Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home
Answer Key

PST exit exam questions and answers — Set 8

Set 8 of the Personal Survival Techniques (PST) exit exam bank — 30 of 268 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these PST questions PST mock exit exam, 30 marks PST exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 8

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 8 — 30 PST exit exam questions with answers

1. What is an immersion suit?

  • A. boiler suit used for cleaning fuel tanks
  • B. lightweight swimming outfit for divers
  • C. chemical splash suit used for cargo sampling
  • D. Special protective clothing to insulate and protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold sea
Answer: D — Special protective clothing to insulate and protect the wearer from the effects of being in a cold sea
An immersion suit is a protective garment designed to provide high thermal insulation to a person, significantly delaying the onset of hypothermia in cold sea water.

2. How would you know exactly how many people a specific lifeboat is certified to safely hold?

  • A. By guessing from its length
  • B. It is written inside the main engine casing plate only
  • C. By looking up the vessel's crew list only
  • D. The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boat's bow
Answer: D — The number of persons should be clearly stated on the outside of the boat's bow
The capacity of a lifeboat is a mandatory safety specification and must be clearly and permanently marked on the exterior of the boat to allow for rapid verification during emergencies.

3. Match the term "immersion suit" with its most fundamental functional objective:

  • A. Protection against shark bites
  • B. Fire protection suit
  • C. Protection against cold/hypothermia
  • D. High speed swimming visibility
Answer: C — Protection against cold/hypothermia
The primary design objective of an immersion suit is to reduce the loss of body heat in cold water, thereby preventing hypothermia and extending the survival time of the wearer.

4. What is one of the most dangerous psychological or physiological states a survivor in cold water may suffer from?

  • A. Dehydration within 5 minutes
  • B. Hyperventilation only
  • C. Hypothermia
  • D. Seasickness only
Answer: C — Hypothermia
Hypothermia is the most significant physiological risk in cold water environments; it occurs when the body's core temperature drops, leading to impaired function and eventually death if not treated.

5. Standard Solas life jackets must have which auxiliary components attached to them?

  • A. Compass and flare
  • B. Light, whistle, and retro-reflective tape
  • C. GPS tracker and radio
  • D. Knife and signaling mirror
Answer: B — Light, whistle, and retro-reflective tape
LSA requirements mandate that life jackets must include a light, a whistle, and retro-reflective tape to improve the ability of search and rescue teams to spot the wearer.

6. LSA stands for:

  • A. Life Saving Arrangement
  • B. Low Safety Area
  • C. Life Saving Appliance
  • D. Life Security Apparatus
Answer: C — Life Saving Appliance
LSA is the standard maritime acronym for Life Saving Appliance, which encompasses all equipment required under the SOLAS Convention to ensure the safety of lives at sea.

7. How is the painter attached to a lifeboat released once the boat is waterborne and ready to move away?

  • A. Unwind 50 meters of rope from the drum
  • B. It cannot be released and must be dragged along
  • C. Remove the toggle pin which will instantly release the painter eye
  • D. It must be cut with a hack-saw
Answer: C — Remove the toggle pin which will instantly release the painter eye
The painter is attached using a slip-toggle or a quick-release mechanism that allows the crew to manually detach the painter instantly once the lifeboat is waterborne and clear of the ship's side.

8. The limit switch of a lifeboat davit will stop the davit arms automatically before they reach their hard stowed position at a distance of:

  • A. 36 inches
  • B. 12 inches
  • C. 6 inches
  • D. 24 inches
Answer: B — 12 inches
Davit limit switches are safety devices that cut power to the davit winch motor before the boat hits the davit arms, with a standard clearance of approximately 12 inches (0.3 meters).

9. On a passenger ship, the formal muster of newly embarked passengers must be carried out:

  • A. Within 12 hours of arrival at the next port
  • B. Within 24 hours of leaving the port
  • C. Exactly 3 days into the voyage
  • D. Only if the sea becomes rough
Answer: B — Within 24 hours of leaving the port
Safety regulations for passenger ships require that a muster of newly embarked passengers must take place before or immediately after departure, but no later than 24 hours after arrival.

10. You are at sea inside an inflatable life raft in high latitudes. The greatest physical threat to your life is:

  • A. Sea predators and sharks
  • B. Lack of food rations
  • C. Hypothermia caused by cold temperatures
  • D. Heavy rain damaging the canopy fabric
Answer: C — Hypothermia caused by cold temperatures
In high latitudes, the extreme cold of the water leads to rapid heat loss; therefore, protection against hypothermia is the most critical survival priority for those in life rafts.

11. You are on a survival craft broadcasting a distress message via VHF. What information is absolutely essential for rescue forces to locate you?

  • A. The number of years you have spent at sea
  • B. Your precise position by latitude and longitude
  • C. The ship's cargo manifest details
  • D. The name of the shipowner
Answer: B — Your precise position by latitude and longitude
Accurate position coordinates (latitude and longitude) are the single most important piece of information for rescue forces to navigate to the location of the survival craft.

12. Which statement concerning locating signals within the GMDSS infrastructure is FALSE?

  • A. Radiolocation tracking relies on transponders
  • B. SARTs provide radar locating signals
  • C. Locating signals are transmitted by Survival Craft VHF handheld transceivers automatically on 406 MHz
  • D. Locating signals are intended to guide rescuers to the scene
Answer: C — Locating signals are transmitted by Survival Craft VHF handheld transceivers automatically on 406 MHz
SARTs or EPIRBs transmit tracking data, not standard handheld VHF speech channels

13. The most important reason for taking anti-seasickness pills (ASAP) as soon as possible after entering a life raft is to:

  • A. Improve your vision in low light
  • B. Prevent the critical loss of body moisture/water by vomiting
  • C. Increase your internal body temperature
  • D. Help you sleep comfortably
Answer: B — Prevent the critical loss of body moisture/water by vomiting
Seasickness induces vomiting, which causes rapid and critical fluid loss in the body. Taking medication immediately helps maintain hydration levels, which are vital for long-term survival.

14. What visual signal indication does an Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB) give when it is activated?

  • A. It projects a laser beam into the sky
  • B. An audible siren sounds loudly
  • C. Continuous green smoke emission
  • D. built-in strobe light flashes continuously
Answer: D — built-in strobe light flashes continuously
Once activated, an EPIRB sends a distress signal via satellite and simultaneously flashes an integrated high-intensity strobe light to assist visual location by aircraft or vessels at night.

15. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/1-3, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Personal Survival Techniques operations?

  • A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • B. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • D. Applicable only during drydock operations
Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/1-3 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Personal Survival Techniques.

16. What operating frequency is used by a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART) to interact with shipboard X-band radars?

  • A. 9 GHz (9.2 to 9.5 GHz)
  • B. 3 GHz (2.9 to 3.1 GHz)
  • C. 406 MHz
  • D. 156.8 MHz (Ch 16)
Answer: A — 9 GHz (9.2 to 9.5 GHz)
SART operates in the 9 GHz 3cm X-band radar frequency range, producing a line of 12 dots/arcs on navigating radar screens.

17. What signal does a Search and Rescue Radar Transponder (SART) create on an X-band radar screen when interrogated?

  • A. A line of 12 dots extending outward along the line of bearing
  • B. A flashing red circle
  • C. A steady triangular icon
  • D. A continuous audio tone
Answer: A — A line of 12 dots extending outward along the line of bearing
When triggered by 9 GHz radar pulses, SART displays 12 blips extending 8 nautical miles radially on the radar display.

18. What satellite frequency is utilized by modern Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacons (EPIRBs) for COSPAS-SARSAT distress alerts?

  • A. 406 MHz
  • B. 121.5 MHz only
  • C. 2182 kHz
  • D. 9 GHz
Answer: A — 406 MHz
406 MHz EPIRBs transmit digitally encoded vessel identification data to COSPAS-SARSAT satellite networks for global distress alerting.

19. What mechanism allows a float-free EPIRB to automatically release from a sinking ship?

  • A. Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) at a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters
  • B. Manual pull pin only
  • C. Thermal fuse at 100 degrees C
  • D. Solenoic electrical switch from bridge
Answer: A — Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU) at a depth of 1.5 to 4 meters
HRUs cut the securing mechanism at 1.5 - 4 m water depth, allowing the buoyant EPIRB to float free and activate automatically.

20. What is the minimum requirement for rocket parachute flares carried in a SOLAS life raft?

  • A. 4 rocket parachute flares
  • B. 2 rocket parachute flares
  • C. 6 rocket parachute flares
  • D. 8 rocket parachute flares
Answer: A — 4 rocket parachute flares
SOLAS LSA Code mandates 4 rocket parachute flares, 6 hand flares, and 2 buoyant smoke signals per life raft equipment pack A.

21. What altitude and burning duration are required for a SOLAS rocket parachute flare?

  • A. Reaches at least 300m altitude, burns for at least 40 seconds at 30,000 candela
  • B. Reaches 100m altitude, burns for 10 seconds
  • C. Reaches 500m altitude, burns for 5 minutes
  • D. Reaches 50m altitude, burns for 20 seconds
Answer: A — Reaches at least 300m altitude, burns for at least 40 seconds at 30,000 candela
SOLAS rocket parachute flares must reach >=300m altitude, deploy a parachute, and burn bright red (>=30,000 cd) for not less than 40s.

22. What color smoke is emitted by a SOLAS buoyant smoke signal used during daytime emergency signaling?

  • A. Bright orange smoke
  • B. Black smoke
  • C. White smoke
  • D. Dark blue smoke
Answer: A — Bright orange smoke
Buoyant smoke signals emit vivid orange smoke for at least 3 minutes to pinpoint survival craft locations to rescue aircraft and ships.

23. How is a life raft painter line connected to the ship structure when fitted with a Hydrostatic Release Unit (HRU)?

  • A. Secured to the weak link mechanism on the HRU
  • B. Shackled rigidly directly to main deck rail without HRU
  • C. Tied to ship's propeller shaft
  • D. Left unfastened on deck
Answer: A — Secured to the weak link mechanism on the HRU
The painter line attaches to the weak link of the HRU; when HRU cuts the container free, rising buoyancy pulls the painter to inflate the raft, breaking the weak link.

24. What is the breaking strength of the weak link incorporated into a life raft HRU system?

  • A. 2.2 kN (+/- 0.4 kN)
  • B. 10.0 kN
  • C. 0.5 kN
  • D. 50.0 kN
Answer: A — 2.2 kN (+/- 0.4 kN)
The weak link breaks at approximately 2.2 kN (220 kg force), strong enough to pull the inflation cable but weak enough to break free as the ship sinks.

25. What is the primary function of a sea anchor (drogue) deployed from a survival craft?

  • A. To reduce drift rate and keep the raft heading into the wind/sea to prevent capsizing
  • B. To anchor the life raft to the sea floor in 1000m depth
  • C. To attract fish for food
  • D. To propel the raft forward against current
Answer: A — To reduce drift rate and keep the raft heading into the wind/sea to prevent capsizing
Sea anchors provide hydrodynamic drag, keeping the craft head-on to sea swells and dramatically reducing leeway drift speed.

26. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing operational safety and hazard prevention for Personal Survival Techniques on board?

  • A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
  • B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • C. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Personal Survival Techniques operations.

27. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Personal Survival Techniques?

  • A. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
  • B. Port State Control advisory note only
  • C. STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • D. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
Answer: C — STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/1-3 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Personal Survival Techniques.

28. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Personal Survival Techniques tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
  • C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • D. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Answer: D — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

29. What is the correct procedure for jumping into the water from height while wearing a SOLAS lifejacket?

  • A. Look straight ahead, cross feet at ankles, hold lifejacket down with hands, cover nose/mouth
  • B. Dive head first with arms outstretched
  • C. Jump feet first while holding lifejacket above head
  • D. Somersault forward into water
Answer: A — Look straight ahead, cross feet at ankles, hold lifejacket down with hands, cover nose/mouth
Jumping vertical feet-first, ankles crossed, holding chest collar down prevents neck injury from impact buoyancy and protects airways.

30. How much thermal insulation must a SOLAS immersion suit provide to a survivor in 5 degree C calm water?

  • A. Body core temperature does not fall more than 2 degrees C after 6 hours
  • B. Body temperature remains constant for 24 hours
  • C. Body temperature drops by 10 degrees C after 1 hour
  • D. Prevents frostbite for 30 minutes only
Answer: A — Body core temperature does not fall more than 2 degrees C after 6 hours
SOLAS LSA code requires insulated immersion suits to prevent body core temperature from dropping more than 2 deg C after 6 hours in 0-2 deg C water.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these PST questions as a timed paper All 268 PST questions and answers PST exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses