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REFRESHER exit exam questions and answers

All 88 questions from the Refresher Course for STCW Modular Courses (REFRESHER) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 REFRESHER exit exam questions with answers

1. Fire Triangle Fill up the blanks

  • A. Heat
  • B. Oxygen
  • C. All of Above
  • D. Fuel
Answer: C — All of Above
The fire triangle consists of three essential elements: fuel, heat, and oxygen. Removing any one of these elements will result in the extinguishment of the fire.

2. What is the minimum capacity of emergency fire pumps in meter cube per hour?

  • A. 15 meter cube per hour
  • B. 30 meter cube per hour
  • C. 25 meter cube per hour
  • D. 20 meter cube per hour
Answer: C — 25 meter cube per hour
Under SOLAS requirements for fire safety systems, the emergency fire pump must have a minimum capacity to deliver a specific volume of water, which is established as 25 cubic meters per hour for cargo ships.

3. What is the best fire extinguisher for electrical fires?

  • A. CO2
  • B. Foam
  • C. DCP
  • D. Water
Answer: A — CO2
CO2 is the preferred medium for electrical fires because it is non-conductive, leaves no residue, and effectively displaces oxygen without damaging sensitive electrical components.

4. What is the color of light used for smaller boats?

  • A. Green
  • B. White
  • C. Blue
  • D. Yellow
Answer: B — White
According to the COLREGs, white light is required for the all-round masthead and stern lights on smaller vessels to ensure visibility in all directions, acting as a navigational signal.

5. Fire extinguishing system required for propelling machines and diesel-driven motors:

  • A. CO2
  • B. Hyper mist
  • C. DCP
  • D. Foam
Answer: B — Hyper mist
Hyper mist (Water mist) systems are highly effective for engine room machinery as they cool the fire and provide localized protection without the oxygen-depleting risks of CO2.

6. How many hours should a diesel-driven fire pump run?

  • A. 18 hours
  • B. 14 hours
  • C. 12 hours
  • D. 16 hours
Answer: A — 18 hours
Under SOLAS requirements, the emergency fire pump must be capable of continuous operation for at least 18 hours to ensure sufficient firefighting capability during a prolonged emergency.

7. Dry chemical powder extinguisher works on what principle?

  • A. Cooling
  • B. Inhibition
  • C. Starvation
  • D. Smothering
Answer: B — Inhibition
Dry Chemical Powder (DCP) extinguishes fire primarily by chemical inhibition, where the powder interferes with the free radicals in the combustion chain reaction.

8. Maximum temperature of the unexposed side of a B class division:

  • A. 300 degrees centigrade
  • B. 350 degrees centigrade
  • C. 250 degrees centigrade
  • D. 400 degrees centigrade
Answer: C — 250 degrees centigrade
According to the FTP Code, the average temperature on the unexposed side of a B class division must not rise more than 225°C above initial, with a maximum of 250°C at any point.

9. DCP firefighting system is used in which types of vessels?

  • A. Chemical tankers
  • B. Bulk carriers
  • C. Oil tankers
  • D. Gas carriers
Answer: D — Gas carriers
DCP systems are primarily used on gas carriers because the powder is chemically inert and effectively tackles fires involving liquefied gases where other agents may be ineffective.

10. What is the maximum weight of a portable extinguisher?

  • A. 23 KG
  • B. 25 kgs
  • C. 12 kgs
  • D. 16 kgs
Answer: A — 23 KG
Portable fire extinguishers under SOLAS/FSS Code regulations are limited to a maximum mass of 23 kg to ensure they are manageable by a single crew member during an emergency.

11. Class A fire extinguisher is best used on:

  • A. Liquids
  • B. Metals
  • C. Gases
  • D. Solids
Answer: D — Solids
Class A fires involve ordinary combustible solids like wood, paper, and textiles. Water is the primary extinguishing agent as it provides a cooling effect.

12. In which language is the fire control plan written on board?

  • A. Any local language
  • B. Spanish
  • C. French
  • D. English
Answer: D — English
As per SOLAS requirements, the fire control plan must be written in the working language of the ship and in either English, French, or Spanish.

13. Automatic CO2 release system is for which space?

  • A. Accommodation
  • B. Engine room
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Main deck
Answer: C — None of the above
Automatic CO2 systems are not used in occupied spaces like the accommodation or engine room due to the extreme danger of suffocation to crew members.

14. How often should rescue boards be launched with their assigned crew and manning water?

  • A. Every month
  • B. Once in three months
  • C. Once in two weeks
  • D. Every week
Answer: B — Once in three months
SOLAS regulations require that rescue boats be launched with their assigned crew, and the boat must be maneuvered in the water at least once every three months.

15. Your vessel is in collision and you are not sure if your vessel is sinking. How will you handle the situation?

  • A. Leave the vessel and stay close by.
  • B. Wait and see the situation.
  • C. Search for missing persons, monitor the situation, prepare for abandonment if required.
  • D. Ensure the lifeboat has enough fuel to reach land.
Answer: C — Search for missing persons, monitor the situation, prepare for abandonment if required.
The primary response to a collision is to assess the damage and structural integrity. Monitoring the situation is crucial before committing to abandoning the vessel.

16. The visible range of parachute flares at nighttime is:

  • A. 25 nautical miles
  • B. 15 nautical miles
  • C. 10 nautical miles
  • D. 8 nautical miles
Answer: A — 25 nautical miles
According to LSA code, parachute flares are required to have a high intensity and visibility, capable of being seen at significant distances to alert SAR assets.

17. What should be done in case of a fire on board?

  • A. Reduce speed, keep the fire zone leeward.
  • B. Let the wind follow the fire to reduce oxygen.
  • C. Let the stem be up against the wind.
  • D. Continue on course and speed.
Answer: A — Reduce speed, keep the fire zone leeward.
Maneuvering to keep the fire leeward ensures that the wind blows smoke and flames away from the rest of the ship, assisting the fire-fighting team.

18. What is the full form of PASS in portable fire extinguishers?

  • A. Pull, Aim, Shut, Sit
  • B. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • C. Pass, Aim, Sure, Speed
  • D. Power, Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Answer: B — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS is the standard mnemonic for operating portable fire extinguishers: Pull the pin, Aim at the base, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

19. How should the painter of a life raft, which is fitted with an HRU, be secured to the ship?

  • A. It should not be secured in any way.
  • B. Directly to a secure point on the ship.
  • C. Secured via a weak link to a secure point.
  • D. Secured to a part of the hydrostatic release unit that is designed to break free.
Answer: C — Secured via a weak link to a secure point.
The painter is secured via a weak link so that if the vessel sinks, the raft will float free, and the link will break once the raft is inflated, preventing it from being dragged down.

20. Before lifting a lifeboat from water, it must be ensured that:

  • A. The engine is going astern.
  • B. The bottom plug is shipped.
  • C. Fall wires are clear and looped securely.
  • D. The anchor is streamed.
Answer: C — Fall wires are clear and looped securely.
Ensuring the fall wires are clear and looped securely prevents fouling or jamming, which could lead to accidental or uneven release during the recovery of the lifeboat.

21. What is the duration of an emergency escape breathing device (EBD)?

  • A. 12 minutes
  • B. 8 minutes
  • C. 5 minutes
  • D. 10 minutes
Answer: D — 10 minutes
EEBDs are designed for personnel to escape a fire-affected space; SOLAS requires them to have a service duration of at least 10 minutes.

22. A self-contained air breathing apparatus bottle with 1200 liters of air will last for how many minutes?

  • A. 25 minutes
  • B. 45 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. 20 minutes
Answer: C — 30 minutes
Standard breathing rate is roughly 40 liters/min. A 1200-liter bottle lasts for 30 minutes (1200 / 40 = 30), accounting for standard consumption during fire operations.

23. The extinguisher that can be used for class F or class K fires is:

  • A. Wet chemical
  • B. Foam
  • C. CO2
  • D. Dry chemical powder
Answer: A — Wet chemical
Wet chemical extinguishers are specifically designed for Class F/K fires, typically involving cooking oils and fats, as they form a soap-like film to prevent re-ignition.

24. Oxygen removal stops fire by:

  • A. Starvation
  • B. Inhibition
  • C. Smothering
  • D. Cooling effect
Answer: C — Smothering
Smothering involves depriving the fire of oxygen, one of the primary elements of the fire triangle, thereby extinguishing the combustion process.

25. What is the fourth component of a fire tetrahedron?

  • A. Molecular chain reaction
  • B. Inhibition
  • C. Fire reaction
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Molecular chain reaction
The fire tetrahedron adds the 'Chemical Chain Reaction' to the classic fire triangle (Fuel, Heat, Oxygen), explaining why chemical inhibition is effective.

26. What is the color coding of a portable water extinguisher?

  • A. Blue
  • B. Signal red
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Cream
Answer: B — Signal red
Portable fire extinguishers are color-coded for identification. Under international standards, water extinguishers are identified by a signal red body color.

27. What is the length of a fireproof line of a self-contained air breathing apparatus?

  • A. 20 meters
  • B. 50 meters
  • C. 10 meters
  • D. 30 meters
Answer: D — 30 meters
SOLAS requires that the lifeline of a self-contained breathing apparatus must be fireproof and have a minimum length of 30 meters.

28. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 15-pound CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?

  • A. Possible suffocation from the CO2 gas.
  • B. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilation system.
  • C. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes.
  • D. Rekindling of the fire.
Answer: D — Rekindling of the fire.
CO2 is not a cooling agent. After using it, the danger remains that the hot fuel or surfaces may cause the fire to reignite once the gas dissipates.

29. Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving electrical equipment?

  • A. Class "C"
  • B. Class "D"
  • C. Class "B"
  • D. Class "A"
Answer: A — Class "C"
Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Using conductive agents like water would be hazardous, necessitating non-conductive agents like CO2.

30. Which of the following would be considered a Class “B” fire?

  • A. Electrical fire in a motor
  • B. Fire in the main switchboard
  • C. Waste rag fire in the engine room
  • D. Oil fire in the engine room bilges
Answer: D — Oil fire in the engine room bilges
Class B fires involve flammable liquids. Engine room bilges often contain oil, making them a prime location for Class B fire risks.

Set 2 — 30 REFRESHER exit exam questions with answers

1. If ignited, which material would be a class B fire?

  • A. Wood
  • B. Paper
  • C. Diesel Oil
  • D. Magnesium
Answer: C — Diesel Oil
Class B fires are specifically defined as fires involving flammable liquids, such as diesel oil, gasoline, or paints.

2. Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?

  • A. Water
  • B. Foam
  • C. Dry chemical
  • D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: A — Water
Water should not be used on liquid paint fires as it can spread the burning liquid and increase the surface area of the fire.

3. Which extinguishing agent is most effective on a mattress fire?

  • A. Dry Chemical
  • B. Water
  • C. Foam
  • D. CO2
Answer: B — Water
Water is the most effective agent for mattress fires because it penetrates deep into the material to cool the seat of the fire, preventing deep-seated re-ignition.

4. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of:

  • A. Reduction of water in the storage tanks
  • B. Reduction of KG to the minimum allowable
  • C. Increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height (GM)
  • D. Progressive down flooding
Answer: C — Increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height (GM)
Free surface effect occurs when a compartment is partially filled with water, causing the center of gravity to shift and significantly reducing the metacentric height (GM), affecting stability.

5. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide:

  • A. Is lighter than air
  • B. Has a greater cooling effect than water
  • C. Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
  • D. Is harmless to cargo and crew
Answer: C — Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
CO2 is a clean, non-conductive gas that effectively displaces oxygen, making it ideal for immediate response to oil fires in confined spaces.

6. Carbon dioxide as a firefighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

  • A. It is most effective on a per unit basis.
  • B. It is cheaper.
  • C. It causes minimal damage.
  • D. It is safer for personnel.
Answer: C — It causes minimal damage.
CO2 is a non-residue-forming gas, meaning it causes minimal damage to sensitive machinery or electronic equipment compared to water or powder.

7. To prevent the spread of fire by convection you should:

  • A. Cool the bulkhead around the fire
  • B. Close all openings to the area
  • C. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
  • D. Shut off all electrical power
Answer: B — Close all openings to the area
Convection spreads fire via the movement of hot gases. Closing all openings (like fire doors and dampers) restricts the flow of these gases, containing the fire.

8. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

  • A. Non-corrosive
  • B. Will not deteriorate in storage
  • C. Effective on electrical equipment
  • D. Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
Answer: D — Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
CO2 is effective only if the space is sealed. If ventilation is not shut down, the gas will dissipate, and oxygen will return, allowing the fire to continue.

9. Foam extinguishes a fire by:

  • A. Destroying the burning materials
  • B. Absorbing the burning material
  • C. Smothering the burning material
  • D. Chemical reaction with the burning material
Answer: C — Smothering the burning material
Foam works by creating a barrier (blanket) over the liquid fuel, which cuts off the oxygen supply (smothering) and prevents the release of flammable vapors.

10. Immediately after a class "B" fire has been extinguished by the use of foam, crewmen should:

  • A. Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket
  • B. Wade through the foam blanket to evenly distribute the foam
  • C. Sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment
  • D. Carefully apply a low velocity fog over the foam blanket
Answer: A — Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket
Disturbing the foam blanket allows oxygen to reach the fuel, potentially causing the fire to reignite. The blanket must remain intact until the area is confirmed safe.

11. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be:

  • A. In the midships house
  • B. In the pump room
  • C. At the vent header
  • D. At the main deck manifold
Answer: B — In the pump room
The pump room is a high-risk area on tankers due to the concentration of piping, valves, and moving parts associated with cargo transfer, often carrying flammable liquids.

12. You should be most concerned about a possible explosion or fire in fuel tanks:

  • A. When underway as the fuel is moved by wave action
  • B. During fueling when the fuel strikes fuel already in the tank
  • C. Shortly after fueling when fuel vapors gather
  • D. During fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
Answer: D — During fueling when the fuel first strikes the tank bottom
Fueling operations pose the highest risk of static electricity discharge or spill ignition when the initial stream strikes the tank bottom, creating turbulence and vapor.

13. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

  • A. It will explode if exposed to a flame
  • B. It will burn rapidly once ignited
  • C. You cannot use water to fight the fire because it will react with the carbon tetrachloride
  • D. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal
Answer: D — Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes in contact with hot metal
Carbon tetrachloride decomposes when exposed to high heat or flame, producing phosgene gas, which is extremely toxic and lethal to personnel.

14. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by:

  • A. Burning liquids flowing into another space
  • B. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
  • C. The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
  • D. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship’s metal
Answer: C — The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space
Radiation is the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves across space, meaning it does not require direct contact or a medium to ignite nearby combustibles.

15. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction, you should:

  • A. Close all openings to the area
  • B. Shut off all electric power
  • C. Cool the bulkheads around the fire
  • D. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
Answer: C — Cool the bulkheads around the fire
Conduction transfers heat through solid materials like steel bulkheads. Cooling these bulkheads with water absorbs the heat and prevents the fire from reaching adjacent compartments.

16. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

  • A. Acquire the nearest self-contained breathing apparatus.
  • B. Break out the nearest fire hose.
  • C. Attempt to determine what is burning.
  • D. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.
Answer: C — Attempt to determine what is burning.
Immediate assessment is required to determine the nature and extent of the fire so that the correct firefighting strategy and agents can be utilized efficiently.

17. You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in #1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

  • A. Advise the Chief Mate and Master
  • B. Sound the general alarm
  • C. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch
  • D. Lead a fire hose to the hatch
Answer: B — Sound the general alarm
Sounding the general alarm is the highest priority to alert the entire crew, initiate the mustering process, and organize the response team.

18. Which of the following is NOT identified on the vessel's fire control plan?

  • A. Fire and emergency signals
  • B. Gas detector
  • C. Fire control plan
  • D. Dry chemical monitor
Answer: A — Fire and emergency signals
The fire control plan shows the location of safety equipment; however, general emergency signals are specified in the Muster List and Safety Training Manual, not the fire control plan.

19. The high velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose firefighting nozzle should always be:

  • A. Stowed separately in a clip or rack at each fire station
  • B. Coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
  • C. Attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a chain
  • D. Painted red to be identified as emergency equipment
Answer: C — Attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a chain
The high-velocity fog tip is attached by a chain to ensure it remains readily available at the fire station for immediate changeover, preventing loss during the urgency of firefighting.

20. The most common and widely used cooling agent used for fighting fires on merchant vessels is:

  • A. Water
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Steam smothering
  • D. Flue gas
Answer: A — Water
Water is the most common and versatile cooling agent on ships. It effectively absorbs heat by changing from liquid to vapor, cooling burning surfaces, and creating a steam blanket to smother the fire.

21. The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to:

  • A. Limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced
  • B. Extinguish the fire which triggers it
  • C. Alert the crew to the fire
  • D. Protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads
Answer: A — Limit the spread of fire and control the amount of heat produced
Automatic sprinkler systems are primarily designed for fire control. They limit the spread of fire by cooling the area and surrounding structure while keeping the fire intensity manageable until active firefighting intervention arrives.

22. If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged, it should be immediately:

  • A. Tagged ’empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers
  • B. Weighed and the charge loss recorded before being returned to its rack
  • C. Given to the chief engineer for recharging
  • D. Tagged and restowed properly in its rack
Answer: A — Tagged ’empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers
Any partially discharged extinguisher is unreliable and may not have sufficient pressure or agent for a real emergency. It must be tagged 'empty' and moved to a separate storage area to prevent it from being mistaken for a fully charged unit.

23. Which statement about firefighting foam is TRUE?

  • A. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing.
  • B. To be most effective, foam should be directed at the base of the fire.
  • C. Foam can ONLY be used to extinguish class A fires.
  • D. Foam conducts electricity
Answer: D — Foam conducts electricity
Foam creates a seal over the surface of burning liquids, making it highly effective for running fuel fires. It separates the fuel from oxygen, preventing reignition and effectively suppressing vapors.

24. Which of the following hazards is associated with fuel oil fires?

  • A. Reduced fire-fighting effectiveness due to low oxygen content
  • B. Emission of highly flammable vapors
  • C. Emission of noxious gases
  • D. Flashover of confined vapor clouds
Answer: D — Flashover of confined vapor clouds
Fuel oil fires in confined engine room spaces can lead to rapid heat accumulation and the build-up of flammable vapors. If these vapors reach their lower explosive limit, a 'flashover' or explosion can occur, posing a severe threat to the vessel.

25. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge?

  • A. One percent
  • B. Ten percent
  • C. Seven percent
  • D. Five percent
Answer: B — Ten percent
According to maritime regulations and manufacturers' standards, a carbon dioxide extinguisher must be recharged if the weight of the agent lost exceeds 10% of the original charged weight. This ensures the unit remains effective for the intended discharge duration.

26. Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the crude oil washing system by

  • A. Spade blanks
  • B. Face blanks
  • C. Non-return valves
  • D. Automatic closing valves
Answer: A — Spade blanks
Spade blanks (also known as slip blinds) provide a positive, physical barrier between the fire main and the crude oil washing system. This is a critical safety requirement to prevent hazardous hydrocarbon vapors from entering the fire main.

27. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

  • A. Break the rupture disc
  • B. Point the horn down
  • C. Turn the cylinder upside-down
  • D. Pull pin, squeeze grip
Answer: D — Pull pin, squeeze grip
The standard procedure for operating a CO2 extinguisher is 'PASS': Pull the safety pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the operating handle, and Sweep from side to side.

28. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being

  • A. Recharged in the field
  • B. Carried or rolled to a fire
  • C. Carried by hand to a fire
  • D. Used on class HB" fires
Answer: C — Carried by hand to a fire
Portable fire extinguishers are designed to be mobile so they can be immediately brought to the site of an incipient fire. Their size and weight are constrained by regulations to ensure a single crew member can transport and operate them.

29. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by

  • A. Authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
  • B. Puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
  • C. Recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder
  • D. Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
Answer: D — Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
For cartridge-operated extinguishers, the propellant charge (cartridge) and the fire-extinguishing powder are stored separately. After discharge, the cartridge must be replaced and the vessel must be refilled with the specified amount of powder to ensure it functions correctly.

30. Multiple fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is

  • A. Capable of being connected to the fire main
  • B. Kept available for use on the fire main at all times
  • C. On line to the fire main
  • D. Rated at or above 125 psi
Answer: B — Kept available for use on the fire main at all times
While fire pumps can be used for other essential duties like ballast or general service, at least one pump must always remain on standby or be immediately connectable to the fire main to ensure instantaneous readiness during an emergency.

Set 3 — 28 REFRESHER exit exam questions with answers

1. Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire main in a manner which will allow

  • A. The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
  • B. All sections to be quickly drained
  • C. All sections to be quickly connected
  • D. The nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected
Answer: A — The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
Fire hoses are stowed at the hydrant so they can be run out rapidly toward the scene of a fire without kinks. This ensures that the crew can deploy the firefighting line immediately without losing time untangling or connecting sections.

2. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

  • A. Exposed hard piping
  • B. The hydrant valves
  • C. The fire pumps
  • D. The fire hose
Answer: D — The fire hose
Fire hoses are the most vulnerable component because they are made of flexible, woven material exposed to physical damage, abrasion, heat, and potential rotting. Regular inspection is required to ensure they do not burst under fire main pressure.

3. In what location MUST a duplicate fire control plan be located?

  • A. Chief Mate's Office
  • B. Crew Mess
  • C. Gangway
  • D. Engine Room
Answer: C — Gangway
Per SOLAS regulations, a duplicate of the fire control plan must be permanently stored in a weather-tight enclosure outside the deckhouse. This allows firefighters coming from the shore to quickly assess the ship's fire safety arrangements.

4. A vessel's fire control plan shall be

  • A. Permanently posted for the guidance of ship's officers
  • B. Posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel
  • C. Given to each crew member in booklet form
  • D. Translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish
Answer: A — Permanently posted for the guidance of ship's officers
The fire control plan serves as a vital document for officers and firefighters to understand the location of fire detection, control, and containment systems. It must be permanently posted to ensure it is always available for reference during emergencies.

5. The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and

  • A. Instructions for lowering the survival craft
  • B. The time each weekly drill will be held
  • C. Work schedule
  • D. All emergency signals
Answer: D — All emergency signals
The muster list defines the emergency organization of the ship. It must clearly outline the specific muster station for each crew member, their abandonment duties, and the universal emergency signals so all personnel know how to react instantly.

6. A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a

  • A. Canister-type gas mask
  • B. Self-contained breathing apparatus
  • C. Combustible gas indicator
  • D. Fresh-air breathing apparatus
Answer: B — Self-contained breathing apparatus
Cargo vessels are required to carry self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) as part of the fireman's outfit. Unlike canister masks, SCBAs provide an independent supply of breathable air, essential for entering smoke-filled or oxygen-deficient spaces.

7. The international shore connection

  • A. Satisfies pollution prevention requirements
  • B. Permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities
  • C. Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
  • D. Allows emergency use of the fire main for de-ballasting
Answer: C — Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
The International Shore Connection (ISC) is a universal flange that allows shore-based fire services to connect their hoses to the ship’s fire main. This enables shore teams to supply water to the ship if the internal pumps fail.

8. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of

  • A. Fusible links
  • B. Remotely operated valves
  • C. Heat or smoke detectors
  • D. CO2 system pressure switches
Answer: A — Fusible links
Fusible links are heat-sensitive components designed to melt at a specific temperature. When they melt, the tension holding the damper open is released, allowing the fire damper to close automatically and isolate ventilation ducts to prevent fire spread.

9. If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should

  • A. Stay out of the way and do what they want
  • B. Watch
  • C. Take part
  • D. Go to their quarters
Answer: C — Take part
SOLAS regulations mandate that all passengers must participate in abandon ship drills. This ensures they are familiar with their lifejacket donning procedures, the emergency signal, and the route to their designated assembly stations.

10. Which type of extinguisher is hard to recharge onboard?

  • A. FOAM
  • B. CO2
  • C. WATER TYPE
  • D. DCP
Answer: B — CO2
CO2 extinguishers are difficult to recharge onboard because they require specialized high-pressure pumping equipment, chilled CO2 reservoirs, and precise weighing scales. Most vessels carry spare cylinders instead of attempting to recharge them.

11. What is the duration of EEBD?

  • A. 05 mins
  • B. 12 mins
  • C. 10 Min.
  • D. 8 mins
Answer: C — 10 Min.
Emergency Escape Breathing Devices (EEBD) are designed to provide a short duration of air to allow personnel to escape from a smoke-filled space. SOLAS requires a minimum service duration of at least 10 minutes.

12. What action should be taken immediately after a fire has been extinguished?

  • A. They are not a hazard unless ignited
  • B. They are not a hazard
  • C. They generate their own oxygen when ignited and difficult to extinguish
  • D. They are liable to spontaneous combustion
Answer: C — They generate their own oxygen when ignited and difficult to extinguish
Certain materials involved in fires (like some chemicals or specific fuels) can be self-oxidizing. These require specialized extinguishing methods because they do not rely on atmospheric oxygen and are notoriously difficult to suppress once ignited.

13. There are two disadvantages to CO2 when used as a total flooding firefighting agent. One of them is extinguishing concentration will not support human life and

  • A. The lack of cooling effect on heated materials
  • B. There is no effect on class A fire even in an enclosed space
  • C. It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
  • D. It cannot be used in a dead ship situation without electrical power available to CO2 pump
Answer: A — The lack of cooling effect on heated materials
CO2 is an asphyxiant that displaces oxygen, making it deadly in enclosed spaces. A major disadvantage is its lack of cooling capacity, meaning that once the CO2 gas dissipates, the hot fuel may reignite if the surfaces have not cooled down.

14. Foam tends to extinguish fire by

  • A. Releasing large amount of CO2
  • B. Chemically absorbing oxygen
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Smothering the burning material
Answer: D — Smothering the burning material
Foam extinguishes fires primarily by creating a coherent blanket that 'smothers' the fire, cutting off the supply of oxygen to the burning liquid surface and preventing flammable vapors from escaping.

15. If restricted visibility is encountered in an accommodation fire, you would

  • A. Stand up straight to keep your head above the smoke
  • B. Carry a torch
  • C. Use a fan to blow the smoke and flames
  • D. Rig lifelines to assist a retreat
Answer: D — Rig lifelines to assist a retreat
In smoke-filled compartments with limited visibility, lifelines are essential for safety. They guide firefighters back to the exit point, ensuring that even if they become disoriented or visibility drops to zero, they can find their way out.

16. Firefighters should come back from the area

  • A. After 10 mins of firefighting
  • B. Upon instruction from another firefighter
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Upon hearing the warning sound from SCBA
Answer: D — Upon hearing the warning sound from SCBA
The SCBA's low-pressure warning alarm is a critical safety device that triggers when the air cylinder is nearing depletion. Firefighters must immediately withdraw from the hazardous zone upon hearing this signal to ensure they reach safety with a reserve of air.

17. In portable fire extinguishers, PASS stands for

  • A. Pass, At, Sure, Speed
  • B. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • C. Pass, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
  • D. Pass, Aim, Shut, Sit
Answer: B — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS is the standard acronym for operating a fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle, Squeeze the lever, and Sweep the agent across the base of the fire.

18. What is the maximum weight of a portable fire extinguisher?

  • A. 16 Kg
  • B. 25 Kg
  • C. 12 Kg
  • D. 23 Kg
Answer: A — 16 Kg
Portable fire extinguishers must be portable by a single person to ensure rapid response. Regulation limits the weight of a portable extinguisher to a maximum of 23 kg, though 16 kg is often the practical upper limit for ergonomic handling.

19. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/Refresher, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Refresher Modular Course operations?

  • A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • B. Verbal recommendation without documentation
  • C. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • D. Applicable only during drydock operations
Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/Refresher mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Refresher Modular Course.

20. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Refresher Modular Course on board?

  • A. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
  • B. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • C. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
  • D. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
Answer: A — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Refresher Modular Course operations.

21. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • B. Port State Control advisory note only
  • C. STCW Code Section A-VI/Refresher and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • D. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
Answer: C — STCW Code Section A-VI/Refresher and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/Refresher sets international standards for training and operational competency in Refresher Modular Course.

22. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Refresher Modular Course tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
  • B. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • C. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: A — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

23. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • B. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • C. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
  • D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
Answer: A — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

24. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. No written record is required
  • B. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • C. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
  • D. Verbal update to port agent without logging
Answer: B — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

25. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Refresher Modular Course guidelines?

  • A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • B. High-visibility vest only
  • C. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
  • D. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

26. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. Temperature check only
  • B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • C. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
  • D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
Answer: C — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

27. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
  • B. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
  • C. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
  • D. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Answer: D — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

28. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Refresher Modular Course?

  • A. Bill of Lading description
  • B. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
  • C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
  • D. Crew List document
Answer: C — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

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