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TASCO exit exam questions and answers — Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations

All 305 questions from the Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations (TASCO) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Volume 2 of IMDG code comprises one part which is

  • A. Part 2 - Classification
  • B. Part 3 - The Dangerous Goods List (DGL)
  • C. Part 4 - Packing and tank provisions
  • D. Part 1 - General provisions, definitions and training
Answer: B — Part 3 - The Dangerous Goods List (DGL)
Volume 2 of the IMDG Code is structured to provide technical guidance, specifically containing Part 3, which is the Dangerous Goods List (DGL). This list is essential for identifying the specific shipping requirements and classification of hazardous materials.

2. Petroleum liquids that have closed-cup flash points below 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) are considered as

  • A. Volatile Liquids
  • B. Flammable Liquids
  • C. Non-volatile Liquids
  • D. Combustible Liquids
Answer: A — Volatile Liquids
Under standard classification, petroleum liquids with a closed-cup flash point below 60°C are categorized as 'volatile' or 'flammable' because they can easily produce vapours that form ignitable mixtures with air at ambient temperatures.

3. What are the three broad classification of cargoes transported on tankers?

  • A. Container, Dry Bulk and Refrigerated cargo
  • B. General cargo, Dry Break Bulk and Frozen cargo
  • C. Liquefied Natural gas, Liquefied Petroleum gas, Liquefied Nitrogen
  • D. Petroleum liquids, chemical liquids, and special liquids
Answer: D — Petroleum liquids, chemical liquids, and special liquids
Tanker cargoes are broadly classified into petroleum liquids (crude oil and products), chemical liquids (noxious liquid substances), and special liquids (like vegetable/animal oils and molasses). This classification helps determine carriage requirements, hazard profiles, and equipment standards under IBC and IGC codes.

4. What is the closed-cup flash point of non-volatile petroleum liquids?

  • A. below 140 Deg F (60 Deg C)
  • B. below 113 Deg F (45 Deg C)
  • C. 113 Deg F (45 Deg C) and above
  • D. 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) and above
Answer: D — 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) and above
Non-volatile petroleum liquids are defined by their higher flash points. According to international safety standards for tanker operations, a liquid with a closed-cup flash point of 60°C (140°F) or above is considered non-volatile, reducing the risk of vapor accumulation at ambient temperatures.

5. What is the Reid vapor pressure of flammable liquids of natural gasoline & Naphtha which has open cup flash point of 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)?

  • A. 8.5 psi and below
  • B. 14 psi and above
  • C. More than 24.6 psi
  • D. More than 8.5 but less than 14 psi
Answer: D — More than 8.5 but less than 14 psi
Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) measures the volatility of petroleum products. For natural gasoline and Naphtha with a flash point of 80°F, the specific regulatory classification for RVP range is categorized as more than 8.5 but less than 14 psi to determine handling safety.

6. Tankers carry palm oil, molasses and tallow as special liquids cargoes in bulk, which are grouped as

  • A. Other chemical Liquids
  • B. Animal/Vegetable oils
  • C. Non-volatile Liquids
  • D. Miscellaneous Liquids
Answer: B — Animal/Vegetable oils
Palm oil, molasses, and tallow are classified as Animal and Vegetable oils. These are distinct from mineral oils and fall under specific requirements for carriage and pollution prevention on specialized tankers.

7. Animal/Vegetable Oils carried in tankers and classified as

  • A. Special Liquids
  • B. Non-volatile Liquids
  • C. Chemical Liquid
  • D. Non-flammable Liquids
Answer: A — Special Liquids
Animal and Vegetable oils, while distinct from petroleum hydrocarbons, are categorized as special liquids due to their persistent nature and specific requirements for carriage and potential pollution mitigation as defined in MARPOL and IBC Code guidelines.

8. Structure of MARPOL Convention layouts are as follows: find the correct one.

  • A. Convention, Protocol I, Protocol II, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997
  • B. Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II, Convention
  • C. Protocol 1997, Protocol 1978, Protocol I, Protocol II, Convention
  • D. Convention, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II
Answer: D — Convention, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II
The formal structure of the MARPOL Convention includes the main Convention, Protocol I (Reports on Incidents), Protocol II (Arbitration), and subsequent major amendments including the 1978 Protocol (MARPOL 73/78) and the 1997 Protocol (Annex VI).

9. The IMDG Code became mandatory on

  • A. 1st of January 2006
  • B. 1st of January 2002
  • C. 1st of January 2004
  • D. 1st of January 2000
Answer: C — 1st of January 2004
The International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code was adopted by the IMO and became mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VII on 1st January 2004 to ensure the safe transport of dangerous goods by sea.

10. Liquids that have an open-cup flash point at or below 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C) are classified as

  • A. Flammable Liquids
  • B. Combustible Liquids
  • C. Volatile Liquids
  • D. Non-volatile Liquids
Answer: A — Flammable Liquids
In accordance with safety standards, liquids with an open-cup flash point at or below 80°F (26.7°C) are classified as 'flammable liquids' due to their ability to form explosive gas mixtures at ambient temperatures.

11. What is the open cup flash point of the petroleum liquids that are classified as combustible liquids?

  • A. Above 60 Deg F (15.6 Deg C)
  • B. Below 60 Deg F (15.6 Deg C)
  • C. Below 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
  • D. Above 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
Answer: D — Above 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
Combustible liquids are those with a flash point higher than 80°F (26.7°C). Because they do not readily vaporize at ambient conditions, they are considered less immediately hazardous than flammable liquids but still require safety precautions.

12. What is an inert condition?

  • A. When the oxygen is 21% by volume in a tank
  • B. When the oxygen has been eliminated from a tank
  • C. condition in which the oxygen content throughout the atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8% or less by volume by the addition of inert gas.
  • D. When the oxygen is 10% by volume in a tank
Answer: C — condition in which the oxygen content throughout the atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8% or less by volume by the addition of inert gas.
An inert condition is defined as an atmosphere where the oxygen content is reduced to 8% or less by volume, usually by injecting flue gas or nitrogen, making the tank atmosphere non-combustible.

13. What factor mainly affects Vapour cloud dilution rate?

  • A. Weather conditions
  • B. Quantity of Spill
  • C. Thermal inversion
  • D. Diameter of the vapour cloud
Answer: A — Weather conditions
Weather conditions, specifically wind speed and direction, are the primary drivers for vapor cloud dispersion and dilution. They dictate how quickly a released gas plume is mixed with fresh air, reducing its concentration below the LFL.

14. What is cold work?

  • A. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
  • B. Carrying out work in a cold atmosphere
  • C. Work that can be done only in cold temperatures
  • D. Carrying out work on reefer containers
Answer: A — Work that cannot create a source of ignition
Cold work refers to maintenance activities that do not involve heat, sparks, or potential sources of ignition, such as painting or manual cleaning, thereby not requiring a 'Hot Work' permit.

15. Regarding emergency procedures and alarm protocols in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-V/1-1?

  • A. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
  • B. Non-mandatory recommendation
  • C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
  • D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
STCW Code Section A-V/1-1 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo.

16. What is the primary function of an Inert Gas System (IGS) aboard crude oil tankers?

  • A. Cool liquid cargo during transit
  • B. Increase cargo discharge speed
  • C. Reduce oxygen content in cargo tanks below 8% to prevent explosive vapor-air mixtures
  • D. Vent hydrocarbon gas to atmosphere
Answer: C — Reduce oxygen content in cargo tanks below 8% to prevent explosive vapor-air mixtures
SOLAS II-2/4.5.5 and ISGOTT: the IGS keeps tank oxygen at 8% or below by volume so the atmosphere is non-flammable.

17. Under MARPOL Annex I, what is the maximum instantaneous rate of oil discharge allowed from cargo tank areas of oil tankers?

  • A. 30 liters per nautical mile
  • B. 60 liters per nautical mile
  • C. 15 ppm fixed
  • D. 100 liters per hour
Answer: A — 30 liters per nautical mile
MARPOL Annex I caps instantaneous discharge rate of oil from tankers en route at 30 L/nm.

18. What device measures oxygen concentration continuously in the main inert gas supply line?

  • A. Paramagnetic or Electrochemical Oxygen Analyzer
  • B. Infrared Combustible Gas Indicator
  • C. FID Sensor
  • D. Refractometer
Answer: A — Paramagnetic or Electrochemical Oxygen Analyzer
Continuous O2 analyzers monitor inert gas purity before line delivery to cargo tanks.

19. What safety device prevents reverse flow of hydrocarbon gas from cargo tanks into the engine room boiler stack?

  • A. Flame screen on vent mast
  • B. High level alarm sensor
  • C. PV valve
  • D. Deck Water Seal and Non-Return Valve
Answer: D — Deck Water Seal and Non-Return Valve
The deck water seal acts as an absolute barrier against backflow of flammable gas to safe spaces.

20. What is the purpose of Crude Oil Washing (COW) performed during tanker discharge operations?

  • A. Clean cargo piping with chemical solvent
  • B. Wash tanks with hot sea water
  • C. Cool cargo pumps
  • D. Use crude oil spray to wash heavy sludge and paraffin deposits from tank walls and bottom
Answer: D — Use crude oil spray to wash heavy sludge and paraffin deposits from tank walls and bottom
COW dissolves wax and sludge using cargo oil, reducing ROB and tank cleaning time.

21. What is the primary risk associated with static electricity buildup during tanker cargo loading?

  • A. Ignition of flammable hydrocarbon vapors inside cargo tanks from electrostatic spark discharge
  • B. Overpressurization of cargo hoses
  • C. Damage to cargo pump impellers
  • D. Corrosion of tank steel plates
Answer: A — Ignition of flammable hydrocarbon vapors inside cargo tanks from electrostatic spark discharge
Static charges from high fluid velocities can spark and ignite flammable vapor-air mixtures.

22. What is the function of a High Velocity Pressure/Vacuum (P/V) Relief Valve on cargo tanks?

  • A. Release excessive vapor pressure or vacuum during loading/ballasting while keeping exit velocity high to disperse gas
  • B. Pump out tank bilges
  • C. Sample cargo liquid density
  • D. Keep cargo tanks under high pressure permanently
Answer: A — Release excessive vapor pressure or vacuum during loading/ballasting while keeping exit velocity high to disperse gas
High-velocity PV valves jet flammable gases high above the deck to prevent vapor accumulation.

23. Under SOLAS, what is the minimum required capacity of inert gas plant relative to maximum cargo discharge rate?

  • A. 100% of discharge rate
  • B. 50% of discharge rate
  • C. 150% of discharge rate
  • D. At least 125% of the maximum required cargo discharge pumping rate
Answer: D — At least 125% of the maximum required cargo discharge pumping rate
IG plant capacity must exceed maximum discharge rate by 25% to prevent vacuum creation.

24. What instrument is used to test cargo tanks for toxic hydrocarbon gases before human entry?

  • A. Personal Multi-Gas Detector (O2, H2S, CO, LFL)
  • B. Sounding tape
  • C. Explosimeter calibrated in % LFL only
  • D. Hydrometer
Answer: A — Personal Multi-Gas Detector (O2, H2S, CO, LFL)
Enclosed space entry requires verifying O2 (20.9%), toxic gases (H2S), and 0% LFL.

25. What is the purpose of an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) during ballast discharge?

  • A. Vent inert gas to sea
  • B. Control cargo pump speed
  • C. Continuously measure oil content (ppm), discharge rate, and total quantity discharged overboard
  • D. Measure tank temperature
Answer: C — Continuously measure oil content (ppm), discharge rate, and total quantity discharged overboard
ODMCS automatically stops overboard discharge if legal oil rate or total limit is exceeded.

26. ____ burns automatically at room temperature.

  • A. Sodium
  • B. Phosphorus
  • C. Iron
  • D. Nitrogen
Answer: B — Phosphorus
Phosphorus is a highly reactive chemical element that can spontaneously ignite when exposed to air at ambient room temperatures, requiring specialized storage and handling procedures.

27. What is a hot work permit?

  • A. Document used for carrying out repairs under supervision
  • B. Document valid for 7 days for carrying out tank cleaning
  • C. Document used for work in a drydock
  • D. document issued by a responsible person permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
Answer: D — document issued by a responsible person permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
A hot work permit is a critical safety document issued by the responsible officer that authorizes specific work involving heat or sparks in a designated space only after safety measures are verified.

28. What is bonding?

  • A. Making a ship to shore cable connection
  • B. Connecting together flexible couplings on deck
  • C. The connecting together of metal parts to ensure electrical continuity
  • D. Connecting together of cargo pipe line flanges
Answer: C — The connecting together of metal parts to ensure electrical continuity
Bonding is the electrical connection between metal parts of a system to ensure electrical continuity, which prevents the build-up of static electricity and potential spark discharges during cargo operations.

29. How Threshold Limit Values are specified?

  • A. ppm/volume gas in Air
  • B. Volume of Gas in Air
  • C. PPM (Parts per Million)
  • D. Specific Numbers
Answer: C — PPM (Parts per Million)
Threshold Limit Values (TLV) represent the concentration of substances to which personnel can be exposed daily without adverse effects; these are standardly expressed in Parts per Million (PPM).

30. What is pour point?

  • A. The lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil will remain fluid
  • B. The temperature at which oil gets frozen
  • C. The temperature at which oil cannot be discharged
  • D. The temperature at which oil needs to be heated
Answer: A — The lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil will remain fluid
Pour point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid (oil) remains fluid enough to pour under specified test conditions, which is critical for determining pumpability in cold climates.

Set 2 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. A liquid is considered to be flammable when the flash point is less than

  • A. $60^{\circ}$ F
  • B. $70^{\circ}$ F
  • C. $80^{\circ}$ F
  • D. $50^{\circ}$ F
Answer: C — $80^{\circ}$ F
A liquid is defined as flammable in maritime safety standards if its closed-cup flash point is 60°C or lower (often rounded to 140°F), but 80°F is the specific limit frequently cited for high-volatility classification.

2. What is Upper flammable limit?

  • A. The limit where there is too much inert gas to support combustion
  • B. The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
  • C. The limit for man entry of personnel into tanks
  • D. The limit where there is insufficient inert gas to support combustion
Answer: B — The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
The Upper Flammable Limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which the mixture is too 'rich' (insufficient oxygen) to support combustion.

3. What is lower flammable limit?

  • A. The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
  • B. The limit for man entry of personnel into tanks
  • C. The limit where there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
  • D. The limit where there is too much oxygen to support combustion
Answer: A — The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
The Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) is the lowest concentration of a gas in air that can support combustion; below this limit, the mixture is too 'lean' (insufficient fuel) to ignite.

4. What is cathodic protection?

  • A. Protection of the hull of a ship
  • B. Cathodes placed on the hull of a ship
  • C. The prevention of corrosion by electrochemical techniques
  • D. Anodes placed in the stern of a ship
Answer: C — The prevention of corrosion by electrochemical techniques
Cathodic protection is an electrochemical technique used to control the corrosion of a metal surface (like a ship's hull) by making that surface the cathode of an electrochemical cell using sacrificial anodes.

5. Where is smoking permitted on board ship while at a berth?

  • A. In the engine room
  • B. Anywhere on the ship
  • C. In the cargo control room
  • D. Designated smoking room
Answer: D — Designated smoking room
Smoking is strictly prohibited on tankers except in specially designated, safe, and controlled areas, as any ignition source near cargo spaces poses a significant fire and explosion risk.

6. As a requirement of SOLAS, the number of sets of full protective clothing resistant to chemical attack that should be provided in addition to firefighters' outfits, is

  • A. 2 sets
  • B. 4 sets
  • C. 3 sets
  • D. 5 sets
Answer: B — 4 sets
SOLAS II-2/19.3.6.1: ships carrying dangerous goods provide four sets of full chemical-resistant protective clothing in addition to the firefighter's outfits.

7. What is a material safety data sheet (MSDS)?

  • A. It is used for finding out the effects of inhalation
  • B. document giving the chemical name of the product
  • C. It is used for finding out the dangers of contract
  • D. document identifying a substance and all its constituents
Answer: D — document identifying a substance and all its constituents
A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is an essential document provided by manufacturers that lists the properties, hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response information for a specific chemical substance.

8. What is hot work?

  • A. Work involving sources of ignition or temperatures sufficiently high to cause the ignition of a flammable gas mixture.
  • B. Hot work is carried out in high ambient temperatures
  • C. Work carried out using hot material
  • D. The temperature is very high where the work is done
Answer: A — Work involving sources of ignition or temperatures sufficiently high to cause the ignition of a flammable gas mixture.
Hot work is defined as any activity that can produce a source of ignition—such as welding, burning, or grinding—in areas where flammable vapors might be present.

9. What is volatile petroleum?

  • A. Petroleum having a flashpoint below 100 Degrees C
  • B. Petroleum having a flashpoint below 60 Degrees C
  • C. Petroleum having a flashpoint above 100 Degrees C
  • D. Petroleum having a flashpoint above 60 Degrees C
Answer: B — Petroleum having a flashpoint below 60 Degrees C
Volatile petroleum is defined as any petroleum product with a flash point below 60°C, meaning it can easily form flammable vapor mixtures at normal ambient temperatures.

10. What is flash point?

  • A. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient gas to form a flammable gas mixture near the surface of the liquid.
  • B. The temperature at which the liquid stops emitting gas
  • C. The temperature at which the gas is not flammable
  • D. The temperature at which an explosion is not possible
Answer: A — The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient gas to form a flammable gas mixture near the surface of the liquid.
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid emits sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air near the liquid's surface, as determined by standardized laboratory tests.

11. What is non-volatile petroleum?

  • A. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or above
  • B. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
  • C. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or below
  • D. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or below
Answer: B — Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
Non-volatile petroleum is defined as petroleum having a flash point of 60°C (140°F) or above, meaning it is less likely to form dangerous vapor concentrations under standard operational temperatures.

12. What is purging?

  • A. Introducing of oxygen into a tank to a high level
  • B. Using natural ventilation to gas free a tank
  • C. Using blowers to push oxygen into a tank
  • D. The introduction of inert gas into a tank already in the inert condition to further reduce the existing oxygen content or hydrocarbon gas content to a level below which combustion cannot take place if air is introduced
Answer: D — The introduction of inert gas into a tank already in the inert condition to further reduce the existing oxygen content or hydrocarbon gas content to a level below which combustion cannot take place if air is introduced
Purging is the process of displacing an existing tank atmosphere (usually hydrocarbon gas) with inert gas to further reduce the oxygen concentration, ensuring that any subsequent introduction of air will not create a flammable mixture.

13. Fuel must be heated to its ___________ before it starts burning.

  • A. flash point
  • B. ignition temperature
  • C. fire point
  • D. boiling point
Answer: B — ignition temperature
Fuel must reach its ignition temperature through external heat transfer for a sustained combustion reaction to begin; this is the temperature where the chemical reaction becomes self-sustaining.

14. What is Nitrogen Asphxiation?

  • A. It is unconsciousness caused by Inert gas can lead to death
  • B. It is unconsciousness caused by Nitrogen can lead to death
  • C. Nitrogen, which is non-flammable, non-toxic and colourless
  • D. Nitrogen which is undetectable to the human senses
Answer: B — It is unconsciousness caused by Nitrogen can lead to death
Nitrogen asphyxiation occurs when nitrogen displaces oxygen in an enclosed space, leading to an oxygen-deficient atmosphere that can cause unconsciousness or death due to hypoxia.

15. What is Toxicity

  • A. Toxicity is the degree to which a substance or mixture of substances can harm humans.
  • B. Toxicity means Acidic
  • C. Toxicity means poisonous and affects you on oral consumption
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Toxicity is the degree to which a substance or mixture of substances can harm humans.
Toxicity is a measure of the inherent ability of a substance to cause harmful effects in humans, whether through inhalation, ingestion, or skin absorption, regardless of its flammability.

16. What is Time Weighted Average?

  • A. Averaging all the exposure times for a time period 8 hours
  • B. Highest exposure time
  • C. Short Term exposure time
  • D. Exposure time
Answer: A — Averaging all the exposure times for a time period 8 hours
Time Weighted Average (TWA) represents the average concentration of a substance to which a person may be safely exposed over a specified time period, typically 8 hours, without suffering long-term health effects.

17. Which is a non-accumulator of charges?

  • A. Toluene is a Non-accumulator of charges
  • B. Alcohols is an Accumulator of charges
  • C. Cyclohexane is a Non-accumulator of charges
  • D. Kotones is a Non-accumulator of charges
Answer: D — Kotones is a Non-accumulator of charges
Ketones are classified as non-accumulators of static charge because they possess sufficient conductivity to dissipate charge build-up during cargo transfer. Toluene and cyclohexane are hydrocarbons with low conductivity (accumulators), while alcohols are generally polar but often treated differently; ketones are the standard example of a non-accumulator in this context.

18. What is Auto-ignition?

  • A. Ignition of materials when they come in contact with each other
  • B. The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs.
  • C. Automatic ignition of material in a hot atmosphere
  • D. Ignition caused by mixture of vapours given of by cargoes
Answer: B — The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs.
Auto-ignition refers to the property of a substance whereby it ignites spontaneously without the requirement of an external ignition source like a spark or flame. This occurs once the material reaches its auto-ignition temperature in the presence of an oxidant.

19. Which of the following is a supporter of combustion?

  • A. oxygen gas
  • B. producer gas
  • C. nitrogen gas
  • D. cooking gas
Answer: A — oxygen gas
Oxygen is the primary supporter of combustion in the fire triangle. Without a sufficient concentration of oxygen, the chemical reaction of fire cannot be sustained.

20. Tank clingage depends on:

  • A. cohesive forces, adhesive forces and the liquids melting point
  • B. cohesive, adhesive forces and surface tension
  • C. surface tension only
  • D. cohesive and adhesive forces
Answer: B — cohesive, adhesive forces and surface tension
Tank clingage is the amount of cargo remaining on tank surfaces after discharge, influenced by the complex interaction of the liquid's surface tension, and the adhesive/cohesive forces between the liquid and the tank bulkhead.

21. What is the maximum interval of time between sampling and analysing for each sampling head location sequentially?

  • A. Not exceeding 30 minutes interval
  • B. Not exceeding 40 minutes interval
  • C. Not exceeding 50 minutes interval
  • D. Not exceeding 60 minutes interval
Answer: A — Not exceeding 30 minutes interval
In fixed gas sampling systems, the regulation requires that the sequence of sampling from various heads is frequent enough to ensure safety. An interval not exceeding 30 minutes is the industry standard to ensure real-time hazard detection.

22. Class D fires involve

  • A. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
  • B. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
  • C. Energised electrical equipment
  • D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Answer: D — Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Class D fires are specifically defined as those involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium, sodium, or potassium, which require specialized extinguishing agents.

23. The hydrocarbon content in the atmosphere of a pump room is measured using a

  • A. Alarm system detector
  • B. Explosimeter
  • C. The Draeger instrument
  • D. Tankscope
Answer: C — The Draeger instrument
Draeger-type gas detection tubes are commonly used on ships to provide accurate, localized concentration readings of specific hydrocarbon gases in various compartments, including pump rooms.

24. What is the limitation of a combustible gas detector of catalytic combustion type?

  • A. It cannot be used for measurement in air
  • B. It cannot be used for measurement in oxygen
  • C. It cannot be used for measurement in methane
  • D. It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Answer: D — It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Catalytic combustion (pellistor) sensors require oxygen to oxidize the hydrocarbon sample on the filament. Therefore, they cannot function in an inerted environment (e.g., nitrogen) where oxygen is absent.

25. The manifold pressure when loading oil cargo should be

  • A. 'Zero'
  • B. Below the cargo tank pressure
  • C. Above atmospheric pressure
  • D. Above the cargo tank pressure
Answer: D — Above the cargo tank pressure
Cargo flows from the manifold into the tanks only while the manifold pressure is above the cargo tank pressure; the shore pump supplies that pressure head.

26. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?

  • A. 1 year from the date of manufacture
  • B. 5 years from the date of manufacture
  • C. 7 years from the date of manufacture
  • D. 3 years from the date of manufacture
Answer: B — 5 years from the date of manufacture
The shelf life of filter canisters is limited by the degradation of the absorbent materials over time. Most manufacturers stipulate a 5-year maximum shelf life for sealed canisters to guarantee integrity.

27. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?

  • A. Washing the tank interior with sea water
  • B. Removal of corrosion products and sludge
  • C. Application of degreasing solvents
  • D. Fresh air ventilation
Answer: C — Application of degreasing solvents
Gas-freeing involves ventilation and physical cleaning to remove hazards. The application of degreasing solvents is a specific cleaning process that is not a standard, mandatory step for routine gas-freeing.

28. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the

  • A. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
  • B. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment
  • C. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment
  • D. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
A combustible gas indicator typically provides readings as a percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), indicating how close the current gas concentration is to forming an explosive mixture.

29. A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________ .

  • A. large meal
  • B. brisk rub down
  • C. small dose of alcohol
  • D. Treatment for shock
Answer: D — Treatment for shock
A person with hypothermia requires gentle, gradual warming and stabilization. Alcohol is strictly forbidden as it can lead to vasodilation and further heat loss, and massage (rubbing) is dangerous as it moves cold blood to the heart.

30. What instrument is used to measure hydrocarbon gas in an inert atmospheres?

  • A. The Draeger instrument
  • B. The Multi-Gas detector
  • C. Explosimeter
  • D. Tankscope
Answer: D — Tankscope
A Tankscope is specifically designed to measure hydrocarbon gas concentrations in inerted atmospheres where oxygen levels are low and standard explosimeters would fail.

Set 3 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Operating Principle of the Infrared instrument: identify the key principle that leads to detection of hydrocarbon gas,

  • A. The vapor to be monitored reaches the measuring chamber by diffusion or by means of a pump.
  • B. The infra-red (IR) sensor is a transducer for the measurement of the concentration of hydrocarbons by the absorption of infra-red radiation.
  • C. An infrared source illuminates a volume of gas that has entered inside the measurement chamber.
  • D. The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Answer: D — The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Infrared (IR) sensors work by measuring the absorption of specific infrared light wavelengths as they pass through the gas. Hydrocarbons absorb specific IR frequencies, allowing the concentration to be calculated.

2. Which of the following current level leads to muscular contraction?

  • A. 0.10A
  • B. 0.01A
  • C. 0.5A
  • D. 0.015A
Answer: D — 0.015A
Electrical current as low as 10-15 milliamperes (0.01-0.015A) can cause involuntary muscular contractions, potentially preventing a person from letting go of an energized source.

3. Is an enclosed space entry permit required for entering pump room?

  • A. No, the pumproom has a fixed fan for ventilation and frequently visited
  • B. The chief officer will assess the situation and decide
  • C. Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
  • D. The Master will decide based on findings by Chief Officer
Answer: C — Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
Under the IMO and industry standards, all pump rooms are considered enclosed spaces. Entry requires strict adherence to permits, testing, and checklist protocols regardless of their ventilation status.

4. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?

  • A. Move the reserve lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
  • B. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
  • C. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
  • D. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
Answer: B — Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
The alarm on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) signifies the low-pressure warning, indicating the air reserve is nearing depletion. The only safe action is to immediately retreat to a safe, non-contaminated environment.

5. Experience indicates that hazardous potentials in respect of static electricity do not occur if the velocity of liquid, while loading is: Find the correct answer

  • A. Above $10~m/s$
  • B. Below $3~m/s$
  • C. Above $7~m/s$
  • D. Below $7~m/s$
Answer: D — Below $7~m/s$
To minimize the risk of static electricity generation caused by the flow of liquid through pipelines, flow velocities must be strictly controlled, typically staying below 7 m/s during initial loading stages.

6. Electrochemical Sensors: identify a key finding for its use on board tankers

  • A. There are numerous electrochemical sensors available covering a number of gases which may be present in the shipboard environment.
  • B. The Cell current can be measured, and the amount of gas determined.
  • C. Electrochemical sensors are based on the fact that cells can be constructed that react with the measured gas and generate an electric current.
  • D. The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Answer: D — The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Electrochemical sensors are compact, energy-efficient, and can be easily miniaturized, which makes them ideal for inclusion in portable multi-gas detectors used by seafarers for daily safety checks.

7. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?

  • A. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
  • B. The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
  • C. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty.
  • D. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer.
Answer: B — The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
Positive pressure SCBAs maintain a slightly higher pressure inside the mask than the surrounding environment. This design ensures that if there is a minor seal failure, air leaks out instead of allowing toxic air in.

8. Which of the following is a particular challenge when entering fuel oil tanks?

  • A. corrosion
  • B. sediments
  • C. low lighting
  • D. slippery surface
Answer: D — slippery surface
Fuel oil tanks contain viscous residues that create extremely slippery internal surfaces, posing a significant risk of falls for personnel performing inspections or maintenance.

9. What is an EEBD used for?

  • A. For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
  • B. For rescuing a person from a tank
  • C. For supplying oxygen to a victim
  • D. For safety when entering a tank
Answer: A — For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
An EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is specifically designed to provide a limited supply of air for short-duration escape from an accommodation or machinery space during a fire or emergency.

10. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a

  • A. halide torch
  • B. detector filament
  • C. combustible gas indicator
  • D. flame scanner
Answer: C — combustible gas indicator
A combustible gas indicator is the standard instrument used to detect the presence and concentration of flammable vapours, protecting against explosive atmospheres.

11. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?

  • A. Dermal burn
  • B. Major burn
  • C. Third-degree burn
  • D. Lethal burn
Answer: C — Third-degree burn
A third-degree burn involves full-thickness damage to the skin, including the dermis and subcutaneous layers, often resulting in charring or white, leathery tissue.

12. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?

  • A. Approved work vest
  • B. Self-contained breathing apparatus
  • C. Chemical protection face shield
  • D. 5 cell approved flashlight
Answer: B — Self-contained breathing apparatus
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is a mandatory component of the fireman's outfit as per SOLAS requirements, enabling entry into smoke-filled or oxygen-deficient spaces.

13. When the percentage oxygen is between ___________ one may feel, fainting, nausea vomiting.

  • A. 12% and 10%
  • B. 16% and 12%
  • C. 19.5% and 16%
  • D. 10% and 8%
Answer: D — 10% and 8%
Oxygen levels between 8% and 10% are extremely dangerous, often leading to rapid unconsciousness, severe neurological impairment, and failure of critical bodily functions.

14. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of

  • A. lack of oxygen
  • B. unburned carbon particles
  • C. excess nitrogen
  • D. excess hydrogen
Answer: A — lack of oxygen
Fires consume oxygen rapidly, and the combustion products often include carbon monoxide and other toxic gases. An unventilated space post-fire is almost certainly oxygen-deficient.

15. Which are the international bodies that provide regulatory standards for electrical equipment certification?

  • A. IMO and ISO
  • B. IEEC and CENELEC
  • C. IEEC and ISO
  • D. IEC and CENELEC
Answer: D — IEC and CENELEC
The IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) and CENELEC (European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization) are the primary bodies that set global standards for the certification of electrical equipment used in hazardous locations.

16. Why is the 'maximum surface temperature' identified, for electrical equipment used in hazardous areas onboard LNG carriers?

  • A. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the heat transfer to the cryogenic cargo
  • B. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the power and boil-off consumption
  • C. Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
  • D. The limit is on minimum surface temperature on LNG carriers as the cargo is cryogenic
Answer: C — Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
In hazardous areas, limiting the maximum surface temperature of equipment ensures that it does not reach the auto-ignition temperature of any flammable gases or vapours that might be present.

17. How is intrinsic safety achieved for electrical circuits used in hazardous areas?

  • A. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
  • B. By limiting the number of equipment used in a space
  • C. By installing machinery which have higher power and thus shorter operation time
  • D. By increasing mechanical ventilation to the area
Answer: A — By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
Intrinsic safety design limits the electrical energy (voltage and current) within a circuit to a level that is too low to produce the sparks or heat required to ignite an explosive atmosphere.

18. Where can electrical equipment be classified as exit are used?

  • A. In Zones 0 and 2
  • B. In Zones 0, 1 and 2
  • C. In Zones 0 and 1
  • D. In Zones 1 and 2
Answer: D — In Zones 1 and 2
Electrical equipment used in hazardous areas must be rated for the specific zone classification. Ex-rated equipment is generally utilized in Zones 1 (where explosive gas is likely) and 2 (where it is unlikely but possible).

19. Pick the IEC symbol for explosion proof electrical protection?

  • A. ex-e
  • B. ex-p
  • C. ex-d
  • D. ex-n
Answer: C — ex-d
The symbol 'ex-d' denotes 'flameproof' (or explosion-proof) equipment, where the enclosure is designed to withstand an internal explosion without igniting the surrounding atmosphere.

20. Heavy fuel oils when spilled are ___________ .

  • A. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
  • B. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
  • C. not a real threat to marine life
  • D. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Answer: B — less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Heavy fuel oils are more persistent and tend to form thick mats or sink, causing physical smothering of marine organisms. However, compared to lighter refined products (like gasoline or diesel) which contain higher concentrations of toxic volatile aromatics, heavy fuel oils are generally considered less acutely toxic to sea life.

21. For a vessel approaching a port of reception, what the vessel must check before the transfer of residues from the ship?

  • A. Ports and terminals must provide reception facilities
  • B. Ports must Apply for a Certificate of Adequacy.
  • C. Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
  • D. Port Reception facility operations procedures
Answer: C — Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
Under MARPOL regulations, the Port State must ensure that port reception facilities are adequate. Masters must verify that the terminal possesses a valid Certificate of Adequacy (CoA) to ensure the legal and compliant disposal of ship-generated residues.

22. Which one of the following discharges have the most long-term ecological impact due to pollution?

  • A. Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
  • B. Ballast added to cargo tanks.
  • C. Discharges of clean and segregated ballast
  • D. Machinery space bilges.
Answer: A — Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
Ballast water in oil fuel tanks becomes heavily contaminated with oil residues, which are persistent and hazardous if discharged. Unlike clean ballast, this mixture has significant long-term ecological consequences due to its toxicity and environmental persistence.

23. What assigns for each new ship a calculable figure that will denote its total emissions of CO2 from combustion of fuel?

  • A. SOX Design Index
  • B. Energy Efficiency Design Index
  • C. Energy Inefficiency Design Index
  • D. VOX Design Index
Answer: B — Energy Efficiency Design Index
The Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) is a mandatory technical measure under MARPOL Annex VI. It provides a specific value for new ships to quantify their carbon emissions relative to their capacity and performance, encouraging energy-efficient ship design.

24. When did Annex VI take effect?

  • A. May 19, 2005
  • B. February 25, 1997
  • C. October 12, 1991
  • D. July 3, 2015
Answer: A — May 19, 2005
MARPOL Annex VI, which addresses air pollution from ships, including sulfur oxides (SOx) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions, officially entered into force on May 19, 2005.

25. The extent of MARPOL compliance is determined by:

  • A. Vessel flag, type and age
  • B. Vessel type, size and speed
  • C. Vessel type, size and age
  • D. Vessel type, size and crew
Answer: C — Vessel type, size and age
MARPOL requirements are stringent and evolve based on the vessel's specific type (e.g., oil tanker vs. general cargo), its size (deadweight/tonnage), and its age, as newer vessels must meet stricter construction and equipment standards.

26. MARPOL applies to:

  • A. tankers greater than 150GT and cargo ships greater than 400GT
  • B. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hydrofoils
  • C. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hovercrafts
  • D. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts
Answer: D — applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts
MARPOL is a comprehensive convention that applies to all ships, including commercial vessels, private yachts, barges, and offshore platforms, to prevent pollution from operational and accidental causes.

27. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be ___________ .

  • A. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water
  • B. stowed with their ends open for venting
  • C. drained into drip pans or tanks
  • D. blown down with inert gas
Answer: C — drained into drip pans or tanks
After bunkering, hoses must be drained to prevent spillage from residual oil remaining in the line. Draining into drip trays or designated slop tanks ensures that the residual oil is contained and managed correctly.

28. What is the most important regulatory requirement for the master arriving at the lightering position?

  • A. Factors considered in designating lightering zones.
  • B. Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
  • C. Reporting of incidents.
  • D. Designation of lightering zones.
Answer: B — Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
Lightering involves transferring cargo between ships at sea. The Master must adhere to strict regulatory requirements regarding pre-arrival notices to ensure the operation is authorized, safe, and complies with environmental pollution prevention standards.

29. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by

  • A. equipment failure
  • B. major casualties
  • C. human error
  • D. unforeseeable circumstances
Answer: C — human error
Statistically, the majority of oil spills during routine shipboard operations occur due to human error, such as improper valve alignment, failing to monitor levels, or poor communication during liquid transfers.

30. Containment and Damage Control: identify which step is of the highest importance for personal protection?

  • A. Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS.
  • B. Shut off or otherwise stem the spill at the source.
  • C. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.
  • D. Fight fire (if any), being careful to use firefighting methods compatible with the material involved.
Answer: A — Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS.
Personnel safety is the paramount priority in any emergency response. According to the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), wearing the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is the first step to prevent exposure to hazardous substances before attempting containment.

Set 4 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. What is used to incinerate solid and liquid wastes arising from the operation of the ship?

  • A. ISM Screen
  • B. Oily water separation
  • C. Fire Sprinkler Cleaner
  • D. Incinerator
Answer: D — Incinerator
An incinerator is the designated shipboard equipment used for the controlled burning of solid and liquid wastes, as permitted under MARPOL Annex V and Annex VI, to reduce waste volume and manage shipboard garbage.

2. The Volatile Organic Compound (cargo vapor) Management Plan is required on what type of vessel?

  • A. Container vessels
  • B. Ro-ro vessels
  • C. Tank sensors
  • D. Crude Oil Carriers
Answer: D — Crude Oil Carriers
The Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Management Plan is mandatory for crude oil carriers, as these vessels handle cargoes that release significant amounts of VOCs, which must be managed to comply with environmental regulations.

3. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels (3816 cubic metres) of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold

  • A. four barrels
  • B. eight barrels
  • C. six barrels
  • D. three barrels
Answer: D — three barrels
Under industry standards, the containment capacity of the drip tray beneath the cargo manifold is sized based on the manifold size to ensure it can contain potential initial spills during connection/disconnection; for an 8-inch hose, this requirement is typically 3 barrels.

4. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using ___________ .

  • A. boom
  • B. chemical agents
  • C. skimmers
  • D. suction equipment
Answer: B — chemical agents
Chemical agents, such as dispersants, are strictly regulated and generally not allowed for oil spill cleanup without specific approval, as they can cause deeper ecological damage or toxicity to the marine environment compared to mechanical recovery methods like booms and skimmers.

5. The total quantity of oil discharged at sea on new tankers must not exceed:

  • A. 1/15000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • B. 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • C. 1/25000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • D. 1/2000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
Answer: B — 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
MARPOL regulations strictly limit the discharge of oil residues. For a new tanker, the total quantity of oil which may be discharged into the sea is restricted to no more than 1/30,000 of the total quantity of the particular cargo which the residue formed part.

6. A starting interlock in the ODME ensures

  • A. stops discharge of the oil effluent when the oil content exceeds 5 part per million
  • B. prevents malfunctioning of the system
  • C. that an alarm is given off when the system malfunctions
  • D. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
Answer: D — the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
The starting interlock on an Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) system ensures that the system is fully calibrated and functional before any discharge begins, preventing accidental illegal discharge of oily water.

7. A gas venting system on a tanker that has gas lines in each tank connected to a common gas main running the full length of the ship is called:

  • A. gas-main system
  • B. An independent system
  • C. common-main system
  • D. vent-main system
Answer: C — common-main system
In a common-main system, multiple cargo tanks are connected to a single, shared gas main running the length of the ship, allowing for efficient venting or inerting of the cargo tank atmosphere.

8. The inert gas is delivered to the cargo tanks by an inert gas deck main line. Find the correct labelling for the deck equipment items.

  • A. 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
  • B. 1-Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 2- Cargo tank valves; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
  • C. 1-Mast Riser; 2-Isolating Valve; 3-Cargo tank valves; 4- Pressure/Vacuum Valve
  • D. 1-Isolating Valve; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Cargo tank valves
Answer: A — 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
The proper sequence for deck equipment in the IG distribution line is the cargo tank isolating valve, then the PV valve, followed by the mast riser and final isolating valves, ensuring pressure control and safety of the tank boundary.

9. Pneumatically Operating Valve; what is the most critical component for correct valve operation, based on your shipboard experience of running such a system?

  • A. Valve stem
  • B. The valve springs
  • C. The Diaphragm
  • D. Valve orifice
Answer: C — The Diaphragm
The diaphragm in a pneumatically operated valve is the most critical component, as it acts as the sealing/actuating mechanism; if it fails or ruptures, the valve loses its ability to respond to control signals or maintain its position.

10. Advantages of using inert gas, pick one that is the main reason for its application,

  • A. Reduces corrosion.
  • B. Voyage cleaning of tanks is unnecessary.
  • C. No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
  • D. Reduces pumping time because of positive pressure in the tanks.
Answer: C — No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
The primary objective of an Inert Gas System is to maintain the oxygen content within the cargo tanks below the level required for combustion, thereby preventing the formation of an explosive atmosphere.

11. The total capacity of the slop tank or tanks should be not less than what percentage of the oil-carrying capacity of the vessel?

  • A. 3%
  • B. 7%
  • C. 5%
  • D. 10%
Answer: A — 3%
MARPOL regulations specify that the slop tank capacity must be sufficient to hold the oily water generated during tank cleaning and cargo residue, which is set at a minimum of 3% of the ship's total oil-carrying capacity.

12. Acidic solutions are formed in cargo tanks of tankers

  • A. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with hydrocarbon gas
  • B. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with oxygen
  • C. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
  • D. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with chemicals
Answer: C — when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
When sulfur compounds inherent in crude oil react with moisture or water introduced into the cargo tanks, they form acidic solutions (like sulfuric acid), which significantly increase the rate of corrosion of the tank structure.

13. Tank level measurement of free water by gauging tape and plumb bob: find the labeling combination that is correct,

  • A. 1 Water Innage; 2-Water Cut; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
  • B. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Cut; 3- Water Innage; 4- Water Ullage
  • C. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
  • D. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Ullage; 4- Water Cut
Answer: C — 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
Gauging terminology distinguishes between 'innage' (the depth of liquid) and 'cut' (the depth of a specific component like water at the bottom). Correct labeling of water cut and innage is essential for accurate cargo volume determination.

14. An inert gas generator burns what oil to generate inert gas?

  • A. Heavy oil
  • B. Diesel oil
  • C. Gas oil
  • D. Crude oil
Answer: C — Gas oil
Inert gas generators are designed to burn high-quality fuel, typically marine gas oil, to produce a clean, soot-free, and high-quality inert gas suitable for pumping into cargo tanks.

15. Back flow of inert gas is prevented by:

  • A. valve provided in the scrubber
  • B. The deck water seal
  • C. An isolating valve
  • D. The deck mechanical non-return valve
Answer: B — The deck water seal
The deck water seal is a mandatory safety device in the inert gas system that acts as a non-return barrier, preventing hazardous cargo gases from flowing back into the inert gas plant and engine room.

16. Tank coating requirements developed by IMO are applicable to

  • A. new crude oil tankers of 5000 GRT and above
  • B. new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
  • C. new crude oil tankers of 500 GRT and above
  • D. new crude oil tankers of 500 DWT and above
Answer: B — new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
IMO performance standards for protective coatings (PSPC) require that new crude oil tankers of 5,000 DWT and above are fitted with robust coating systems to prevent corrosion and structural degradation.

17. A deepwell pump is a type of ___________ .

  • A. centrifugal pump
  • B. gear pump
  • C. eductor
  • D. screw pump
Answer: A — centrifugal pump
A deepwell pump is a type of centrifugal pump mounted directly into the tank. This design eliminates long pipelines and allows for efficient stripping of cargo, commonly found on chemical and product tankers.

18. Bottom washing:

  • A. is not effective when carrying a small quantity of refined products
  • B. will remove heavy wax sediments at the tank bottom
  • C. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
  • D. cannot be done with chemical solvents
Answer: C — is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
Bottom washing is a specific tank cleaning procedure focused on the lowest part of the tank to remove sediment and traces of the previous cargo, particularly important when switching to a different cargo grade.

19. An inert gas system is required to be fitted:

  • A. On oil tankers of 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above (constructed on or after 1 January 2016)
  • B. On oil tankers of 50,000 tonnes deadweight and above only
  • C. On all tankers regardless of size
  • D. On product tankers only
Answer: A — On oil tankers of 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above (constructed on or after 1 January 2016)
SOLAS II-2/4.5.5 (as amended, for ships constructed on or after 1 January 2016) requires a fixed inert gas system on oil tankers of 8,000 dwt and above; older ships followed the earlier 20,000 dwt threshold.

20. Centrifugal pumps are otherwise known as

  • A. Hydro-dynamic pumps
  • B. Reciprocating pumps
  • C. Positive displacement pumps
  • D. Gravity pumps
Answer: A — Hydro-dynamic pumps
Centrifugal pumps are classified as hydro-dynamic pumps because they impart velocity energy to the fluid using a rotating impeller, which is then converted into pressure energy.

21. The ring main pipeline system is extensively used on:

  • A. VLCCs
  • B. Crude oil tankers
  • C. Product carriers
  • D. Medium range tankers
Answer: C — Product carriers
The ring main pipeline system is common on product carriers because it allows for multiple, simultaneous cargo segregations, enabling the vessel to load or discharge different products without risk of cross-contamination.

22. Class B fires are caused by

  • A. electricity
  • B. flammable gases
  • C. flammable liquids
  • D. combustible solids
Answer: C — flammable liquids
Class B fires involve flammable liquids (such as fuel oil, diesel, or lubricants). Effective firefighting for these fires typically requires foam, CO2, or dry chemical powder to smother the flames.

23. Use of Pressure-Vacuum (PV) Relief Valve; label the diagram correctly:

  • A. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- Tank Isolating Valve; 6- PV valve
  • B. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- Vent Main; 3- IG Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
  • C. 1-IG Main; 2-Deck Isolating Valve; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
  • D. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
Answer: D — 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
The Pressure/Vacuum (PV) valve setup includes isolating valves and a bypass to allow for testing or maintenance.

24. Cargo tank fill alarm indicator panels:

  • A. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes in the engine control room
  • B. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
  • C. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes on deck
  • D. are normally fitted in the engine control room and sometimes on deck
Answer: B — are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
Cargo tank high-level and overfill alarms are critical safety instruments; they are typically monitored in the Cargo Control Room (CCR) where the transfer is being managed, with local alarms often provided on deck.

25. Identify the equipment in the IG system correctly:

  • A. 1-O2 Analyzer; 2-Demister; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
  • B. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Regulating Valves; 4-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 5- Blowers
  • C. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3 - Blowers; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Air Intake-Gas Freeing
  • D. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
Answer: D — 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
The standard IG system flow path includes the scrubber (demister), blowers, O2 analyzer, regulating valves for flow control, and air intake for gas freeing, arranged to ensure clean and safe delivery of inert gas.

26. Working instructions specifying the manner in which the ship is to be loaded and ballasted to avoid unacceptable stresses in the vessel's structure is required for tankers:

  • A. Greater than 75 meters in length
  • B. Greater than 100 meters in length
  • C. Greater than 150 meters in length
  • D. Greater than 50 metres in length
Answer: C — Greater than 150 meters in length
Regulation regarding structural integrity and loading calculations for tankers requires that ships over 150 meters in length carry specialized loading instruments and documentation to monitor shear forces and bending moments.

27. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to

  • A. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
  • B. resuscitate an unconscious person
  • C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
  • D. make underwater repairs to barges
Answer: C — enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is essential personal protective equipment (PPE) for entering hazardous environments where the atmosphere may be oxygen-deficient or contaminated with toxic cargo vapours.

28. Identify correct labelling for Tanker VEC

  • A. 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal
  • B. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Deck water seal; 4- Mast Riser
  • C. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Mast Riser; 4 - Deck water seal
  • D. 1- Mast Riser; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- P/V Valve; - Deck water seal
Answer: A — 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal
In a standard tanker VEC (Vapour Emission Control) system configuration, the sequence involves the P/V valve (pressure regulation), Mast Riser (venting), P/V Breaker (vacuum protection), and the deck water seal as the primary flame arrestor.

29. Part A of the the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-List provides operational procedures for:

  • A. Transfer of bulk liquids - elements to be verified verbally
  • B. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquefied Gases
  • C. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquid Chemicals
  • D. Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
Answer: D — Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
Part A of the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-list is designated for physical verification of safety measures. It ensures that critical items, such as hose connections and bonding, are checked manually before cargo transfer commences.

30. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after

  • A. five years
  • B. four years
  • C. two years
  • D. three years
Answer: A — five years
The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) is a mandatory requirement under MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 37. It must be reviewed and updated regularly, with approval typically valid for a five-year cycle to align with the ship's safety management system and periodic surveys.

Set 5 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

  • A. Cools the inert gas.
  • B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
  • C. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
  • D. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.
Answer: A — Cools the inert gas.
In an Inert Gas System (IGS), the gas scrubber is essential for cooling the hot exhaust gases from the boiler or inert gas generator using water. It also performs the critical function of removing sulfur oxides and soot particles from the flue gas.

2. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids

  • A. contracts
  • B. expands
  • C. remains constant
  • D. remains constant if pressure remains constant
Answer: B — expands
Flammable and combustible liquids possess a coefficient of thermal expansion, meaning their volume increases as temperature rises. This physical property necessitates the implementation of ullage spaces in cargo tanks to prevent over-pressurization due to thermal expansion.

3. The standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a __________.

  • A. liter
  • B. barrel
  • C. gallon
  • D. drum
Answer: B — barrel
In the global petroleum and tanker industry, the standard unit of measurement for volume is the barrel. One barrel is equivalent to 42 US gallons, providing a standardized basis for cargo calculations, bill of lading documentation, and commercial trading.

4. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument

  • A. where its specific gravity is measured
  • B. where it is ignited by a sparking device
  • C. where it is mixed with nitrogen
  • D. over an electrically heated platinum filament
Answer: D — over an electrically heated platinum filament
Combustible gas indicators (explosimeters) utilize a Wheatstone bridge circuit. An air sample is drawn over an electrically heated platinum filament; the combustion of flammable gas on the filament increases its temperature and resistance, which is then measured and displayed as a percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL).

5. Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure

  • A. oxygen
  • B. carbon dioxide
  • C. nitrogen
  • D. water vapor
Answer: A — oxygen
Ships with an inert gas system are required to maintain portable monitoring equipment to verify the atmosphere within cargo tanks. This must include an oxygen analyzer to ensure the oxygen content is maintained below the critical limit (typically 5% or 8% by volume) to prevent combustion.

6. As required by Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a recording device for recording the discharge in litres per nautical mile and total quantity discharged. This discharge should be kept onboard at least for a period of

  • A. Continuous, 3 years
  • B. Continuous, 1 year
  • C. Intermittent, 1 year
  • D. Intermittent, 3 years
Answer: A — Continuous, 3 years
MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 31 requires the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) to have a recording device to track discharges. These records must be preserved for at least three years to be available for inspection by Port State Control or Flag State authorities.

7. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with

  • A. fresh air
  • B. CO2
  • C. the tested compartment's air
  • D. water
Answer: A — fresh air
To ensure accuracy and prevent sensor damage or 'memory effects' from previous samples, the oxygen indicator must be purged with fresh ambient air. This restores the sensor to the baseline atmospheric oxygen concentration (approx 20.9%) before the next measurement.

8. When the cofferdam to be purged to check the leakage and remove the leaked oil?

  • A. Before starting the cargo operation
  • B. Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
  • C. After the cargo operation is completed
  • D. During the cargo operation
Answer: B — Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
Cofferdams adjacent to cargo tanks must be purged and checked before cargo operations commence to ensure no leakage is present, and again after completion to verify the integrity of the bulkheads during the operation. This is a vital practice for preventing pollution and fire hazards.

9. What does "I" stand for in the centrifugal pump diagram?

  • A. Shaft
  • B. Impeller
  • C. Diffuser
  • D. Eye (Suction)
Answer: A — Shaft
In standard centrifugal pump diagrams, the central rotating component supported by the bearing housing that transmits power from the motor to the impeller is referred to as the shaft.

10. The area indicated by the number "III" in the pump diagram is known as the

  • A. Cargo Purging Connection
  • B. Local Control Valve
  • C. Speed Torque Control Valve
  • D. Cofferdam Purging
Answer: C — Speed Torque Control Valve
In a cargo pump hydraulic system diagram, section 'III' usually denotes the control valve assembly. This valve regulates the flow and pressure of the hydraulic oil to the hydraulic motor, thereby controlling the speed and torque of the pump.

11. How the Framo pump has almost eliminated cavitation for free flowing liquids?

  • A. Volute casing is designed in such a way, that its smoothness avoids cavitation
  • B. The hydrofoil design of the curved vanes, eliminate cavitation
  • C. Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow
  • D. The backwards curved vanes eliminate the cavitation
Answer: C — Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow
Framo submerged cargo pumps eliminate the suction pipe by being placed directly at the bottom of the cargo tank. By removing the long, tortuous suction piping, the pressure drop is minimized, effectively preventing cavitation for free-flowing liquids.

12. Select the correct statement regarding pressure.

  • A. The water reservoir of a self-priming pump may be at the back of the impeller.
  • B. Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
  • C. Pressure type vacuum valves can prevent Backflow.
  • D. Stripping pumps are not of the self-priming type.
Answer: B — Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
Bernoulli's principle establishes that dynamic pressure is directly related to the density of the fluid and the square of its velocity. This relationship is fundamental to understanding pump head, flow velocity, and pressure energy conversion within the pump casing.

13. How portable pumps are used?

  • A. Potable pumps are used in parallel with the main Framo pump to discharge the tank in a short time
  • B. When main pump is not working, the portable pump is used to transfer the cargo from this tank to another empty tank, where the main pump is working
  • C. When main pump is not working, portable pumps are used to discharge the liquid cargo to the terminal
  • D. Potable pumps are used in series with the main Framo pump to discharge the tank with large pressure.
Answer: B — When main pump is not working, the portable pump is used to transfer the cargo from this tank to another empty tank, where the main pump is working
Portable pumps are primarily used as emergency or backup equipment. If a fixed main cargo pump fails, a portable pump can be lowered into the tank to facilitate cargo transfer to another tank where a functioning main pump can then discharge it to the terminal.

14. What does "II" indicate in the pump diagram?

  • A. Impeller
  • B. Diffuser
  • C. Eye (Suction)
  • D. Shaft
Answer: C — Eye (Suction)
The eye of a centrifugal pump is the central inlet point where the fluid enters the pump impeller. It is the area of lowest pressure, and its design is crucial for preventing cavitation.

15. Which number represents the Hydraulic Motor in the pump cross-section illustration?

  • A. III
  • B. I
  • C. IV
  • D. II
Answer: B — I
In a cross-section illustration of a submerged cargo pump, 'I' typically marks the hydraulic motor section. This motor is powered by the vessel's hydraulic system and drives the impeller directly.

16. The part "IX" in the centrifugal pump diagram indicates

  • A. Packing
  • B. Stuffing Box
  • C. Casing
  • D. Shaft Sleeve
Answer: A — Packing
In a pump assembly diagram, 'IX' identifies the packing or mechanical seal arrangement. These components are critical for preventing cargo leakage from the pump into the hydraulic motor section or the engine room.

17. From the pump illustration, identify the part marked - "IV".

  • A. Impeller
  • B. Anti-rotation Brake
  • C. Volute Casing
  • D. Hydraulic Motor
Answer: C — Volute Casing
In a typical cargo pump diagram, the volute casing refers to the spiral-shaped housing surrounding the impeller. It is designed to convert the kinetic energy of the fluid (velocity) into pressure energy as it moves toward the discharge nozzle.

18. How vacuum drain is done in Framo pumps?

  • A. vacuum drain is part of the pump casing
  • B. Vacuum is created in the stripping line to pump the cargo out to make the well dry
  • C. Vacuum drain is used to check leakage in pump's cofferdam
  • D. Pump has a different vacuum line which is connected to the cargo tank well; vacuum pump is used to suck the oil out to make the well dry
Answer: D — Pump has a different vacuum line which is connected to the cargo tank well; vacuum pump is used to suck the oil out to make the well dry
Framo cargo pumps utilize a specialized vacuum drain line connected to the tank well. By applying a vacuum, the system can clear the remaining cargo from the well even when the main pump has lost suction due to low levels.

19. Why the cargo pump in the Framo cannot be overloaded?

  • A. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
  • B. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pressure can run the pump at 75% of the capacity
  • C. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, when the pump over speeds, the flow of oil is reduced
  • D. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the flow is always kept constant
Answer: A — The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
Framo pumps are designed with an integrated hydraulic control system that matches the power delivery to the load. By maintaining optimum speed and preventing excessive power draw, the pump system prevents mechanical overloading of the components.

20. What does figure "V" represent in the centrifugal discharge diagram?

  • A. None of the above
  • B. Vane
  • C. Discharge nozzle
  • D. Eye of impeller
Answer: C — Discharge nozzle
In a centrifugal pump, the fluid is accelerated by the impeller and forced into the discharge nozzle. This component guides the fluid out of the pump casing into the main cargo piping system.

21. Normally how much hydraulic oil is required to run the Framo portable pump?

  • A. 140 litres per min
  • B. 360 litres per min
  • C. 90 litres per min
  • D. 250 litres per min
Answer: A — 140 litres per min
Framo portable pumps are specifically rated for hydraulic flow requirements to achieve their design performance. For standard portable pumps, this requirement is typically 140 liters per minute of hydraulic oil.

22. Select the correct statement regarding operation of the portable pumps?

  • A. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
  • B. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
  • C. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
  • D. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
Answer: A — Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
During operation, the portable pump must be lowered as the liquid level drops to maintain suction. Submerging only the lower half ensures the intake remains flooded while preventing the pump from resting on bottom sediments that could clog it.

23. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the return side after running the hydraulic motor?

  • A. Above 15 bar
  • B. Around 15 bar
  • C. Around 10 bar
  • D. Around 3 Bar
Answer: D — Around 3 Bar
In a closed-loop hydraulic system, the return pressure must be kept low to ensure efficient operation of the hydraulic motor. A pressure of approximately 3 bar is standard for the return side of these systems.

24. What does "V" indicate in the pump illustration?

  • A. Cofferdam Purging
  • B. Cofferdam Check Pipe
  • C. Local Control Valve
  • D. Speed Torque Control Valve
Answer: A — Cofferdam Purging
In the context of Framo submerged pump monitoring, 'V' refers to the purging port or cofferdam purging connection. This is used to test for seal integrity by applying air/gas pressure and checking for leaks.

25. What does figure "VII" represent in the pump assembly?

  • A. Mechanical Oil Seal
  • B. Sleeve
  • C. Wear rings
  • D. Hydraulic Motor
Answer: A — Mechanical Oil Seal
The component 'VII' represents the mechanical oil seal. This seal is a critical barrier separating the cargo area from the hydraulic oil area, preventing contamination between the two.

26. Normally what is the discharge capacity of Framo portable pumps?

  • A. 150 cubic meter per hour
  • B. 200 cubic meter per hour
  • C. 70 cubic meter per hour
  • D. 100 cubic meter per hour
Answer: C — 70 cubic meter per hour
Portable centrifugal pumps used for tanker stripping or cargo transfer are typically sized for specific capacities. A 70 cubic meter per hour capacity is a common standard for these portable hydraulic-driven units.

27. What is the function of the item marked "II" in the pump diagram?

  • A. Impeller
  • B. Anti-rotation Brake
  • C. Hydraulic Motor
  • D. Suction Well
Answer: B — Anti-rotation Brake
The anti-rotation brake (or stay) is essential for submerged pumps to ensure the pump body remains stable and does not rotate under the reaction forces generated by the spinning impeller.

28. In a centrifugal pump:

  • A. The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
  • B. The discharge side has a negative pressure.
  • C. The fluid moves in a direction opposite to the impeller.
  • D. The width of the discharge pipeline decreases outwards.
Answer: A — The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
In a centrifugal pump, the fluid enters the impeller eye and is thrown outwards by centrifugal force. The impeller vanes guide the fluid in the same rotational direction until it enters the volute casing.

29. What does "V" indicate in the below illustration?

  • A. Bearings
  • B. Suction Well
  • C. Mechanical Oil Seal
  • D. Sleeve
Answer: B — Suction Well
The 'suction well' (or inlet screen/well area) is the area 'V' where the cargo enters the pump. It ensures that the fluid is presented to the impeller eye as smoothly as possible.

30. What does "VIII" indicate in the centrifugal pump diagram?

  • A. None of the above
  • B. Impeller
  • C. Eye of Impeller
  • D. Discharge Nozzle
Answer: C — Eye of Impeller
The 'eye' of the impeller (labeled 'VIII') is the central inlet where the liquid enters the impeller vanes, representing the transition point from the suction pipe/well to the kinetic energy section.

Set 6 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Bernoulli's principle states that:

  • A. pressure (P) x height (H) is a constant
  • B. height (H) x velocity (V) is a constant
  • C. pressure (P) x density (D) is a constant
  • D. pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
Answer: D — pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
Bernoulli's principle, in its simplified form for fluid dynamics in pumps, expresses the conservation of energy, where increases in velocity occur alongside decreases in static pressure, and vice versa.

2. From the below illustration, identify the name of the marking "14".

  • A. Deck Trunk
  • B. Hydraulic Pressure Pipe
  • C. Cargo Pipe
  • D. Resilient Mounting
Answer: C — Cargo Pipe
In the assembly schematic, '14' represents the cargo discharge pipe. This pipe conveys the pressurized fluid from the pump outlet up through the deck trunk to the vessel's cargo manifold.

3. From the below illustration, identify the name of the marking "V".

  • A. Diffuser
  • B. Eye (Suction)
  • C. Impeller
  • D. Shaft
Answer: A — Diffuser
The diffuser 'V' is a stationary component in the pump casing that guides the fluid from the impeller outlet. Its primary function is to efficiently convert the high-velocity kinetic energy of the fluid into static pressure.

4. How the speed of the portable pump can be varied?

  • A. The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation
  • B. By varying the speed of the feed pump
  • C. Portable pump speed cannot be varied
  • D. Using the flow control valve of the main cargo pump
Answer: A — The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation
The speed of a hydraulic motor is proportional to the flow rate of the hydraulic oil. Therefore, the pump is rigged with a flow control valve that regulates the oil volume, allowing for precise speed variation.

5. What kind of pumps can move extremely thick fluids like sludge without clogging?

  • A. Screw pumps
  • B. Deep well pumps
  • C. Reciprocating pumps
  • D. Rotary vane pumps
Answer: A — Screw pumps
Screw pumps are positive displacement pumps known for their ability to handle high-viscosity fluids and sludges efficiently. Their design prevents clogging and ensures a steady flow regardless of the fluid thickness.

6. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the inlet side for running the hydraulic motor?

  • A. Around 25 bar
  • B. Around 50 Bar
  • C. Around 170 bar
  • D. Around 100 bar
Answer: C — Around 170 bar
Submerged hydraulic cargo pumps are designed to operate at high pressure to achieve the necessary power for liquid discharge. An inlet pressure of approximately 170 bar is typical for these motors under full-load conditions.

7. The reciprocating pump creates a suction effect when there is a

  • A. decrease in pressure
  • B. no change in pressure
  • C. increase in pressure
  • D. decrease or an increase in pressure
Answer: A — decrease in pressure
A reciprocating pump operates by the motion of a piston or plunger. When the piston moves to expand the volume of the pump chamber, it creates a decrease in pressure (a vacuum), which draws the fluid in through the suction valve.

8. What is represented by the figure "VI" in the pump assembly illustration?

  • A. Shaft
  • B. Impeller
  • C. Casing
  • D. Eye of impeller
Answer: B — Impeller
The impeller 'VI' is the rotating core of the centrifugal pump. It imparts kinetic energy to the liquid by spinning at high speed, driving the fluid from the eye towards the periphery of the casing.

9. Select the correct point regarding the operation of the portable pumps?

  • A. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
  • B. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
  • C. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
  • D. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
Answer: C — Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
When operating portable cargo pumps (such as submersible hydraulic or pneumatic pumps) on a tanker, it is critical to ensure the pump's suction end/lower half remains submerged in the liquid cargo, lowering it progressively as the level falls. This prevents dry running, loss of prime, and air entrainment while avoiding unnecessary full submersion of the pump's power head.

10. Under STCW standards for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?

  • A. Every 5 years
  • B. Every 10 years
  • C. Every 2 years
  • D. Annually
Answer: A — Every 5 years
STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.

11. What primary safety objective is governed by the Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo module on board ship?

  • A. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
  • B. Optimizing fuel consumption
  • C. Minimizing port dues
  • D. Automating engine control
Answer: A — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.

12. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?

  • A. Verbal request to port authority
  • B. Engine logbook entry only
  • C. Bridge sign-off without briefing
  • D. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Answer: D — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.

13. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo practical tasks?

  • A. Standard street clothes with safety boots
  • B. High-visibility vest only
  • C. Basic cotton coveralls only
  • D. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Answer: D — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.

14. Which international convention mandates compliance for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operational procedures?

  • A. Load Line Convention 1966
  • B. STCW Convention as amended
  • C. COLREGs 1972
  • D. Tonnage Convention 1969
Answer: B — STCW Convention as amended
STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.

15. In case of an emergency scenario during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operations, what is the immediate first step?

  • A. Attempt to fix without informing others
  • B. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
  • C. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
  • D. Log the event in diary
Answer: B — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.

16. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?

  • A. Garbage Record Book
  • B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
  • C. Oil Record Book Part I
  • D. Cargo Manifest
Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions
The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.

17. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo drills?

  • A. Observing without participating
  • B. Signing attendance without attending
  • C. Bypassing safety gear for speed
  • D. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Answer: D — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.

18. What log entry is required following completion of Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo drills on board?

  • A. Personal diary note
  • B. No log entry required
  • C. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
  • D. Verbal update to port agent
Answer: C — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.

19. In pump rooms and pipe tunnels, flameproof electric light fittings are generally fitted. This means that ____.

  • A. The fitting is completely gas-tight and no gas can come into contact with the bulb and electrical connections
  • B. Gas may enter, but if an explosion takes place inside, the fitting is strong enough to contain it without igniting the surrounding atmosphere
  • C. The electrical supply will disconnect automatically in case of fire
  • D. Even if a fire occurs, it will not consume the fitting
Answer: B — Gas may enter, but if an explosion takes place inside, the fitting is strong enough to contain it without igniting the surrounding atmosphere
A flameproof Ex-d enclosure is not gas-tight. It is built to withstand an internal explosion of any gas that enters and its flame paths cool escaping gases so the surrounding flammable atmosphere is not ignited, as described in ISGOTT and IEC 60079.

20. Information on the number of tanks that can be crude oil washed at one particular time is obtained from the

  • A. Procedures and Arrangements Manual
  • B. Tanker operations manual
  • C. Stability manual
  • D. Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
Answer: D — Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
MARPOL Annex I requires every crude oil tanker with COW to carry an approved COW Operations and Equipment Manual, which specifies the washing programme, including the number of tanks that may be washed simultaneously and the machine settings.

21. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried in accommodation, service spaces and control stations on a ship of 1000 GT and above?

  • A. 3
  • B. 5
  • C. 9
  • D. 7
Answer: B — 5
SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires ships of 1000 gross tonnage and upwards to carry at least five portable fire extinguishers in accommodation spaces, service spaces and control stations, positioned so that one is readily available.

22. The maximum loading rate and maximum venting capacity displayed in the cargo control room must give details of the rates for

  • A. Homogeneous loading
  • B. Group-by-group loading
  • C. Tank-wise loading
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
To prevent over- or under-pressurisation of tanks, the ship must provide information on maximum loading rates related to the venting capacity for each loading configuration, whether homogeneous, by groups of tanks, or individual tanks.

23. In the event of a cargo spillage in port, which of the following should be informed first?

  • A. The clean-up contractor
  • B. The agent
  • C. The ship owner
  • D. The port authority
Answer: D — The port authority
Under the SOPEP and MARPOL Article 8 reporting requirements, the coastal or port authority must be notified without delay of any actual or probable discharge so that response can begin; the owner, agent and contractors are informed afterwards.

24. In a smoke-filled alleyway, where will the cleanest air be found and how should you proceed out?

  • A. Near the deck; crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible
  • B. Towards the upper part; stand as tall as possible and walk out
  • C. It will be the same in all parts, so leave as quickly as possible
  • D. Sit and wait for the rescue party
Answer: A — Near the deck; crawl out keeping your face as near to the deck as possible
Hot smoke and toxic gases rise and accumulate near the deckhead, so the coolest and cleanest air is close to the deck. Crawling with the face low reduces smoke inhalation while escaping.

25. In the event of fire on board, what is the primary consideration of the master?

  • A. To liaise with the head office and shore authorities
  • B. To save the ship
  • C. To follow the instructions given in the emergency response manual
  • D. The safety of the crew
Answer: D — The safety of the crew
Safety of life always comes first in any emergency. The master's overriding responsibility is the safety of persons on board; protection of the ship, environment and cargo and communication with the company follow.

26. The ship's fire main and pumps should provide sufficient pressure for water jets to reach any part of the vessel normally accessible to the crew. How many jets should it be able to supply simultaneously?

  • A. 4
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 1
Answer: B — 2
SOLAS II-2/10.2 requires the fire main arrangement to ensure that at least two jets of water, not emanating from the same hydrant, reach any part of the ship normally accessible to passengers or crew.

27. Pollution by tankers is caused by

  • A. Operational discharges
  • B. Collision or grounding
  • C. Other accidental causes
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Oil pollution from tankers arises both from operational sources such as tank washing, ballast and bilge discharges, and from accidents such as collision, grounding, fire and structural failure, which is why MARPOL addresses both.

28. The state of charge of a stored-pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by

  • A. Visual inspection of the pressure gauge
  • B. Weighing the cylinder
  • C. Removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical
  • D. Weighing the CO2 cartridge
Answer: A — Visual inspection of the pressure gauge
Stored-pressure extinguishers keep the expellant gas in the main body and are fitted with a pressure gauge, so the charge can be checked at a glance. Weighing the cartridge applies only to cartridge-operated types.

29. What type of nozzle shall be used for fire hoses aboard ships?

  • A. Dual-purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating a shut-off
  • B. Jet type
  • C. Dual-purpose (jet/spray) type without shut-off
  • D. Spray type
Answer: A — Dual-purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating a shut-off
SOLAS II-2/10.2.3.3 requires all nozzles to be of an approved dual-purpose type capable of producing a spray or a jet, and incorporating a shut-off, so the firefighter can control the flow.

30. ASTM Tables 6A, 24A and 54A are used for

  • A. Crude oil
  • B. Generalized products such as fuel oil, gasoline, kerosene and naphtha
  • C. Lube oils
  • D. All of the above
Answer: A — Crude oil
In the ASTM/IP petroleum measurement tables the suffix A denotes generalized crude oils, B denotes generalized refined products and D denotes lubricating oils. Tables 6A, 24A and 54A therefore give volume correction factors for crude oil.

Set 7 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. The maximum allowable weight of a portable fire extinguisher is

  • A. 13.5 kg
  • B. 23 kg
  • C. 9 kg
  • D. 46 kg
Answer: B — 23 kg
The FSS Code Chapter 4 states that the mass of a fully charged portable fire extinguisher shall not exceed 23 kg, so that it can be easily carried and operated by one person.

2. Which solvent is used in the deasphalting process?

  • A. Pentene
  • B. Propane
  • C. Butane
  • D. Hexane
Answer: B — Propane
Propane deasphalting is the standard refinery process in which liquid propane dissolves the paraffinic oil from vacuum residue while asphaltenes and resins precipitate out, producing deasphalted oil for lube base stocks.

3. To avoid pyrophoric oxidation, which equipment should be in good working condition?

  • A. Deck seal
  • B. Cargo oil pump
  • C. Gas meter
  • D. Inert gas system
Answer: D — Inert gas system
Pyrophoric iron sulphide oxidises and glows when exposed to air. Keeping cargo tanks inerted with oxygen below 8% by a properly working inert gas system prevents this oxidation and the resulting ignition risk.

4. Which of the listed extinguishing agents would be suitable for use on an oil fire but dangerous on an electrical fire?

  • A. CO2
  • B. Water fog
  • C. Halon
  • D. Dry chemical
Answer: B — Water fog
Water fog can control oil fires by cooling and smothering, but water is electrically conductive and can give the operator an electric shock on live equipment. CO2, halon and dry chemical are non-conductive.

5. If a liquid is filled into a space under high vacuum, it moves vigorously and causes a momentary surge pressure. This momentary surge pressure is called

  • A. Discharge pressure
  • B. Static pressure
  • C. Differential pressure
  • D. Liquid hammer
Answer: D — Liquid hammer
When liquid rushes into a vacuum or its flow is suddenly stopped, the momentum of the liquid column produces a sharp transient pressure rise known as liquid (water) hammer, which can damage pipelines and fittings.

6. Which of the valves listed should be used only in the fully open or fully closed position?

  • A. Needle valve
  • B. Gate valve
  • C. Check valve
  • D. Globe valve
Answer: B — Gate valve
A gate valve is an isolating valve; used partly open, the gate vibrates and the seats erode in the high-velocity flow. Globe and needle valves are designed for throttling, and check valves operate automatically.

7. The visbreaking process is mainly used for making

  • A. Gas oil
  • B. Crude oil
  • C. Fuel oil
  • D. Kerosene
Answer: C — Fuel oil
Visbreaking is a mild thermal cracking process that reduces the viscosity of heavy residues so that less cutter stock is needed, and is mainly used to produce residual fuel oil.

8. Who should prepare the watch schedule during cargo operations?

  • A. Master
  • B. Second officer
  • C. Chief officer
  • D. Chief engineer
Answer: C — Chief officer
On a tanker the chief officer is in charge of cargo operations and prepares the cargo plan and the cargo watch schedule, ensuring adequate manning and rest hours in line with STCW, under the overall authority of the master.

9. The ____ test is done to find the softening point of bitumen.

  • A. Flame
  • B. Impact
  • C. Ring and ball
  • D. Viscosity
Answer: C — Ring and ball
The softening point of bitumen is determined by the ring and ball test (ASTM D36/IP 58), in which a steel ball sinks through a bitumen disc in a ring as the bath is heated; the temperature at which it touches the base is recorded.

10. In atmospheric crude distillation, going from the lighter fractions to the heavier ones, the content of

  • A. Sulphur decreases
  • B. Nitrogen decreases
  • C. Sulphur increases
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — Sulphur increases
Sulphur compounds concentrate in the higher-boiling fractions, so sulphur content rises progressively from naphtha through kerosene and gas oil to atmospheric residue, which is why residual fuels have the highest sulphur.

11. Which of the following crude oil fractions will have the highest API gravity?

  • A. Diesel
  • B. Gasoline
  • C. Atmospheric gas oil
  • D. Vacuum gas oil
Answer: B — Gasoline
API gravity is inversely related to density. Gasoline is the lightest of the listed fractions, so it has the lowest density and therefore the highest API gravity.

12. What is meant by the term self-ignition temperature?

  • A. The lowest temperature at which enough vapour is given off to ignite momentarily if an external ignition source is applied
  • B. The lowest temperature at which the vapour given off will ignite automatically without an external ignition source
  • C. The lowest temperature at which a liquid starts giving off vapour
  • D. The lowest temperature at which enough vapour is given off to ignite and keep burning if an external ignition source is applied
Answer: B — The lowest temperature at which the vapour given off will ignite automatically without an external ignition source
The self-ignition (auto-ignition) temperature is the lowest temperature at which a substance ignites spontaneously without a spark or flame. The other definitions describe the flash point and fire point.

13. The printout record of the ODME computing unit should be retained on board for at least

  • A. 1 year
  • B. Unlimited time
  • C. 2 years
  • D. 3 years
Answer: D — 3 years
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 31 requires the oil discharge monitoring and control system to have a recording device, and the data record must be retained on board for not less than three years.

14. An immersion suit must be capable of being unpacked and donned without assistance within

  • A. 30 seconds
  • B. 1 minute
  • C. 3 minutes
  • D. 2 minutes
Answer: D — 2 minutes
LSA Code 2.3.1.1 requires that an immersion suit can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes, taking into account any associated clothing and a lifejacket if required to be worn with it.

15. The temperature of a cargo tank loaded to 98% should be measured at ____ to obtain an accurate temperature for gauging.

  • A. 2 levels
  • B. 1 level
  • C. 3 levels
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — 3 levels
Because cargo temperature can stratify, full tanks are measured at three levels (upper, middle and lower) and the average is used for volume correction, as recommended in API/IP cargo measurement standards.

16. On ships fitted with non-programmable COW machines, multistage washing is

  • A. Feasible
  • B. Not feasible
  • C. Possible only with skilled persons
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Not feasible
Multistage washing requires the machines to wash selected arcs in sequence, such as top washing followed by bottom washing. Non-programmable machines cycle through a fixed arc, so multistage washing cannot be carried out with them.

17. Pump efficiency is defined as the ratio of

  • A. Pressure to temperature
  • B. Temperature to pressure
  • C. Water horsepower to pump (brake) horsepower
  • D. Pump horsepower to water horsepower
Answer: C — Water horsepower to pump (brake) horsepower
Pump efficiency is the useful hydraulic power delivered to the liquid (water horsepower) divided by the shaft or brake power supplied to the pump; it is always less than one because of losses.

18. Prior to starting discharge, utmost care should be taken while filling the separator (vacuum tank) of the cargo oil pump to avoid

  • A. Liquid hammer
  • B. Cavitation
  • C. Over-pressurisation
  • D. Vacuum
Answer: B — Cavitation
The separator must be filled and the pump casing primed with liquid so that the centrifugal cargo pump does not run with vapour or gas at the suction, which would lead to loss of suction and cavitation damage to the impeller.

19. What is the unit of volumetric flow rate?

  • A. kg.m
  • B. kg/m
  • C. m3/s
  • D. m/s
Answer: C — m3/s
Volumetric flow rate is the volume of fluid passing a point per unit time, so its SI unit is cubic metres per second; on board it is commonly expressed in m3/h.

20. When taking ballast into non-inerted tanks, which measure should be taken?

  • A. Tank valves are opened last
  • B. Ballast is loaded at a very high rate to prevent oil leaks
  • C. Tank valves are opened first
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — Tank valves are opened first
The tank valves should be opened before the ballast pump is started so that ballast flows in gently without pressure surges, and the initial rate should be kept low to avoid splashing and static generation in a non-inerted tank, as advised by ISGOTT.

21. Which of the following statements describes the advantage of a halon fire extinguisher over a CO2 extinguisher?

  • A. Halon cools rather than smothers a fire
  • B. Halon is more efficient than CO2
  • C. Halon can extinguish combustible metal fires
  • D. Halon is non-toxic and safe to breathe under all conditions
Answer: B — Halon is more efficient than CO2
Halon extinguishes by chemically interrupting the combustion chain reaction, so a much lower concentration is needed than CO2, which works by oxygen dilution. Halon does not cool, is not suitable for metal fires, and its decomposition products are toxic.

22. Washing of a cargo tank should ____ until tests have been made at various levels to establish that the vapour content in any part of the tank is below 10% of the LFL.

  • A. Commence
  • B. Not commence
  • C. Wait for optimum conditions
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Not commence
For washing in a non-inert atmosphere, ISGOTT requires the tank to be ventilated and gas tested at several levels before washing starts; washing should not commence until the hydrocarbon content everywhere is below 10% of the LFL.

23. Wet oil that has been loaded on top (LOT) should not be used for

  • A. Initial discharging
  • B. Driving the cargo eductor
  • C. Priming the cargo oil pump
  • D. Crude oil washing
Answer: D — Crude oil washing
Crude oil containing water generates static electricity when sprayed by tank washing machines, so the COW manual requires wash oil to be dry; the slop tank should be debottomed and wet oil should not be used for washing.

24. Exposure to benzene vapour in high concentrations leads to disorders of the

  • A. Skin and eyes
  • B. Blood and bone marrow
  • C. Bone marrow and muscle
  • D. Blood and muscle
Answer: B — Blood and bone marrow
Benzene is a known human carcinogen whose chronic exposure damages the blood-forming bone marrow, causing anaemia and leukaemia. ISGOTT and the cargo MSDS set strict exposure limits for benzene-containing cargoes.

25. Which of the following will not be checked by the cargo surveyor prior to starting cargo operations?

  • A. Ullages
  • B. Cargo sampling
  • C. Temperature of cargo tanks
  • D. Operation of gas detection equipment
Answer: D — Operation of gas detection equipment
The cargo surveyor is concerned with cargo quantity and quality: ullages, temperatures, water dips and samples. Checking the operation of the ship's gas detection equipment is the responsibility of the ship's officers.

26. Which of the following are aromatic hydrocarbons?

  • A. Benzene
  • B. Toluene
  • C. Xylene
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Aromatic hydrocarbons contain the benzene ring. Benzene, toluene and xylene are the common aromatics carried by tankers, and all are toxic with low exposure limits.

27. Inert gas is produced on board ship by

  • A. An inert gas generator
  • B. The auxiliary boiler
  • C. The main boiler
  • D. Any of the above
Answer: D — Any of the above
Inert gas may be obtained from the flue gas of the main or auxiliary boilers after scrubbing, or from an independent oil-fired inert gas generator, as permitted by SOLAS II-2/4.5.5 and the FSS Code Chapter 15.

28. For the best extinguishing effect, the discharge from a dry chemical fire extinguisher should be directed at the

  • A. Base of the fire
  • B. Top and side of the fire
  • C. Middle of the fire
  • D. Highest flames in the fire
Answer: A — Base of the fire
Dry chemical works by interrupting the combustion chain reaction where fuel vapour is burning, so it should be applied at the base of the fire with a sweeping motion to cover the burning surface.

29. For petroleum products with a flash point below about 50°C, the flash point is determined using the

  • A. Abel apparatus
  • B. Saybolt chromometer
  • C. Pensky-Martens apparatus
  • D. Cleveland open cup
Answer: A — Abel apparatus
The Abel closed-cup apparatus is used for products flashing below about 50°C, such as gasoline and kerosene. The Pensky-Martens closed cup is used for higher flash point products such as fuel oils, and the Cleveland open cup for lube oils.

30. The Designated Person Ashore (DPA) is required under the

  • A. STCW Code
  • B. ISPS Code
  • C. MARPOL 73/78
  • D. ISM Code
Answer: D — ISM Code
Section 4 of the ISM Code requires every company to designate a person or persons ashore with direct access to the highest level of management to monitor the safety and pollution-prevention aspects of each ship.

Set 8 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. What are the units of specific gravity?

  • A. kg/m3
  • B. kgf/m3
  • C. No units
  • D. m3/tonne
Answer: C — No units
Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of water at a reference temperature. Being a ratio of two densities, it is dimensionless and has no units.

2. When should the ship/shore safety checklist be completed?

  • A. During the operation
  • B. Prior to the operation
  • C. On completion of the operation
  • D. One day before arrival in port
Answer: B — Prior to the operation
ISGOTT requires the ship/shore safety checklist to be completed jointly by the ship and terminal before cargo or ballast operations start, with repetitive checks made at agreed intervals during the operation.

3. On board tankers, in which of the following areas are sources of ignition fully controlled?

  • A. Engine room and accommodation
  • B. Cargo tanks and main deck (cargo area)
  • C. Bridge
  • D. All of the above
Answer: B — Cargo tanks and main deck (cargo area)
Flammable vapour may be present at any time in the cargo tanks and on the cargo deck, so ISGOTT requires sources of ignition to be strictly excluded there, using intrinsically safe equipment and hot work control.

4. In the scrubber tower, water absorbs ____ more readily at lower temperatures.

  • A. SO3
  • B. SO2
  • C. Both SO2 and SO3
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — SO2
The solubility of sulphur dioxide in sea water increases as the temperature falls, so cooling the flue gas in the scrubber improves SO2 removal. SO3 is removed mainly by reaction and droplet capture.

5. Many petroleum products, especially the more volatile ones, cause

  • A. Dermatitis
  • B. Skin irritation
  • C. Loss of skin
  • D. Both dermatitis and skin irritation
Answer: D — Both dermatitis and skin irritation
Petroleum products, particularly volatile ones, remove natural oils from the skin, causing irritation and on repeated contact dermatitis. ISGOTT advises avoiding skin contact and using protective gloves and clothing.

6. Which instrument is used to determine the colour of petroleum products?

  • A. Saybolt chromometer
  • B. Cleveland apparatus
  • C. Pensky-Martens apparatus
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Saybolt chromometer
The Saybolt chromometer (ASTM D156) measures the colour of refined light products such as gasoline, kerosene and jet fuel. The Cleveland and Pensky-Martens apparatus are used for flash point determination.

7. Where only hydrochloric acid is carried, a vapour detection system is to be provided for

  • A. Hydrogen chloride vapour
  • B. Hydrogen sulphide
  • C. Hydrogen peroxide
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Hydrogen chloride vapour
Hydrochloric acid gives off hydrogen chloride vapour, which is toxic and corrosive. Where it is the only toxic cargo carried, the vapour detection required by the IBC Code is for hydrogen chloride.

8. Where in each monitored space should the gas detector head be placed on a dedicated oil tanker?

  • A. At the bottom
  • B. At the top
  • C. In the centre (vertically)
  • D. At any point in the space
Answer: A — At the bottom
Petroleum hydrocarbon gases are heavier than air and collect in the lower parts of spaces such as pump rooms, so detector heads are placed near the bottom to detect accumulations early.

9. Whichever method is used, overboard discharge during deballasting must be

  • A. Below the waterline
  • B. Above the waterline
  • C. Without restriction
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Above the waterline
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 30 requires discharge of ballast containing oil residues to be made above the waterline so that any oil can be visually observed, except under specified conditions for segregated or clean ballast.

10. A chemical tanker constructed on or after 1 July 1986 must comply with the provisions of the

  • A. BCH Code
  • B. IGC Code
  • C. IBC Code
  • D. GC Code
Answer: C — IBC Code
The IBC Code is mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VII and MARPOL Annex II for chemical tankers constructed on or after 1 July 1986. Older chemical tankers follow the BCH Code; the IGC and GC Codes apply to gas carriers.

11. During loading, the ullage and temperature measuring equipment shows a low battery. Where can the battery be replaced?

  • A. On deck in the tank area
  • B. Near the manifold area
  • C. At the pump room entrance
  • D. Only inside the accommodation (gas-safe area)
Answer: D — Only inside the accommodation (gas-safe area)
Changing batteries of intrinsically safe equipment can produce sparks and may invalidate its certification, so ISGOTT requires this to be done only in a gas-safe area such as the accommodation, never in the cargo area.

12. When operating with a negative suction head, which of these types of pumps will require priming?

  • A. Reciprocating
  • B. Gear
  • C. Centrifugal
  • D. Rotary screw
Answer: C — Centrifugal
A centrifugal pump cannot create enough suction to lift liquid when the casing is full of air or vapour, so it must be primed. Positive displacement pumps such as reciprocating, gear and screw pumps are self-priming.

13. Which of the following is almost absent in crude petroleum?

  • A. Olefins
  • B. Naphthenes
  • C. Mercaptans
  • D. Cycloparaffins
Answer: A — Olefins
Crude oil consists mainly of paraffins, naphthenes (cycloparaffins) and aromatics, with sulphur compounds such as mercaptans in sour crudes. Olefins are unsaturated and virtually absent in crude; they are formed during cracking processes.

14. A ____ tanker is a vessel in the size range of about 50,000 to 74,999 dwt.

  • A. Aframax
  • B. Panamax
  • C. Suezmax
  • D. VLCC
Answer: B — Panamax
Panamax tankers are the largest that could transit the original Panama Canal locks, typically about 50,000 to 75,000 dwt. Aframax are about 80,000 to 120,000 dwt, Suezmax about 120,000 to 200,000 dwt, and VLCCs above 200,000 dwt.

15. The tank washing machines for crude oil washing shall be ____ mounted and of a design acceptable to the Administration.

  • A. Temporarily
  • B. Permanently
  • C. Portably
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Permanently
The Revised Specifications for COW systems under MARPOL Annex I require COW machines to be permanently mounted in the tanks and of a design acceptable to the Administration, with supply lines fixed.

16. On tankers, impairment of the sense of smell is especially serious with mixtures containing

  • A. Hydrocarbons
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Hydrogen sulphide
  • D. Sulphur dioxide
Answer: C — Hydrogen sulphide
Hydrogen sulphide quickly paralyses the sense of smell at concentrations above about 100 ppm, so personnel may wrongly believe the gas has gone. ISGOTT warns that smell must never be relied on to detect H2S.

17. The monitors of the deck foam system are arranged to lay foam across the

  • A. Cargo deck
  • B. Forecastle deck
  • C. Poop deck
  • D. Weather deck forward of the forecastle
Answer: A — Cargo deck
SOLAS II-2/4.5.5 and FSS Code Chapter 14 require tankers to have a fixed deck foam system with monitors able to deliver foam to the entire cargo tank deck area and into any tank whose deck is ruptured.

18. Before boiler flue gas can be used for inerting cargo tanks, it must first be

  • A. Used directly as it leaves the uptake
  • B. Heated to prevent condensation
  • C. Cooled and cleaned in a scrubber tower
  • D. Mixed with fresh air to reduce CO2
Answer: C — Cooled and cleaned in a scrubber tower
Flue gas leaving the boiler is hot and contains soot and sulphur oxides, so it is not used directly. FSS Code Chapter 15 requires a scrubber to cool the gas and remove solids and sulphur compounds before the blowers deliver it to the tanks.

19. A hydrocarbon gas mixture cannot burn when the oxygen content is reduced below approximately

  • A. 5% by volume
  • B. 15% by volume
  • C. 11% by volume
  • D. 21% by volume
Answer: C — 11% by volume
ISGOTT's flammability diagram shows that no hydrocarbon gas/air mixture can burn if the oxygen content is below about 11% by volume. For a safety margin, cargo tanks are kept at 8% oxygen or less.

20. Smoking on board may be carried out only at places designated by the ____ of the ship.

  • A. Chief engineer
  • B. Chief officer
  • C. Master
  • D. Bosun
Answer: C — Master
ISGOTT requires smoking on tankers to be permitted only in designated smoking places, which are authorised by the master in agreement with the terminal; smoking is prohibited everywhere else on board.

21. The effect of free surface of liquids in slack tanks on a ship's stability is to

  • A. Increase the metacentric height
  • B. Reduce the effective metacentric height
  • C. Lower the centre of gravity
  • D. Have no effect on stability
Answer: B — Reduce the effective metacentric height
Liquid moving in a slack tank shifts towards the low side when the ship heels, causing a virtual rise in the centre of gravity. This reduces the effective GM and the righting lever, so free surface disturbs stability.

22. Which statement is correct regarding fire-fighting procedures in port compared to at sea?

  • A. They are exactly the same in both cases
  • B. They differ, as in port the terminal and shore fire services must be alerted and coordinated with
  • C. Fire fighting in port is the sole responsibility of the terminal
  • D. At sea the ship can always rely on outside assistance
Answer: B — They differ, as in port the terminal and shore fire services must be alerted and coordinated with
In port, ISGOTT requires the ship to raise the alarm with the terminal, stop cargo operations and coordinate with shore fire-fighting services, and the ship may need to be removed from the berth, whereas at sea the crew must manage alone.

23. Under MARPOL Annex I Regulation 19, double-hull protection of the cargo tank length is required for oil tankers of what size delivered on or after 6 July 1996?

  • A. 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • B. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • C. 30,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • D. 150 gross tonnage and above
Answer: A — 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
MARPOL Annex I Reg.19 requires oil tankers of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered on or after 6 July 1996 to have the cargo tank length protected by wing tanks and double-bottom tanks or spaces; smaller tankers have reduced double-bottom requirements.

24. For an oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above, MARPOL Annex I Regulation 19 sets the minimum width of the wing tanks or spaces at

  • A. 0.76 m
  • B. 1.0 m
  • C. 2.0 m
  • D. 1.5 m
Answer: B — 1.0 m
Reg.19 gives the wing width as w = 0.5 + DW/20,000 m or 2.0 m, whichever is less, but the width may in no case be less than 1.0 m.

25. The required depth of the double bottom of an oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above under MARPOL Annex I Regulation 19 is

  • A. B/10 or 3.0 m, whichever is less, but not less than 1.5 m
  • B. B/20 or 1.5 m, whichever is greater
  • C. B/15 or 2.0 m, whichever is less, but not less than 1.0 m
  • D. A fixed 2.0 m irrespective of breadth
Answer: C — B/15 or 2.0 m, whichever is less, but not less than 1.0 m
MARPOL Annex I Reg.19.3.2 requires the double-bottom height h to be B/15 or 2.0 m, whichever is the lesser, with a minimum value of 1.0 m, where B is the moulded breadth of the ship.

26. Under MARPOL Annex I Regulation 18, segregated ballast tanks are required on every crude oil tanker of 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above and on every product carrier of

  • A. 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • B. 40,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • C. 70,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • D. 30,000 tonnes deadweight and above
Answer: D — 30,000 tonnes deadweight and above
MARPOL Annex I Reg.18 requires segregated ballast tanks in every crude oil tanker of 20,000 tdw and above and every product carrier of 30,000 tdw and above, with capacity sufficient to meet the draught and trim requirements without using cargo tanks for ballast.

27. As defined in MARPOL Annex I, 'segregated ballast' means ballast water

  • A. introduced into a tank completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems and permanently allocated to ballast
  • B. carried in a cargo tank that has been crude oil washed
  • C. carried in a cargo tank after water washing and gas freeing
  • D. held in the slop tank for decanting through the ODME
Answer: A — introduced into a tank completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil systems and permanently allocated to ballast
MARPOL Annex I Reg.1 defines segregated ballast as ballast water introduced into a tank which is completely separated from the cargo oil and fuel oil system and which is permanently allocated to the carriage of ballast or of non-oil cargoes.

28. MARPOL Annex I Regulation 23 (accidental oil outflow performance) applies to oil tankers of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered

  • A. On or after 6 July 1996
  • B. On or after 1 January 2010
  • C. On or after 1 February 2002
  • D. On or after 1 January 2016
Answer: B — On or after 1 January 2010
Reg.23 requires oil tankers of 5,000 tdw and above delivered on or after 1 January 2010 to meet a mean oil outflow parameter, which in practice limits the size and arrangement of cargo tanks to reduce oil spilled after collision or grounding.

29. On a conventional oil tanker, the purpose of a cofferdam between the cargo tank block and the machinery space is to

  • A. Store slops from tank washing
  • B. Act as an emergency ballast tank
  • C. Provide a void isolating space so that cargo leakage or vapour cannot pass directly into the machinery space
  • D. Hold the inert gas supply for the cargo tanks
Answer: C — Provide a void isolating space so that cargo leakage or vapour cannot pass directly into the machinery space
SOLAS II-2/4.5.1 requires cargo tanks and slop tanks to be segregated from machinery spaces by cofferdams, cargo pump rooms, oil bunker tanks or ballast tanks, so that a leak of cargo or vapour cannot reach a space with ignition sources.

30. A tanker described as a VLCC normally falls in which deadweight range?

  • A. About 50,000 to 75,000 tonnes
  • B. About 80,000 to 120,000 tonnes
  • C. Above 500,000 tonnes
  • D. About 200,000 to 320,000 tonnes
Answer: D — About 200,000 to 320,000 tonnes
In common industry size classification, a Very Large Crude Carrier is about 200,000 to 320,000 dwt, above Suezmax size and below the ULCC class, and is used mainly on long-haul crude trades.

Set 9 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. The IMO performance standard for protective coatings (PSPC) of cargo oil tanks and dedicated seawater ballast tanks is based on a target useful coating life of

  • A. 15 years
  • B. 5 years
  • C. 10 years
  • D. 25 years
Answer: A — 15 years
Both the PSPC for dedicated seawater ballast tanks (MSC.215(82)) and for cargo oil tanks of crude oil tankers (MSC.288(87)) aim for a target useful life of 15 years, meaning the coating stays in GOOD condition for that period.

2. Under SOLAS II-1/3-11, as an alternative to coating the cargo oil tanks of a crude oil tanker to the PSPC, the tanks may be protected by

  • A. Sacrificial zinc anodes alone
  • B. Approved corrosion-resistant steel
  • C. Keeping the tanks permanently inerted
  • D. Increasing the plate thickness by 10%
Answer: B — Approved corrosion-resistant steel
SOLAS II-1/3-11 lets cargo oil tanks of crude oil tankers of 5,000 tdw and above be protected either by a coating to MSC.288(87) or by alternative means such as corrosion-resistant steel meeting MSC.289(87), approved by the Administration.

3. Before loading a cargo that will need heating on passage, the cargo heating coils should be

  • A. Removed from the tank
  • B. Filled with cargo to equalise pressure
  • C. Pressure-tested to check that they are tight
  • D. Painted with heat-resistant coating
Answer: C — Pressure-tested to check that they are tight
Leaking heating coils let steam or condensate into the cargo or let cargo into the condensate return, causing contamination and possibly oil in the boiler feed system. Coils are therefore pressure-tested and proved tight before cargo is loaded.

4. The IACS Common Structural Rules for double-hull oil tankers apply to oil tankers of length

  • A. 90 m and above
  • B. 200 m and above
  • C. Any length
  • D. 150 m and above
Answer: D — 150 m and above
The IACS Common Structural Rules (now harmonised CSR for bulk carriers and oil tankers) cover double-hull oil tankers of 150 m length and above, setting scantling and strength requirements; they are also the basis for the IMO Goal-Based Standards verification.

5. SOLAS II-2/4.5.10 requires cargo pump rooms on tankers to be fitted with

  • A. Temperature sensing devices for pumps, bulkhead shaft glands and bearings, with a continuous alarm in the cargo control room
  • B. A fixed CO2 system as the only means of fire protection
  • C. Ventilation that operates only during cargo operations
  • D. A water spray system covering the pump room bottom only
Answer: A — Temperature sensing devices for pumps, bulkhead shaft glands and bearings, with a continuous alarm in the cargo control room
SOLAS II-2/4.5.10 requires pump-room safety measures including temperature sensing devices for cargo pumps, bulkhead shaft glands and bearings, continuous hydrocarbon gas monitoring, and bilge high-level alarms, with alarms shown in the cargo control room or pump control station.

6. Innage, as used in tank gauging, is the

  • A. Distance from the reference point to the liquid surface
  • B. Depth of liquid measured from the bottom of the tank or datum plate to the liquid surface
  • C. Depth of free water under the cargo
  • D. Height of the ullage port above the deck
Answer: B — Depth of liquid measured from the bottom of the tank or datum plate to the liquid surface
Innage is the depth of liquid from the tank bottom or datum plate up to the liquid surface. Ullage is the empty distance from the reference point down to the surface, so innage plus ullage equals the reference height.

7. In cargo calculations, the Gross Observed Volume (GOV) is obtained from the Total Observed Volume (TOV) by

  • A. Multiplying by the volume correction factor
  • B. Deducting sediment and water in suspension
  • C. Deducting the free water
  • D. Adding the on-board quantity
Answer: C — Deducting the free water
Total Observed Volume is everything in the tank at observed temperature. Deducting the measured free water gives the Gross Observed Volume, which is then multiplied by the VCF from the ASTM tables to obtain the Gross Standard Volume at 15 degrees C.

8. Net Standard Volume (NSV) of an oil cargo is the

  • A. Gross Observed Volume plus free water
  • B. Total Observed Volume multiplied by density
  • C. Gross Standard Volume plus on-board quantity
  • D. Gross Standard Volume minus sediment and water
Answer: D — Gross Standard Volume minus sediment and water
Gross Standard Volume is the volume at standard temperature, including sediment and water in suspension. Deducting S&W, found by laboratory analysis, gives the Net Standard Volume used for commercial figures.

9. ASTM-IP Petroleum Measurement Table 54B is used to obtain volume correction factors for

  • A. Generalised refined products
  • B. Crude oils
  • C. Lubricating oils only
  • D. Liquefied petroleum gases
Answer: A — Generalised refined products
Table 54A is for generalised crude oils, Table 54B for generalised products such as gasoline, jet fuel and gas oil, and Table 54C for individual special applications. All correct volumes to 15 degrees C using density at 15 degrees C.

10. When converting a cargo volume at 15 degrees C to weight in air, the density at 15 degrees C (in vacuum) is reduced by

  • A. 0.011
  • B. 0.0011
  • C. 0.0001
  • D. 1.1
Answer: B — 0.0011
Weight in air is obtained by multiplying the standard volume by the weight conversion factor, which is density at 15 degrees C minus 0.0011 to allow for air buoyancy (ASTM Table 56).

11. The quantity of oil, water and sediment found in the cargo tanks and lines before loading is termed

  • A. Remaining On Board (ROB)
  • B. Gross Standard Volume
  • C. On-Board Quantity (OBQ)
  • D. Bill of Lading quantity
Answer: C — On-Board Quantity (OBQ)
OBQ is measured before loading and includes any oil, water, sludge and sediment already on board. ROB is the corresponding measurement after discharge. Both are recorded in the ullage report and affect cargo outturn calculations.

12. The wedge formula is applied in cargo measurement when

  • A. The tank is full to 98%
  • B. The cargo temperature is above 60 degrees C
  • C. The tank is inerted
  • D. The liquid does not touch all the bulkheads of the tank because of trim
Answer: D — The liquid does not touch all the bulkheads of the tank because of trim
With small quantities and the ship trimmed, the liquid lies as a wedge against the after bulkhead and does not cover the whole tank bottom. Normal trim-corrected calibration tables then give wrong figures, so the wedge formula is used.

13. During closed gauging on a tanker carrying static-accumulator or toxic cargo, ullage, temperature and interface readings are normally taken with a portable UTI through

  • A. A vapour lock (vapour control valve) on the tank
  • B. An open ullage port
  • C. The tank hatch
  • D. The mast riser
Answer: A — A vapour lock (vapour control valve) on the tank
Closed operations keep the tank atmosphere from escaping. Portable electronic ullage temperature interface tapes are therefore lowered through vapour locks fitted to standpipes, which keep the tank sealed while the reading is taken.

14. Water-finding paste applied to a gauging tape or bob is used to

  • A. Prevent static charging of the tape
  • B. Show the level of free water under the cargo by changing colour
  • C. Protect the tape from corrosion
  • D. Measure the density of the cargo
Answer: B — Show the level of free water under the cargo by changing colour
Water-indicating paste changes colour when it contacts water but not oil. Applied to the bob or tape, it shows the water/oil interface so the depth of free water can be read.

15. On oil tankers, tank high-level and overfill alarms are commonly set at about

  • A. 85% and 90% respectively
  • B. 98% and 100% respectively
  • C. 95% and 98% of tank capacity respectively
  • D. 75% and 85% respectively
Answer: C — 95% and 98% of tank capacity respectively
Industry practice under ISGOTT is to set the high-level alarm at about 95% and the independent overfill alarm at about 98% of tank volume. This warns the officer before the tank is overfilled and gives time to change over or stop.

16. For a rectangular tank partly filled with liquid, the free surface moment mainly depends on

  • A. The depth of liquid in the tank
  • B. The height of the tank above the keel
  • C. The draft of the ship
  • D. The breadth of the tank (as its cube) and the density of the liquid
Answer: D — The breadth of the tank (as its cube) and the density of the liquid
The free surface moment is the density times the transverse moment of inertia of the liquid surface (lb cubed over 12). It depends on the breadth cubed and the liquid density, not on how much liquid is in a wall-sided tank.

17. Fitting one longitudinal centreline bulkhead in a tank of uniform breadth reduces its free surface effect to

  • A. One quarter of the original
  • B. One half of the original
  • C. One third of the original
  • D. One ninth of the original
Answer: A — One quarter of the original
Free surface effect varies with the cube of tank breadth. Dividing the tank into two equal parts gives two surfaces each of 1/8 the inertia, totalling 1/4. This is why tankers are subdivided longitudinally.

18. MARPOL Annex I Regulation 27 requires oil tankers of 5,000 tdw and above delivered on or after 1 February 2002 to have, in port, an initial metacentric height (corrected for free surface) of not less than

  • A. 0.05 m
  • B. 0.15 m
  • C. 0.30 m
  • D. 0.50 m
Answer: B — 0.15 m
Reg.27 intact stability requires that in port the initial GM, corrected for free surface measured at 0 degrees heel, is not less than 0.15 m for any operating draught, including during liquid transfer operations.

19. The MARPOL Annex I intact stability requirement for oil tankers was introduced mainly because wide double-hull tankers could

  • A. Exceed the permitted air draft
  • B. Exceed the permitted bending moment at sea only
  • C. Lose stability and loll during simultaneous cargo and ballast operations with many slack tanks
  • D. Suffer excessive trim by the head
Answer: C — Lose stability and loll during simultaneous cargo and ballast operations with many slack tanks
Wide double-hull tankers with large slack cargo and ballast tanks can lose GM during simultaneous cargo and ballast transfer, giving sudden lolling. Reg.27 requires the stability criteria to be met throughout, with clear instructions for liquid transfer.

20. When the cargo is concentrated in the end tanks and the midship tanks are empty, the hull girder will tend to

  • A. Sag
  • B. Rack
  • C. Pant
  • D. Hog
Answer: D — Hog
With weight concentrated at the ends and buoyancy amidships, the midship section is pushed upward relative to the ends and the hull hogs. A loading sequence must keep shear forces and bending moments within the limits in the loading manual.

21. A loading computer (loading instrument) used during cargo planning on a tanker is primarily used to

  • A. Check shear forces, bending moments, stability and draft at each stage of the loading or discharge sequence
  • B. Record cargo sample analysis
  • C. Control the cargo pumps automatically
  • D. Calculate the freight payable
Answer: A — Check shear forces, bending moments, stability and draft at each stage of the loading or discharge sequence
The approved loading instrument checks every stage of the planned sequence against the permissible still-water shear force and bending moment limits, intact stability criteria and draft and trim limits, so the plan can be corrected before cargo or ballast is moved.

22. Compared with the permissible seagoing values, the permissible still-water bending moments and shear forces for harbour conditions are normally

  • A. Lower, because the ship is alongside
  • B. Higher, because wave-induced loads are small in port
  • C. The same in all conditions
  • D. Not specified in the loading manual
Answer: B — Higher, because wave-induced loads are small in port
In sheltered harbour waters wave-induced loads are small, so classification societies allow higher still-water shear force and bending moment limits in port. Stresses must be brought back within the lower seagoing limits before departure.

23. In large cargo tanks, structural damage due to sloshing is most likely when

  • A. Tanks are completely full
  • B. Tanks are completely empty
  • C. Tanks are partly filled at levels within the restricted filling range given in the loading manual
  • D. The ship is alongside in calm water
Answer: C — Tanks are partly filled at levels within the restricted filling range given in the loading manual
Sloshing loads are greatest when partly filled liquid moves in resonance with the ship's motion at sea. Loading manuals for large tankers specify barred or restricted filling ranges in which tanks should not be left at sea.

24. Towards the end of discharge on an oil tanker, the ship is normally kept trimmed

  • A. By the head, to reduce propeller immersion
  • B. On even keel, to reduce bending stress
  • C. With a list, to help drainage to one side
  • D. By the stern, to help cargo drain to the suction wells for stripping
Answer: D — By the stern, to help cargo drain to the suction wells for stripping
A stern trim makes the remaining cargo run aft to the tank suctions and pump-room bellmouths, improving stripping and reducing ROB. The trim is planned within the stress and draft limits of the berth.

25. When liquid is transferred from a full tank into an empty tank on the same ship, the main stability concern during transfer is

  • A. The temporary free surface effect in both tanks, reducing the effective GM
  • B. An increase in displacement
  • C. A permanent rise of the centre of buoyancy
  • D. An increase in the righting lever at all angles
Answer: A — The temporary free surface effect in both tanks, reducing the effective GM
During transfer both tanks are slack at the same time, so both free surfaces reduce the effective GM. MARPOL Reg.27 requires written procedures for liquid transfer showing that stability criteria are met throughout.

26. Under MARPOL Annex I Regulation 33, a crude oil washing system must be fitted on every new crude oil tanker of

  • A. 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • B. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • C. 40,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • D. 70,000 tonnes deadweight and above
Answer: B — 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
MARPOL Annex I Reg.33 requires every crude oil tanker of 20,000 tdw and above delivered after 1 June 1982 to have a cargo tank cleaning system using crude oil washing, meeting Reg.35 and the revised COW specifications.

27. Crude oil washing may be carried out only when the cargo tank being washed is

  • A. Gas-free
  • B. Open to atmosphere through the ullage ports
  • C. Inerted, with oxygen not more than 8% by volume and positive pressure
  • D. Filled with water to 10% of its depth
Answer: C — Inerted, with oxygen not more than 8% by volume and positive pressure
Washing with crude oil creates mist and static charge, so it is only allowed in an inert atmosphere. The oxygen content must be confirmed at not more than 8% by volume, and positive tank pressure maintained throughout, as required by the COW specifications and ISGOTT.

28. On a crude oil tanker, the washing medium for crude oil washing is supplied by

  • A. Sea water from the fire main
  • B. Fresh water heated by the tank cleaning heater
  • C. Water decanted from the slop tank
  • D. Cargo oil taken from the discharge of the cargo pumps
Answer: D — Cargo oil taken from the discharge of the cargo pumps
COW uses the crude oil being discharged as the washing medium. Part of the cargo pump discharge is diverted into the COW line to fixed tank washing machines, so the dissolving action of crude removes sludge and wax from tank surfaces.

29. On a crude oil tanker that will carry dirty ballast on the ballast voyage, the tanks into which ballast will be taken must be

  • A. Crude oil washed before departure from the discharge port
  • B. Water washed at sea only
  • C. Gas freed before ballasting
  • D. Left unwashed to retain clingage
Answer: A — Crude oil washed before departure from the discharge port
MARPOL Annex I Reg.35 and the COW Manual require that cargo tanks to be used for departure ballast are crude oil washed during discharge. This keeps the oil content of ballast water low and reduces the oil retained on board.

30. Which of the following is a principal benefit of crude oil washing?

  • A. Removal of the need for an inert gas system
  • B. Reduced sludge and oil remaining on board, giving better cargo outturn
  • C. Elimination of static electricity in tanks
  • D. Gas freeing of the tanks during discharge
Answer: B — Reduced sludge and oil remaining on board, giving better cargo outturn
COW dissolves and removes wax and sludge deposits during discharge, so more cargo is pumped ashore, less oil is left on board, and less water washing and slop generation are needed. It still requires a fully working inert gas system.

Set 10 — 35 TASCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Under ISGOTT, when water washing in an 'undefined' tank atmosphere, the throughput of each tank washing machine nozzle should not exceed

  • A. 60 cubic metres per hour
  • B. 110 cubic metres per hour
  • C. 17.5 cubic metres per hour
  • D. 180 cubic metres per hour
Answer: C — 17.5 cubic metres per hour
ISGOTT limits washing in undefined atmospheres to reduce charged mist. Each nozzle should not exceed 17.5 m3/h, and total water throughput per tank should be as low as practicable and not more than 110 m3/h. No recirculated wash water is used.

2. In the load-on-top procedure, the oily water collected in the slop tank is

  • A. Pumped overboard immediately after tank washing
  • B. Discharged ashore with the cargo without settling
  • C. Transferred to the engine-room bilge tank
  • D. Allowed to settle, the water decanted overboard through the ODME and the next cargo loaded on top of the retained oil
Answer: D — Allowed to settle, the water decanted overboard through the ODME and the next cargo loaded on top of the retained oil
In load on top, slops are allowed to settle and separate. The clean water underneath is decanted overboard through the ODME within MARPOL Annex I Reg.34 limits, and the next cargo is loaded on top of the retained oil residue.

3. In crude oil washing, 'bottom washing' is normally carried out

  • A. After top washing, near the end of discharge, while the tank is being stripped
  • B. Before any cargo is discharged from the tank
  • C. Only at sea on the ballast passage
  • D. Only with recirculated sea water
Answer: A — After top washing, near the end of discharge, while the tank is being stripped
Top washing removes deposits from upper bulkheads and structure during discharge. Bottom washing follows when the level is low, washing the bottom structure while the tank is stripped continuously so sludge is pumped out and does not build up.

4. Under MARPOL Annex I Chapter 8, an oil tanker engaged in ship-to-ship transfer of oil cargo at sea must carry an approved STS operations plan if it is of

  • A. 400 gross tonnage and above
  • B. 150 gross tonnage and above
  • C. 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • D. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
Answer: B — 150 gross tonnage and above
MARPOL Annex I Reg.41 requires every oil tanker of 150 GT and above engaged in STS transfer of oil cargo to carry a plan on how to conduct STS operations, approved by the Administration and written in the working language of the ship.

5. A tanker planning an STS transfer of oil cargo in the territorial sea or EEZ of a Party must notify that coastal State at least

  • A. 24 hours in advance
  • B. 72 hours in advance
  • C. 48 hours in advance
  • D. 12 hours in advance
Answer: C — 48 hours in advance
MARPOL Annex I Reg.42 requires the oil tanker to notify the coastal State not less than 48 hours before the planned STS operation, giving details such as position, cargo type and quantity, and the planned duration.

6. Records of ship-to-ship oil transfer operations under MARPOL Annex I Chapter 8 must be retained on board for

  • A. One year
  • B. Five years
  • C. Until the next renewal survey
  • D. Three years
Answer: D — Three years
MARPOL Annex I Reg.41 requires records of STS operations to be retained on board for three years and be available for inspection by a Party. The operations are also entered in the Oil Record Book.

7. When starting to load each grade, the correct practice is to

  • A. Begin at a slow rate and check that cargo is entering only the nominated tanks and that there are no leaks
  • B. Begin at the full agreed rate to save time
  • C. Open all tank valves first and then ask the terminal to start
  • D. Keep the manifold valve closed until full shore pressure builds up
Answer: A — Begin at a slow rate and check that cargo is entering only the nominated tanks and that there are no leaks
At the start of loading, flow is kept slow while the officer confirms cargo is going only into the planned tanks, the sea and overboard valves are tight, and there are no leaks at the manifold or lines. Then the rate is increased as agreed.

8. Why should valves not be closed against the flow of cargo during loading?

  • A. It will cause the inert gas pressure to fall
  • B. Sudden closure can cause a pressure surge that may rupture hoses, loading arms or pipelines
  • C. It will overheat the cargo pumps
  • D. It will increase static charge in the tank
Answer: B — Sudden closure can cause a pressure surge that may rupture hoses, loading arms or pipelines
Rapid closure of a valve against moving liquid causes a pressure surge (liquid hammer) that can burst hoses, loading arms or pipelines. Before valves are closed, tanks are changed over by opening the next tank first and the ship and terminal agree shutdown times.

9. The usual method to keep two different cargo grades apart in the ship's pipeline system is

  • A. A single valve kept closed
  • B. Blank flanges fitted only at the manifold
  • C. Double-valve segregation between the grades
  • D. Keeping the pumps stopped
Answer: C — Double-valve segregation between the grades
Grades are normally separated by at least two closed valves in series (double-valve segregation), or by blanks or spool pieces removed where higher integrity is needed. This prevents contamination if one valve leaks.

10. The cargo loading or discharge plan on a tanker is normally prepared by the chief officer and

  • A. Approved by the terminal representative only
  • B. Approved by the cargo surveyor
  • C. Not required to be approved
  • D. Approved by the master before operations begin
Answer: D — Approved by the master before operations begin
The chief officer prepares the cargo plan covering grades, quantities, sequence, rates, stress, stability, trim and segregation. The master approves it before operations, and it is discussed with the terminal at the pre-transfer conference.

11. On a modern marine loading arm used at oil terminals, the emergency release coupling (ERC) is designed to

  • A. Disconnect the arm quickly with minimal spillage if the ship moves outside the operating envelope
  • B. Measure the cargo flow rate
  • C. Bond the ship to the shore electrically
  • D. Drain the arm to the ship's slop tank
Answer: A — Disconnect the arm quickly with minimal spillage if the ship moves outside the operating envelope
The ERC, with its double valves, lets the loading arm separate quickly from the ship's manifold when the arm reaches its envelope limit or in an emergency. Both valves close first so very little oil is released.

12. The ship/shore pre-transfer conference before oil cargo operations is held mainly to

  • A. Calculate the freight
  • B. Agree the cargo plan, rates, communications, emergency shutdown procedures and safety checks between ship and terminal
  • C. Inspect crew certificates
  • D. Plan the next voyage
Answer: B — Agree the cargo plan, rates, communications, emergency shutdown procedures and safety checks between ship and terminal
Before transfer, the ship and terminal discuss and agree cargo grades, sequence, maximum rates and pressures, communications, emergency shutdown and stop signals, and complete the Ship/Shore Safety Checklist. Both parties then work to the same plan.

13. The term 'topping off' a cargo tank refers to

  • A. Draining the last cargo from the bottom of the tank
  • B. Increasing the loading rate at the start of loading
  • C. Completing the filling of a tank to its final ullage at a reduced rate
  • D. Inerting the ullage space after loading
Answer: C — Completing the filling of a tank to its final ullage at a reduced rate
Topping off is the final filling of each tank to the planned ullage. The loading rate is reduced, the terminal is given notice as agreed, and extra watchkeepers are posted to prevent an overflow.

14. Under STCW Regulation V/1-1, which of the following must hold a Certificate of Proficiency in advanced training for oil tanker cargo operations?

  • A. All ratings on oil tankers
  • B. Only the master and chief officer
  • C. Only the pumpman
  • D. Masters, chief engineers, chief mates, second engineers and any person with immediate responsibility for loading, discharging, care in transit or handling of cargo
Answer: D — Masters, chief engineers, chief mates, second engineers and any person with immediate responsibility for loading, discharging, care in transit or handling of cargo
STCW Reg.V/1-1 paragraph 4 requires masters, chief engineer officers, chief mates, second engineer officers and any person with immediate responsibility for cargo operations, tank cleaning and related tasks on oil tankers to hold the advanced oil tanker certificate.

15. To qualify for the advanced oil tanker cargo operations certificate, a candidate holding the basic certificate must have

  • A. At least three months of approved seagoing service on oil tankers, or one month of approved onboard training in a supernumerary capacity
  • B. At least six months of seagoing service on any ship
  • C. At least twelve months of service on chemical tankers
  • D. Only a shore-based course without any sea service
Answer: A — At least three months of approved seagoing service on oil tankers, or one month of approved onboard training in a supernumerary capacity
STCW Reg.V/1-1 requires at least three months of approved sea service on oil tankers, or at least one month of approved supernumerary onboard training with at least three loading and three unloading operations, plus the approved advanced course.

16. Under STCW Regulation I/11, to revalidate a certificate in advanced training for oil tanker cargo operations, the holder must have approved seagoing service on oil tankers of

  • A. At least twelve months in the preceding five years
  • B. At least three months in total during the preceding five years
  • C. At least one month in the preceding year
  • D. Six months continuously before expiry
Answer: B — At least three months in total during the preceding five years
STCW Reg.I/11 paragraph 5 requires holders of tanker certificates to show continued competence every five years, either by at least three months of approved service on the relevant tanker type during the preceding five years or by an approved relevant course.

17. Under SOLAS II-2/4.5.5.1, an inert gas system is required on oil tankers constructed on or after 1 January 2016 of

  • A. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • B. 40,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • C. 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above
  • D. 500 gross tonnage and above
Answer: C — 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above
The amendment adopted by MSC.365(93) lowered the inert gas threshold from 20,000 tdw to 8,000 tdw for oil and chemical tankers constructed on or after 1 January 2016. The system must comply with FSS Code Chapter 15.

18. The International Safety Guide for Oil Tankers and Terminals (ISGOTT) is published by

  • A. IMO and ILO
  • B. IACS and BIMCO
  • C. INTERTANKO and IMO
  • D. OCIMF, ICS and IAPH
Answer: D — OCIMF, ICS and IAPH
ISGOTT is the industry guide produced jointly by the Oil Companies International Marine Forum, the International Chamber of Shipping and the International Association of Ports and Harbors. It is not an IMO instrument but is widely used by terminals and port authorities.

19. The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE) used by charterers and terminals to vet oil tankers is operated by

  • A. OCIMF
  • B. IMO
  • C. IACS
  • D. The flag Administration
Answer: A — OCIMF
SIRE is run by the Oil Companies International Marine Forum. Accredited inspectors carry out inspections, now under SIRE 2.0, and reports are shared with member companies for use in tanker vetting and risk assessment.

20. For an oil tanker, the Record of Construction and Equipment attached to the IOPP Certificate is

  • A. Form A
  • B. Form B
  • C. Form C
  • D. Form D
Answer: B — Form B
MARPOL Annex I issues the Supplement to the IOPP Certificate as Form A for ships other than oil tankers and Form B for oil tankers. Form B records the tanker's construction, SBT, COW, ODME and slop-tank arrangements.

21. The enhanced survey programme for oil tankers, under the 2011 ESP Code, is made mandatory by

  • A. MARPOL Annex VI
  • B. The ISM Code, Part B
  • C. SOLAS Chapter XI-1, Regulation 2
  • D. STCW Regulation V/1-1
Answer: C — SOLAS Chapter XI-1, Regulation 2
SOLAS XI-1/2 makes enhanced surveys of bulk carriers and oil tankers mandatory according to the ESP Code. This includes close-up surveys, thickness measurements and survey planning, which become more detailed as the ship ages.

22. For the fixed deck foam system on a tanker, FSS Code Chapter 14 requires the foam solution supply rate to be not less than the greatest of 0.6 l/min per m2 of cargo deck area, 6 l/min per m2 of the horizontal sectional area of the largest tank, and

  • A. 1 l/min per m2 of the largest tank, but not less than 500 l/min
  • B. 10 l/min per m2 of the manifold area
  • C. 2 l/min per m2 of the accommodation front
  • D. 3 l/min per m2 of the area protected by the largest monitor, but not less than 1,250 l/min
Answer: D — 3 l/min per m2 of the area protected by the largest monitor, but not less than 1,250 l/min
FSS Code Ch.14 sets the deck foam solution rate as the greatest of these three values, the third being 3 l/min/m2 of the area protected by the largest monitor, which in any case must deliver not less than 1,250 l/min.

23. On a tanker fitted with an inert gas system, the deck foam system must carry enough foam concentrate to produce foam for at least

  • A. 20 minutes
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. 60 minutes
Answer: A — 20 minutes
FSS Code Ch.14 requires enough foam concentrate for at least 20 minutes of foam generation at the required rate on tankers with an inert gas installation, and 30 minutes on tankers without one.

24. FSS Code Chapter 14 limits the distance from a deck foam monitor to the farthest extremity of the protected area forward of it to not more than

  • A. 50% of the monitor throw in still air
  • B. 75% of the monitor throw in still air
  • C. 100% of the monitor throw in still air
  • D. 25 m in all cases
Answer: B — 75% of the monitor throw in still air
Each foam monitor must reach the whole area it protects with a margin. The farthest point of the area forward of a monitor must be no more than 75% of the monitor's throw in still air conditions.

25. If there is a fire or major cargo leak at the manifold during loading at a terminal, the first priority after raising the alarm is to

  • A. Disconnect the hoses immediately while cargo is flowing
  • B. Start the ballast pumps
  • C. Activate the emergency shutdown to stop cargo flow and inform the terminal
  • D. Open all tank lids to release pressure
Answer: C — Activate the emergency shutdown to stop cargo flow and inform the terminal
Stopping cargo flow removes the fuel source and limits the spill. The ship uses the agreed emergency shutdown procedure and informs the terminal, then the emergency organisation tackles the fire or spill and contains oil on deck.

26. During cargo discharge, the inert gas system fails and cannot keep cargo tank pressure positive and oxygen at 8% or less. The correct action is to

  • A. Continue discharge at a reduced rate while opening ullage ports
  • B. Admit fresh air to the tanks through the mast riser
  • C. Increase the pump rate to finish quickly
  • D. Stop the cargo discharge and close the deck isolating valve until the system is restored
Answer: D — Stop the cargo discharge and close the deck isolating valve until the system is restored
Under ISGOTT and the ship's IG manual, if the IG supply cannot keep the tanks inert and under positive pressure, discharge or ballasting must stop. The deck isolating valve is closed to prevent backflow until inert gas supply is restored or an alternative approved source is connected.

27. The catalytic filament sensor of a combustible gas indicator can be poisoned and give low readings when exposed to

  • A. Silicones, lead compounds and halogenated hydrocarbons
  • B. Nitrogen
  • C. Water vapour
  • D. Carbon dioxide
Answer: A — Silicones, lead compounds and halogenated hydrocarbons
Vapours of silicones, tetraethyl lead and halogen compounds, and also hydrogen sulphide, can coat or poison the platinum catalytic element and reduce its sensitivity. The instrument then reads low, which is dangerous, so it must be checked with span gas regularly.

28. Before using a portable gas detector for a gas-free or entry test, its response should be checked with

  • A. The breath of the operator
  • B. A span (calibration) gas of known concentration, after zeroing in clean air
  • C. Inert gas from the IG main
  • D. Steam from the tank cleaning line
Answer: B — A span (calibration) gas of known concentration, after zeroing in clean air
After zeroing in fresh air, a span gas of known concentration is passed through the instrument to confirm a correct reading. This function check is recorded, and an instrument that reads wrongly must not be used.

29. When a catalytic combustible gas indicator samples an over-rich hydrocarbon atmosphere, the needle typically

  • A. Stays at zero throughout
  • B. Reads about 50% LFL steadily
  • C. Moves briefly to full scale and then falls back towards zero
  • D. Reads the exact hydrocarbon percentage by volume
Answer: C — Moves briefly to full scale and then falls back towards zero
In an over-rich mixture there is not enough oxygen for catalytic combustion, so after a short surge to full scale the reading drops back towards zero. This could be wrongly taken as a gas-free tank, so a tankscope or infrared instrument is used for high concentrations.

30. ISGOTT advises that, while loading a static-accumulator oil into a tank that is not inerted, the linear velocity in the branch line to each tank should not exceed

  • A. 3 m/s until the tank is one-third full
  • B. 7 m/s at all stages
  • C. 0.1 m/s throughout loading
  • D. 1 m/s until the fill pipe outlet is covered
Answer: D — 1 m/s until the fill pipe outlet is covered
At the start of loading, splashing and turbulence produce charge. Until the tank inlet is covered to about twice its diameter and splashing has stopped, the branch-line velocity is limited to 1 m/s. After that the rate can increase, within the 7 m/s maximum.

31. In a non-inerted tank containing a static-accumulator cargo, ISGOTT recommends that metallic dipping, ullaging or sampling equipment should not be used until

  • A. 30 minutes after completion of loading, unless a sounding pipe is used
  • B. 5 minutes after completion of loading
  • C. The tank has been gas freed
  • D. The cargo temperature has fallen by 5 degrees C
Answer: A — 30 minutes after completion of loading, unless a sounding pipe is used
Charge on a static-accumulator liquid takes time to relax. ISGOTT advises a 30-minute wait after loading before inserting conductive equipment into a non-inert tank, unless gauging through a sounding pipe that extends to the bottom.

32. Pyrophoric iron sulphide forms in cargo tanks when

  • A. Fresh water reacts with aluminium paint
  • B. Hydrogen sulphide from sour cargo reacts with rust in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere
  • C. Inert gas reacts with tank coatings
  • D. Air reacts with dry, clean steel
Answer: B — Hydrogen sulphide from sour cargo reacts with rust in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere
In inerted tanks carrying sour crude, H2S reacts with iron oxide to form iron sulphide. If air is later admitted, the deposit oxidises rapidly, getting hot enough to ignite a flammable atmosphere. Keeping tanks inerted until gas-free reduces this risk.

33. The flammable range of hydrocarbon gas from typical petroleum cargoes is approximately

  • A. 10% to 20% by volume in air
  • B. 0.1% to 1% by volume in air
  • C. 1% to 10% by volume in air
  • D. 5% to 50% by volume in air
Answer: C — 1% to 10% by volume in air
ISGOTT gives the flammable range of typical petroleum gas mixtures as about 1% (LFL) to 10% (UFL) hydrocarbon by volume in air. Below this the mixture is too lean and above it too rich to burn.

34. SOLAS II-2/4.5.4 requires the mechanical exhaust ventilation of a cargo pump room to provide not less than

  • A. 6 air changes per hour
  • B. 10 air changes per hour
  • C. 30 air changes per hour based on the net volume
  • D. 20 air changes per hour based on the gross volume of the space
Answer: D — 20 air changes per hour based on the gross volume of the space
Cargo pump rooms must have mechanical ventilation of the extraction type able to give at least 20 changes of air per hour, based on the gross volume of the space. It must run before entry and during cargo operations, with fans of non-sparking construction.

35. Under SOLAS II-2/4.5.3, the outlets of high-velocity venting devices for cargo tanks must be at least

  • A. 2 m above the cargo tank deck and 10 m horizontally from air intakes and openings to enclosed spaces with ignition sources
  • B. 1 m above the deck and 5 m from any opening
  • C. 6 m above the deck in all cases
  • D. At the same height as the mast riser only
Answer: A — 2 m above the cargo tank deck and 10 m horizontally from air intakes and openings to enclosed spaces with ignition sources
High-velocity vents throw vapour upward at speed so it disperses. SOLAS allows these vent outlets at least 2 m above the cargo tank deck and at least 10 m horizontally from air intakes and openings to gas-safe spaces. Free-flow vent outlets need 6 m height.

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