TASCO exit exam questions and answers
All 181 questions from the Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations (TASCO) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 1 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. Volume 2 of IMDG code comprises one part which is
- A. Part 2 - Classification
- B. Part 3 - The Dangerous Goods List (DGL)
- C. Part 4 - Packing and tank provisions
- D. Part 1 - General provisions, definitions and training
Answer: B — Part 3 - The Dangerous Goods List (DGL)
Volume 2 of the IMDG Code is structured to provide technical guidance, specifically containing Part 3, which is the Dangerous Goods List (DGL). This list is essential for identifying the specific shipping requirements and classification of hazardous materials.
2. Petroleum liquids that have closed-cup flash points below 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) are considered as
- A. Volatile Liquids
- B. Flammable Liquids
- C. Non-volatile Liquids
- D. Combustible Liquids
Answer: A — Volatile Liquids
Under standard classification, petroleum liquids with a closed-cup flash point below 60°C are categorized as 'volatile' or 'flammable' because they can easily produce vapours that form ignitable mixtures with air at ambient temperatures.
3. What are the three broad classification of cargoes transported on tankers?
- A. Container, Dry Bulk and Refrigerated cargo
- B. General cargo, Dry Break Bulk and Frozen cargo
- C. Liquefied Natural gas, Liquefied Petroleum gas, Liquefied Nitrogen
- D. Petroleum liquids, chemical liquids, and special liquids
Answer: D — Petroleum liquids, chemical liquids, and special liquids
Tanker cargoes are broadly classified into petroleum liquids (crude oil and products), chemical liquids (noxious liquid substances), and special liquids (like vegetable/animal oils and molasses). This classification helps determine carriage requirements, hazard profiles, and equipment standards under IBC and IGC codes.
4. What is the closed-cup flash point of non-volatile petroleum liquids?
- A. below 140 Deg F (60 Deg C)
- B. below 113 Deg F (45 Deg C)
- C. 113 Deg F (45 Deg C) and above
- D. 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) and above
Answer: D — 140 Deg F (60 Deg C) and above
Non-volatile petroleum liquids are defined by their higher flash points. According to international safety standards for tanker operations, a liquid with a closed-cup flash point of 60°C (140°F) or above is considered non-volatile, reducing the risk of vapor accumulation at ambient temperatures.
5. What is the Reid vapor pressure of flammable liquids of natural gasoline & Naphtha which has open cup flash point of 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)?
- A. 8.5 psi and below
- B. 14 psi and above
- C. More than 24.6 psi
- D. More than 8.5 but less than 14 psi
Answer: D — More than 8.5 but less than 14 psi
Reid Vapor Pressure (RVP) measures the volatility of petroleum products. For natural gasoline and Naphtha with a flash point of 80°F, the specific regulatory classification for RVP range is categorized as more than 8.5 but less than 14 psi to determine handling safety.
6. Tankers carry palm oil, molasses and tallow as special liquids cargoes in bulk, which are grouped as
- A. Other chemical Liquids
- B. Animal/Vegetable oils
- C. Non-volatile Liquids
- D. Miscellaneous Liquids
Answer: B — Animal/Vegetable oils
Palm oil, molasses, and tallow are classified as Animal and Vegetable oils. These are distinct from mineral oils and fall under specific requirements for carriage and pollution prevention on specialized tankers.
7. Animal/Vegetable Oils carried in tankers and classified as
- A. Special Liquids
- B. Non-volatile Liquids
- C. Chemical Liquid
- D. Non-flammable Liquids
Answer: A — Special Liquids
Animal and Vegetable oils, while distinct from petroleum hydrocarbons, are categorized as special liquids due to their persistent nature and specific requirements for carriage and potential pollution mitigation as defined in MARPOL and IBC Code guidelines.
8. Structure of MARPOL Convention layouts are as follows: find the correct one.
- A. Convention, Protocol I, Protocol II, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997
- B. Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II, Convention
- C. Protocol 1997, Protocol 1978, Protocol I, Protocol II, Convention
- D. Convention, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II
Answer: D — Convention, Protocol 1978, Protocol 1997, Protocol I, Protocol II
The formal structure of the MARPOL Convention includes the main Convention, Protocol I (Reports on Incidents), Protocol II (Arbitration), and subsequent major amendments including the 1978 Protocol (MARPOL 73/78) and the 1997 Protocol (Annex VI).
9. The IMDG Code became mandatory on
- A. 1st of January 2006
- B. 1st of January 2002
- C. 1st of January 2004
- D. 1st of January 2000
Answer: C — 1st of January 2004
The International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code was adopted by the IMO and became mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VII on 1st January 2004 to ensure the safe transport of dangerous goods by sea.
10. Liquids that have an open-cup flash point at or below 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C) are classified as
- A. Flammable Liquids
- B. Combustible Liquids
- C. Volatile Liquids
- D. Non-volatile Liquids
Answer: A — Flammable Liquids
In accordance with safety standards, liquids with an open-cup flash point at or below 80°F (26.7°C) are classified as 'flammable liquids' due to their ability to form explosive gas mixtures at ambient temperatures.
11. What is the open cup flash point of the petroleum liquids that are classified as combustible liquids?
- A. Above 60 Deg F (15.6 Deg C)
- B. Below 60 Deg F (15.6 Deg C)
- C. Below 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
- D. Above 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
Answer: D — Above 80 Deg F (26.7 Deg C)
Combustible liquids are those with a flash point higher than 80°F (26.7°C). Because they do not readily vaporize at ambient conditions, they are considered less immediately hazardous than flammable liquids but still require safety precautions.
12. What is an inert condition?
- A. When the oxygen is 21% by volume in a tank
- B. When the oxygen has been eliminated from a tank
- C. condition in which the oxygen content throughout the atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8% or less by volume by the addition of inert gas.
- D. When the oxygen is 10% by volume in a tank
Answer: C — condition in which the oxygen content throughout the atmosphere of a tank has been reduced to 8% or less by volume by the addition of inert gas.
An inert condition is defined as an atmosphere where the oxygen content is reduced to 8% or less by volume, usually by injecting flue gas or nitrogen, making the tank atmosphere non-combustible.
13. What factor mainly affects Vapour cloud dilution rate?
- A. Weather conditions
- B. Quantity of Spill
- C. Thermal inversion
- D. Diameter of the vapour cloud
Answer: A — Weather conditions
Weather conditions, specifically wind speed and direction, are the primary drivers for vapor cloud dispersion and dilution. They dictate how quickly a released gas plume is mixed with fresh air, reducing its concentration below the LFL.
14. What is cold work?
- A. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
- B. Carrying out work in a cold atmosphere
- C. Work that can be done only in cold temperatures
- D. Carrying out work on reefer containers
Answer: A — Work that cannot create a source of ignition
Cold work refers to maintenance activities that do not involve heat, sparks, or potential sources of ignition, such as painting or manual cleaning, thereby not requiring a 'Hot Work' permit.
15. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
- B. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
- C. No written record is required
- D. Verbal update to port agent without logging
Answer: B — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.
16. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling emergency procedures and alarm protocols under Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo guidelines?
- A. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
- B. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
- C. High-visibility vest only
- D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
Answer: B — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.
17. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for emergency procedures and alarm protocols related to Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
- B. Temperature check only
- C. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
- D. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
Answer: C — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.
18. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for emergency procedures and alarm protocols under Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
- B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
- C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
- D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.
19. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in emergency procedures and alarm protocols during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
- B. Crew List document
- C. Bill of Lading description
- D. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
Answer: A — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.
20. Regarding emergency procedures and alarm protocols in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-V/1-1?
- A. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
- B. Non-mandatory recommendation
- C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
- D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
STCW Code Section A-V/1-1 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo.
21. What is the primary function of an Inert Gas System (IGS) aboard crude oil tankers?
- A. Cool liquid cargo during transit
- B. Increase cargo discharge speed
- C. Reduce oxygen content in cargo tanks below 8% to prevent explosive vapor-air mixtures
- D. Vent hydrocarbon gas to atmosphere
Answer: C — Reduce oxygen content in cargo tanks below 8% to prevent explosive vapor-air mixtures
IGS supplies inert gas (O2 < 5%) to maintain tank atmosphere below the lower flammable limit.
22. Under MARPOL Annex I, what is the maximum instantaneous rate of oil discharge allowed from cargo tank areas of oil tankers?
- A. 30 liters per nautical mile
- B. 60 liters per nautical mile
- C. 15 ppm fixed
- D. 100 liters per hour
Answer: A — 30 liters per nautical mile
MARPOL Annex I caps instantaneous discharge rate of oil from tankers en route at 30 L/nm.
23. What device measures oxygen concentration continuously in the main inert gas supply line?
- A. Paramagnetic or Electrochemical Oxygen Analyzer
- B. Infrared Combustible Gas Indicator
- C. FID Sensor
- D. Refractometer
Answer: A — Paramagnetic or Electrochemical Oxygen Analyzer
Continuous O2 analyzers monitor inert gas purity before line delivery to cargo tanks.
24. What safety device prevents reverse flow of hydrocarbon gas from cargo tanks into the engine room boiler stack?
- A. Flame screen on vent mast
- B. High level alarm sensor
- C. PV valve
- D. Deck Water Seal and Non-Return Valve
Answer: D — Deck Water Seal and Non-Return Valve
The deck water seal acts as an absolute barrier against backflow of flammable gas to safe spaces.
25. What is the purpose of Crude Oil Washing (COW) performed during tanker discharge operations?
- A. Clean cargo piping with chemical solvent
- B. Wash tanks with hot sea water
- C. Cool cargo pumps
- D. Use crude oil spray to wash heavy sludge and paraffin deposits from tank walls and bottom
Answer: D — Use crude oil spray to wash heavy sludge and paraffin deposits from tank walls and bottom
COW dissolves wax and sludge using cargo oil, reducing ROB and tank cleaning time.
26. What is the primary risk associated with static electricity buildup during tanker cargo loading?
- A. Ignition of flammable hydrocarbon vapors inside cargo tanks from electrostatic spark discharge
- B. Overpressurization of cargo hoses
- C. Damage to cargo pump impellers
- D. Corrosion of tank steel plates
Answer: A — Ignition of flammable hydrocarbon vapors inside cargo tanks from electrostatic spark discharge
Static charges from high fluid velocities can spark and ignite flammable vapor-air mixtures.
27. What is the function of a High Velocity Pressure/Vacuum (P/V) Relief Valve on cargo tanks?
- A. Release excessive vapor pressure or vacuum during loading/ballasting while keeping exit velocity high to disperse gas
- B. Pump out tank bilges
- C. Sample cargo liquid density
- D. Keep cargo tanks under high pressure permanently
Answer: A — Release excessive vapor pressure or vacuum during loading/ballasting while keeping exit velocity high to disperse gas
High-velocity PV valves jet flammable gases high above the deck to prevent vapor accumulation.
28. Under SOLAS, what is the minimum required capacity of inert gas plant relative to maximum cargo discharge rate?
- A. 100% of discharge rate
- B. 50% of discharge rate
- C. 150% of discharge rate
- D. At least 125% of the maximum required cargo discharge pumping rate
Answer: D — At least 125% of the maximum required cargo discharge pumping rate
IG plant capacity must exceed maximum discharge rate by 25% to prevent vacuum creation.
29. What instrument is used to test cargo tanks for toxic hydrocarbon gases before human entry?
- A. Personal Multi-Gas Detector (O2, H2S, CO, LFL)
- B. Sounding tape
- C. Explosimeter calibrated in % LFL only
- D. Hydrometer
Answer: A — Personal Multi-Gas Detector (O2, H2S, CO, LFL)
Enclosed space entry requires verifying O2 (20.9%), toxic gases (H2S), and 0% LFL.
30. What is the purpose of an Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) during ballast discharge?
- A. Vent inert gas to sea
- B. Control cargo pump speed
- C. Continuously measure oil content (ppm), discharge rate, and total quantity discharged overboard
- D. Measure tank temperature
Answer: C — Continuously measure oil content (ppm), discharge rate, and total quantity discharged overboard
ODMCS automatically stops overboard discharge if legal oil rate or total limit is exceeded.
Set 2 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. ____ burns automatically at room temperature.
- A. Sodium
- B. Phosphorus
- C. Iron
- D. Nitrogen
Answer: B — Phosphorus
Phosphorus is a highly reactive chemical element that can spontaneously ignite when exposed to air at ambient room temperatures, requiring specialized storage and handling procedures.
2. What is a hot work permit?
- A. Document used for carrying out repairs under supervision
- B. Document valid for 7 days for carrying out tank cleaning
- C. Document used for work in a drydock
- D. document issued by a responsible person permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
Answer: D — document issued by a responsible person permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
A hot work permit is a critical safety document issued by the responsible officer that authorizes specific work involving heat or sparks in a designated space only after safety measures are verified.
3. What is bonding?
- A. Making a ship to shore cable connection
- B. Connecting together flexible couplings on deck
- C. The connecting together of metal parts to ensure electrical continuity
- D. Connecting together of cargo pipe line flanges
Answer: C — The connecting together of metal parts to ensure electrical continuity
Bonding is the electrical connection between metal parts of a system to ensure electrical continuity, which prevents the build-up of static electricity and potential spark discharges during cargo operations.
4. How Threshold Limit Values are specified?
- A. ppm/volume gas in Air
- B. Volume of Gas in Air
- C. PPM (Parts per Million)
- D. Specific Numbers
Answer: C — PPM (Parts per Million)
Threshold Limit Values (TLV) represent the concentration of substances to which personnel can be exposed daily without adverse effects; these are standardly expressed in Parts per Million (PPM).
5. What is pour point?
- A. The lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil will remain fluid
- B. The temperature at which oil gets frozen
- C. The temperature at which oil cannot be discharged
- D. The temperature at which oil needs to be heated
Answer: A — The lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil will remain fluid
Pour point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid (oil) remains fluid enough to pour under specified test conditions, which is critical for determining pumpability in cold climates.
6. A liquid is considered to be flammable when the flash point is less than
- A. $60^{\circ}$ F
- B. $70^{\circ}$ F
- C. $80^{\circ}$ F
- D. $50^{\circ}$ F
Answer: C — $80^{\circ}$ F
A liquid is defined as flammable in maritime safety standards if its closed-cup flash point is 60°C or lower (often rounded to 140°F), but 80°F is the specific limit frequently cited for high-volatility classification.
7. What is Upper flammable limit?
- A. The limit where there is too much inert gas to support combustion
- B. The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
- C. The limit for man entry of personnel into tanks
- D. The limit where there is insufficient inert gas to support combustion
Answer: B — The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
The Upper Flammable Limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air above which the mixture is too 'rich' (insufficient oxygen) to support combustion.
8. What is lower flammable limit?
- A. The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
- B. The limit for man entry of personnel into tanks
- C. The limit where there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
- D. The limit where there is too much oxygen to support combustion
Answer: A — The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
The Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) is the lowest concentration of a gas in air that can support combustion; below this limit, the mixture is too 'lean' (insufficient fuel) to ignite.
9. What is cathodic protection?
- A. Protection of the hull of a ship
- B. Cathodes placed on the hull of a ship
- C. The prevention of corrosion by electrochemical techniques
- D. Anodes placed in the stern of a ship
Answer: C — The prevention of corrosion by electrochemical techniques
Cathodic protection is an electrochemical technique used to control the corrosion of a metal surface (like a ship's hull) by making that surface the cathode of an electrochemical cell using sacrificial anodes.
10. Where is smoking permitted on board ship while at a berth?
- A. In the engine room
- B. Anywhere on the ship
- C. In the cargo control room
- D. Designated smoking room
Answer: D — Designated smoking room
Smoking is strictly prohibited on tankers except in specially designated, safe, and controlled areas, as any ignition source near cargo spaces poses a significant fire and explosion risk.
11. As a requirement of SOLAS, the number of sets of full protective clothing resistant to chemical attack that should be provided in addition to firefighters' outfits, is
- A. 2 sets
- B. 4 sets
- C. 3 sets
- D. 5 sets
Answer: A — 2 sets
SOLAS regulations require ships carrying dangerous chemical cargoes to have at least two sets of full protective clothing resistant to chemical attack, separate from standard firefighter outfits, to ensure safety during incidents.
12. What is a material safety data sheet (MSDS)?
- A. It is used for finding out the effects of inhalation
- B. document giving the chemical name of the product
- C. It is used for finding out the dangers of contract
- D. document identifying a substance and all its constituents
Answer: D — document identifying a substance and all its constituents
A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is an essential document provided by manufacturers that lists the properties, hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response information for a specific chemical substance.
13. What is hot work?
- A. Work involving sources of ignition or temperatures sufficiently high to cause the ignition of a flammable gas mixture.
- B. Hot work is carried out in high ambient temperatures
- C. Work carried out using hot material
- D. The temperature is very high where the work is done
Answer: A — Work involving sources of ignition or temperatures sufficiently high to cause the ignition of a flammable gas mixture.
Hot work is defined as any activity that can produce a source of ignition—such as welding, burning, or grinding—in areas where flammable vapors might be present.
14. What is volatile petroleum?
- A. Petroleum having a flashpoint below 100 Degrees C
- B. Petroleum having a flashpoint below 60 Degrees C
- C. Petroleum having a flashpoint above 100 Degrees C
- D. Petroleum having a flashpoint above 60 Degrees C
Answer: B — Petroleum having a flashpoint below 60 Degrees C
Volatile petroleum is defined as any petroleum product with a flash point below 60°C, meaning it can easily form flammable vapor mixtures at normal ambient temperatures.
15. What is flash point?
- A. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient gas to form a flammable gas mixture near the surface of the liquid.
- B. The temperature at which the liquid stops emitting gas
- C. The temperature at which the gas is not flammable
- D. The temperature at which an explosion is not possible
Answer: A — The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient gas to form a flammable gas mixture near the surface of the liquid.
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid emits sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air near the liquid's surface, as determined by standardized laboratory tests.
16. What is non-volatile petroleum?
- A. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or above
- B. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
- C. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or below
- D. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or below
Answer: B — Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
Non-volatile petroleum is defined as petroleum having a flash point of 60°C (140°F) or above, meaning it is less likely to form dangerous vapor concentrations under standard operational temperatures.
17. What is purging?
- A. Introducing of oxygen into a tank to a high level
- B. Using natural ventilation to gas free a tank
- C. Using blowers to push oxygen into a tank
- D. The introduction of inert gas into a tank already in the inert condition to further reduce the existing oxygen content or hydrocarbon gas content to a level below which combustion cannot take place if air is introduced
Answer: D — The introduction of inert gas into a tank already in the inert condition to further reduce the existing oxygen content or hydrocarbon gas content to a level below which combustion cannot take place if air is introduced
Purging is the process of displacing an existing tank atmosphere (usually hydrocarbon gas) with inert gas to further reduce the oxygen concentration, ensuring that any subsequent introduction of air will not create a flammable mixture.
18. Fuel must be heated to its ___________ before it starts burning.
- A. flash point
- B. ignition temperature
- C. fire point
- D. boiling point
Answer: B — ignition temperature
Fuel must reach its ignition temperature through external heat transfer for a sustained combustion reaction to begin; this is the temperature where the chemical reaction becomes self-sustaining.
19. What is Nitrogen Asphxiation?
- A. It is unconsciousness caused by Inert gas can lead to death
- B. It is unconsciousness caused by Nitrogen can lead to death
- C. Nitrogen, which is non-flammable, non-toxic and colourless
- D. Nitrogen which is undetectable to the human senses
Answer: B — It is unconsciousness caused by Nitrogen can lead to death
Nitrogen asphyxiation occurs when nitrogen displaces oxygen in an enclosed space, leading to an oxygen-deficient atmosphere that can cause unconsciousness or death due to hypoxia.
20. What is Toxicity
- A. Toxicity is the degree to which a substance or mixture of substances can harm humans.
- B. Toxicity means Acidic
- C. Toxicity means poisonous and affects you on oral consumption
- D. None of the above
Answer: A — Toxicity is the degree to which a substance or mixture of substances can harm humans.
Toxicity is a measure of the inherent ability of a substance to cause harmful effects in humans, whether through inhalation, ingestion, or skin absorption, regardless of its flammability.
21. What is Time Weighted Average?
- A. Averaging all the exposure times for a time period 8 hours
- B. Highest exposure time
- C. Short Term exposure time
- D. Exposure time
Answer: A — Averaging all the exposure times for a time period 8 hours
Time Weighted Average (TWA) represents the average concentration of a substance to which a person may be safely exposed over a specified time period, typically 8 hours, without suffering long-term health effects.
22. Which is a non-accumulator of charges?
- A. Toluene is a Non-accumulator of charges
- B. Alcohols is an Accumulator of charges
- C. Cyclohexane is a Non-accumulator of charges
- D. Kotones is a Non-accumulator of charges
Answer: D — Kotones is a Non-accumulator of charges
Ketones are classified as non-accumulators of static charge because they possess sufficient conductivity to dissipate charge build-up during cargo transfer. Toluene and cyclohexane are hydrocarbons with low conductivity (accumulators), while alcohols are generally polar but often treated differently; ketones are the standard example of a non-accumulator in this context.
23. What is Auto-ignition?
- A. Ignition of materials when they come in contact with each other
- B. The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs.
- C. Automatic ignition of material in a hot atmosphere
- D. Ignition caused by mixture of vapours given of by cargoes
Answer: B — The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs.
Auto-ignition refers to the property of a substance whereby it ignites spontaneously without the requirement of an external ignition source like a spark or flame. This occurs once the material reaches its auto-ignition temperature in the presence of an oxidant.
24. Which of the following is a supporter of combustion?
- A. oxygen gas
- B. producer gas
- C. nitrogen gas
- D. cooking gas
Answer: A — oxygen gas
Oxygen is the primary supporter of combustion in the fire triangle. Without a sufficient concentration of oxygen, the chemical reaction of fire cannot be sustained.
25. Tank clingage depends on:
- A. cohesive forces, adhesive forces and the liquids melting point
- B. cohesive, adhesive forces and surface tension
- C. surface tension only
- D. cohesive and adhesive forces
Answer: B — cohesive, adhesive forces and surface tension
Tank clingage is the amount of cargo remaining on tank surfaces after discharge, influenced by the complex interaction of the liquid's surface tension, and the adhesive/cohesive forces between the liquid and the tank bulkhead.
26. Oxygen Analyzer: what is your key finding in measuring oxygen level?
- A. Oxygen is strongly paramagnetic whereas most other common gases are not.
- B. Portable oxygen analyzers are normally used to determine whether the atmosphere inside an enclosed space (cargo tank for example) may be considered fully inerted or safe for entry.
- C. Fixed oxygen analyzers can be used for monitoring the oxygen content of the boiler uptakes and the inert gas main.
- D. The common types of oxygen analyzers in use are, Paramagnetic sensors and Electrochemical sensors.
Answer: B — Portable oxygen analyzers are normally used to determine whether the atmosphere inside an enclosed space (cargo tank for example) may be considered fully inerted or safe for entry.
The primary objective of using a portable oxygen analyzer on a tanker is to ensure the atmosphere is safe for human entry (21% O2) or to verify the efficacy of inert gas systems to prevent combustion.
27. Key Features and Measurement of an Effective Safety Culture; identify one statement that identifies an effective safety culture
- A. Recognition that all accidents are preventable and only usually occur following unsafe actions or a failure to follow established procedures
- B. safety management system that is always setting targets for continuous improvement, with a goal of zero accidents
- C. Individual seafarers assume responsibility for safety rather than relying on others to provide it
- D. Through mutual respect, increasing confidence in the value of the safety culture results in a more effective Safety Management System
Answer: B — safety management system that is always setting targets for continuous improvement, with a goal of zero accidents
An effective safety culture is characterized by the continuous pursuit of excellence. Setting measurable targets for improvement and striving for the goal of zero accidents is a cornerstone of modern safety management systems.
28. What is the maximum interval of time between sampling and analysing for each sampling head location sequentially?
- A. Not exceeding 30 minutes interval
- B. Not exceeding 40 minutes interval
- C. Not exceeding 50 minutes interval
- D. Not exceeding 60 minutes interval
Answer: A — Not exceeding 30 minutes interval
In fixed gas sampling systems, the regulation requires that the sequence of sampling from various heads is frequent enough to ensure safety. An interval not exceeding 30 minutes is the industry standard to ensure real-time hazard detection.
29. Class D fires involve
- A. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
- B. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
- C. Energised electrical equipment
- D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Answer: D — Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Class D fires are specifically defined as those involving combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium, sodium, or potassium, which require specialized extinguishing agents.
30. The hydrocarbon content in the atmosphere of a pump room is measured using a
- A. Alarm system detector
- B. Explosimeter
- C. The Draeger instrument
- D. Tankscope
Answer: C — The Draeger instrument
Draeger-type gas detection tubes are commonly used on ships to provide accurate, localized concentration readings of specific hydrocarbon gases in various compartments, including pump rooms.
Set 3 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. What is the limitation of a combustible gas detector of catalytic combustion type?
- A. It cannot be used for measurement in air
- B. It cannot be used for measurement in oxygen
- C. It cannot be used for measurement in methane
- D. It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Answer: D — It cannot be used for measurement in nitrogen
Catalytic combustion (pellistor) sensors require oxygen to oxidize the hydrocarbon sample on the filament. Therefore, they cannot function in an inerted environment (e.g., nitrogen) where oxygen is absent.
2. The manifold pressure when loading oil cargo should be
- A. 'Zero'
- B. Below the cargo tank pressure
- C. Above atmospheric pressure
- D. Above the cargo tank pressure
Answer: A — 'Zero'
During cargo operations, manifold pressure is maintained at a level that balances the system; maintaining 'zero' pressure relative to the tank prevents excessive stress on hoses and potential leaks.
3. What is the maximum reliable shelf life of a filter gas mask canister if the seal is unbroken?
- A. 1 year from the date of manufacture
- B. 5 years from the date of manufacture
- C. 7 years from the date of manufacture
- D. 3 years from the date of manufacture
Answer: B — 5 years from the date of manufacture
The shelf life of filter canisters is limited by the degradation of the absorbent materials over time. Most manufacturers stipulate a 5-year maximum shelf life for sealed canisters to guarantee integrity.
4. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?
- A. Washing the tank interior with sea water
- B. Removal of corrosion products and sludge
- C. Application of degreasing solvents
- D. Fresh air ventilation
Answer: C — Application of degreasing solvents
Gas-freeing involves ventilation and physical cleaning to remove hazards. The application of degreasing solvents is a specific cleaning process that is not a standard, mandatory step for routine gas-freeing.
5. The reading of a combustible gas indicator indicates the percentage of the
- A. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
- B. concentration by weight of nonflammable gas in a compartment
- C. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment
- D. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
A combustible gas indicator typically provides readings as a percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), indicating how close the current gas concentration is to forming an explosive mixture.
6. A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given __________ .
- A. large meal
- B. brisk rub down
- C. small dose of alcohol
- D. Treatment for shock
Answer: D — Treatment for shock
A person with hypothermia requires gentle, gradual warming and stabilization. Alcohol is strictly forbidden as it can lead to vasodilation and further heat loss, and massage (rubbing) is dangerous as it moves cold blood to the heart.
7. What instrument is used to measure hydrocarbon gas in an inert atmospheres?
- A. The Draeger instrument
- B. The Multi-Gas detector
- C. Explosimeter
- D. Tankscope
Answer: D — Tankscope
A Tankscope is specifically designed to measure hydrocarbon gas concentrations in inerted atmospheres where oxygen levels are low and standard explosimeters would fail.
8. Operating Principle of the Infrared instrument: identify the key principle that leads to detection of hydrocarbon gas,
- A. The vapor to be monitored reaches the measuring chamber by diffusion or by means of a pump.
- B. The infra-red (IR) sensor is a transducer for the measurement of the concentration of hydrocarbons by the absorption of infra-red radiation.
- C. An infrared source illuminates a volume of gas that has entered inside the measurement chamber.
- D. The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Answer: D — The gas absorbs some of the infrared wavelengths as the light passes through it, while others pass through it completely unattenuated.
Infrared (IR) sensors work by measuring the absorption of specific infrared light wavelengths as they pass through the gas. Hydrocarbons absorb specific IR frequencies, allowing the concentration to be calculated.
9. Which of the following current level leads to muscular contraction?
- A. 0.10A
- B. 0.01A
- C. 0.5A
- D. 0.015A
Answer: D — 0.015A
Electrical current as low as 10-15 milliamperes (0.01-0.015A) can cause involuntary muscular contractions, potentially preventing a person from letting go of an energized source.
10. Is an enclosed space entry permit required for entering pump room?
- A. No, the pumproom has a fixed fan for ventilation and frequently visited
- B. The chief officer will assess the situation and decide
- C. Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
- D. The Master will decide based on findings by Chief Officer
Answer: C — Yes, the checklist, permit and other procedures apply for all enclosed spaces
Under the IMO and industry standards, all pump rooms are considered enclosed spaces. Entry requires strict adherence to permits, testing, and checklist protocols regardless of their ventilation status.
11. What should you do when the alarm bell on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?
- A. Move the reserve lever to the 'reserve' position on the regulator and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
- B. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
- C. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
- D. Move the tank selector lever to the full tank position and reset the alarm so you can evacuate the area when it sounds again.
Answer: B — Immediately evacuate the contaminated area.
The alarm on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) signifies the low-pressure warning, indicating the air reserve is nearing depletion. The only safe action is to immediately retreat to a safe, non-contaminated environment.
12. Experience indicates that hazardous potentials in respect of static electricity do not occur if the velocity of liquid, while loading is: Find the correct answer
- A. Above $10~m/s$
- B. Below $3~m/s$
- C. Above $7~m/s$
- D. Below $7~m/s$
Answer: D — Below $7~m/s$
To minimize the risk of static electricity generation caused by the flow of liquid through pipelines, flow velocities must be strictly controlled, typically staying below 7 m/s during initial loading stages.
13. Electrochemical Sensors: identify a key finding for its use on board tankers
- A. There are numerous electrochemical sensors available covering a number of gases which may be present in the shipboard environment.
- B. The Cell current can be measured, and the amount of gas determined.
- C. Electrochemical sensors are based on the fact that cells can be constructed that react with the measured gas and generate an electric current.
- D. The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Answer: D — The sensors are low cost and are small enough to allow several to be incorporated into the same instrument, making them suitable for use in multi-gas detectors.
Electrochemical sensors are compact, energy-efficient, and can be easily miniaturized, which makes them ideal for inclusion in portable multi-gas detectors used by seafarers for daily safety checks.
14. Which of the following conditions represents a particular advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life or health?
- A. The average operating time for most air cylinders is over an hour.
- B. The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
- C. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty.
- D. The equipment used is lightweight and easy to wear by reducing physical strain on the wearer.
Answer: B — The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering the face piece.
Positive pressure SCBAs maintain a slightly higher pressure inside the mask than the surrounding environment. This design ensures that if there is a minor seal failure, air leaks out instead of allowing toxic air in.
15. Which of the following is a particular challenge when entering fuel oil tanks?
- A. corrosion
- B. sediments
- C. low lighting
- D. slippery surface
Answer: D — slippery surface
Fuel oil tanks contain viscous residues that create extremely slippery internal surfaces, posing a significant risk of falls for personnel performing inspections or maintenance.
16. What is an EEBD used for?
- A. For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
- B. For rescuing a person from a tank
- C. For supplying oxygen to a victim
- D. For safety when entering a tank
Answer: A — For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
An EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is specifically designed to provide a limited supply of air for short-duration escape from an accommodation or machinery space during a fire or emergency.
17. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank, or compartment, you should use a
- A. halide torch
- B. detector filament
- C. combustible gas indicator
- D. flame scanner
Answer: C — combustible gas indicator
A combustible gas indicator is the standard instrument used to detect the presence and concentration of flammable vapours, protecting against explosive atmospheres.
18. A man has suffered a burn on the arm. There is extensive damage to the skin with charring present. How is this injury classified using standard medical terminology?
- A. Dermal burn
- B. Major burn
- C. Third-degree burn
- D. Lethal burn
Answer: C — Third-degree burn
A third-degree burn involves full-thickness damage to the skin, including the dermis and subcutaneous layers, often resulting in charring or white, leathery tissue.
19. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's (emergency) outfit?
- A. Approved work vest
- B. Self-contained breathing apparatus
- C. Chemical protection face shield
- D. 5 cell approved flashlight
Answer: B — Self-contained breathing apparatus
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is a mandatory component of the fireman's outfit as per SOLAS requirements, enabling entry into smoke-filled or oxygen-deficient spaces.
20. When the percentage oxygen is between ___________ one may feel, fainting, nausea vomiting.
- A. 12% and 10%
- B. 16% and 12%
- C. 19.5% and 16%
- D. 10% and 8%
Answer: D — 10% and 8%
Oxygen levels between 8% and 10% are extremely dangerous, often leading to rapid unconsciousness, severe neurological impairment, and failure of critical bodily functions.
21. If there has been a fire in a closed unventilated compartment it may be unsafe to enter because of
- A. lack of oxygen
- B. unburned carbon particles
- C. excess nitrogen
- D. excess hydrogen
Answer: A — lack of oxygen
Fires consume oxygen rapidly, and the combustion products often include carbon monoxide and other toxic gases. An unventilated space post-fire is almost certainly oxygen-deficient.
22. Which are the international bodies that provide regulatory standards for electrical equipment certification?
- A. IMO and ISO
- B. IEEC and CENELEC
- C. IEEC and ISO
- D. IEC and CENELEC
Answer: D — IEC and CENELEC
The IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) and CENELEC (European Committee for Electrotechnical Standardization) are the primary bodies that set global standards for the certification of electrical equipment used in hazardous locations.
23. Why is the 'maximum surface temperature' identified, for electrical equipment used in hazardous areas onboard LNG carriers?
- A. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the heat transfer to the cryogenic cargo
- B. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce the power and boil-off consumption
- C. Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
- D. The limit is on minimum surface temperature on LNG carriers as the cargo is cryogenic
Answer: C — Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent the formation of a hot surface
In hazardous areas, limiting the maximum surface temperature of equipment ensures that it does not reach the auto-ignition temperature of any flammable gases or vapours that might be present.
24. How is intrinsic safety achieved for electrical circuits used in hazardous areas?
- A. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
- B. By limiting the number of equipment used in a space
- C. By installing machinery which have higher power and thus shorter operation time
- D. By increasing mechanical ventilation to the area
Answer: A — By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
Intrinsic safety design limits the electrical energy (voltage and current) within a circuit to a level that is too low to produce the sparks or heat required to ignite an explosive atmosphere.
25. Where can electrical equipment be classified as exit are used?
- A. In Zones 0 and 2
- B. In Zones 0, 1 and 2
- C. In Zones 0 and 1
- D. In Zones 1 and 2
Answer: D — In Zones 1 and 2
Electrical equipment used in hazardous areas must be rated for the specific zone classification. Ex-rated equipment is generally utilized in Zones 1 (where explosive gas is likely) and 2 (where it is unlikely but possible).
26. Pick the IEC symbol for explosion proof electrical protection?
- A. ex-e
- B. ex-p
- C. ex-d
- D. ex-n
Answer: C — ex-d
The symbol 'ex-d' denotes 'flameproof' (or explosion-proof) equipment, where the enclosure is designed to withstand an internal explosion without igniting the surrounding atmosphere.
27. Heavy fuel oils when spilled are ___________ .
- A. easier to clean up than lighter refined oils
- B. less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
- C. not a real threat to marine life
- D. more harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Answer: B — less harmful to sea life than lighter oils
Heavy fuel oils are more persistent and tend to form thick mats or sink, causing physical smothering of marine organisms. However, compared to lighter refined products (like gasoline or diesel) which contain higher concentrations of toxic volatile aromatics, heavy fuel oils are generally considered less acutely toxic to sea life.
28. For a vessel approaching a port of reception, what the vessel must check before the transfer of residues from the ship?
- A. Ports and terminals must provide reception facilities
- B. Ports must Apply for a Certificate of Adequacy.
- C. Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
- D. Port Reception facility operations procedures
Answer: C — Ports and terminals must have Certificates of Adequacy
Under MARPOL regulations, the Port State must ensure that port reception facilities are adequate. Masters must verify that the terminal possesses a valid Certificate of Adequacy (CoA) to ensure the legal and compliant disposal of ship-generated residues.
29. Which one of the following discharges have the most long-term ecological impact due to pollution?
- A. Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
- B. Ballast added to cargo tanks.
- C. Discharges of clean and segregated ballast
- D. Machinery space bilges.
Answer: A — Water ballast in oil fuel tanks.
Ballast water in oil fuel tanks becomes heavily contaminated with oil residues, which are persistent and hazardous if discharged. Unlike clean ballast, this mixture has significant long-term ecological consequences due to its toxicity and environmental persistence.
30. What assigns for each new ship a calculable figure that will denote its total emissions of CO2 from combustion of fuel?
- A. SOX Design Index
- B. Energy Efficiency Design Index
- C. Energy Inefficiency Design Index
- D. VOX Design Index
Answer: B — Energy Efficiency Design Index
The Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI) is a mandatory technical measure under MARPOL Annex VI. It provides a specific value for new ships to quantify their carbon emissions relative to their capacity and performance, encouraging energy-efficient ship design.
Set 4 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. When did Annex VI take effect?
- A. May 19, 2005
- B. February 25, 1997
- C. October 12, 1991
- D. July 3, 2015
Answer: A — May 19, 2005
MARPOL Annex VI, which addresses air pollution from ships, including sulfur oxides (SOx) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) emissions, officially entered into force on May 19, 2005.
2. The extent of MARPOL compliance is determined by:
- A. Vessel flag, type and age
- B. Vessel type, size and speed
- C. Vessel type, size and age
- D. Vessel type, size and crew
Answer: C — Vessel type, size and age
MARPOL requirements are stringent and evolve based on the vessel's specific type (e.g., oil tanker vs. general cargo), its size (deadweight/tonnage), and its age, as newer vessels must meet stricter construction and equipment standards.
3. MARPOL applies to:
- A. tankers greater than 150GT and cargo ships greater than 400GT
- B. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hydrofoils
- C. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hovercrafts
- D. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts
Answer: D — applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts
MARPOL is a comprehensive convention that applies to all ships, including commercial vessels, private yachts, barges, and offshore platforms, to prevent pollution from operational and accidental causes.
4. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be ___________ .
- A. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water
- B. stowed with their ends open for venting
- C. drained into drip pans or tanks
- D. blown down with inert gas
Answer: C — drained into drip pans or tanks
After bunkering, hoses must be drained to prevent spillage from residual oil remaining in the line. Draining into drip trays or designated slop tanks ensures that the residual oil is contained and managed correctly.
5. What is the most important regulatory requirement for the master arriving at the lightering position?
- A. Factors considered in designating lightering zones.
- B. Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
- C. Reporting of incidents.
- D. Designation of lightering zones.
Answer: B — Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
Lightering involves transferring cargo between ships at sea. The Master must adhere to strict regulatory requirements regarding pre-arrival notices to ensure the operation is authorized, safe, and complies with environmental pollution prevention standards.
6. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by
- A. equipment failure
- B. major casualties
- C. human error
- D. unforeseeable circumstances
Answer: C — human error
Statistically, the majority of oil spills during routine shipboard operations occur due to human error, such as improper valve alignment, failing to monitor levels, or poor communication during liquid transfers.
7. Containment and Damage Control: identify which step is of the highest importance for personal protection?
- A. Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS.
- B. Shut off or otherwise stem the spill at the source.
- C. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.
- D. Fight fire (if any), being careful to use firefighting methods compatible with the material involved.
Answer: A — Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS.
Personnel safety is the paramount priority in any emergency response. According to the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), wearing the appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) is the first step to prevent exposure to hazardous substances before attempting containment.
8. What is used to incinerate solid and liquid wastes arising from the operation of the ship?
- A. ISM Screen
- B. Oily water separation
- C. Fire Sprinkler Cleaner
- D. Incinerator
Answer: D — Incinerator
An incinerator is the designated shipboard equipment used for the controlled burning of solid and liquid wastes, as permitted under MARPOL Annex V and Annex VI, to reduce waste volume and manage shipboard garbage.
9. The Volatile Organic Compound (cargo vapor) Management Plan is required on what type of vessel?
- A. Container vessels
- B. Ro-ro vessels
- C. Tank sensors
- D. Crude Oil Carriers
Answer: D — Crude Oil Carriers
The Volatile Organic Compound (VOC) Management Plan is mandatory for crude oil carriers, as these vessels handle cargoes that release significant amounts of VOCs, which must be managed to comply with environmental regulations.
10. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels (3816 cubic metres) of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold
- A. four barrels
- B. eight barrels
- C. six barrels
- D. three barrels
Answer: D — three barrels
Under industry standards, the containment capacity of the drip tray beneath the cargo manifold is sized based on the manifold size to ensure it can contain potential initial spills during connection/disconnection; for an 8-inch hose, this requirement is typically 3 barrels.
11. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using ___________ .
- A. boom
- B. chemical agents
- C. skimmers
- D. suction equipment
Answer: B — chemical agents
Chemical agents, such as dispersants, are strictly regulated and generally not allowed for oil spill cleanup without specific approval, as they can cause deeper ecological damage or toxicity to the marine environment compared to mechanical recovery methods like booms and skimmers.
12. The total quantity of oil discharged at sea on new tankers must not exceed:
- A. 1/15000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
- B. 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
- C. 1/25000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
- D. 1/2000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
Answer: B — 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
MARPOL regulations strictly limit the discharge of oil residues. For a new tanker, the total quantity of oil which may be discharged into the sea is restricted to no more than 1/30,000 of the total quantity of the particular cargo which the residue formed part.
13. A starting interlock in the ODME ensures
- A. stops discharge of the oil effluent when the oil content exceeds 5 part per million
- B. prevents malfunctioning of the system
- C. that an alarm is given off when the system malfunctions
- D. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
Answer: D — the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
The starting interlock on an Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment (ODME) system ensures that the system is fully calibrated and functional before any discharge begins, preventing accidental illegal discharge of oily water.
14. A gas venting system on a tanker that has gas lines in each tank connected to a common gas main running the full length of the ship is called:
- A. gas-main system
- B. An independent system
- C. common-main system
- D. vent-main system
Answer: C — common-main system
In a common-main system, multiple cargo tanks are connected to a single, shared gas main running the length of the ship, allowing for efficient venting or inerting of the cargo tank atmosphere.
15. The inert gas is delivered to the cargo tanks by an inert gas deck main line. Find the correct labelling for the deck equipment items.
- A. 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
- B. 1-Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 2- Cargo tank valves; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
- C. 1-Mast Riser; 2-Isolating Valve; 3-Cargo tank valves; 4- Pressure/Vacuum Valve
- D. 1-Isolating Valve; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Cargo tank valves
Answer: A — 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
The proper sequence for deck equipment in the IG distribution line is the cargo tank isolating valve, then the PV valve, followed by the mast riser and final isolating valves, ensuring pressure control and safety of the tank boundary.
16. Pneumatically Operating Valve; what is the most critical component for correct valve operation, based on your shipboard experience of running such a system?
- A. Valve stem
- B. The valve springs
- C. The Diaphragm
- D. Valve orifice
Answer: C — The Diaphragm
The diaphragm in a pneumatically operated valve is the most critical component, as it acts as the sealing/actuating mechanism; if it fails or ruptures, the valve loses its ability to respond to control signals or maintain its position.
17. Advantages of using inert gas, pick one that is the main reason for its application,
- A. Reduces corrosion.
- B. Voyage cleaning of tanks is unnecessary.
- C. No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
- D. Reduces pumping time because of positive pressure in the tanks.
Answer: C — No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
The primary objective of an Inert Gas System is to maintain the oxygen content within the cargo tanks below the level required for combustion, thereby preventing the formation of an explosive atmosphere.
18. The total capacity of the slop tank or tanks should be not less than what percentage of the oil-carrying capacity of the vessel?
- A. 3%
- B. 7%
- C. 5%
- D. 10%
Answer: A — 3%
MARPOL regulations specify that the slop tank capacity must be sufficient to hold the oily water generated during tank cleaning and cargo residue, which is set at a minimum of 3% of the ship's total oil-carrying capacity.
19. Acidic solutions are formed in cargo tanks of tankers
- A. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with hydrocarbon gas
- B. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with oxygen
- C. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
- D. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with chemicals
Answer: C — when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
When sulfur compounds inherent in crude oil react with moisture or water introduced into the cargo tanks, they form acidic solutions (like sulfuric acid), which significantly increase the rate of corrosion of the tank structure.
20. Tank level measurement of free water by gauging tape and plumb bob: find the labeling combination that is correct,
- A. 1 Water Innage; 2-Water Cut; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
- B. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Cut; 3- Water Innage; 4- Water Ullage
- C. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
- D. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Ullage; 4- Water Cut
Answer: C — 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
Gauging terminology distinguishes between 'innage' (the depth of liquid) and 'cut' (the depth of a specific component like water at the bottom). Correct labeling of water cut and innage is essential for accurate cargo volume determination.
21. An inert gas generator burns what oil to generate inert gas?
- A. Heavy oil
- B. Diesel oil
- C. Gas oil
- D. Crude oil
Answer: C — Gas oil
Inert gas generators are designed to burn high-quality fuel, typically marine gas oil, to produce a clean, soot-free, and high-quality inert gas suitable for pumping into cargo tanks.
22. Back flow of inert gas is prevented by:
- A. valve provided in the scrubber
- B. The deck water seal
- C. An isolating valve
- D. The deck mechanical non-return valve
Answer: B — The deck water seal
The deck water seal is a mandatory safety device in the inert gas system that acts as a non-return barrier, preventing hazardous cargo gases from flowing back into the inert gas plant and engine room.
23. Tank coating requirements developed by IMO are applicable to
- A. new crude oil tankers of 5000 GRT and above
- B. new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
- C. new crude oil tankers of 500 GRT and above
- D. new crude oil tankers of 500 DWT and above
Answer: B — new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
IMO performance standards for protective coatings (PSPC) require that new crude oil tankers of 5,000 DWT and above are fitted with robust coating systems to prevent corrosion and structural degradation.
24. A deepwell pump is a type of ___________ .
- A. centrifugal pump
- B. gear pump
- C. eductor
- D. screw pump
Answer: A — centrifugal pump
A deepwell pump is a type of centrifugal pump mounted directly into the tank. This design eliminates long pipelines and allows for efficient stripping of cargo, commonly found on chemical and product tankers.
25. Bottom washing:
- A. is not effective when carrying a small quantity of refined products
- B. will remove heavy wax sediments at the tank bottom
- C. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
- D. cannot be done with chemical solvents
Answer: C — is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
Bottom washing is a specific tank cleaning procedure focused on the lowest part of the tank to remove sediment and traces of the previous cargo, particularly important when switching to a different cargo grade.
26. An inert gas system is required to be fitted:
- A. On crude oil tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
- B. On chemical tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
- C. On all tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
- D. On product tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
Answer: A — On crude oil tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
Inert Gas Systems (IGS) are mandatory for crude oil tankers of 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above to ensure that cargo tank atmospheres remain non-flammable throughout the voyage and cargo operations.
27. Centrifugal pumps are otherwise known as
- A. Hydro-dynamic pumps
- B. Reciprocating pumps
- C. Positive displacement pumps
- D. Gravity pumps
Answer: A — Hydro-dynamic pumps
Centrifugal pumps are classified as hydro-dynamic pumps because they impart velocity energy to the fluid using a rotating impeller, which is then converted into pressure energy.
28. The ring main pipeline system is extensively used on:
- A. VLCCs
- B. Crude oil tankers
- C. Product carriers
- D. Medium range tankers
Answer: C — Product carriers
The ring main pipeline system is common on product carriers because it allows for multiple, simultaneous cargo segregations, enabling the vessel to load or discharge different products without risk of cross-contamination.
29. Class B fires are caused by
- A. electricity
- B. flammable gases
- C. flammable liquids
- D. combustible solids
Answer: C — flammable liquids
Class B fires involve flammable liquids (such as fuel oil, diesel, or lubricants). Effective firefighting for these fires typically requires foam, CO2, or dry chemical powder to smother the flames.
30. Use of Pressure-Vacuum (PV) Relief Valve; label the diagram correctly:
- A. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- Tank Isolating Valve; 6- PV valve
- B. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- Vent Main; 3- IG Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
- C. 1-IG Main; 2-Deck Isolating Valve; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
- D. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
Answer: D — 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
The Pressure/Vacuum (PV) valve setup includes isolating valves and a bypass to allow for testing or maintenance.
Set 5 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. Cargo tank fill alarm indicator panels:
- A. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes in the engine control room
- B. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
- C. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes on deck
- D. are normally fitted in the engine control room and sometimes on deck
Answer: B — are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
Cargo tank high-level and overfill alarms are critical safety instruments; they are typically monitored in the Cargo Control Room (CCR) where the transfer is being managed, with local alarms often provided on deck.
2. Identify the equipment in the IG system correctly:
- A. 1-O2 Analyzer; 2-Demister; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
- B. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Regulating Valves; 4-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 5- Blowers
- C. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3 - Blowers; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Air Intake-Gas Freeing
- D. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
Answer: D — 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
The standard IG system flow path includes the scrubber (demister), blowers, O2 analyzer, regulating valves for flow control, and air intake for gas freeing, arranged to ensure clean and safe delivery of inert gas.
3. Working instructions specifying the manner in which the ship is to be loaded and ballasted to avoid unacceptable stresses in the vessel's structure is required for tankers:
- A. Greater than 75 meters in length
- B. Greater than 100 meters in length
- C. Greater than 150 meters in length
- D. Greater than 50 metres in length
Answer: C — Greater than 150 meters in length
Regulation regarding structural integrity and loading calculations for tankers requires that ships over 150 meters in length carry specialized loading instruments and documentation to monitor shear forces and bending moments.
4. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to
- A. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
- B. resuscitate an unconscious person
- C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
- D. make underwater repairs to barges
Answer: C — enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
Self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is essential personal protective equipment (PPE) for entering hazardous environments where the atmosphere may be oxygen-deficient or contaminated with toxic cargo vapours.
5. Identify correct labelling for Tanker VEC
- A. 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal
- B. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Deck water seal; 4- Mast Riser
- C. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Mast Riser; 4 - Deck water seal
- D. 1- Mast Riser; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- P/V Valve; - Deck water seal
Answer: A — 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal
In a standard tanker VEC (Vapour Emission Control) system configuration, the sequence involves the P/V valve (pressure regulation), Mast Riser (venting), P/V Breaker (vacuum protection), and the deck water seal as the primary flame arrestor.
6. Part A of the the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-List provides operational procedures for:
- A. Transfer of bulk liquids - elements to be verified verbally
- B. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquefied Gases
- C. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquid Chemicals
- D. Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
Answer: D — Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
Part A of the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-list is designated for physical verification of safety measures. It ensures that critical items, such as hose connections and bonding, are checked manually before cargo transfer commences.
7. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after
- A. five years
- B. four years
- C. two years
- D. three years
Answer: A — five years
The Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) is a mandatory requirement under MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 37. It must be reviewed and updated regularly, with approval typically valid for a five-year cycle to align with the ship's safety management system and periodic surveys.
8. Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?
- A. Cools the inert gas.
- B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
- C. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
- D. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.
Answer: A — Cools the inert gas.
In an Inert Gas System (IGS), the gas scrubber is essential for cooling the hot exhaust gases from the boiler or inert gas generator using water. It also performs the critical function of removing sulfur oxides and soot particles from the flue gas.
9. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids
- A. contracts
- B. expands
- C. remains constant
- D. remains constant if pressure remains constant
Answer: B — expands
Flammable and combustible liquids possess a coefficient of thermal expansion, meaning their volume increases as temperature rises. This physical property necessitates the implementation of ullage spaces in cargo tanks to prevent over-pressurization due to thermal expansion.
10. The standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a __________.
- A. liter
- B. barrel
- C. gallon
- D. drum
Answer: B — barrel
In the global petroleum and tanker industry, the standard unit of measurement for volume is the barrel. One barrel is equivalent to 42 US gallons, providing a standardized basis for cargo calculations, bill of lading documentation, and commercial trading.
11. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument
- A. where its specific gravity is measured
- B. where it is ignited by a sparking device
- C. where it is mixed with nitrogen
- D. over an electrically heated platinum filament
Answer: D — over an electrically heated platinum filament
Combustible gas indicators (explosimeters) utilize a Wheatstone bridge circuit. An air sample is drawn over an electrically heated platinum filament; the combustion of flammable gas on the filament increases its temperature and resistance, which is then measured and displayed as a percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL).
12. Each ship having an inert gas system must have a portable instrument to measure concentrations of hydrocarbon vapor in inert atmospheres and also to measure
- A. oxygen
- B. carbon dioxide
- C. nitrogen
- D. water vapor
Answer: A — oxygen
Ships with an inert gas system are required to maintain portable monitoring equipment to verify the atmosphere within cargo tanks. This must include an oxygen analyzer to ensure the oxygen content is maintained below the critical limit (typically 5% or 8% by volume) to prevent combustion.
13. As required by Reg.31 of Annex 1 of Marpol the ODMCS should be provided with a recording device for recording the discharge in litres per nautical mile and total quantity discharged. This discharge should be kept onboard at least for a period of
- A. Continuous, 3 years
- B. Continuous, 1 year
- C. Intermittent, 1 year
- D. Intermittent, 3 years
Answer: A — Continuous, 3 years
MARPOL Annex I, Regulation 31 requires the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) to have a recording device to track discharges. These records must be preserved for at least three years to be available for inspection by Port State Control or Flag State authorities.
14. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with
- A. fresh air
- B. CO2
- C. the tested compartment's air
- D. water
Answer: A — fresh air
To ensure accuracy and prevent sensor damage or 'memory effects' from previous samples, the oxygen indicator must be purged with fresh ambient air. This restores the sensor to the baseline atmospheric oxygen concentration (approx 20.9%) before the next measurement.
15. When the cofferdam to be purged to check the leakage and remove the leaked oil?
- A. Before starting the cargo operation
- B. Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
- C. After the cargo operation is completed
- D. During the cargo operation
Answer: B — Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
Cofferdams adjacent to cargo tanks must be purged and checked before cargo operations commence to ensure no leakage is present, and again after completion to verify the integrity of the bulkheads during the operation. This is a vital practice for preventing pollution and fire hazards.
16. What does "I" stand for in the centrifugal pump diagram?
- A. Shaft
- B. Impeller
- C. Diffuser
- D. Eye (Suction)
Answer: A — Shaft
In standard centrifugal pump diagrams, the central rotating component supported by the bearing housing that transmits power from the motor to the impeller is referred to as the shaft.
17. The area indicated by the number "III" in the pump diagram is known as the
- A. Cargo Purging Connection
- B. Local Control Valve
- C. Speed Torque Control Valve
- D. Cofferdam Purging
Answer: C — Speed Torque Control Valve
In a cargo pump hydraulic system diagram, section 'III' usually denotes the control valve assembly. This valve regulates the flow and pressure of the hydraulic oil to the hydraulic motor, thereby controlling the speed and torque of the pump.
18. How the Framo pump has almost eliminated cavitation for free flowing liquids?
- A. Volute casing is designed in such a way, that its smoothness avoids cavitation
- B. The hydrofoil design of the curved vanes, eliminate cavitation
- C. Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow
- D. The backwards curved vanes eliminate the cavitation
Answer: C — Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow
Framo submerged cargo pumps eliminate the suction pipe by being placed directly at the bottom of the cargo tank. By removing the long, tortuous suction piping, the pressure drop is minimized, effectively preventing cavitation for free-flowing liquids.
19. Select the correct statement regarding pressure.
- A. The water reservoir of a self-priming pump may be at the back of the impeller.
- B. Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
- C. Pressure type vacuum valves can prevent Backflow.
- D. Stripping pumps are not of the self-priming type.
Answer: B — Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
Bernoulli's principle establishes that dynamic pressure is directly related to the density of the fluid and the square of its velocity. This relationship is fundamental to understanding pump head, flow velocity, and pressure energy conversion within the pump casing.
20. How portable pumps are used?
- A. Potable pumps are used in parallel with the main Framo pump to discharge the tank in a short time
- B. When main pump is not working, the portable pump is used to transfer the cargo from this tank to another empty tank, where the main pump is working
- C. When main pump is not working, portable pumps are used to discharge the liquid cargo to the terminal
- D. Potable pumps are used in series with the main Framo pump to discharge the tank with large pressure.
Answer: B — When main pump is not working, the portable pump is used to transfer the cargo from this tank to another empty tank, where the main pump is working
Portable pumps are primarily used as emergency or backup equipment. If a fixed main cargo pump fails, a portable pump can be lowered into the tank to facilitate cargo transfer to another tank where a functioning main pump can then discharge it to the terminal.
21. What does "II" indicate in the pump diagram?
- A. Impeller
- B. Diffuser
- C. Eye (Suction)
- D. Shaft
Answer: C — Eye (Suction)
The eye of a centrifugal pump is the central inlet point where the fluid enters the pump impeller. It is the area of lowest pressure, and its design is crucial for preventing cavitation.
22. Which number represents the Hydraulic Motor in the pump cross-section illustration?
- A. III
- B. I
- C. IV
- D. II
Answer: B — I
In a cross-section illustration of a submerged cargo pump, 'I' typically marks the hydraulic motor section. This motor is powered by the vessel's hydraulic system and drives the impeller directly.
23. The part "IX" in the centrifugal pump diagram indicates
- A. Packing
- B. Stuffing Box
- C. Casing
- D. Shaft Sleeve
Answer: A — Packing
In a pump assembly diagram, 'IX' identifies the packing or mechanical seal arrangement. These components are critical for preventing cargo leakage from the pump into the hydraulic motor section or the engine room.
24. From the pump illustration, identify the part marked - "IV".
- A. Impeller
- B. Anti-rotation Brake
- C. Volute Casing
- D. Hydraulic Motor
Answer: C — Volute Casing
In a typical cargo pump diagram, the volute casing refers to the spiral-shaped housing surrounding the impeller. It is designed to convert the kinetic energy of the fluid (velocity) into pressure energy as it moves toward the discharge nozzle.
25. How vacuum drain is done in Framo pumps?
- A. vacuum drain is part of the pump casing
- B. Vacuum is created in the stripping line to pump the cargo out to make the well dry
- C. Vacuum drain is used to check leakage in pump's cofferdam
- D. Pump has a different vacuum line which is connected to the cargo tank well; vacuum pump is used to suck the oil out to make the well dry
Answer: D — Pump has a different vacuum line which is connected to the cargo tank well; vacuum pump is used to suck the oil out to make the well dry
Framo cargo pumps utilize a specialized vacuum drain line connected to the tank well. By applying a vacuum, the system can clear the remaining cargo from the well even when the main pump has lost suction due to low levels.
26. Why the cargo pump in the Framo cannot be overloaded?
- A. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
- B. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pressure can run the pump at 75% of the capacity
- C. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, when the pump over speeds, the flow of oil is reduced
- D. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the flow is always kept constant
Answer: A — The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
Framo pumps are designed with an integrated hydraulic control system that matches the power delivery to the load. By maintaining optimum speed and preventing excessive power draw, the pump system prevents mechanical overloading of the components.
27. What does figure "V" represent in the centrifugal discharge diagram?
- A. None of the above
- B. Vane
- C. Discharge nozzle
- D. Eye of impeller
Answer: C — Discharge nozzle
In a centrifugal pump, the fluid is accelerated by the impeller and forced into the discharge nozzle. This component guides the fluid out of the pump casing into the main cargo piping system.
28. Normally how much hydraulic oil is required to run the Framo portable pump?
- A. 140 litres per min
- B. 360 litres per min
- C. 90 litres per min
- D. 250 litres per min
Answer: A — 140 litres per min
Framo portable pumps are specifically rated for hydraulic flow requirements to achieve their design performance. For standard portable pumps, this requirement is typically 140 liters per minute of hydraulic oil.
29. Select the correct statement regarding operation of the portable pumps?
- A. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
- B. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
- C. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
- D. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
Answer: A — Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
During operation, the portable pump must be lowered as the liquid level drops to maintain suction. Submerging only the lower half ensures the intake remains flooded while preventing the pump from resting on bottom sediments that could clog it.
30. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the return side after running the hydraulic motor?
- A. Above 15 bar
- B. Around 15 bar
- C. Around 10 bar
- D. Around 3 Bar
Answer: D — Around 3 Bar
In a closed-loop hydraulic system, the return pressure must be kept low to ensure efficient operation of the hydraulic motor. A pressure of approximately 3 bar is standard for the return side of these systems.
Set 6 — 30 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. What does "V" indicate in the pump illustration?
- A. Cofferdam Purging
- B. Cofferdam Check Pipe
- C. Local Control Valve
- D. Speed Torque Control Valve
Answer: A — Cofferdam Purging
In the context of Framo submerged pump monitoring, 'V' refers to the purging port or cofferdam purging connection. This is used to test for seal integrity by applying air/gas pressure and checking for leaks.
2. What does figure "VII" represent in the pump assembly?
- A. Mechanical Oil Seal
- B. Sleeve
- C. Wear rings
- D. Hydraulic Motor
Answer: A — Mechanical Oil Seal
The component 'VII' represents the mechanical oil seal. This seal is a critical barrier separating the cargo area from the hydraulic oil area, preventing contamination between the two.
3. Normally what is the discharge capacity of Framo portable pumps?
- A. 150 cubic meter per hour
- B. 200 cubic meter per hour
- C. 70 cubic meter per hour
- D. 100 cubic meter per hour
Answer: C — 70 cubic meter per hour
Portable centrifugal pumps used for tanker stripping or cargo transfer are typically sized for specific capacities. A 70 cubic meter per hour capacity is a common standard for these portable hydraulic-driven units.
4. What is the function of the item marked "II" in the pump diagram?
- A. Impeller
- B. Anti-rotation Brake
- C. Hydraulic Motor
- D. Suction Well
Answer: B — Anti-rotation Brake
The anti-rotation brake (or stay) is essential for submerged pumps to ensure the pump body remains stable and does not rotate under the reaction forces generated by the spinning impeller.
5. In a centrifugal pump:
- A. The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
- B. The discharge side has a negative pressure.
- C. The fluid moves in a direction opposite to the impeller.
- D. The width of the discharge pipeline decreases outwards.
Answer: A — The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
In a centrifugal pump, the fluid enters the impeller eye and is thrown outwards by centrifugal force. The impeller vanes guide the fluid in the same rotational direction until it enters the volute casing.
6. What does "V" indicate in the below illustration?
- A. Bearings
- B. Suction Well
- C. Mechanical Oil Seal
- D. Sleeve
Answer: B — Suction Well
The 'suction well' (or inlet screen/well area) is the area 'V' where the cargo enters the pump. It ensures that the fluid is presented to the impeller eye as smoothly as possible.
7. What does "VIII" indicate in the centrifugal pump diagram?
- A. None of the above
- B. Impeller
- C. Eye of Impeller
- D. Discharge Nozzle
Answer: C — Eye of Impeller
The 'eye' of the impeller (labeled 'VIII') is the central inlet where the liquid enters the impeller vanes, representing the transition point from the suction pipe/well to the kinetic energy section.
8. Bernoulli's principle states that:
- A. pressure (P) x height (H) is a constant
- B. height (H) x velocity (V) is a constant
- C. pressure (P) x density (D) is a constant
- D. pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
Answer: D — pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
Bernoulli's principle, in its simplified form for fluid dynamics in pumps, expresses the conservation of energy, where increases in velocity occur alongside decreases in static pressure, and vice versa.
9. From the below illustration, identify the name of the marking "14".
- A. Deck Trunk
- B. Hydraulic Pressure Pipe
- C. Cargo Pipe
- D. Resilient Mounting
Answer: C — Cargo Pipe
In the assembly schematic, '14' represents the cargo discharge pipe. This pipe conveys the pressurized fluid from the pump outlet up through the deck trunk to the vessel's cargo manifold.
10. From the below illustration, identify the name of the marking "V".
- A. Diffuser
- B. Eye (Suction)
- C. Impeller
- D. Shaft
Answer: A — Diffuser
The diffuser 'V' is a stationary component in the pump casing that guides the fluid from the impeller outlet. Its primary function is to efficiently convert the high-velocity kinetic energy of the fluid into static pressure.
11. How the speed of the portable pump can be varied?
- A. The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation
- B. By varying the speed of the feed pump
- C. Portable pump speed cannot be varied
- D. Using the flow control valve of the main cargo pump
Answer: A — The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation
The speed of a hydraulic motor is proportional to the flow rate of the hydraulic oil. Therefore, the pump is rigged with a flow control valve that regulates the oil volume, allowing for precise speed variation.
12. What kind of pumps can move extremely thick fluids like sludge without clogging?
- A. Screw pumps
- B. Deep well pumps
- C. Reciprocating pumps
- D. Rotary vane pumps
Answer: A — Screw pumps
Screw pumps are positive displacement pumps known for their ability to handle high-viscosity fluids and sludges efficiently. Their design prevents clogging and ensures a steady flow regardless of the fluid thickness.
13. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the inlet side for running the hydraulic motor?
- A. Around 25 bar
- B. Around 50 Bar
- C. Around 170 bar
- D. Around 100 bar
Answer: C — Around 170 bar
Submerged hydraulic cargo pumps are designed to operate at high pressure to achieve the necessary power for liquid discharge. An inlet pressure of approximately 170 bar is typical for these motors under full-load conditions.
14. The reciprocating pump creates a suction effect when there is a
- A. decrease in pressure
- B. no change in pressure
- C. increase in pressure
- D. decrease or an increase in pressure
Answer: A — decrease in pressure
A reciprocating pump operates by the motion of a piston or plunger. When the piston moves to expand the volume of the pump chamber, it creates a decrease in pressure (a vacuum), which draws the fluid in through the suction valve.
15. What is represented by the figure "VI" in the pump assembly illustration?
- A. Shaft
- B. Impeller
- C. Casing
- D. Eye of impeller
Answer: B — Impeller
The impeller 'VI' is the rotating core of the centrifugal pump. It imparts kinetic energy to the liquid by spinning at high speed, driving the fluid from the eye towards the periphery of the casing.
16. Select the correct point regarding the operation of the portable pumps?
- A. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
- B. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
- C. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
- D. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
Answer: C — Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
When operating portable cargo pumps (such as submersible hydraulic or pneumatic pumps) on a tanker, it is critical to ensure the pump's suction end/lower half remains submerged in the liquid cargo, lowering it progressively as the level falls. This prevents dry running, loss of prime, and air entrainment while avoiding unnecessary full submersion of the pump's power head.
17. Under STCW Code Table A-V/1-1, what is the mandatory requirement regarding emergency procedures and alarm protocols during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operations?
- A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
- B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
- C. Verbal recommendation without documentation
- D. Applicable only during drydock operations
Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-V/1-1 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo.
18. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing emergency procedures and alarm protocols for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo on board?
- A. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
- B. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
- C. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
- D. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
Answer: B — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operations.
19. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for emergency procedures and alarm protocols concerning Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
- B. STCW Code Section A-V/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
- C. Port State Control advisory note only
- D. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
Answer: B — STCW Code Section A-V/1-1 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-V/1-1 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo.
20. What regulation under STCW Code applies to Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo mandatory minimum requirements?
- A. Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
- B. SOLAS Chapter V Rule 10
- C. Chapter III Regulation 5
- D. MARPOL Annex I Regulation 12
Answer: A — Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
STCW Code Chapter VI specifies mandatory standards for safety and emergency functions.
21. Under STCW standards for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?
- A. Every 5 years
- B. Every 10 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Annually
Answer: A — Every 5 years
STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.
22. What primary safety objective is governed by the Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo module on board ship?
- A. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
- B. Optimizing fuel consumption
- C. Minimizing port dues
- D. Automating engine control
Answer: A — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.
23. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Verbal request to port authority
- B. Engine logbook entry only
- C. Bridge sign-off without briefing
- D. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Answer: D — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.
24. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo practical tasks?
- A. Standard street clothes with safety boots
- B. High-visibility vest only
- C. Basic cotton coveralls only
- D. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Answer: D — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.
25. Which international convention mandates compliance for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operational procedures?
- A. Load Line Convention 1966
- B. STCW Convention as amended
- C. COLREGs 1972
- D. Tonnage Convention 1969
Answer: B — STCW Convention as amended
STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.
26. In case of an emergency scenario during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo operations, what is the immediate first step?
- A. Attempt to fix without informing others
- B. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
- C. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
- D. Log the event in diary
Answer: B — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.
27. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Garbage Record Book
- B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
- C. Oil Record Book Part I
- D. Cargo Manifest
Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions
The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.
28. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo drills?
- A. Observing without participating
- B. Signing attendance without attending
- C. Bypassing safety gear for speed
- D. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Answer: D — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.
29. What log entry is required following completion of Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo drills on board?
- A. Personal diary note
- B. No log entry required
- C. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
- D. Verbal update to port agent
Answer: C — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.
30. In the event of an emergency involving emergency procedures and alarm protocols during Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo tasks, what immediate action is required?
- A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
- B. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
- C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
- D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: B — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.
Set 7 — 1 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for emergency procedures and alarm protocols be conducted for Advanced Oil Tanker Cargo?
- A. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
- B. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
- C. Once every 5 years during special survey
- D. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Answer: D — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.
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