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CHEMCO exit exam questions and answers

All 377 questions from the Advanced Training for Chemical Tanker Cargo Operations (CHEMCO) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked, and 60 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Which IMO Code regulates the carriage of dangerous chemicals in bulk on chemical tankers?

  • A. IMSBC Code
  • B. IGC Code
  • C. IBC Code
  • D. IMDG Code
Answer: C — IBC Code
The International Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code) establishes safety standards for design, equipment, and operation of chemical tankers.

2. Under MARPOL Annex II, which pollution category presents the major hazard to human health or marine resources?

  • A. Category Y
  • B. OS (Other Substances)
  • C. Category Z
  • D. Category X
Answer: D — Category X
Category X substances pose the highest risk; discharge into the sea of Category X tank washings is strictly prohibited.

3. What test is performed on tank bulkhead surfaces to detect microscopic hydrocarbon residues before loading sensitive chemical cargoes?

  • A. Hydrostatic pressure test
  • B. Magnetic particle test
  • C. Ultrasonic thickness test
  • D. Wall Wash Test (WWT)
Answer: D — Wall Wash Test (WWT)
Wall Wash Testing uses solvents (methanol/acetone) to check tank cleanliness parameters such as Permanganate Time, Purity, and Chloride content.

4. What type of chemical tanker skin/tank construction is required for carrying high-hazard cargoes like Isocyanates?

  • A. Type 1 chemical tanker
  • B. Single hull barge
  • C. Type 3 chemical tanker
  • D. Open deck vessel
Answer: A — Type 1 chemical tanker
Type 1 chemical tankers afford maximum preventive containment against severe environmental or safety hazards.

5. What material is widely used for cargo tanks carrying aggressive acids such as Nitric or Phosphoric acid?

  • A. Stainless Steel (e.g. 316L, Duplex 2205)
  • B. Aluminum alloy
  • C. Zinc silicate coating
  • D. Mild carbon steel
Answer: A — Stainless Steel (e.g. 316L, Duplex 2205)
Stainless steel offers superior corrosion resistance and versatility for acid and high-purity chemical cargoes.

6. What is the key limitation of Zinc Silicate tank coatings in chemical tankers?

  • A. Highly flammable surface coating
  • B. Incompatible with acids and strong alkalis (pH limits usually 6 to 10)
  • C. Cannot handle aromatic solvents like Benzene
  • D. Melts at room temperature
Answer: B — Incompatible with acids and strong alkalis (pH limits usually 6 to 10)
Zinc silicate reacts with acidic or strongly alkaline solutions, destroying the coating matrix.

7. What document must be maintained on board detailing all chemical cargo loading, discharging, tank washing, and slop handling?

  • A. Radio Log Book
  • B. Cargo Record Book (CRB)
  • C. Bell Book
  • D. Engine Log Book
Answer: B — Cargo Record Book (CRB)
MARPOL Annex II mandates a Cargo Record Book to log every chemical cargo operation and tank wash discharge.

8. What is self-polymerization in chemical cargoes?

  • A. Dissolving of cargo into seawater
  • B. Freezing of liquid into crystal ice
  • C. Evaporation of cargo into atmosphere
  • D. Chemical reaction where monomer molecules join to form long polymers, generating intense heat
Answer: D — Chemical reaction where monomer molecules join to form long polymers, generating intense heat
Cargoes like Styrene monomer or Vinyl Acetate can spontaneously polymerize, producing dangerous heat and pressure building if uninhibited.

9. What mandatory document provides chemical property, health hazard, reactivity, and emergency response data for a chemical cargo?

  • A. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
  • B. Tonnage Certificate
  • C. Crew List
  • D. Customs Manifest
Answer: A — Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
MSDS (or SDS) provides vital chemical handling data and first-aid instructions before loading any chemical product.

10. What system is used to purge chemical lines and maintain an inert nitrogen cushion over moisture-sensitive cargoes?

  • A. Steam lance system
  • B. Seawater flushing system
  • C. Nitrogen padding / inerting system
  • D. Compressed air blower
Answer: C — Nitrogen padding / inerting system
Nitrogen padding isolates air/moisture reactive cargoes (like Isocyanates) from atmospheric humidity and oxygen.

11. Under STCW Code Table A-V/1-1-3, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Advanced Chemical Tanker operations?

  • A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
  • B. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
  • C. Applicable only during drydock operations
  • D. Verbal recommendation without documentation
Answer: B — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-V/1-1-3 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Advanced Chemical Tanker.

12. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Advanced Chemical Tanker on board?

  • A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
  • B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
  • C. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
  • D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Advanced Chemical Tanker operations.

13. What is Threshold Limit Value - Time Weighted Average (TLV-TWA)?

  • A. Safe airborne exposure concentration for normal 8-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
  • B. Maximum limit for 1 minute
  • C. Pressure limit
  • D. Temperature limit
Answer: A — Safe airborne exposure concentration for normal 8-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
TLV-TWA defines the safe average exposure concentration over a standard work shift.

14. What chemical cargo reaction occurs when two incompatible cargoes contact each other?

  • A. Sublimation
  • B. Condensation
  • C. Incompatible chemical reactivity producing toxic fumes, heat, or explosion
  • D. Freezing
Answer: C — Incompatible chemical reactivity producing toxic fumes, heat, or explosion
Incompatible cargoes (e.g. Acids and Caustic Soda) react violently if mixed.

15. What is mandatory prior to personnel entering a chemical cargo tank for inspection?

  • A. Washing with seawater
  • B. Verbal permission from cook
  • C. Tank gas-freeing, atmospheric testing for O2 (20.9%), toxic gas (0 ppm), LEL (0%), and Enclosed Space Entry Permit
  • D. Opening main valve
Answer: C — Tank gas-freeing, atmospheric testing for O2 (20.9%), toxic gas (0 ppm), LEL (0%), and Enclosed Space Entry Permit
Rigorous enclosed space entry safety testing is legally required before tank entry.

16. What personal protective equipment is required during chemical cargo sampling of toxic substances?

  • A. Leather apron
  • B. Chemical suit, boots, face shield/goggles, chemical resistant gloves, and organic vapor mask or SCBA
  • C. Short sleeves
  • D. Standard coveralls
Answer: B — Chemical suit, boots, face shield/goggles, chemical resistant gloves, and organic vapor mask or SCBA
Sampling toxic or corrosive chemicals requires full chemical protective equipment.

17. What equipment must be available near chemical cargo manifolds during transfer operations?

  • A. Steam boiler
  • B. Radio receiver
  • C. Paint spray machine
  • D. Emergency safety shower and eye-wash station
Answer: D — Emergency safety shower and eye-wash station
Safety showers and eyewash stations provide immediate decontamination for accidental spills.

18. What is the P&A Manual on a chemical tanker?

  • A. Pump manual
  • B. Procedures and Arrangements Manual approved by Flag State Administration
  • C. Port anchorage guide
  • D. Personnel manual
Answer: B — Procedures and Arrangements Manual approved by Flag State Administration
The P&A Manual details specific procedures for tank washing, stripping, and slop handling under MARPOL Annex II.

19. What device is installed on chemical tank venting systems to prevent over-pressure or vacuum?

  • A. Check valve
  • B. High-velocity Pressure/Vacuum (P/V) valve
  • C. Globe valve
  • D. Needle valve
Answer: B — High-velocity Pressure/Vacuum (P/V) valve
High-velocity P/V valves vent tank vapors high above deck and protect tanks from pressure damage.

20. What cargo stripping result is required for modern Type 2 chemical tankers built after May 2007 carrying Category X, Y, Z cargoes?

  • A. Maximum residue remaining per tank must not exceed 75 liters
  • B. 1000 liters
  • C. 5 cubic meters
  • D. No limit
Answer: A — Maximum residue remaining per tank must not exceed 75 liters
Under MARPOL Annex II, modern chemical tankers must strip residue down to no more than 75 liters per tank.

21. What is the function of a toxic gas detector tube system (e.g. Dräger tube)?

  • A. Test battery
  • B. Measure oil viscosity
  • C. Measure specific chemical vapor concentrations in ppm by colorimetric reaction
  • D. Measure salinity
Answer: C — Measure specific chemical vapor concentrations in ppm by colorimetric reaction
Indicator tubes measure exact parts-per-million concentrations of specific toxic gases.

22. Why are efficient stripping systems essential on chemical tankers?

  • A. Increase ship speed
  • B. Minimize cargo residue left in tanks prior to mandatory pre-wash or commercial cleaning
  • C. Cool engine room
  • D. Fill ballast tanks
Answer: B — Minimize cargo residue left in tanks prior to mandatory pre-wash or commercial cleaning
Thorough stripping maximizes cargo delivery and minimizes slop washing quantities.

23. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. STCW Code Section A-V/1-1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
  • B. Port State Control advisory note only
  • C. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
  • D. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-V/1-1-3 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-V/1-1-3 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Advanced Chemical Tanker.

24. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Advanced Chemical Tanker tasks, what immediate action is required?

  • A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
  • B. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
  • C. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
  • D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

25. What is the purpose of a mandatory pre-wash under MARPOL Annex II?

  • A. Clean windows
  • B. Polish steel
  • C. Remove high-viscosity or solidifying Category X / Y residues to shore reception
  • D. Wash deck
Answer: C — Remove high-viscosity or solidifying Category X / Y residues to shore reception
Mandatory pre-washes transfer persistent chemical slops to shore reception facilities before departure.

26. What is the Permanganate Time Test used for in chemical tank cleaning?

  • A. Test oxygen concentration
  • B. Test fuel sulfur
  • C. Test water temp
  • D. Detect trace presence of oxidizable organic impurities after cleaning for high-purity alcohol cargoes
Answer: D — Detect trace presence of oxidizable organic impurities after cleaning for high-purity alcohol cargoes
Permanganate time measures how long potassium permanganate retains its pink color in wall wash samples.

27. What code specifies medical emergency response steps for chemical accidents on ships?

  • A. SOLAS Chapter V
  • B. STCW Reg I/9
  • C. MARPOL Annex VI
  • D. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
Answer: D — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
MFAG provides standardized medical response guidelines for chemical spills and exposures.

28. What type of cargo pump is fitted inside individual stainless steel chemical cargo tanks?

  • A. Deepwell centrifugal pump
  • B. Steam duplex pump
  • C. Hand pump
  • D. Gear pump
Answer: A — Deepwell centrifugal pump
Deepwell pumps eliminate cargo pump rooms and isolate individual cargo parcels.

29. Why is water prohibited for cleaning tanks after carrying Concentrated Sulfuric Acid?

  • A. Water freezes
  • B. Water turns steel into wood
  • C. Water reacts exothermically generating extreme heat and corrosive splattering
  • D. Water turns acid into rock
Answer: C — Water reacts exothermically generating extreme heat and corrosive splattering
Adding water to concentrated acid causes violent heat release and severe corrosive boiling.

30. What is a Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk?

  • A. Crew medical fitness
  • B. Engine overhaul certificate
  • C. Statutory certificate listing all specific chemical products approved for carriage
  • D. Pilot license
Answer: C — Statutory certificate listing all specific chemical products approved for carriage
Certificates of Fitness verify tank coatings, containment types, and allowed chemical lists.

Set 2 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the function of inert gas on chemical tankers carrying cargoes with flashpoints below 60°C?

  • A. Change color
  • B. Dissolve fumes
  • C. Maintain oxygen concentration below 8% to prevent flammability
  • D. Heat cargo
Answer: C — Maintain oxygen concentration below 8% to prevent flammability
Inerting reduces oxygen below 8%, eliminating explosion hazards in flammable chemical tanks.

2. What hazard is associated with Benzene cargo exposure?

  • A. Turns skin blue
  • B. Known human carcinogen causing leukemia and bone marrow damage
  • C. Heavy metal poisoning
  • D. Non-toxic
Answer: B — Known human carcinogen causing leukemia and bone marrow damage
Benzene is a aromatic hydrocarbon with severe chronic carcinogenic toxicity.

3. What is closed gauging on a chemical tanker?

  • A. Opening tank lids
  • B. Measuring by draft
  • C. Eye sight measuring
  • D. Measuring cargo level using vapor-tight devices without releasing toxic vapors
Answer: D — Measuring cargo level using vapor-tight devices without releasing toxic vapors
Closed gauging prevents crew exposure to toxic chemical fumes during level checks.

4. What chemical condition causes Phenol to solidify at temperatures below 40°C?

  • A. Nitrogen reaction
  • B. High melting point (~41°C) requiring continuous heating during transit
  • C. High water content
  • D. Evaporation
Answer: B — High melting point (~41°C) requiring continuous heating during transit
Phenol freezes at ~41°C; heating systems keep it liquid above 50°C.

5. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. Once every 5 years during special survey
  • B. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
  • C. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
  • D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
Answer: C — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

6. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
  • B. No written record is required
  • C. Verbal update to port agent without logging
  • D. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
Answer: A — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

7. What chemical cargo property is defined as the lowest temperature at which liquid emits flammable vapor?

  • A. Flashpoint
  • B. Auto-ignition temp
  • C. Pour point
  • D. Boiling point
Answer: A — Flashpoint
Flashpoint determines cargo flammability classification under SOLAS and IBC rules.

8. What is the function of a toxic vapor return line during chemical loading?

  • A. Return displaced toxic/flammable tank vapors to shore treatment plant
  • B. Supply fresh water
  • C. Return liquid cargo
  • D. Equalize electric grounds
Answer: A — Return displaced toxic/flammable tank vapors to shore treatment plant
Vapor return lines route displaced vapors to shore recovery systems.

9. What is the role of an Inhibitor Certificate for chemical cargoes prone to polymerization?

  • A. Certifies engine power
  • B. Waives safety checks
  • C. Authorizes high speed
  • D. Certifies inhibitor name, concentration, date added, duration of effectiveness, and temp limits
Answer: D — Certifies inhibitor name, concentration, date added, duration of effectiveness, and temp limits
Shippers must provide inhibitor certificates verifying cargo stability during sea transit.

10. What type of personal protective suit provides complete gas-tight isolation against fatal chemical atmospheres?

  • A. Raincoat
  • B. Leather jacket
  • C. Gas-tight Type 1 (Level A) chemical suit with internal SCBA
  • D. Cotton boiler suit
Answer: C — Gas-tight Type 1 (Level A) chemical suit with internal SCBA
Level A gas-tight suits provide complete isolation against severe toxic chemical gases.

11. What is the maximum allowed discharge rate of Category Y cargo residues under MARPOL Annex II outside Special Areas?

  • A. Direct at jetty
  • B. Ship speed min 7 knots, below waterline discharge, distance > 12 nm from coast, water depth > 25 m
  • C. Any speed in port
  • D. 100 knots
Answer: B — Ship speed min 7 knots, below waterline discharge, distance > 12 nm from coast, water depth > 25 m
MARPOL Annex II specifies strict en-route discharge requirements for chemical tank washings.

12. What material coating is ruined if cleaned using high-pressure hot water above 60°C containing alkaline soaps?

  • A. Teak wood deck
  • B. Stainless steel
  • C. Epoxy tank coatings
  • D. Copper piping
Answer: C — Epoxy tank coatings
Hot water and strong alkalis cause blistering and degradation of epoxy linings.

13. What is the function of a cargo tank cofferdam on a chemical tanker?

  • A. Stores drinking water
  • B. Collects rainwater
  • C. Isolates chemical cargo tanks from accommodation, machinery spaces, or incompatible liquid tanks
  • D. Holds spare engine pistons
Answer: C — Isolates chemical cargo tanks from accommodation, machinery spaces, or incompatible liquid tanks
Cofferdams provide isolating void spaces preventing dangerous chemical cross-contamination.

14. What instrument measures relative humidity and dew point inside cargo tanks before loading moisture-sensitive chemicals?

  • A. Barometer
  • B. Chronometer
  • C. Anemometer
  • D. Electronic Hygrometer / Dew point meter
Answer: D — Electronic Hygrometer / Dew point meter
Hygrometers verify tank dryness before loading water-reactive chemical cargoes.

15. What action should be taken if Caustic Soda splashes into a seafarer's eye?

  • A. Immediately flush eye with clean fresh water at eyewash station for at least 15-20 minutes
  • B. Rub eye with rag
  • C. Apply engine oil
  • D. Close eye until tomorrow
Answer: A — Immediately flush eye with clean fresh water at eyewash station for at least 15-20 minutes
Immediate continuous water flushing prevents severe chemical alkali eye burns.

16. What is the function of high level and overfill alarms on chemical cargo tanks?

  • A. Provide audible/visual warnings at 95% and 98% capacity to prevent overflow
  • B. Measure ship roll
  • C. Signal pump room light
  • D. Indicate empty tank
Answer: A — Provide audible/visual warnings at 95% and 98% capacity to prevent overflow
High level (95%) and overfill (98%) alarms warn watchkeepers to prevent cargo overflows.

17. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Advanced Chemical Tanker guidelines?

  • A. High-visibility vest only
  • B. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
  • C. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
  • D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
Answer: C — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

18. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
  • B. Temperature check only
  • C. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • D. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

19. What is the primary danger of Nitrogen gas used for inerting chemical tanks?

  • A. Flammable explosion
  • B. Green skin
  • C. Acid burns
  • D. Oxygen displacement causing rapid asphyxiation and unconsciousness without warning
Answer: D — Oxygen displacement causing rapid asphyxiation and unconsciousness without warning
Nitrogen displaces air quietly, causing instant fatal oxygen deficiency.

20. What chemical cargo term describes liquids that produce severe lung damage if vapors are inhaled?

  • A. Respiratory toxic / Pulmonary edema hazard
  • B. Mineral water
  • C. Viscous liquid
  • D. Sweet scent
Answer: A — Respiratory toxic / Pulmonary edema hazard
Vapors of chemicals like Phosgene or Nitric acid cause fatal lung fluid accumulation.

21. What type of sampling equipment is used when taking chemical samples without opening tank hatches?

  • A. Closed-loop vapor lock sampling valve with portable sampling bottle
  • B. Open bucket
  • C. Glass cup
  • D. Soup ladle
Answer: A — Closed-loop vapor lock sampling valve with portable sampling bottle
Vapor locks allow sealed sampling without exposing crew to toxic vapors.

22. What document lists compatibility restrictions when planning stowage of multiple chemical cargoes?

  • A. Engine manual
  • B. Suez pass
  • C. Load line certificate
  • D. USCG Chemical Compatibility Chart / IBC Code Matrix
Answer: D — USCG Chemical Compatibility Chart / IBC Code Matrix
Compatibility matrices prevent stowage of reactive chemical pairs in adjacent tanks.

23. What is the function of a tank washing machine on chemical tankers?

  • A. Sandblasting
  • B. Paint spraying
  • C. High-pressure rotary water jets to wash chemical residues off bulkheads
  • D. Bilge pumping
Answer: C — High-pressure rotary water jets to wash chemical residues off bulkheads
Rotary tank washing machines clean internal bulkhead surfaces thoroughly.

24. Why must cargo pumps and pipelines be thoroughly blown down with air/N2 after cargo discharge?

  • A. Increase pressure
  • B. Cool main engine
  • C. Clear liquid pockets from piping to prevent contamination and line freezing
  • D. Clean hull
Answer: C — Clear liquid pockets from piping to prevent contamination and line freezing
Line blowing empties piping systems completely, leaving lines clean and dry.

25. What is Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)?

  • A. 1 year limit
  • B. 24 hour limit
  • C. Ignition temp
  • D. Maximum allowable concentration for continuous 15-minute exposure period
Answer: D — Maximum allowable concentration for continuous 15-minute exposure period
STEL defines the safe peak exposure concentration allowed over 15 minutes.

26. What system prevents static electricity accumulation during high-rate loading of non-conducting chemical solvents?

  • A. Max speed pumping
  • B. Spraying water
  • C. Restricting initial loading rate (flow velocity < 1 m/s) and grounding/bonding lines
  • D. Opening hatches
Answer: C — Restricting initial loading rate (flow velocity < 1 m/s) and grounding/bonding lines
Flow velocities under 1 m/s prevent static spark accumulation during initial loading.

27. What step is taken if a chemical cargo tank lining shows extensive breakdown and rust spots?

  • A. Fill with seawater
  • B. Paint household paint
  • C. Tank must be de-gassed, cleaned, grit-blasted, and re-coated before loading compatible cargo
  • D. Ignore rust
Answer: C — Tank must be de-gassed, cleaned, grit-blasted, and re-coated before loading compatible cargo
Damaged tank coatings contaminate cargoes and lead to rapid hull steel corrosion.

28. Who is responsible for supervising all chemical cargo operations and safety checks on board?

  • A. Chief Cook
  • B. Steward
  • C. Chief Officer / Designated Cargo Officer
  • D. Deck Cadet
Answer: C — Chief Officer / Designated Cargo Officer
The Chief Officer leads cargo operations and dangerous chemical safety compliance.

29. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
  • B. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
  • C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
  • D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

30. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Advanced Chemical Tanker?

  • A. Crew List document
  • B. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
  • C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
  • D. Bill of Lading description
Answer: C — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

Set 3 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the coastal authorities prior to __________.

  • A. employing a boom
  • B. using suction equipment
  • C. applying chemical agents
  • D. deploying skimmers
Answer: C — applying chemical agents

2. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should

  • A. notify the terminal superintendent
  • B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
  • C. repair the hose with a patch
  • D. replace the hose
Answer: D — replace the hose

3. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the FIRST thing to do is _________ .

  • A. try to find out where the oil is coming from
  • B. call the Master
  • C. have the pumpman check the discharge piping
  • D. shutdown operations
Answer: D — shutdown operations

4. Containment and Damage Control: which step is of highest importance for spill/damage control?

  • A. All personnel entering a contaminated space shall wear PPE
  • B. Actions toward controlling the immediate spread of the spill
  • C. For each pair entering a space, a trained person with appropriate equipment, will be on standby.
  • D. Action steps minimizing the impact to the ship and crew.
Answer: B — Actions toward controlling the immediate spread of the spill

5. What assigns for each new ship a calculable figure that will denote its total emissions of CO2 from combustion of fuel.

  • A. Energy Efficiency Design Index
  • B. Energy Inefficiency Design Index
  • C. SOX Design Index
  • D. VOX Design Index
Answer: A — Energy Efficiency Design Index

6. When did Annex VI take effect?

  • A. May 19, 2005
  • B. October 12, 1991
  • C. February 25, 1997
  • D. July 3, 2015
Answer: A — May 19, 2005

7. The extent of MARPOL compliance is determined by:

  • A. Vessel type, size and speed
  • B. Vessel flag, type and age
  • C. Vessel type, size and crew
  • D. Vessel type, size and age
Answer: D — Vessel type, size and age

8. MARPOL applies to:

  • A. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts
  • B. tankers greater than 150GT and cargo ships greater than 400GT
  • C. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hydrofoils
  • D. applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts and hovercrafts
Answer: A — applies to all ships, oil platforms, barges and private yachts

9. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.

  • A. blown down with inert gas
  • B. drained into drip pans or tanks
  • C. stowed with their ends open for venting
  • D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water
Answer: B — drained into drip pans or tanks

10. What annex deals with regulations for the prevention of air pollution from ships?

  • A. Annex IV
  • B. Annex III
  • C. Annex I
  • D. Annex VI
Answer: D — Annex VI

11. What is the most important regulatory requirement for the master arriving at the lightering position?

  • A. Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
  • B. Reporting of incidents.
  • C. Designation of lightering zones.
  • D. Factors considered in designating lightering zones.
Answer: A — Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.

12. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by

  • A. equipment failure
  • B. human error
  • C. major casualties
  • D. unforeseeable circumstances
Answer: B — human error

13. Containment and Damage Control: identify which step is of the highest importance for personal protection?

  • A. Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.
  • B. Fight fire (if any), being careful to use firefighting methods compatible with the material involved.
  • C. Shut off or otherwise stem the spill at the source.
  • D. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.
Answer: A — Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.

14. What is used to incinerate solid and liquid wastes arising from the operation of the ship?

  • A. Incinerator
  • B. Oily water separation
  • C. ISM Screen
  • D. Fire Sprinkler Cleaner
Answer: A — Incinerator

15. Oil Pollution Regulations require any transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the

  • A. Pollution Control Record
  • B. Bridge log
  • C. Oil Record book
  • D. Masters log
Answer: C — Oil Record book

16. The Volatile Organic Compound (cargo vapor) Management Plan is required on what type of vessel?

  • A. Tank sensors
  • B. Container vessels
  • C. Ro-ro vessels
  • D. Crude Oil Carriers
Answer: D — Crude Oil Carriers

17. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels (3816 cubic metres) of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold _________.

  • A. three barrels
  • B. four barrels
  • C. six barrels
  • D. eight barrels
Answer: A — three barrels

18. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.

  • A. a boom
  • B. suction equipment
  • C. chemical agents
  • D. skimmers
Answer: C — chemical agents

19. The total quantity of oil discharged at sea on new tankers must not exceed:

  • A. 1/15000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • B. 1/20000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • C. 1/25000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
  • D. 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
Answer: D — 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part

20. A starting interlock in the ODME ensures

  • A. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
  • B. prevents malfunctioning of the system
  • C. that an alarm is given off when the system malfunctions
  • D. stops discharge of the oil effluent when the oil content exceeds 5 part per million
Answer: A — the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea

21. A gas venting system on a tanker that has gas lines in each tank connected to a common gas main running the full length of the ship is called:

  • A. A gas-main system
  • B. A common-main system
  • C. A vent-main system
  • D. An independent system
Answer: B — A common-main system

22. The inert gas is delivered to the cargo tanks by an inert gas deck main line. Find the correct labelling for the deck equipment items,

  • A. 1-Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 2- Cargo tank valves; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
  • B. 1-Mast Riser; 2-Isolating Valve; 3-Cargo tank valves ; 4- Pressure/Vacuum Valve
  • C. 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve
  • D. 1-Isolating Valve; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Cargo tank valves
Answer: C — 1-Cargo tank valves; 2- Pressure/Vacuum Valve; 3- Mast Riser; 4-Isolating Valve

23. Pneumatically Operating Valve; what is the most critical component for correct valve operation, based on your shipboard experience of running such a system?

  • A. Valve orifice
  • B. The Diaphragm
  • C. Valve stem
  • D. The valve springs
Answer: B — The Diaphragm

24. Advantages of using inert gas, pick one that is the main reason for its application,

  • A. No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
  • B. Reduces corrosion.
  • C. Voyage cleaning of tanks is unnecessary.
  • D. Reduces pumping time because of positive pressure in the tanks.
Answer: A — No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.

25. Increasing rotation speed will decrease discharge pressure.

  • A. 5%
  • B. 3%
  • C. 7%
  • D. 10%
Answer: B — 3%

26. Cargo system Valves can be categorized in many ways: identify one operation that can be classified as, manual remote,

  • A. Local or remote actuation: Local control means the operator is at the valve and controls it directly.
  • B. When the valve is located some distance from the operator such as at the bottom of the cargo tank, it is then necessary to install a reach rod for remote actuation.
  • C. A reach rod assembly is a series of steel rods coupled to connect the stem of the valve in the tank to a valve operating stand on deck.
  • D. In automated cargo systems, the valves are frequently operated using hydraulic or pneumatic motors connected to the stem
Answer: C — A reach rod assembly is a series of steel rods coupled to connect the stem of the valve in the tank to a valve operating stand on deck.

27. Acidic solutions are formed in cargo tanks of tankers

  • A. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
  • B. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with oxygen
  • C. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with hydrocarbon gas
  • D. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with chemicals
Answer: A — when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water

28. Tank level measurement of free water by gauging tape and plumb bob: find the labeling combination that is correct,

  • A. 1 Water Innage; 2-Water Cut; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
  • B. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage
  • C. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Ullage; 4- Water Cut
  • D. 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Cut; 3- Water Innage ; 4- Water Ullage
Answer: B — 1- Water Cut; 2- Water Innage; 3- Water Cut; 4- Water Ullage

29. An inert gas generator burns what oil to generate inert gas ?

  • A. Crude oil
  • B. Gas oil
  • C. Heavy oil
  • D. Diesel oil
Answer: B — Gas oil

30. Back flow of inert gas is prevented by:

  • A. An isolating valve
  • B. The deck water seal
  • C. A valve provided in the scrubber
  • D. The deck mechanical non-return valve
Answer: B — The deck water seal

Set 4 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Tank coating requirements developed by IMO are applicable to

  • A. new crude oil tankers of 5000 GRT and above
  • B. new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
  • C. new crude oil tankers of 500 GRT and above
  • D. new crude oil tankers of 500 DWT and above
Answer: B — new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above

2. A deepwell pump is a type of ___________.

  • A. screw pump
  • B. centrifugal pump
  • C. eductor
  • D. gear pump
Answer: B — centrifugal pump

3. Bottom washing:

  • A. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
  • B. will remove heavy wax sediments at the tank bottom
  • C. is not effective when carrying a small quantity of refined products
  • D. cannot be done with chemical solvents
Answer: A — is done to remove traces of the previous cargo

4. The total capacity of all slop tanks on an oil tanker normally should be

  • A. 1% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
  • B. 2% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
  • C. 3% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
  • D. 4% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
Answer: C — 3% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship

5. An inert gas system is required to be fitted:

  • A. On all tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
  • B. On product tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
  • C. On crude oil tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
  • D. On chemical tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
Answer: C — On crude oil tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight

6. Centrifugal pumps are otherwise known as

  • A. Reciprocating pumps
  • B. Gravity pumps
  • C. Positive discplacement pumps
  • D. Hydro-dynamic pumps
Answer: D — Hydro-dynamic pumps

7. The ring main pipeline system is extensively used on:

  • A. VLCCs
  • B. Crude oil tankers
  • C. Medium range tankers
  • D. Product carriers
Answer: D — Product carriers

8. Class B fires are caused by

  • A. combustible solids
  • B. flammable liquids
  • C. flammable gases
  • D. electricity
Answer: B — flammable liquids

9. Use of Pressure-Vacuum (PV) Relief Valve; label the diagram correctly,

  • A. 1-IG Main; 2-Deck Isolating Valve ; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
  • B. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- Vent Main; 3- IG Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
  • C. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
  • D. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5 - Tank Isolating Valve; 6- PV valve
Answer: C — 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve

10. Cargo tank fill alarm indicator panels:

  • A. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes on deck
  • B. are normally fitted in the engine control room and sometimes on deck
  • C. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes in the engine control room
  • D. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck
Answer: D — are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck

11. Identify the equipment in the IG system correctly,

  • A. 1-O2 Analyzer ; 2-Demister; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
  • B. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
  • C. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3 - Blowers ; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Air Intake-Gas Freeing
  • D. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Regulating Valves; 4-Air Intake-Gas Freeing ; 5- Blowers
Answer: B — 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers

12. Tank level measurement by gauging tape and plumb bob: find the labeling combination that is correct,

  • A. 1- Reference Point; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Innage
  • B. 1- Reference Point; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Innage; 5- Ullage
  • C. 1- Bob Cut; 2-Reference Point; 3-Tape Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Innage
  • D. 1- Innage; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Reference Point
Answer: A — 1- Reference Point; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Innage

13. Cargo discharging: find a statement that ensures safe cargo discharging from start to finish,

  • A. When the vessel arrives at the discharge port, the inert gas system should be tested and ready for operation in due time for discharge.
  • B. Before pumping of cargo oil is started, the inert gas system should be in operation and connected to the deck line, with the pressure control in the "automatic" position.
  • C. Cargo discharge should not be commenced until all the conditions have been checked; tanks should be re- pressurized if required
  • D. During discharge the oxygen content and pressure of the inert gas in the inert gas main should be continuously recorded as per regulation.
Answer: D — During discharge the oxygen content and pressure of the inert gas in the inert gas main should be continuously recorded as per regulation.

14. Automatic shutdown systems independent of operator intervention: how to ensure that it will work correctly?

  • A. Express approval for their use is required from both the flag administration and the port state authorities.
  • B. Automatic shutdown systems are normally designed to shut the main cargo tank filling valve if the liquid level rises above the maximum level permitted.
  • C. Ensure that the activation point is set accurately, and that the operation of the device is checked by simulation whenever the system is recommissioned.
  • D. If the ship and shore shutdown circuits are to be linked their operation should be checked before cargo transfer begins; if not, the terminal should be informed of the closing rate of the ship's valves.
Answer: D — If the ship and shore shutdown circuits are to be linked their operation should be checked before cargo transfer begins; if not, the terminal should be informed of the closing rate of the ship's valves.

15. Statements on Float Gauges; identify the key statement of importance,

  • A. Floats should be secured when at sea, except briefly during measurement of tank contents.
  • B. If the float remains unsecured at sea it will almost certainly be damaged due to sloshing of the cargo
  • C. Remote and local readings should be compared frequently to determine discrepancies;
  • D. Readings may need to be corrected to allow for tape and tank expansion or contraction, and ship trim and heel. Tables are normally provided for this purpose
Answer: B — If the float remains unsecured at sea it will almost certainly be damaged due to sloshing of the cargo

16. Several types of bobs connected to handheld tapes: Identify those correctly,

  • A. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Plain Ullage Bob; 3-Extension Outage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob
  • B. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Extension Outage Bob; 3-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob; 4-Plain Ullage Bob
  • C. 1-Extension Outage Bob; 2-InnageBob ; 3-Plain Ullage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob
  • D. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Extension Outage Bob; 3-Plain Ullage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob
Answer: D — 1-Innage Bob; 2-Extension Outage Bob; 3-Plain Ullage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob

17. Example of cargo heating system: identify correct labelling

  • A. 1-Steam Return Line; 2-Compressed Air Line ; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector
  • B. 1-- Toxic Gas Detector; 2-Steam Return Line; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4-Compressed Air Line
  • C. 1-Compressed Air Line; 2-Steam Return Line; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector
  • D. 1-Steam Supply Line; 2-Steam Return Line; 3-Compressed Air Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector
Answer: C — 1-Compressed Air Line; 2-Steam Return Line; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector

18. Inerting Operations:During normal operation of oil tankers the following operational modes frequently take place: find an operation that is required after tank cleaning during a ballast voyage and before loading

  • A. Inerting of empty tanks
  • B. Inerting during loading and simultaneous discharge of ballast
  • C. Inerting during loaded sea voyage
  • D. Inerting during discharging and ballasting
Answer: A — Inerting of empty tanks

19. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of the ___________.

  • A. booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly
  • B. booster pump failing to start
  • C. ship's pump speeding up
  • D. booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction
Answer: A — booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly

20. A restricted tank gauging system

  • A. Allows limited amounts of vapour to escape
  • B. Does not allow vapour to escape
  • C. Uses a float gauge
  • D. Does not use an ullage tape
Answer: B — Does not allow vapour to escape

21. The lowest temperature at which the liquid remains a fluid is called the:

  • A. The flow point
  • B. The pour point
  • C. The melting point
  • D. The Liquefaction point
Answer: B — The pour point

22. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to

  • A. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
  • B. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
  • C. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
  • D. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible
Answer: D — lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible

23. For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of

  • A. three barrels
  • B. four barrels
  • C. six barrels
  • D. eight barrels
Answer: A — three barrels

24. What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?

  • A. Provides for the removal of vapors
  • B. Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time
  • C. Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
  • D. Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump
Answer: D — Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump

25. Identify correct labelling for Tanker VEC

  • A. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Mast Riser; 4 - Deck water seal
  • B. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Deck water seal; 4- Mast Riser
  • C. 1- Mast Riser; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- P/V Valve; - Deck water seal
  • D. 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal
Answer: D — 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal

26. A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a _____.

  • A. blind flange
  • B. pivot coupling
  • C. quick-release coupling
  • D. spectacle flange
Answer: D — spectacle flange

27. Hydrocarbon gas normally encounted in petroleum tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing oxygen less than

  • A. 2%
  • B. 11%
  • C. 5%
  • D. 8%
Answer: B — 11%

28. Who is responsible for ensuring instruments are sent ashore for calibration when required ?

  • A. The Company
  • B. The Master
  • C. The Safety Officer
  • D. The Chief Officer
Answer: D — The Chief Officer

29. An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than

  • A. 90% of compartment capacity
  • B. 95% of compartment capacity
  • C. 97% of compartment capacity
  • D. 99% of compartment capacity
Answer: B — 95% of compartment capacity

30. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its

  • A. ignition temperature
  • B. flash point
  • C. flammable range
  • D. conversion index
Answer: B — flash point

Set 5 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?

  • A. The tank must be gas freed.
  • B. The tank must be ballasted.
  • C. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.
  • D. The bypass valve must also be closed.
Answer: C — The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.

2. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tankers is to

  • A. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
  • B. prevent outside air from entering the tank
  • C. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
  • D. comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations
Answer: B — prevent outside air from entering the tank

3. Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position ________.

  • A. immediately above the level of the oil
  • B. at the top of the tank
  • C. in the vent riser
  • D. one meter from the deck
Answer: D — one meter from the deck

4. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is

  • A. 0% to 1%
  • B. 1% to 10%
  • C. 10% to 15%
  • D. 12% to 20%
Answer: B — 1% to 10%

5. The (auto) ignition temperature is that temperature at which __________.

  • A. no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor
  • B. a fuel begins to give off explosive vapors
  • C. a fuel if ignited will continue to burn
  • D. a 1% mixture of the fuel with air will explode
Answer: A — no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor

6. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when

  • A. you first start to receive fuel hoses are being disconnected
  • B. hoses are being blown down
  • C. final topping off is occurring
  • D. hoses are being disconnected
Answer: B — hoses are being blown down

7. Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate valve?

  • A. Precise control over cargo flow
  • B. Quick operation
  • C. No resistance to cargo flow when open
  • D. Less maintenance required
Answer: B — Quick operation

8. Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?

  • A. Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
  • B. Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
  • C. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master's fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
  • D. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master's fault, but because of a third party's fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge
Answer: D — Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master's fault, but because of a third party's fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge

9. While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will

  • A. remain at zero without moving
  • B. move to the maximum reading and stay there
  • C. move halfway up the scale
  • D. move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero
Answer: D — move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero

10. In the ‘flow through’ method of ballast water exchange:

  • A. Ballast equal to approximately two times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
  • B. Ballast equal to approximately three times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
  • C. Ballast equal to approximately four times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
  • D. Ballast equal to approximately five times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
Answer: B — Ballast equal to approximately three times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank

11. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are)

  • A. straw
  • B. booms
  • C. skimmers
  • D. chemical dispersants
Answer: B — booms

12. Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?

  • A. Loading
  • B. Discharging
  • C. Crude oil washing
  • D. Steaming tanks
Answer: B — Discharging

13. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be

  • A. in the midships house
  • B. at the main deck manifold
  • C. at the vent header
  • D. in the pumproom
Answer: D — in the pumproom

14. Identify the correct labeling, when the tanker has heeled to a small angle.

  • A. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Gravity; 4- Center of Buoyancy
  • B. 1- Center of Gravity; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Metacenter
  • C. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ-Shift of Buoyancy; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Center of Gravity
  • D. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Center of Gravity
Answer: D — 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Center of Gravity

15. Working instructions specifying the manner in which the ship is to be loaded and ballasted to avoid unacceptable stresses in the vessel’s structure is required for tankers:

  • A. Greater than 50 metres in length
  • B. Greater than 75 meters in length
  • C. Greater than 100 meters in length
  • D. Greater than 150 meters in length
Answer: D — Greater than 150 meters in length

16. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to

  • A. make underwater repairs to barges
  • B. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
  • C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
  • D. resuscitate an unconscious person
Answer: C — enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen

17. Part A of the the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-List provides operational procedures for:

  • A. Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
  • B. Transfer of bulk liquids – elements to be verified verbally
  • C. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquid Chemicals
  • D. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquefied Gases
Answer: A — Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks

18. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after

  • A. two years
  • B. three years
  • C. four years
  • D. five years
Answer: D — five years

19. Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

  • A. Cools the inert gas.
  • B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
  • C. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
  • D. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.
Answer: A — Cools the inert gas.

20. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids____.

  • A. expands
  • B. contracts
  • C. remains constant
  • D. remains constant if pressure remains constant
Answer: A — expands

21. The standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a __________.

  • A. barrel
  • B. drum
  • C. gallon
  • D. liter
Answer: A — barrel

22. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument

  • A. over an electrically heated platinum filament
  • B. where it is mixed with nitrogen
  • C. where it is ignited by a sparking device
  • D. where its specific gravity is measured
Answer: A — over an electrically heated platinum filament

23. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with

  • A. CO2
  • B. fresh air
  • C. the tested compartment's air
  • D. water
Answer: B — fresh air

24. When the cofferdam to be purged to check the leakage and remove the leaked oil?

  • A. Before starting the cargo operation
  • B. Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
  • C. During the cargo operation
  • D. After the cargo operation is completed
Answer: B — Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed

25. How the Framo pump has almost eliminated cavitation for free flowing liquids?

  • A. Volute casing is designed in such a way, that its smoothness avoids cavitation
  • B. The backwards curved vanes eliminate the cavitation
  • C. The hydrofoil design of the curved vanes, eliminate cavitation
  • D. Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow
Answer: D — Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow

26. Select the correct statement.

  • A. Pressure type vacuum valves can prevent Backflow.
  • B. Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
  • C. The water reservoir of a self-priming pump may be at the back of the impeller.
  • D. Stripping pumps are not of the self-priming type.
Answer: B — Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.

27. Why the cargo pump in the Framo cannot be overloaded?

  • A. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the flow is always kept constant
  • B. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
  • C. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, when the pump over speeds, the flow of oil is reduced
  • D. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pressure can run the pump at 75% of the capacity
Answer: B — The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed

28. Normally how much hydraulic oil is required to run the Framo portable pump?

  • A. 360 litres per min
  • B. 250 litres per min
  • C. 140 litres per min
  • D. 90 litres per min
Answer: C — 140 litres per min

29. Select the correct point regarding the operation of the portable pumps?

  • A. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
  • B. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
  • C. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
  • D. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.
Answer: D — Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.

30. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the return side after running the hydraulic motor?

  • A. Around 3 Bar
  • B. Around 10 bar
  • C. Around 15 bar
  • D. Above 15 bar
Answer: A — Around 3 Bar

Set 6 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Normally what is the discharge capacity of Framo portable pumps?

  • A. 150 cubic meter per hour
  • B. 100 cubic meter per hour
  • C. 70 cubic meter per hour
  • D. 200 cubic meter per hour
Answer: C — 70 cubic meter per hour

2. In a centrifugal pump:

  • A. The discharge side has a negative pressure.
  • B. The fluid moves in a direction opposite to the impeller.
  • C. The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
  • D. The width of the discharge pipeline decreases outwards.
Answer: C — The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.

3. Where is cofferdam in Framo pumps?

  • A. On the cargo pump side of the seal
  • B. On the hydraulic motor side of the seal
  • C. On both pump and motor side of the seal
  • D. Not on the pump end or the motor end
Answer: C — On both pump and motor side of the seal

4. Bernoulli’s principle states that:

  • A. pressure (P) x height (H) is a constant
  • B. height (H) x velocity (V) is a constant
  • C. pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
  • D. pressure (P) x density (D) is a constant
Answer: C — pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant

5. How the speed of the portable pump can be varied?

  • A. Portable pump speed cannot be varied
  • B. Using the flow control valve of the main cargo pump
  • C. By varying the speed of the feed pump
  • D. The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation
Answer: D — The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation

6. What kind of pumps can move extremely thick fluids like sludge without clogging ?

  • A. Rotary vane pumps
  • B. Reciprocating pumps
  • C. Deep well pumps
  • D. Screw pumps
Answer: D — Screw pumps

7. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the inlet side for running the hydraulic motor?

  • A. Around 50 Bar
  • B. Around 170 bar
  • C. Around 100 bar
  • D. Around 25 bar
Answer: B — Around 170 bar

8. The reciprocating pump creates a suction effect when there is a

  • A. decrease in pressure
  • B. increase in pressure
  • C. no change in pressure
  • D. decrease or an increase in pressure
Answer: A — decrease in pressure

9. What happens within the hull girder due to the development of bending moment due to stresses on hull are the following: find a statement that provides structural strength to the hull girder

  • A. A bending stress is developed at every transverse section of the hull.
  • B. The universal expression for bending stress is:bending stress = (bendingmoment)/(section modulus)
  • C. Maximum bending moment at the midship means that the bending stress at the midships will be the maximum, and hence the deciding factor for the design.
  • D. The bending stress at the midship is kept within safe limits by designing the midship section with a sufficient section modulus.
Answer: D — The bending stress at the midship is kept within safe limits by designing the midship section with a sufficient section modulus.

10. When doing an enclosed space rescue, the person in charge must co- ordinate the rescue:

  • A. From inside the space
  • B. From the Bridge
  • C. From outside the space
  • D. From the Engine Control Room
Answer: C — From outside the space

11. Select the correct statement.

  • A. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system may undertake one ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port, under certain circumstances.
  • B. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system cannot undertake a ballast voyage.
  • C. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system need only repair the system before the next annual MARPOL survey of the IOPP Certificate.
  • D. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system may undertake one ballast voyage and one loaded voyage before proceeding to a repair port, provided permission is taken from the relevant authority.
Answer: A — A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system may undertake one ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port, under certain circumstances.

12. Control of Entry into Enclosed Spaces; identify the most important statement which is a key measure to safe entry

  • A. Prior to entry into an enclosed space, a risk assessment should be completed to identify the potential hazards and to determine the safeguards to be adopted.
  • B. The safe working practice should be documented and approved by the responsible officer before being countersigned by the master, who confirms that the practice is safe and in compliance with the ship’s Safety Management System.
  • C. The permit, or other enabling document, should be sighted and completed by the person entering the space, prior to entry.
  • D. The controls required for safe entry vary with the task being performed and the potential hazards identified during the risk assessment.
Answer: A — Prior to entry into an enclosed space, a risk assessment should be completed to identify the potential hazards and to determine the safeguards to be adopted.

13. Lung inflammation will cause:

  • A. Breathlessness and drowsiness
  • B. Breathlessness and confusion
  • C. Breathlessness and a dry cough
  • D. Breathlessness and slurred speech
Answer: C — Breathlessness and a dry cough

14. The Convention that allows States to intervene in a pollution incident at sea is the

  • A. MARPOL Convention
  • B. SOLAS Convention
  • C. CLC Convention
  • D. Intervention Convention
Answer: D — Intervention Convention

15. Emergency alarm signals are provided on tankers in case of the following; which one of these alarms will be of major importance on a double-hull tankship with empty ballast tanks?

  • A. High concentration of toxic or flammable vapors
  • B. A discharge in engine-room or pumproom
  • C. When level of oxygen in inert gas entering tanks exceeds 5%
  • D. High level of oil residues in overboard discharge
Answer: A — High concentration of toxic or flammable vapors

16. While in port, if a fire occurs on board ship, support available from the shore includes the following; which one, in your opinion, makes the most important distinction for a shipboard fire?

  • A. Assistance from the fire brigade – experienced manpower and firefighting equipment.
  • B. Medical services of shore hospitals including ambulances with stretchers and paramedics in attendance, helicopters, etc.
  • C. Transportation for evacuating personnel from ship that are non-essential for firefighting.
  • D. Catering services where ship’s resources are restricted by the fire.
Answer: A — Assistance from the fire brigade – experienced manpower and firefighting equipment.

17. Typical Locations for High Sensitivity to Fatigue Failure The following areas are considered to be prone to fatigue failure on double hull oil tankers: which one is the most common

  • A. Side shell area below the load and ballast waterlines. These areas are subjected to the highest cycle loading through the ship’s life due to the passage of waves along the side of the ship.
  • B. Deck plating at connection to primary supporting members.
  • C. Connection between transverse bulkheads to the upper and lower bulkhead stools.
  • D. Connection between lower hopper sloping plating and inner bottom plating.
Answer: A — Side shell area below the load and ballast waterlines. These areas are subjected to the highest cycle loading through the ship’s life due to the passage of waves along the side of the ship.

18. Safeguards for Enclosed Space Entry; Before allowing access to the space, the responsible officer should ensure, amongst other things, that: identify the most important of all the elements

  • A. The personal protective equipment to be used by people entering the enclosed space must be prescribed.
  • B. Approved safety torches.
  • C. Approved UHF radio.
  • D. Personal gas detector or an area gas detector and alarm.
Answer: A — The personal protective equipment to be used by people entering the enclosed space must be prescribed.

19. In case of a collision, the following, amongst other steps are considered as a general plan of action; which one will be a priority in case of an underwater hull damage?

  • A. Assessing possible pollution due to rupture of fuel and or cargo (oil or chemical) tanks;
  • B. Taking corrective action to minimize the quantum of pollution; reporting the incident.
  • C. Assembling the emergency party.
  • D. Preparing for or implementing fire-fighting measures (in the event of a fire).
Answer: A — Assessing possible pollution due to rupture of fuel and or cargo (oil or chemical) tanks;

20. The Medical First Aid Guide is published by the:

  • A. International Maritime Organisation
  • B. World Health Organisation
  • C. United Nations
  • D. International Labour Organisation
Answer: B — World Health Organisation

21. Find a statement that in your opinion, is the most critical in a grounding incident?

  • A. Grounding can cause loss of human life.
  • B. Grounding can cause harmful environmental impact, especially in the case where large tanker ships are involved.
  • C. Grounding can cause financial consequences to local communities close to the accident.
  • D. Grounding can cause financial consequences to ship- owners, due to ship loss or penalties.
Answer: A — Grounding can cause loss of human life.

22. Safeguards for Enclosed Space Entry; Before allowing access to the space, the responsible officer should ensure, amongst other things, that: identify the most important of all the elements

  • A. A rescue harness, complete with lifeline, is ready for immediate use at the entrance to the space.
  • B. Fully charged safety torch is ready for immediate use at the entrance to the space.
  • C. A responsible member of the crew is in constant attendance outside the enclosed space, in the immediate vicinity of the entrance and in direct contact with a responsible officer.
  • D. These persons should be trained in the actions to be taken in the event of an emergency.
Answer: C — A responsible member of the crew is in constant attendance outside the enclosed space, in the immediate vicinity of the entrance and in direct contact with a responsible officer.

23. Statements on Boiler: identify a statement that supports the use of a watertube boiler with a superheater in many tanker vessels?

  • A. The boiler on a tanker vessel is equally important as the main propulsion engines
  • B. On a large oil tanker, the fuel consumption in the boiler could be as high as 2/3rd of the engines.
  • C. Without having steam at superheated condition, you may not be able to operate the cargo pump turbines efficiently and safely
  • D. Without having steam, you may not be able to maintain the oil temperatures correctly within the cargo tanks for discharging.
Answer: C — Without having steam at superheated condition, you may not be able to operate the cargo pump turbines efficiently and safely

24. Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?

  • A. Cools the inert gas.
  • B. Removes particulate matter like soot.
  • C. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
  • D. Removes chemical impurities from the gas.
Answer: C — Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.

25. Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called

  • A. purging
  • B. gas freeing
  • C. gas dispersion
  • D. bonding
Answer: A — purging

26. Typically nitrogen contained in inert gas generated from boiler flue gas, at the scrubber outlet is

  • A. 50%
  • B. 60%
  • C. 70%
  • D. 83%
Answer: D — 83%

27. Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?

  • A. The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while discharging.
  • B. Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process.
  • C. High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank.
  • D. High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping.
Answer: B — Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process.

28. The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent

  • A. flammable vapors from entering machinery space
  • B. flue gas escaping to atmosphere
  • C. inert gas escaping to atmosphere
  • D. air entering inert gas system
Answer: A — flammable vapors from entering machinery space

29. After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?

  • A. Scrubber
  • B. Demister
  • C. Deck water seal
  • D. Final filter
Answer: B — Demister

30. The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the

  • A. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite
  • B. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
  • C. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn
  • D. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present
Answer: B — upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present

Set 7 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Flue gas is drawn from the boiler uptake and delivered to the inert gas scrubber by a:

  • A. Exhaust gas pressure from the stack
  • B. High capacity fan
  • C. Inert gas compressor
  • D. Natural aspiration
Answer: B — High capacity fan

2. What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?

  • A. Relieves excessive pressures from the system.
  • B. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas.
  • C. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks.
  • D. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed.
Answer: B — Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas.

3. Inert gas systems must be capable of delivering inert gas with an oxygen content by volume in the inert gas main of not more than

  • A. 2%
  • B. 5%
  • C. 8%
  • D. 11%
Answer: B — 5%

4. On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the

  • A. minimum oxygen content line upper threshold limit
  • B. critical displacement line
  • C. critical dilution line
  • D. upper threshold limit
Answer: C — critical dilution line

5. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the

  • A. filter
  • B. cooler
  • C. scrubber
  • D. purifier
Answer: C — scrubber

6. Inert gas systems must be capable of maintaining inert gas with an oxygen content by volume in the cargo tanks of not more than

  • A. 2%
  • B. 5%
  • C. 8%
  • D. 11%
Answer: C — 8%

7. You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?

  • A. Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow.
  • B. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
  • C. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position.
  • D. Reduce the pumping rate.
Answer: B — Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.

8. The fresh air intake of the inert gas system

  • A. prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
  • B. allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks
  • C. opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
  • D. enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gasses
Answer: B — allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks

9. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?

  • A. 5%
  • B. 8%
  • C. 10%
  • D. 12%
Answer: B — 8%

10. In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?

  • A. Oxygen content above 8%
  • B. Low water level in deck seal
  • C. Low water level in the scrubber tower
  • D. High scrubber water level
Answer: D — High scrubber water level

11. What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?

  • A. Hydraulic oil
  • B. Water-antifreeze mixture
  • C. Distilled water
  • D. Oil from the cargo
Answer: B — Water-antifreeze mixture

12. What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

  • A. 5%
  • B. 8%
  • C. 10%
  • D. 12%
Answer: B — 8%

13. Checks to be done, amongst others, before and during COW are listed; identify the most important safety check

  • A. When carrying out crude oil washing during cargo discharge, the Master should inform the terminal competent authority 24 hours before commencement (or other ship when ship-to-ship transfer is involved)
  • B. The Oxygen analyzing equipment to be tested and working satisfactorily
  • C. Inert gas in tank to be checked – (Oxygen to be less than 8%), IG pressure to be satisfactory (positive pressure)
  • D. All hydrant valves on the tank washing line to be shut
Answer: C — Inert gas in tank to be checked – (Oxygen to be less than 8%), IG pressure to be satisfactory (positive pressure)

14. Concurrent COW with cargo discharge: identify the precaution for the Concurrent COW method for use

  • A. COW concurrent method utilizes the crude oil stream being discharged, together with its associated back pressure, to supply the COW pipeline with crude oil.
  • B. COW concurrent method can be achieved either by a "bleed-off' system from the main crude oil discharge pipelines for supply to the COW pipeline or by separate supply using a designated cargo pump.
  • C. COW concurrent method: The normal minimum back pressure required for the operation of the COW guns is 8 kg/cm2.
  • D. COW concurrent method: If supply is achieved by the bleed-off from the bulk discharge, then sufficient back pressure has to be maintained at all times.
Answer: C — COW concurrent method: The normal minimum back pressure required for the operation of the COW guns is 8 kg/cm2.

15. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be__________.

  • A. stopped with the wind dead ahead
  • B. stopped with the wind on the beam
  • C. underway with the wind 30° on the bow
  • D. underway on a course to provide no apparent wind
Answer: C — underway with the wind 30° on the bow

16. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________.

  • A. 6 feet of clear deck
  • B. 10 feet of clear deck
  • C. 25 feet of clear deck
  • D. 50 feet of clear deck
Answer: D — 50 feet of clear deck

17. Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is__________.

  • A. head on at slow speeds
  • B. hove to
  • C. running before the seas
  • D. to rig a sea anchor
Answer: C — running before the seas

18. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you take?

  • A. Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and reduce speed.
  • B. Heave to in the trough of the sea.
  • C. Put the sea and wind on either quarter and proceed at increased speed.
  • D. Put the bow directly into the sea and proceed at full speed.
Answer: A — Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and reduce speed.

19. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, this is best done by __________.

  • A. stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas
  • B. going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter
  • C. taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position
  • D. maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow
Answer: C — taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position

20. Snow has obliterated surface features and the sky is covered with uniform, altostratus clouds. There are no shadows and the horizon has disappeared. What is this condition called?

  • A. Ice blink
  • B. Whiteout
  • C. Water sky
  • D. Aurora reflection
Answer: B — Whiteout

21. A vessel is wind rode when it is __________.

  • A. at anchor and heading into the wind
  • B. backing into the wind
  • C. carrying lee rudder
  • D. necessary to apply a leeway correction to the course
Answer: A — at anchor and heading into the wind

22. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?

  • A. Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil.
  • B. A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.
  • C. A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure.
  • D. With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.
Answer: B — A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.

23. When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions?

  • A. Rudder control
  • B. Sea control
  • C. Lost motion adjustment
  • D. Weather adjustment
Answer: D — Weather adjustment

24. What types of mooring lines are used for larger tankers?

  • A. Ropes with high elastic elongation properties
  • B. Ropes with low plastic elongation properties
  • C. Ropes with high modulus of rigidity
  • D. Strain hardened ropes
Answer: A — Ropes with high elastic elongation properties

25. Normally Brakes must be ___________tightened to achieve the required holding capacity of the line's Minimum Breaking Load.

  • A. 30%
  • B. 50%
  • C. 60%
  • D. 75%
Answer: C — 60%

26. ‘It is preferred to have all mooring lines of the same material and construction’ This is strictly followed due to

  • A. The load on all the mooring lines should be same
  • B. To avoid undue stress on mooring lines
  • C. To increase the life of the mooring lines
  • D. To avoid compressive over loading of any of the mooring ropes
Answer: B — To avoid undue stress on mooring lines

27. How to prevent failure of the mooring and other components in the mooring system during large swell conditions?

  • A. By attaching fibre tails in the mooring ropes
  • B. By attaching fibre tails on the ends in the mooring ropes
  • C. By attaching fibre tails on the sides of the mooring ropes
  • D. By attaching fibre tails perpendicular to the mooring ropes
Answer: B — By attaching fibre tails on the ends in the mooring ropes

28. Mooring winch brakes should be tested at regular intervals, not exceeding _____. Choose the correct period from below?

  • A. 18 months
  • B. 12 months
  • C. 24 months
  • D. 30months
Answer: B — 12 months

29. What is the possible alternate for winch-stowed steel wire ropes for the mooring of large tankers at terminals?

  • A. Low Modulus synthetic fibre ropes
  • B. High Modulus synthetic wire ropes
  • C. High Modulus synthetic fibre ropes
  • D. Low Modulus nylon ropes
Answer: C — High Modulus synthetic fibre ropes

30. Why mooring wires used by large tankers are normally stored on self- stowing mooring winches?

  • A. Self - stowing winches are convenient
  • B. Weight and size make manual handling difficult
  • C. Self – stowing winches have brakes
  • D. Self-stowing winches are reliable
Answer: B — Weight and size make manual handling difficult

Set 8 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. What is IOPC fund?

  • A. International Oil Pollution Compensation Funds
  • B. International Oil tanker Pollution Compensation Funds
  • C. International Oil and hazardous chemical Compensation Funds
  • D. International Oil Pollution Compensatory Funds
Answer: A — International Oil Pollution Compensation Funds

2. In March 1989, Exxon Valdez ran aground in Alaska (U.S.) spilling approximately 40,000 tons of crude oil into the sea, causing serious environmental damage. What was the outcome legislation that followed the disaster?

  • A. CLC Convention and the Fund Convention
  • B. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90)
  • C. Bunker Convention
  • D. LLMC Convention
Answer: B — Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90)

3. What does LLMC Convention stand for?

  • A. Convention on Limitations of Liabilities for Maritime Claims
  • B. Conventionon Limited Liabilities for Marine Claims
  • C. Convention on Liabilities limited for Marine Claims
  • D. Convention on Liabilities with Limits for Maritime Claims
Answer: A — Convention on Limitations of Liabilities for Maritime Claims

4. The meaning of the CLC Convention is,

  • A. Civil Liability Convention for Oil Pollution Damage
  • B. Civil Liability Convention for Damage from NLS
  • C. Civil Liability Convention for Air Pollution
  • D. Civil Liability Convention for pollution by Sewage
Answer: A — Civil Liability Convention for Oil Pollution Damage

5. Under which operation the volumetric cargo losses are more?

  • A. During Tank to tank transfer onboard
  • B. During Ship to shore transfer
  • C. During COW
  • D. During circulation inside the same Tank onboard
Answer: B — During Ship to shore transfer

6. In spite of using clean sample bottles to acquire individual samples from each level (ie top, middle and bottom of each of the ship’s tanks) and clearly labelled for density calculation, why the final result may not provide the correct density value?

  • A. Due to temperature variations
  • B. Due to Viscosity variations
  • C. Due to the loss of volatile fractions to atmosphere
  • D. Due to changes in Emulsion
Answer: C — Due to the loss of volatile fractions to atmosphere

7. What can be the probable causes for a gross mismatch between ship and shore oil figures?

  • A. Ullages incorrectly measured, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
  • B. Incorrectly measured Ullages/ Temperatures/ densities, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
  • C. Ullages incorrectly measured, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
  • D. Ullages incorrectly measured, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
Answer: B — Incorrectly measured Ullages/ Temperatures/ densities, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.

8. Normally which one will affect the final cargo measurement more when there is a 0.1% variation in their respective reading?

  • A. Ullage measurement
  • B. Density measurement
  • C. Temperature measurement
  • D. Water in cargo measurement
Answer: C — Temperature measurement

9. Why water finding pastes or electronic tape interface reading to measure water in the take do not give accurate results?

  • A. Due to emulsion
  • B. Due to temperature difference
  • C. Due temperature and density difference
  • D. Due to differences in Viscosity
Answer: A — Due to emulsion

10. What are all the Claims/ disputes you can successfully defend if some records if maintained on board properly?

  • A. Shortage, contamination and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
  • B. Shortage, performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
  • C. Shortage, contamination, performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
  • D. Contamination performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
Answer: B — Shortage, performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.

11. What are the factors that may affect the calculation of OBQ value?

  • A. Residues on tank floors, the age of the vessel and previous cargoes carried.
  • B. Residues on tank floors and previous cargoes carried.
  • C. Residues on tank floors and structures, and previous cargoes carried.
  • D. Residues on tank floors and structures, and these will vary with the age of the vessel and previous cargoes carried.
Answer: D — Residues on tank floors and structures, and these will vary with the age of the vessel and previous cargoes carried.

12. What are all the cargo measurement issues creep up when liquid cargo is measured for volume calculations

  • A. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, and temperature of cargo
  • B. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, water in cargo and temperature of cargo
  • C. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, water in cargo, density and temperature of cargo
  • D. Ullage, listing of vessel, water in cargo, density and temperature of cargo
Answer: B — Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, water in cargo and temperature of cargo

13. What can be the ship’s defence if the Oil discharged from board is more than the B/L figure?

  • A. Water seepage into cargo onboard the ship
  • B. The onboard quantity (OBQ) prior to loading has not been taken into consideration
  • C. The cargo has been slightly over heated to reduce viscosity
  • D. The flow meter on the shore at the discharge port is not working well
Answer: B — The onboard quantity (OBQ) prior to loading has not been taken into consideration

14. What are all the normal defence for the Ship, in case of an ‘Oil Shortage’

  • A. To prove that all the cargo has been discharged with no (ROB).
  • B. To prove that there was no significant in-transit loss
  • C. To prove that the ship tank calibrations are more accurate than the shore tank calibrations.
  • D. To prove that the shore’s flow meter is wrong
Answer: A — To prove that all the cargo has been discharged with no (ROB).

15. Why is it the potential for volumetric losses is greater where COW is performed?

  • A. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a low pressure spray and completely atomised
  • B. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a high pressure spray and completely atomised
  • C. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a high pressure spray and partially atomised
  • D. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a low pressure spray and partially atomised
Answer: C — During COW, the cargo is being formed into a high pressure spray and partially atomised

16. When the sea conditions are not exactly calm, how will you make sure that the ullage measurement reading is closer to accurate?

  • A. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements and average, then apply trim correction
  • B. For each tank, take 3 ullage measurements and average, then apply trim correction
  • C. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements, leave the maximum and minimum values, then average the remaining three values and apply trim correction
  • D. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements, leave the maximum and minimum values, then average the remaining three values.
Answer: C — For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements, leave the maximum and minimum values, then average the remaining three values and apply trim correction

17. Select the appropriate sentence from below describing the ‘Oil Shortage claim’

  • A. The discrepancy between what has been received on board and what has been discharged from the ship
  • B. The discrepancy between what has been received on board as per B/L and what has been discharged from the ship
  • C. The discrepancy between the quantity of cargo as stated in the B/L and the out turn quantity as calculated in the discharge port.
  • D. The discrepancy between the quantity of cargo as stated in the B/L and the out turn quantity as calculated in the discharge port after due consideration for the allowable transportation loss
Answer: D — The discrepancy between the quantity of cargo as stated in the B/L and the out turn quantity as calculated in the discharge port after due consideration for the allowable transportation loss

18. How to find out ‘True in-Transit losses’ during the voyage?

  • A. The ship’s gross volume at normal temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at normal temperature prior to discharge
  • B. The ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature prior to discharge
  • C. The ship’s gross volume at standard temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at standard temperature prior to discharge
  • D. The ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature & pressure on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature & pressure prior to discharge
Answer: C — The ship’s gross volume at standard temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at standard temperature prior to discharge

19. What are all the records, if maintained onboard will assist in case of claims /disputes?

  • A. Voyage abstract (deck), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations
  • B. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/ transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations
  • C. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book.
  • D. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations
Answer: D — Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations

20. How to find out ‘Theoretical in-Transit losses’ during the voyage?

  • A. The ship’s net volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board at standard temperature prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
  • B. The ship’s net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
  • C. The ship’s gross volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
  • D. The ship’s net volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the gross volume on board at standard temperature prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
Answer: B — The ship’s net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.

21. What are the international classification that describes petroleum liquid cargoes ?

  • A. flammable and combustible
  • B. volatile and non-volatile
  • C. Organic and Inorganic
  • D. Acidic and non-acidic
Answer: B — volatile and non-volatile

22. Petroleum liquids derived from the naturally occurring crude oil that may include the following

  • A. Gasoline, Lubricant, Asphalt
  • B. Phosphoric acid, Sulfuric acid, Hydrochloric acid
  • C. Caustic soda, molten sulfur, Boric acid
  • D. Tallow, grease, molasses
Answer: A — Gasoline, Lubricant, Asphalt

23. The EmS guide is given in

  • A. Volume 1 of IMDG code
  • B. Volume 2 of IMDG code
  • C. IMDG code supplement
  • D. SOLAS
Answer: C — IMDG code supplement

24. MARPOL Annex I came into force in

  • A. 1987
  • B. 1983
  • C. 1992
  • D. 2003
Answer: B — 1983

25. How to reduce Hydrogen Sulphide Hazard in Residual Fuel Oils?

  • A. Ventilation to lower the concentration of vapour in the ullage space and in specific areas where vapours may accumulate should be carried out as soon as practicable.
  • B. Transfer the oil to some other tank using fuel transfer pump,
  • C. Keep heating the oil to maintain a higher temperature
  • D. Circulate the oil in the same tank using the fuel transfer pump
Answer: A — Ventilation to lower the concentration of vapour in the ullage space and in specific areas where vapours may accumulate should be carried out as soon as practicable.

26. What is pressure surge ?

  • A. When the pressure of oil increases suddenly at the manifold
  • B. When the pressure of oil decreases suddenly at the manifold
  • C. When the discharge pressure at the pump drops to zero
  • D. A sudden increase in the pressure of the liquid in a pipeline brought about by an abrupt change in flow rate
Answer: D — A sudden increase in the pressure of the liquid in a pipeline brought about by an abrupt change in flow rate

27. Burning of candle is an example of ______________.

  • A. rapid combustion
  • B. spontaneous combustion
  • C. slow oxidation
  • D. explosion
Answer: C — slow oxidation

28. What is flammable range ?

  • A. The range in which nothing will burn
  • B. The range in which the oxygen content is too low to cause explosion
  • C. The range in which the oxygen content is too high to cause explosion
  • D. The range of hydrocarbon gas concentrations in air between the lower and upper flammable limits. Mixtures within this range are capable of being ignited and of burning.
Answer: D — The range of hydrocarbon gas concentrations in air between the lower and upper flammable limits. Mixtures within this range are capable of being ignited and of burning.

29. What is the eight-hour safe exposure limit for Carbon Monoxide?

  • A. 15ppm
  • B. 25ppm
  • C. 125ppm
  • D. 250ppm
Answer: B — 25ppm

30. What is Oxygen deficiency?

  • A. Oxygen less than 21%
  • B. Oxygen less than 16%
  • C. Oxygen less than 8%
  • D. Oxygen less than 5%
Answer: A — Oxygen less than 21%

Set 9 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. It is possible to find the appropriate EmS SPILLAGE SCHEDULE from the

  • A. Proper shipping name
  • B. UN Number
  • C. Packing group
  • D. Packing instructions
Answer: B — UN Number

2. Pyrophoric oxidation occurs when loading:

  • A. Light crude oils
  • B. Sour crude oils
  • C. Refined products
  • D. Chemical cargoes
Answer: B — Sour crude oils

3. Systemic poisons are those that cause an adverse health effect on------------

  • A. the whole body
  • B. several organs of the human body
  • C. the skin only
  • D. a specific organ
Answer: D — a specific organ

4. The products of combustion are

  • A. carbon dioxide and water
  • B. oxygen and water
  • C. only carbon dioxide
  • D. only oxygen
Answer: A — carbon dioxide and water

5. In the burning process hydrocarbon gases react with oxygen in the air:

  • A. To produce carbon and water
  • B. To produce hydrogen and water
  • C. To produce carbon dioxide and water
  • D. To produce carbon monoxide and water
Answer: C — To produce carbon dioxide and water

6. Buildup of electrostatic charge when loading static accumulator oils is avoided by:

  • A. Increasing the flow rate
  • B. Not using natural fibre ropes in ullaging equipment
  • C. Taking tank soundings within a metal sounding pipe
  • D. Fitting, fixed equipment away from the tank wall
Answer: C — Taking tank soundings within a metal sounding pipe

7. What is a resuscitator ?

  • A. Equipment to revive an unconscious person
  • B. To supply air to a person in a tank
  • C. Equipment to restore the breathing of a person overcome by gas or lack of oxygen
  • D. It is a rescue equipment for use in emergency
Answer: C — Equipment to restore the breathing of a person overcome by gas or lack of oxygen

8. What is the TLV-TWA for hydrogen sulphide over a period of 8 hours ?

  • A. 5 ppm
  • B. 10 ppm
  • C. 15 ppm
  • D. 20 ppm
Answer: A — 5 ppm

9. The International Medical Guide for Ships gives guidelines on how to diagnose, treat and prevent health problems in seafarers, mainly focusing on the first _____________ hours after injury.

  • A. 6
  • B. 48
  • C. 12
  • D. 24
Answer: B — 48

10. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use tools which are

  • A. approved by the Coast Guard
  • B. high carbon steel
  • C. fixed with a ferrous cover
  • D. non-sparking
Answer: D — non-sparking

11. Multi-gas instruments are widely used and are usually capable of housing four different sensors. A typical configuration would comprise sensors for measuring: identify one that will be of major importance for enclosed space entry,

  • A. Hydrocarbon vapor as a % LFL (explosimeter function using a pellistor sensor).
  • B. Hydrocarbon vapor in inert gas as a % Volume (tankscope function using an infra-red sensor).
  • C. Oxygen (using an electrochemical sensor).
  • D. Hydrogen Sulfide (using an electrochemical sensor).
Answer: C — Oxygen (using an electrochemical sensor).

12. Tanker pump room ventilation must be switched on at least how many minutes before entry ?

  • A. 10 minutes
  • B. 15 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. One hour
Answer: C — 30 minutes

13. Which of the following hazards is the main concern when entering a ballast tank?

  • A. toxic gases
  • B. flammable gases
  • C. infection
  • D. lack of oxygen
Answer: D — lack of oxygen

14. A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

  • A. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
  • B. administer a liquid stimulant
  • C. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
  • D. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
Answer: A — lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised

15. A diffuse discharge from a single sharp conductor is called

  • A. A spark
  • B. A corona
  • C. A brush discharge
  • D. A Propagating brush discharge
Answer: B — A corona

16. What is the type of gas detection system fitted for spaces with air?

  • A. Spot metering type fixed inside the individual insulation spaces
  • B. Infrared type using sequential measurement
  • C. Portable gas detection system due to mobility of this method
  • D. Catalytic combustion type
Answer: D — Catalytic combustion type

17. Class B fires involve

  • A. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
  • B. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
  • C. Energised electrical equipment
  • D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Answer: B — Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids

18. Lower flammable limit (LFL) or Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), is usually expressed:

  • A. as a percentage of the air volume
  • B. as a percentage of hydrocarbon volume
  • C. in volume percent
  • D. as a percentage of the volume of oxygen
Answer: C — in volume percent

19. For Oxygen analyzer, identify the statement that explains the working principle

  • A. Electrochemical Sensors: Analyzers of this type determine the oxygen content of a gas mixture by measuring the output of an electrochemical cell.
  • B. Oxygen diffuses through a membrane into the cell and current flows between two special electrodes separated by a liquid or gel electrolyte.
  • C. The current flow is related to the oxygen concentration in the sample and the scale is arranged to give a direct indication of oxygen content.
  • D. The analyzer readings are directly proportional to the pressure in the measuring cell, and only small errors are caused by normal variations in atmospheric pressure.
Answer: B — Oxygen diffuses through a membrane into the cell and current flows between two special electrodes separated by a liquid or gel electrolyte.

20. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses

  • A. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure
  • B. the regulator in an emergency
  • C. oxygen to the atmosphere
  • D. the regenerator in an emergency
Answer: B — the regulator in an emergency

21. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is

  • A. free of most flammable gas concentrations
  • B. thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
  • C. inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
  • D. free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases
Answer: D — free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases

22. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?

  • A. Nitrogen
  • B. Hydrogen
  • C. Carbon dioxide
  • D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: D — Carbon monoxide

23. Which type of cargoes are often known as static accumulator cargoes?

  • A. Crude oil
  • B. Vegetable oil
  • C. Highly refined petroleum products
  • D. Animal oil
Answer: C — Highly refined petroleum products

24. What is the priority order of a Company's on board policies and procedures?

  • A. Safety of the crew; Safe operation of the vessel; Protection of the environment
  • B. Safe operation of the vessel; Safety of the crew; Protection of the environment
  • C. Protection of the environment; Safety of the crew; Safe operation of the vessel
  • D. Protection of the environment; Safe operation of the vessel; Safety of the crew
Answer: A — Safety of the crew; Safe operation of the vessel; Protection of the environment

25. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should

  • A. draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump
  • B. check for gland leakage and any fire hazard
  • C. have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed
  • D. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation
Answer: B — check for gland leakage and any fire hazard

26. Certain operations can give rise to accumulations of electric charge which may be released suddenly in electrostatic discharges with sufficient energy to ignite

  • A. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/air mixtures
  • B. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/Nitrogen mixtures
  • C. Combustible hydrocarbon liquid
  • D. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/CO2 mixtures
Answer: A — Flammable hydrocarbon gas/air mixtures

27. How many portable multi – gas detectors should be carried onboard?

  • A. At least one with methane gas and one of propane gas detection capability
  • B. At least one with methane and one of carbon monoxides gas detection capability
  • C. At least one with methane gas and one of ammonia gas detection capability
  • D. At least two sets with methane gas detection capability
Answer: D — At least two sets with methane gas detection capability

28. Class A fires involve

  • A. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
  • B. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
  • C. Energised electrical equipment
  • D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.
Answer: A — Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.

29. The ISM Code requires work procedures which ensures ________ performance

  • A. Superior
  • B. Profitable
  • C. Safe
  • D. Excellent
Answer: C — Safe

30. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

  • A. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts
  • B. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction
  • C. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain
  • D. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction
Answer: B — Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction

Set 10 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called

  • A. exposure limits
  • B. concentration limits
  • C. threshold limit values
  • D. substance limit values
Answer: C — threshold limit values

2. Optimum Oxygen values in the inert gas for delivery into cargo tanks is between:

  • A. 1 to 2%
  • B. 3 to 4%
  • C. 5 to 6%
  • D. 9 to 10%
Answer: B — 3 to 4%

3. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free,

  • A. breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time
  • B. a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile
  • C. entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
  • D. breathing apparatus should always be used
Answer: D — breathing apparatus should always be used

4. Cargo tank pressure is monitored on tankers:

  • A. To ensure IG backpressure is slightly positive at all times
  • B. To prevent back pressure
  • C. To ensure enough tanks are open for loading
  • D. To ensure that the loading rate is not too high
Answer: A — To ensure IG backpressure is slightly positive at all times

5. Identify the statement that highlights the purpose of using a non-catalytic heated filament gas indicator,

  • A. The working of catalytic gas indicator depends on the property of its combustion with air.
  • B. Since the inerted atmosphere is deficient in oxygen the catalytic gas indicators cannot be used in inerted atmospheres.
  • C. Instruments used in inerted atmosphere have a filament sensitive to the variations in the heat conductivity.
  • D. Instruments used in inerted atmosphere have a filament that are good for monitoring inerting operations.
Answer: B — Since the inerted atmosphere is deficient in oxygen the catalytic gas indicators cannot be used in inerted atmospheres.

6. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the

  • A. vapor pressure
  • B. tolerance point
  • C. threshold limit value
  • D. odor threshold
Answer: C — threshold limit value

7. Vessel's enclosed spaces that are not to be treated as such:

  • A. Spaces which must be entered through small hatchways or access points;
  • B. Cargo tanks and holds ;
  • C. Double-bottom tanks;
  • D. Crew accommodation
Answer: D — Crew accommodation

8. Which would be the appropriate arrangement for entering into a DB tank through the ductkeel?

  • A. Entry permit for ductkeel and standby person at the entrance
  • B. Entry permit for DB tank and standby person loacated inside ductkeel outside DB tank
  • C. Combined entry permit for both but standby person ductkeel entrance and DB entrance
  • D. Separate enclosed space entry permit for both spaces including standby person outside both
Answer: D — Separate enclosed space entry permit for both spaces including standby person outside both

9. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?

  • A. Wet handkerchief.
  • B. Self-contained breathing apparatus.
  • C. Dust or gas mask.
  • D. Canister type mask.
Answer: B — Self-contained breathing apparatus.

10. Where is the electrostatic discharge plate installed?

  • A. Near the cargo manifold
  • B. At the forward end of the ship
  • C. At the accommodation entrance on upper deck
  • D. At the aft part of the ship
Answer: C — At the accommodation entrance on upper deck

11. For Oxygen analyzer, identify the key principle upon which the analyzer is working,

  • A. A Wheatstone bridge circuit is formed using the two wires. It is used to measure a resistance by balancing two legs of the circuit.
  • B. The sample of atmosphere is filtered and passed through a diffuser before reaching the two chambers.
  • C. One chamber is with a magnetic field and the other without a magnetic field.
  • D. A difference in the thermal conductivity of the oxygen with respect to air is developed and this causes an imbalance in the resistance.
Answer: D — A difference in the thermal conductivity of the oxygen with respect to air is developed and this causes an imbalance in the resistance.

12. The ________ depends upon the pressure of contact exerted on live wires.

  • A. voltage
  • B. current
  • C. impedance
  • D. power
Answer: C — impedance

13. What is related to the relaxation time of the material in which the electical charges are accumulated?

  • A. That material's density
  • B. That material's viscosity
  • C. That material's conductivity
  • D. That material's flammabilty
Answer: C — That material's conductivity

14. Operating Principle of the Infrared instrument: identify the key principle that leads to detection of hydrocarbon gas,

  • A. The amount of absorption is related to the concentration of the gas and is measured by a set of optical detectors and suitable electronic systems.
  • B. The change in the intensity of the absorbed light is measured relative to the intensity of light at a non-absorbed wavelength.
  • C. When there is no gas present the signals of reference signal detector and measurement signal detector are balanced.
  • D. When there is combustible gas present, there is a predictable drop in the output from measurement signal detector because the gas is absorbing light.
Answer: D — When there is combustible gas present, there is a predictable drop in the output from measurement signal detector because the gas is absorbing light.

15. When using a permit to work system one must make how many copies of the permit ?

  • A. One copy
  • B. Two copies
  • C. Three copies
  • D. Four copies
Answer: B — Two copies

16. A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of _________.

  • A. skimmers
  • B. dispersants
  • C. straw
  • D. sawdust
Answer: B — dispersants

17. A liquid-filled pressure vacuum breaker

  • A. is fitted on the tank dome
  • B. is fitted on the main deck a tanker
  • C. is fitted on the inert gas main line of a tanker
  • D. is fitted in the pump room
Answer: C — is fitted on the inert gas main line of a tanker

18. A thermoelectric detector:

  • A. Uses a heat sensor uses a fixed temperature stop
  • B. converts heat to electrical energy
  • C. detects a rise in tempetrature
  • D. uses a fixed temperature stop
Answer: B — converts heat to electrical energy

19. The vacuum strip system was developed on oil tankers to

  • A. remove all hydrocarbon gases from the tanks after discharging
  • B. prevent cavitation in centrifugal cargo pumps
  • C. quickly remove rain water collecting on deck
  • D. discharge cargo without any human intervention
Answer: B — prevent cavitation in centrifugal cargo pumps

20. Gas Dispersion through tank vents; There is a potential danger of fire and explosion if the flammable zone with emitted vapor reaches any location where there may be sources of ignition such as the follows; which one of these can be prevented easily by onboard systems?

  • A. Superstructures and accommodation blocks into which the gas can enter through doors, ports or ventilation intakes.
  • B. The cargo deck which, although it is usually regarded as free of sources of ignition, is a work area and thoroughfare.
  • C. An adjacent jetty which, although it is usually regarded as free of sources of ignition, is a work area and thoroughfare.
  • D. Adjacent vessels such as lightering ships, bunker and stores craft, pilot and crew transfer boats.
Answer: A — Superstructures and accommodation blocks into which the gas can enter through doors, ports or ventilation intakes.

21. A stripping pump is fitted in the pump room so that

  • A. the last remaining traces of liquid can be pumped out from the tanks, pipelines and pumps
  • B. cargo from the tanks can be discharged if the main pumps should fail
  • C. the liquids collected in the bilge can be pumped out
  • D. slops can be discharged overboard at a slow rate
Answer: A — the last remaining traces of liquid can be pumped out from the tanks, pipelines and pumps

22. Tanks of tankers do not exceed:

  • A. 0.1 of ship’s length
  • B. 0.15 of ship’s length
  • C. 0.2 of ship’s length
  • D. 0.25 of ship’s length
Answer: C — 0.2 of ship’s length

23. What do you understand from the term "Bleed off COW" ?

  • A. The process of pressure testing the COW lines onboard
  • B. The process of diverting part of cargo discharged for reducing rate
  • C. The process of diverting part of cargo discharged for crude oil washing
  • D. The process of draining oil from the COW lines after washing
Answer: C — The process of diverting part of cargo discharged for crude oil washing

24. The pipeline system that has valves fitted on bulkheads is called:

  • A. The direct line system
  • B. The free flow system
  • C. The ring main system
  • D. The free line system
Answer: B — The free flow system

25. Before gas freeing operations the hydrocarbon content is reduced to:

  • A. to 15% or less by volume
  • B. to 10% or less by volume
  • C. to 8% or less by volume
  • D. to 2% or less by volume
Answer: D — to 2% or less by volume

26. Turbidity:

  • A. is an optical characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
  • B. is a motion characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
  • C. is a refractive characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
  • D. is a characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
Answer: A — is an optical characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid

27. Tank bulkheads on a tanker are strengthened using:

  • A. Web frames, transverse webs and stringers.
  • B. Longitudinals, transverse webs and stringers.
  • C. Web frames, transverse webs and gusset plates.
  • D. Gusset plates, transverse webs and longitudinals
Answer: A — Web frames, transverse webs and stringers.

28. What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank?

  • A. Centrifugal pump
  • B. Eductor
  • C. Rotary pump
  • D. Reciprocating pump
Answer: A — Centrifugal pump

29. Deep tanks on oil tankers are used normally to carry

  • A. nothing at all
  • B. additional ballast in bad weather
  • C. extra bunkers for long international voyages
  • D. more cargo for increasing freight
Answer: C — extra bunkers for long international voyages

30. The main purpose of introducing double hull design in tankers was

  • A. to offer an extra layer of protection against environmental pollution
  • B. to increase the light weight of ship and reduce ballast required
  • C. to allow ships to navigate with reduced UKC without worrying about pollution
  • D. to increase the cargo carrying capacity of the ship with same dimensions
Answer: A — to offer an extra layer of protection against environmental pollution

Set 11 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. Quick Closing Valve: identify the purpose of such a valve,

  • A. Fuel oil gravity tanks must be fitted with valves that can be closed rapidly and remotely in the event of an emergency such as a fire.
  • B. Quick closing valves can be wire operated mechanically from outside the engineroom
  • C. Quick closing valves can behydraulically or pneumaticallyoperated from outside the engineroom
  • D. Quick closing valves are not usedfor throttle purpose
Answer: A — Fuel oil gravity tanks must be fitted with valves that can be closed rapidly and remotely in the event of an emergency such as a fire.

2. Which of the following is true about eductors?

  • A. They can be used only when there is a good level of liquid in the tank to be pumped out
  • B. Sea water can be used as drive and crude oil pumped out from the tanks
  • C. They sometimes make high vibrations and even lead to pipeline and gauge damage
  • D. A long preparation is required before eductor can be put to use
Answer: C — They sometimes make high vibrations and even lead to pipeline and gauge damage

3. Which one of the following is not a piping system found on an oil tanker?

  • A. Ring main system
  • B. Integrated system
  • C. Direct line system
  • D. Free flow system
Answer: B — Integrated system

4. The purpose of a cofferdam between two compartments is to

  • A. store tools and equipment that are necessary for the adjacent compartments
  • B. give access to the bulkhead for inspection and repairs when the tanks are full with liquid
  • C. keep a reserve space if capacity of either compartment needs to be increased
  • D. prevent different liquids from the two tanks coming in contact in case of a leak
Answer: D — prevent different liquids from the two tanks coming in contact in case of a leak

5. Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that

  • A. the forced ventilating system is operating
  • B. the cargo pumps are secured
  • C. no mono carbon gases are present
  • D. the oily water separator is de-energized
Answer: A — the forced ventilating system is operating

6. The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the

  • A. Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
  • B. Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
  • C. Code of Federal Regulations
  • D. Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection
Answer: B — Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual

7. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

  • A. Less than the flammable range
  • B. Within the flammable range
  • C. Over the flammable range
  • D. The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading.
Answer: C — Over the flammable range

8. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?

  • A. IOPP certificate
  • B. Oil Record Book
  • C. SOPEP
  • D. Safety Management Certificate
Answer: D — Safety Management Certificate

9. Which of the following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil mixtures from ships into the sea?

  • A. The ship must be proceeding en route
  • B. The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
  • C. The oily mixture is processed through an oil filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of Annex-1
  • D. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 15 ppm
Answer: B — The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land

10. Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?

  • A. Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
  • B. Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks
  • C. Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks
  • D. Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied
Answer: B — Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks

11. Ballast water exchange should be done:

  • A. at least 100 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 100 metres in depth.
  • B. at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 100 metres in depth.
  • C. at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 200 metres in depth.
  • D. at least 100 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 200 metres in depth.
Answer: C — at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 200 metres in depth.

12. As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in

  • A. Any of the tanks without any restriction
  • B. Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
  • C. Deep tanks in protective locations
  • D. Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship's side
Answer: C — Deep tanks in protective locations

13. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is

  • A. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content
  • B. makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) capable of supporting combustion
  • C. in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis
  • D. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)
Answer: D — incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)

14. Reid vapor pressure is __________.

  • A. exerted by liquid cargo on the sides of a tank
  • B. exerted by liquid cargo on a cargo hose body
  • C. the lowest temperature and pressure that will cause a flammable liquid to give off vapors
  • D. a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature
Answer: D — a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature

15. The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a ___________.

  • A. suction end
  • B. strainer
  • C. bell-mouth
  • D. vacuum valve
Answer: C — bell-mouth

16. The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is

  • A. the most common method used
  • B. too expensive for common use
  • C. generally safe to sea life
  • D. authorized only with prior approval
Answer: D — authorized only with prior approval

17. High level and overfill tank alarms are set:

  • A. as per the ships cargo system
  • B. to values as recommended by the manufacturer
  • C. to values depending on cargo type
  • D. to values as recommended by the ISGOTT guide
Answer: B — to values as recommended by the manufacturer

18. The term "oil" as used in the Oil Pollution Regulations means

  • A. fuel oil
  • B. sludge
  • C. oil refuse
  • D. fan speed
Answer: C — oil refuse

19. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines?

  • A. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank.
  • B. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
  • C. The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days.
  • D. The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%.
Answer: A — At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank.

20. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry

  • A. Crude oil and other dirty oils
  • B. Crude oil alongwith some refined products
  • C. Crude oil only
  • D. Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also
Answer: C — Crude oil only

21. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is

  • A. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)
  • B. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)
  • C. capable of supporting a fire once started
  • D. not safe for ballasting
Answer: A — incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)

22. While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then

  • A. enter the tank safely
  • B. suspect the accuracy of the reading
  • C. ventilate the tank
  • D. test for nitrogen
Answer: B — suspect the accuracy of the reading

23. As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry

  • A. Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
  • B. Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
  • C. A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
  • D. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
Answer: A — Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks

24. The main function of a stripping system is to

  • A. maintain the temperature of the cargo throughout the vessel
  • B. dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks
  • C. increase the loading rate of the shoreside pumps
  • D. discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk
Answer: D — discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk

25. Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a

  • A. wooden plug
  • B. soft rubber plug
  • C. two-piece soft patch
  • D. mechanical means of closing
Answer: B — soft rubber plug

26. During loading and discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of

  • A. 50 millimeters of water pressure
  • B. 25 millimeters of water pressure
  • C. 100 millimeters of water pressure
  • D. 5 millimeters of water pressure
Answer: C — 100 millimeters of water pressure

27. When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would

  • A. absorb the oil for easy removal
  • B. dissolve the oil in the water
  • C. facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water
  • D. sink the oil
Answer: C — facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water

28. In developing the stability booklet, consideration must be given to including the following information: which one of these will be most important prior sailing out?

  • A. Tank sounding tables showing capacities, vertical centers of gravity, and longitudinal centers of gravity in graduated intervals and showing free surface data for each tank.
  • B. Information on maximum KG or minimum GM curve that can be used to determine compliance with applicable intact and damage stability criteria.
  • C. A rapid and simple means for evaluating other loading conditions.
  • D. A brief description of the stability calculations done including assumptions.
Answer: C — A rapid and simple means for evaluating other loading conditions.

29. One of the requirements of a vessel’s intact stability criteria is that:

  • A. The GZ should be at least 0.15 metres at an angle of 25 degrees or more
  • B. The GZ should be at least 0.15 metres at an angle of 30 degrees or more
  • C. The GZ should be at least 0.20 metres at an angle of 25 degrees or more
  • D. The GZ should be at least 0.20 metres at an angle of 30 degrees or more
Answer: D — The GZ should be at least 0.20 metres at an angle of 30 degrees or more

30. As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues

  • A. 150 tonnes deadweight
  • B. 150 gross tonnage
  • C. 400 tonnes deadweight
  • D. 400 gross tonnage
Answer: D — 400 gross tonnage

Set 12 — 30 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air is known as the _________.

  • A. fire point
  • B. flash point
  • C. lower explosive limit
  • D. threshold limit value
Answer: B — flash point

2. The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must

  • A. operate in unison with other alarms
  • B. be both audible and visual
  • C. be the same as the overfill alarm
  • D. sound when the tank is 90% full
Answer: B — be both audible and visual

3. What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?

  • A. Reduce the loading rate.
  • B. Notify the engine room of the procedure.
  • C. Maintain communications with the dock man.
  • D. Give the operation your undivided attention.
Answer: B — Notify the engine room of the procedure.

4. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the

  • A. auto-ignition point
  • B. flash point
  • C. lower explosive limit (LEL)
  • D. threshold limit value (TLV)
Answer: C — lower explosive limit (LEL)

5. What is the material used in cargo pump?

  • A. EN 8
  • B. Bronze
  • C. Aluminium
  • D. Stainless steel
Answer: D — Stainless steel

6. What happens in the volute casing of the centrifugal pump?

  • A. Pressure energy converted into Kinetic energy
  • B. Velocity of the liquid increases
  • C. Kinetic energy converted into pressure energy
  • D. Air bubbles are produced, creating cavitation
Answer: C — Kinetic energy converted into pressure energy

7. What type of pump, the FRAMO system uses for liquid chemical cargo?

  • A. Reciprocating pump
  • B. Variable delivery axial flow pump
  • C. Centrifugal pump
  • D. Gear pump
Answer: C — Centrifugal pump

8. Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant.

  • A. cargo pump failure
  • B. blower failure
  • C. deck seal low water level
  • D. low inert gas temperature
Answer: B — blower failure

9. Cargoes carried by a tanker as miscellaneous liquids are

  • A. Palm oil, molasses, tallow
  • B. Soybean oil, Sunflower oil, Other vegetable oils
  • C. Animals oils, Grease
  • D. Freshwater, Wine, Beer
Answer: D — Freshwater, Wine, Beer

10. The organic chemical liquids are

  • A. Phosphoric acid, Hydrochloric acid, Molten sulfur
  • B. Tallow and greases, Molasses, Wine
  • C. Boric acid, Sulfuric acid, Caustic soda
  • D. Vinyl chloride, Acetone, Acetic acid
Answer: D — Vinyl chloride, Acetone, Acetic acid

11. The chemical liquids may be categorized as

  • A. Organic or Inorganic
  • B. Volatile or Non-volatile
  • C. Flammable or combustible
  • D. Petroleum or special
Answer: A — Organic or Inorganic

12. Why personal protective equipment may be required when a chemical tanker carry high vapor pressure cargo?

  • A. Because high vapor pressure releases more vapor
  • B. Because high vapor pressure releases less vapor
  • C. Because high vapor pressure releases hot vapor
  • D. Because high vapor pressure releases cold vapor
Answer: A — Because high vapor pressure releases more vapor

13. Molarity = Number of moles of solute per

  • A. Solvent in kilograms
  • B. Solution in litres
  • C. Mililitres
  • D. Litres
Answer: B — Solution in litres

14. Vegetable and animal oils may vary in composition and the most important factor is their free fatty acid content, which greatly affects

  • A. The carriage pressure
  • B. The cargo pumping rate
  • C. The suitability of coatings
  • D. The cargo tank atmosphere
Answer: C — The suitability of coatings

15. What is the effect of intermolecular forces on vapor pressure?

  • A. Relatively strong force will increase vapor pressure
  • B. Relatively strong force will decrease vapor pressure
  • C. Relatively weak force will decrease vapor pressure
  • D. Relatively weak force does not have any effect on vapor pressure
Answer: B — Relatively strong force will decrease vapor pressure

16. Specific gravity is used by the American Petroleum Institute (API) to classify various

  • A. Viscosities of oil
  • B. Vapor densities of oil
  • C. Weights of oil
  • D. Volumes of oil
Answer: C — Weights of oil

17. Vegetable and animal oils may vary in composition. The most important factor is their

  • A. Alkalinity content
  • B. Hydrocarbon content
  • C. Composition
  • D. Free fatty acid content
Answer: D — Free fatty acid content

18. System in which both matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is

  • A. Open system
  • B. Closed system
  • C. Surrounding
  • D. Isolated system
Answer: A — Open system

19. Combustion of carbon is an example for

  • A. Exothermic reaction
  • B. Endothermic reaction
  • C. Reversible reaction
  • D. Irreversible reaction
Answer: A — Exothermic reaction

20. Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from

  • A. Liquid to the gas phase & Vice versa
  • B. Solid to the Liquid phase & Vice versa
  • C. Gas to the super heated gas phase & Vice versa
  • D. Solid to the gas phase & Vice versa
Answer: D — Solid to the gas phase & Vice versa

21. The change in the internal energy is represented as

  • A. ∆U
  • B. ∆H
  • C. ∆G
  • D. ∆T
Answer: A — ∆U

22. Bottle A contains a dilute solution of vinegar and bottle B contains sodium carbonate solution, the colours seen in pH paper dipped in A and B are :

  • A. orange, blue
  • B. green, blue
  • C. blue, orange
  • D. orange, green
Answer: A — orange, blue

23. Which process does not result in the formation of both carbon dioxide and water?

  • A. addition of a dilute acid to a carbonate
  • B. burning ethanol
  • C. burning methane
  • D. heating crystals of hydrated sodium carbonate
Answer: A — addition of a dilute acid to a carbonate

24. In a volumetric experiment involving the addition of hydrochloric acid to 25.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide it is necessary to determine when the reaction is just complete. Which piece of apparatus could be used to determine the end-point of the reaction

  • A. balance
  • B. gas syringe
  • C. stop watch
  • D. thermometer
Answer: D — thermometer

25. Which compound in a 1 mol/dm3 solution has the lowest pH value?

  • A. ethanoic acid
  • B. hydrogen chloride
  • C. sodium chloride
  • D. sodium hydroxide
Answer: B — hydrogen chloride

26. In a binary homogeneous solution the component present in a _____ amount is called a solute.

  • A. smaller
  • B. Larger
  • C. fixed
  • D. miscible
Answer: A — smaller

27. The energy possesed by all the molecules or atoms is called

  • A. Internal energy
  • B. Enthalpy
  • C. Gibbs energy
  • D. Free energy
Answer: A — Internal energy

28. Indicators used in acid-base titrations are

  • A. strong organic acids
  • B. strong organic bases
  • C. weak organic acids or weak organic bases
  • D. non electrolysis
Answer: C — weak organic acids or weak organic bases

29. A bee sting is acidic. Which household substance will neutralise a bee sting?

  • A. damp bicarbonate of soda pH8
  • B. damp common salt pH7
  • C. lemon juice pH5
  • D. vinegar pH4
Answer: A — damp bicarbonate of soda pH8

30. The complex group of liquid cargoes that includes alcohols, ketones, glycols, esters, ethers, aromatic hydrocarbons, chlorinated hydrocarbons, etc. are known as

  • A. Solvents and Chemicals
  • B. White Oil
  • C. Non-petroleum oil
  • D. Other chemicals
Answer: A — Solvents and Chemicals

Set 13 — 17 CHEMCO exit exam questions with answers

1. In solid solution, solute can be _______

  • A. Liquid and Gas
  • B. Liquid or gas
  • C. Only solid
  • D. Only liquid
Answer: A — Liquid and Gas

2. Mixture of two or more substance in which composition can vary within a limit is called -------------------solution.

  • A. Homogenous
  • B. Heterogenous
  • C. Nonvenomous
  • D. Colloids are homogeneous mixtures where the particles are small enough that they stay suspended.
Answer: A — Homogenous

3. Which statement does not describe a property of a weak acid in solution?

  • A. It forms a salt with sodium hydroxide.
  • B. It has a pH of between 8 and 9.
  • C. It is only partly dissociated into ions.
  • D. It reacts with sodium carbonate to give off carbon dioxide.
Answer: B — It has a pH of between 8 and 9.

4. Lube oils and additives group of cargoes (excluding halogenated, phosphated, and ester types) usually poses no problems for carriage in coated cargo tanks, but contamination of cargo may be a problem which requires

  • A. Thorough venting of tanks during carriage
  • B. Thorough cleaning and drying of tanks after discharging
  • C. Thorough inerting of tanks before loading
  • D. Thorough cleaning and drying of tanks before loading
Answer: D — Thorough cleaning and drying of tanks before loading

5. When does an atom form ions ?

  • A. Ions are formed when atoms lose or gain electrons
  • B. When atoms lose electrons they become negatively charged ions and are named cations
  • C. When atoms gain electrons they are negatively charged and are named anions.
  • D. The number of electrons in an ion is different from the number of protons, thus ion does have an overall electric charge.
Answer: B — When atoms lose electrons they become negatively charged ions and are named cations

6. The reaction which absorbs the chemical energy is,

  • A. Forward reaction
  • B. Reverse reaction
  • C. Exothermic reaction
  • D. Endothermic reaction
Answer: D — Endothermic reaction

7. Cargoes should not be loaded into a tank that is not specially for that purpose; if it exceeds normal atmospheric pressure at

  • A. 60.0 Deg C (140 Deg F)
  • B. 15.6 Deg C (60 Deg F)
  • C. 25.0 Deg C (77 Deg F)
  • D. 37.8 Deg C (100 Deg F)
Answer: D — 37.8 Deg C (100 Deg F)

8. Colder liquids hold more _________ than warmer liquid.

  • A. Gases
  • B. Liquid
  • C. Pressure
  • D. Water
Answer: A — Gases

9. In exothermic reactions heat is released due to ______ taking place in them.

  • A. Cyclic reaction
  • B. Irreversible reaction
  • C. Physical reaction
  • D. Chemical reaction
Answer: D — Chemical reaction

10. The system which contains uniform or same physical state of its matter is a

  • A. Homogeneous system
  • B. Hetrogeneous system
  • C. Mixture
  • D. Unisystem
Answer: A — Homogeneous system

11. In exothermic reactions, the amount of energy required for a chemical reaction is

  • A. Equal to the the total energy released
  • B. Greater than the total energy released
  • C. Less than the total energy released
  • D. Zero
Answer: C — Less than the total energy released

12. The colour of the pH paper strip turned red when it was dipped into a sample. The sample could be:

  • A. dil. Na2CO3 solution
  • B. tap water
  • C. dil. NaOH solution
  • D. dil. HCI acid
Answer: D — dil. HCI acid

13. Which reactants could be used safely to prepare potassium chloride?

  • A. aqueous potassium hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
  • B. aqueous potassium sulphate and aqueous sodium chloride
  • C. potassium and aqueous sodium chloride
  • D. potassium and dilute hydrochloric acid
Answer: A — aqueous potassium hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid

14. Modified epoxy or zinc silicate coated tanks may be required to carry some

  • A. Lub oils
  • B. Vegitable oils
  • C. Unleaded Gasolines
  • D. Animal oils
Answer: C — Unleaded Gasolines

15. The product of coefficient of viscosity, surface area and the velocity difference between layers of flowing liquid is

  • A. Viscosity of Liquid
  • B. Force of friction between liquid layers
  • C. Velocity of the fluid
  • D. Vapor pressure of liquid
Answer: B — Force of friction between liquid layers

16. The reaction which releases the chemical energy is

  • A. Forward reaction
  • B. Reverse reaction
  • C. Exothermic reaction
  • D. Endothermic reaction
Answer: C — Exothermic reaction

17. Some of these Solvents and Chemicals products require extreme care in the choice of

  • A. Tank material
  • B. Tank construction
  • C. Tank coating and cargo handling
  • D. Type of cargo pumps
Answer: C — Tank coating and cargo handling

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