Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home
Answer Key

TASCO exit exam questions and answers — Set 3

Set 3 of the Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations (TASCO) exit exam bank — 30 of 181 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these TASCO questions TASCO mock exit exam, 30 marks TASCO exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 3

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 3 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the limitation of a combustible gas detector of catalytic combustion type?

  • A. It cannot be used for measurement in air
  • B. It cannot be used for measurement in oxygen
  • C. It cannot be used for measurement in methane
  • D. It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Answer: D — It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Catalytic combustion (pellistor) sensors require oxygen to oxidize the hydrocarbon sample on the filament. Therefore, they cannot function in an inerted environment (e.g., nitrogen) where oxygen is absent.

2. The manifold pressure when loading oil cargo should be

  • A. 'Zero'
  • B. Below the cargo tank pressure
  • C. Above atmospheric pressure
  • D. Above the cargo tank pressure
Answer: A — 'Zero'
During cargo operations, manifold pressure is maintained at a level that balances the system; maintaining 'zero' pressure relative to the tank prevents excessive stress on hoses and potential leaks.

3. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?

  • A. 1 year from the date of manufacture
  • B. 5 years from the date of manufacture
  • C. 7 years from the date of manufacture
  • D. 3 years from the date of manufacture
Answer: B — 5 years from the date of manufacture
The shelf life of filter canisters is limited by the degradation of the absorbent materials over time. Most manufacturers stipulate a 5-year maximum shelf life for sealed canisters to guarantee integrity.

4. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?

  • A. Washing the tank interior with sea water
  • B. Removal of corrosion products and sludge
  • C. Application of degreasing solvents
  • D. Fresh air ventilation
Answer: C — Application of degreasing solvents
Gas-freeing involves ventilation and physical cleaning to remove hazards. The application of degreasing solvents is a specific cleaning process that is not a standard, mandatory step for routine gas-freeing.

5. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the

  • A. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
  • B. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment
  • C. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment
  • D. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
A combustible gas indicator typically provides readings as a percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), indicating how close the current gas concentration is to forming an explosive mixture.

6. A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________ .

  • A. large meal
  • B. brisk rub down
  • C. small dose of alcohol
  • D. Treatment for shock
Answer: D — Treatment for shock
A person with hypothermia requires gentle, gradual warming and stabilization. Alcohol is strictly forbidden as it can lead to vasodilation and further heat loss, and massage (rubbing) is dangerous as it moves cold blood to the heart.

7. What instrument is used to measure hydrocarbon gas in an inert atmospheres?

  • A. The Draeger instrument
  • B. The Multi-Gas detector
  • C. Explosimeter
  • D. Tankscope
Answer: D — Tankscope
A Tankscope is specifically designed to measure hydrocarbon gas concentrations in inerted atmospheres where oxygen levels are low and standard explosimeters would fail.

8. Operating Principle of the Infrared instrument: identify the key principle that leads to detection of hydrocarbon gas,

  • A. The vapor to be monitored reaches the measuring chamber by diffusion or by means of a pump.
  • B. The infra-red (IR) sensor is a transducer for the measurement of the concentration of hydrocarbons by the absorption of infra-red radiation.
  • C. An infrared source illuminates a volume of gas that has entered inside the measurement chamber.
  • D. The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Answer: D — The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Infrared (IR) sensors work by measuring the absorption of specific infrared light wavelengths as they pass through the gas. Hydrocarbons absorb specific IR frequencies, allowing the concentration to be calculated.

9. Which of the following current level leads to muscular contraction?

  • A. 0.10A
  • B. 0.01A
  • C. 0.5A
  • D. 0.015A
Answer: D — 0.015A
Electrical current as low as 10-15 milliamperes (0.01-0.015A) can cause involuntary muscular contractions, potentially preventing a person from letting go of an energized source.

10. Is an enclosed space entry permit required for entering pump room?

  • A. No, the pumproom has a fixed fan for ventilation and frequently visited
  • B. The chief officer will assess the situation and decide
  • C. Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
  • D. The Master will decide based on findings by Chief Officer
Answer: C — Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
Under the IMO and industry standards, all pump rooms are considered enclosed spaces. Entry requires strict adherence to permits, testing, and checklist protocols regardless of their ventilation status.

11. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?

  • A. Move the reserve lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
  • B. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
  • C. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
  • D. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
Answer: B — Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
The alarm on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) signifies the low-pressure warning, indicating the air reserve is nearing depletion. The only safe action is to immediately retreat to a safe, non-contaminated environment.

12. Experience indicates that hazardous potentials in respect of static electricity do not occur if the velocity of liquid, while loading is: Find the correct answer

  • A. Above $10~m/s$
  • B. Below $3~m/s$
  • C. Above $7~m/s$
  • D. Below $7~m/s$
Answer: D — Below $7~m/s$
To minimize the risk of static electricity generation caused by the flow of liquid through pipelines, flow velocities must be strictly controlled, typically staying below 7 m/s during initial loading stages.

13. Electrochemical Sensors: identify a key finding for its use on board tankers

  • A. There are numerous electrochemical sensors available covering a number of gases which may be present in the shipboard environment.
  • B. The Cell current can be measured, and the amount of gas determined.
  • C. Electrochemical sensors are based on the fact that cells can be constructed that react with the measured gas and generate an electric current.
  • D. The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Answer: D — The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Electrochemical sensors are compact, energy-efficient, and can be easily miniaturized, which makes them ideal for inclusion in portable multi-gas detectors used by seafarers for daily safety checks.

14. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?

  • A. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
  • B. The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
  • C. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty.
  • D. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer.
Answer: B — The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
Positive pressure SCBAs maintain a slightly higher pressure inside the mask than the surrounding environment. This design ensures that if there is a minor seal failure, air leaks out instead of allowing toxic air in.

15. Which of the following is a particular challenge when entering fuel oil tanks?

  • A. corrosion
  • B. sediments
  • C. low lighting
  • D. slippery surface
Answer: D — slippery surface
Fuel oil tanks contain viscous residues that create extremely slippery internal surfaces, posing a significant risk of falls for personnel performing inspections or maintenance.

16. What is an EEBD used for?

  • A. For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
  • B. For rescuing a person from a tank
  • C. For supplying oxygen to a victim
  • D. For safety when entering a tank
Answer: A — For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
An EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is specifically designed to provide a limited supply of air for short-duration escape from an accommodation or machinery space during a fire or emergency.

17. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a

  • A. halide torch
  • B. detector filament
  • C. combustible gas indicator
  • D. flame scanner
Answer: C — combustible gas indicator
A combustible gas indicator is the standard instrument used to detect the presence and concentration of flammable vapours, protecting against explosive atmospheres.

18. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

  • A. Dermal burn
  • B. Major burn
  • C. Third-degree burn
  • D. Lethal burn
Answer: C — Third-degree burn
A third-degree burn involves full-thickness damage to the skin, including the dermis and subcutaneous layers, often resulting in charring or white, leathery tissue.

19. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?

  • A. Approved work vest
  • B. Self-contained breathing apparatus
  • C. Chemical protection face shield
  • D. 5 cell approved flashlight
Answer: B — Self-contained breathing apparatus
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is a mandatory component of the fireman's outfit as per SOLAS requirements, enabling entry into smoke-filled or oxygen-deficient spaces.

20. When the percentage oxygen is between ___________ one may feel, fainting, nausea vomiting.

  • A. 12% and 10%
  • B. 16% and 12%
  • C. 19.5% and 16%
  • D. 10% and 8%
Answer: D — 10% and 8%
Oxygen levels between 8% and 10% are extremely dangerous, often leading to rapid unconsciousness, severe neurological impairment, and failure of critical bodily functions.

21. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of

  • A. lack of oxygen
  • B. unburned carbon particles
  • C. excess nitrogen
  • D. excess hydrogen
Answer: A — lack of oxygen
Fires consume oxygen rapidly, and the combustion products often include carbon monoxide and other toxic gases. An unventilated space post-fire is almost certainly oxygen-deficient.

22. Which are the international bodies that provide regulatory standards for electrical equipment certification?

  • A. IMO and ISO
  • B. IEEC and CENELEC
  • C. IEEC and ISO
  • D. IEC and CENELEC
Answer: D — IEC and CENELEC
The IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) and CENELEC (European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization) are the primary bodies that set global standards for the certification of electrical equipment used in hazardous locations.

23. Why is the 'maximum surface temperature' identified, for electrical equipment used in hazardous areas onboard LNG carriers?

  • A. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the heat transfer to the cryogenic cargo
  • B. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the power and boil-off consumption
  • C. Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
  • D. The limit is on minimum surface temperature on LNG carriers as the cargo is cryogenic
Answer: C — Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
In hazardous areas, limiting the maximum surface temperature of equipment ensures that it does not reach the auto-ignition temperature of any flammable gases or vapours that might be present.

24. How is intrinsic safety achieved for electrical circuits used in hazardous areas?

  • A. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
  • B. By limiting the number of equipment used in a space
  • C. By installing machinery which have higher power and thus shorter operation time
  • D. By increasing mechanical ventilation to the area
Answer: A — By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
Intrinsic safety design limits the electrical energy (voltage and current) within a circuit to a level that is too low to produce the sparks or heat required to ignite an explosive atmosphere.

25. Where can electrical equipment be classified as exit are used?

  • A. In Zones 0 and 2
  • B. In Zones 0, 1 and 2
  • C. In Zones 0 and 1
  • D. In Zones 1 and 2
Answer: D — In Zones 1 and 2
Electrical equipment used in hazardous areas must be rated for the specific zone classification. Ex-rated equipment is generally utilized in Zones 1 (where explosive gas is likely) and 2 (where it is unlikely but possible).

26. Pick the IEC symbol for explosion proof electrical protection?

  • A. ex-e
  • B. ex-p
  • C. ex-d
  • D. ex-n
Answer: C — ex-d
The symbol 'ex-d' denotes 'flameproof' (or explosion-proof) equipment, where the enclosure is designed to withstand an internal explosion without igniting the surrounding atmosphere.

27. Heavy fuel oils when spilled are ___________ .

  • A. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
  • B. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
  • C. not a real threat to marine life
  • D. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Answer: B — less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Heavy fuel oils are more persistent and tend to form thick mats or sink, causing physical smothering of marine organisms. However, compared to lighter refined products (like gasoline or diesel) which contain higher concentrations of toxic volatile aromatics, heavy fuel oils are generally considered less acutely toxic to sea life.

28. For a vessel approaching a port of reception, what the vessel must check before the transfer of residues from the ship?

  • A. Ports and terminals must provide reception facilities
  • B. Ports must Apply for a Certificate of Adequacy.
  • C. Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
  • D. Port Reception facility operations procedures
Answer: C — Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
Under MARPOL regulations, the Port State must ensure that port reception facilities are adequate. Masters must verify that the terminal possesses a valid Certificate of Adequacy (CoA) to ensure the legal and compliant disposal of ship-generated residues.

29. Which one of the following discharges have the most long-term ecological impact due to pollution?

  • A. Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
  • B. Ballast added to cargo tanks.
  • C. Discharges of clean and segregated ballast
  • D. Machinery space bilges.
Answer: A — Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
Ballast water in oil fuel tanks becomes heavily contaminated with oil residues, which are persistent and hazardous if discharged. Unlike clean ballast, this mixture has significant long-term ecological consequences due to its toxicity and environmental persistence.

30. What assigns for each new ship a calculable figure that will denote its total emissions of CO2 from combustion of fuel?

  • A. SOX Design Index
  • B. Energy Efficiency Design Index
  • C. Energy Inefficiency Design Index
  • D. VOX Design Index
Answer: B — Energy Efficiency Design Index
The Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) is a mandatory technical measure under MARPOL Annex VI. It provides a specific value for new ships to quantify their carbon emissions relative to their capacity and performance, encouraging energy-efficient ship design.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these TASCO questions as a timed paper All 181 TASCO questions and answers TASCO exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses