PST exit exam questions and answers

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