CHEMCO exit exam questions and answers — Advanced Training for Chemical Tanker Cargo Operations

1. Which IMO Code regulates the carriage of dangerous chemicals in bulk on chemical tankers?

• A. IMSBC Code
• B. IGC Code
• C. IBC Code
• D. IMDG Code

2. Under MARPOL Annex II, which pollution category presents the major hazard to human health or marine resources?

• A. Category Y
• B. OS (Other Substances)
• C. Category Z
• D. Category X

3. What test is performed on tank bulkhead surfaces to detect microscopic hydrocarbon residues before loading sensitive chemical cargoes?

• A. Hydrostatic pressure test
• B. Magnetic particle test
• C. Ultrasonic thickness test
• D. Wall Wash Test (WWT)

4. What type of chemical tanker skin/tank construction is required for carrying high-hazard cargoes like Isocyanates?

• A. Type 2 chemical tanker
• B. Single hull barge
• C. Type 3 chemical tanker
• D. Open deck vessel

5. What material is widely used for cargo tanks carrying aggressive acids such as Nitric or Phosphoric acid?

• A. Stainless Steel (e.g. 316L, Duplex 2205)
• B. Aluminum alloy
• C. Zinc silicate coating
• D. Mild carbon steel

6. What is the key limitation of Zinc Silicate tank coatings in chemical tankers?

• A. Highly flammable surface coating
• B. Incompatible with acids and strong alkalis (pH limits usually 6 to 10)
• C. Cannot handle aromatic solvents like Benzene
• D. Melts at room temperature

7. What document must be maintained on board detailing all chemical cargo loading, discharging, tank washing, and slop handling?

• A. Radio Log Book
• B. Cargo Record Book (CRB)
• C. Bell Book
• D. Engine Log Book

8. What is self-polymerization in chemical cargoes?

• A. Dissolving of cargo into seawater
• B. Freezing of liquid into crystal ice
• C. Evaporation of cargo into atmosphere
• D. Chemical reaction where monomer molecules join to form long polymers, generating intense heat

9. What mandatory document provides chemical property, health hazard, reactivity, and emergency response data for a chemical cargo?

• A. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
• B. Tonnage Certificate
• C. Crew List
• D. Customs Manifest

10. What system is used to purge chemical lines and maintain an inert nitrogen cushion over moisture-sensitive cargoes?

• A. Steam lance system
• B. Seawater flushing system
• C. Nitrogen padding / inerting system
• D. Compressed air blower

11. What is Threshold Limit Value - Time Weighted Average (TLV-TWA)?

• A. Safe airborne exposure concentration for normal 8-hour workday and 40-hour workweek
• B. Maximum limit for 1 minute
• C. Pressure limit
• D. Temperature limit

12. What chemical cargo reaction occurs when two incompatible cargoes contact each other?

• A. Sublimation
• B. Condensation
• C. Incompatible chemical reactivity producing toxic fumes, heat, or explosion
• D. Freezing

13. What is mandatory prior to personnel entering a chemical cargo tank for inspection?

• A. Washing with seawater
• B. Verbal permission from cook
• C. Tank gas-freeing, atmospheric testing for O2 (20.9%), toxic gas (0 ppm), LEL (0%), and Enclosed Space Entry Permit
• D. Opening main valve

14. What personal protective equipment is required during chemical cargo sampling of toxic substances?

• A. Leather apron
• B. Chemical suit, boots, face shield/goggles, chemical resistant gloves, and organic vapor mask or SCBA
• C. Short sleeves
• D. Standard coveralls

15. What equipment must be available near chemical cargo manifolds during transfer operations?

• A. Steam boiler
• B. Radio receiver
• C. Paint spray machine
• D. Emergency safety shower and eye-wash station

16. What is the P&A Manual on a chemical tanker?

• A. Pump manual
• B. Procedures and Arrangements Manual approved by Flag State Administration
• C. Port anchorage guide
• D. Personnel manual

17. What device is installed on chemical tank venting systems to prevent over-pressure or vacuum?

• A. Check valve
• B. High-velocity Pressure/Vacuum (P/V) valve
• C. Globe valve
• D. Needle valve

18. What cargo stripping result is required for modern Type 2 chemical tankers built after May 2007 carrying Category X, Y, Z cargoes?

• A. Maximum residue remaining per tank must not exceed 75 liters
• B. 1000 liters
• C. 5 cubic meters
• D. No limit

19. What is the function of a toxic gas detector tube system (e.g. Dräger tube)?

• A. Test battery
• B. Measure oil viscosity
• C. Measure specific chemical vapor concentrations in ppm by colorimetric reaction
• D. Measure salinity

20. Why are efficient stripping systems essential on chemical tankers?

• A. Increase ship speed
• B. Minimize cargo residue left in tanks prior to mandatory pre-wash or commercial cleaning
• C. Cool engine room
• D. Fill ballast tanks

21. What is the purpose of a mandatory pre-wash under MARPOL Annex II?

• A. Clean windows
• B. Polish steel
• C. Remove high-viscosity or solidifying Category X / Y residues to shore reception
• D. Wash deck

22. What is the Permanganate Time Test used for in chemical tank cleaning?

• A. Test oxygen concentration
• B. Test fuel sulfur
• C. Test water temp
• D. Detect trace presence of oxidizable organic impurities after cleaning for high-purity alcohol cargoes

23. What code specifies medical emergency response steps for chemical accidents on ships?

• A. SOLAS Chapter V
• B. STCW Reg I/9
• C. MARPOL Annex VI
• D. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)

24. What type of cargo pump is fitted inside individual stainless steel chemical cargo tanks?

• A. Deepwell centrifugal pump
• B. Steam duplex pump
• C. Hand pump
• D. Gear pump

25. Why is water prohibited for cleaning tanks after carrying Concentrated Sulfuric Acid?

• A. Water freezes
• B. Water turns steel into wood
• C. Water reacts exothermically generating extreme heat and corrosive splattering
• D. Water turns acid into rock

26. What is a Certificate of Fitness for the Carriage of Dangerous Chemicals in Bulk?

• A. Crew medical fitness
• B. Engine overhaul certificate
• C. Statutory certificate listing all specific chemical products approved for carriage
• D. Pilot license

27. What is the function of inert gas on chemical tankers carrying cargoes with flashpoints below 60°C?

• A. Change color
• B. Dissolve fumes
• C. Maintain oxygen concentration below 8% to prevent flammability
• D. Heat cargo

28. What hazard is associated with Benzene cargo exposure?

• A. Turns skin blue
• B. Known human carcinogen causing leukemia and bone marrow damage
• C. Heavy metal poisoning
• D. Non-toxic

29. What is closed gauging on a chemical tanker?

• A. Opening tank lids
• B. Measuring by draft
• C. Eye sight measuring
• D. Measuring cargo level using vapor-tight devices without releasing toxic vapors

30. What chemical condition causes Phenol to solidify at temperatures below 40°C?

• A. Nitrogen reaction
• B. High melting point (~41°C) requiring continuous heating during transit
• C. High water content
• D. Evaporation

1. What chemical cargo property is defined as the lowest temperature at which liquid emits flammable vapor?

• A. Flashpoint
• B. Auto-ignition temp
• C. Pour point
• D. Boiling point

2. What is the function of a toxic vapor return line during chemical loading?

• A. Return displaced toxic/flammable tank vapors to shore treatment plant
• B. Supply fresh water
• C. Return liquid cargo
• D. Equalize electric grounds

3. What is the role of an Inhibitor Certificate for chemical cargoes prone to polymerization?

• A. Certifies engine power
• B. Waives safety checks
• C. Authorizes high speed
• D. Certifies inhibitor name, concentration, date added, duration of effectiveness, and temp limits

4. What type of personal protective suit provides complete gas-tight isolation against fatal chemical atmospheres?

• A. Raincoat
• B. Leather jacket
• C. Gas-tight Type 1 (Level A) chemical suit with internal SCBA
• D. Cotton boiler suit

5. What is the maximum allowed discharge rate of Category Y cargo residues under MARPOL Annex II outside Special Areas?

• A. Direct at jetty
• B. Ship speed min 7 knots, below waterline discharge, distance > 12 nm from coast, water depth > 25 m
• C. Any speed in port
• D. 100 knots

6. What material coating is ruined if cleaned using high-pressure hot water above 60°C containing alkaline soaps?

• A. Teak wood deck
• B. Stainless steel
• C. Epoxy tank coatings
• D. Copper piping

7. What is the function of a cargo tank cofferdam on a chemical tanker?

• A. Stores drinking water
• B. Collects rainwater
• C. Isolates chemical cargo tanks from accommodation, machinery spaces, or incompatible liquid tanks
• D. Holds spare engine pistons

8. What instrument measures relative humidity and dew point inside cargo tanks before loading moisture-sensitive chemicals?

• A. Barometer
• B. Chronometer
• C. Anemometer
• D. Electronic Hygrometer / Dew point meter

9. What action should be taken if Caustic Soda splashes into a seafarer's eye?

• A. Immediately flush eye with clean fresh water at eyewash station for at least 15-20 minutes
• B. Rub eye with rag
• C. Apply engine oil
• D. Close eye until tomorrow

10. What is the function of high level and overfill alarms on chemical cargo tanks?

• A. Provide audible/visual warnings at 95% and 98% capacity to prevent overflow
• B. Measure ship roll
• C. Signal pump room light
• D. Indicate empty tank

11. What is the primary danger of Nitrogen gas used for inerting chemical tanks?

• A. Flammable explosion
• B. Green skin
• C. Acid burns
• D. Oxygen displacement causing rapid asphyxiation and unconsciousness without warning

12. What chemical cargo term describes liquids that produce severe lung damage if vapors are inhaled?

• A. Respiratory toxic / Pulmonary edema hazard
• B. Mineral water
• C. Viscous liquid
• D. Sweet scent

13. What type of sampling equipment is used when taking chemical samples without opening tank hatches?

• A. Closed-loop vapor lock sampling valve with portable sampling bottle
• B. Open bucket
• C. Glass cup
• D. Soup ladle

14. What document lists compatibility restrictions when planning stowage of multiple chemical cargoes?

• A. Engine manual
• B. Suez pass
• C. Load line certificate
• D. USCG Chemical Compatibility Chart / IBC Code Matrix

15. What is the function of a tank washing machine on chemical tankers?

• A. Sandblasting
• B. Paint spraying
• C. High-pressure rotary water jets to wash chemical residues off bulkheads
• D. Bilge pumping

16. Why must cargo pumps and pipelines be thoroughly blown down with air/N2 after cargo discharge?

• A. Increase pressure
• B. Cool main engine
• C. Clear liquid pockets from piping to prevent contamination and line freezing
• D. Clean hull

17. What is Short Term Exposure Limit (STEL)?

• A. 1 year limit
• B. 24 hour limit
• C. Ignition temp
• D. Maximum allowable concentration for continuous 15-minute exposure period

18. What system prevents static electricity accumulation during high-rate loading of non-conducting chemical solvents?

• A. Max speed pumping
• B. Spraying water
• C. Restricting initial loading rate (flow velocity < 1 m/s) and grounding/bonding lines
• D. Opening hatches

19. What step is taken if a chemical cargo tank lining shows extensive breakdown and rust spots?

• A. Fill with seawater
• B. Paint household paint
• C. Tank must be de-gassed, cleaned, grit-blasted, and re-coated before loading compatible cargo
• D. Ignore rust

20. Who is responsible for supervising all chemical cargo operations and safety checks on board?

• A. Chief Cook
• B. Steward
• C. Chief Officer / Designated Cargo Officer
• D. Deck Cadet

21. You are preparing to contain an oil spill. You must first receive approval from the coastal authorities prior to __________.

• A. employing a boom
• B. using suction equipment
• C. applying chemical agents
• D. deploying skimmers

22. Your vessel is taking on fuel when a small leak develops in the hose. You order the pumping stopped. Before you resume pumping, you should

• A. notify the terminal superintendent
• B. place a large drip pan under the leak and plug the scuppers
• C. repair the hose with a patch
• D. replace the hose

23. If you detect oil in the water around your vessel while discharging fuel, the FIRST thing to do is _________ .

• A. try to find out where the oil is coming from
• B. call the Master
• C. have the pumpman check the discharge piping
• D. shutdown operations

24. Containment and Damage Control: which step is of highest importance for spill/damage control?

• A. All personnel entering a contaminated space shall wear PPE
• B. Actions toward controlling the immediate spread of the spill
• C. For each pair entering a space, a trained person with appropriate equipment, will be on standby.
• D. Action steps minimizing the impact to the ship and crew.

25. What assigns for each new ship a calculable figure that will denote its total emissions of CO2 from combustion of fuel.

• A. Energy Efficiency Design Index
• B. Energy Inefficiency Design Index
• C. SOX Design Index
• D. VOX Design Index

26. When did Annex VI take effect?

• A. May 19, 2005
• B. October 12, 1991
• C. February 25, 1997
• D. July 3, 2015

27. The extent of MARPOL compliance is determined by:

• A. Vessel type, size and speed
• B. Vessel flag, type and age
• C. Vessel type, size and crew
• D. Vessel type, size and age

28. When you have completed bunkering operations, the hoses should be _________.

• A. blown down with inert gas
• B. drained into drip pans or tanks
• C. stowed with their ends open for venting
• D. steam cleaned and flushed with hot water

29. What annex deals with regulations for the prevention of air pollution from ships?

• A. Annex IV
• B. Annex III
• C. Annex I
• D. Annex VI

30. What is the most important regulatory requirement for the master arriving at the lightering position?

• A. Lightering of Oil and Hazardous Material Cargoes Pre-arrival notices.
• B. Reporting of incidents.
• C. Designation of lightering zones.
• D. Factors considered in designating lightering zones.

1. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by

• A. equipment failure
• B. human error
• C. major casualties
• D. unforeseeable circumstances

2. Containment and Damage Control: identify which step is of the highest importance for personal protection?

• A. Don required PPE as determined from the MSDS. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.
• B. Fight fire (if any), being careful to use firefighting methods compatible with the material involved.
• C. Shut off or otherwise stem the spill at the source.
• D. Contain liquid material using barriers, such as absorbents, rags or other equipment suitable to dam the flow.

3. What is used to incinerate solid and liquid wastes arising from the operation of the ship?

• A. Incinerator
• B. Oily water separation
• C. ISM Screen
• D. Fire Sprinkler Cleaner

4. Oil Pollution Regulations require any transfer, or discharge of oil, or oily mixtures be recorded in the

• A. Pollution Control Record
• B. Bridge log
• C. Oil Record book
• D. Masters log

5. The Volatile Organic Compound (cargo vapor) Management Plan is required on what type of vessel?

• A. Tank sensors
• B. Container vessels
• C. Ro-ro vessels
• D. Crude Oil Carriers

6. Your vessel is carrying 24,000 barrels (3816 cubic metres) of oil for discharge. The cargo hoses have an inside diameter of eight inches. The container around the loading manifold must hold _________.

• A. three barrels
• B. four barrels
• C. six barrels
• D. eight barrels

7. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill by using __________.

• A. a boom
• B. suction equipment
• C. chemical agents
• D. skimmers

8. The total quantity of oil discharged at sea on new tankers must not exceed:

• A. 1/15000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
• B. 1/20000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
• C. 1/25000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part
• D. 1/30000 of the total quantity of that particular cargo of which the residue formed part

9. A starting interlock in the ODME ensures

• A. the monitoring equipment is fully operational before commencing the discharge of the oil effluent at sea
• B. prevents malfunctioning of the system
• C. that an alarm is given off when the system malfunctions
• D. stops discharge of the oil effluent when the oil content exceeds 5 part per million

10. A gas venting system on a tanker that has gas lines in each tank connected to a common gas main running the full length of the ship is called:

• A. A gas-main system
• B. A common-main system
• C. A vent-main system
• D. An independent system

11. Pneumatically Operating Valve; what is the most critical component for correct valve operation, based on your shipboard experience of running such a system?

• A. Valve orifice
• B. The Diaphragm
• C. Valve stem
• D. The valve springs

12. Advantages of using inert gas, pick one that is the main reason for its application,

• A. No explosive mixtures can form in the tank.
• B. Reduces corrosion.
• C. Voyage cleaning of tanks is unnecessary.
• D. Reduces pumping time because of positive pressure in the tanks.

13. Cargo system Valves can be categorized in many ways: identify one operation that can be classified as, manual remote,

• A. Local or remote actuation: Local control means the operator is at the valve and controls it directly.
• B. When the valve is located some distance from the operator such as at the bottom of the cargo tank, it is then necessary to install a reach rod for remote actuation.
• C. A reach rod assembly is a series of steel rods coupled to connect the stem of the valve in the tank to a valve operating stand on deck.
• D. In automated cargo systems, the valves are frequently operated using hydraulic or pneumatic motors connected to the stem

14. Acidic solutions are formed in cargo tanks of tankers

• A. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with water
• B. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with oxygen
• C. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with hydrocarbon gas
• D. when sulphur compounds in oil cargoes react with chemicals

15. An inert gas generator burns what oil to generate inert gas ?

• A. Crude oil
• B. Gas oil
• C. Heavy oil
• D. Diesel oil

16. Back flow of inert gas is prevented by:

• A. An isolating valve
• B. The deck water seal
• C. A valve provided in the scrubber
• D. The deck mechanical non-return valve

17. Tank coating requirements developed by IMO are applicable to

• A. new crude oil tankers of 5000 GRT and above
• B. new crude oil tankers of 5000 DWT and above
• C. new crude oil tankers of 500 GRT and above
• D. new crude oil tankers of 500 DWT and above

18. A deepwell pump is a type of ___________.

• A. screw pump
• B. centrifugal pump
• C. eductor
• D. gear pump

19. Bottom washing:

• A. is done to remove traces of the previous cargo
• B. will remove heavy wax sediments at the tank bottom
• C. is not effective when carrying a small quantity of refined products
• D. cannot be done with chemical solvents

20. The total capacity of all slop tanks on an oil tanker normally should be

• A. 1% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
• B. 2% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
• C. 3% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship
• D. 4% of the total oil carrying capacity of ship

21. An inert gas system is required to be fitted:

• A. On all tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
• B. On product tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
• C. On crude oil tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight
• D. On chemical tankers of above 20,000 tonnes deadweight

22. Centrifugal pumps are otherwise known as

• A. Reciprocating pumps
• B. Gravity pumps
• C. Positive discplacement pumps
• D. Hydro-dynamic pumps

23. The ring main pipeline system is extensively used on:

• A. VLCCs
• B. Crude oil tankers
• C. Medium range tankers
• D. Product carriers

24. Class B fires are caused by

• A. combustible solids
• B. flammable liquids
• C. flammable gases
• D. electricity

25. Use of Pressure-Vacuum (PV) Relief Valve; label the diagram correctly,

• A. 1-IG Main; 2-Deck Isolating Valve ; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
• B. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- Vent Main; 3- IG Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
• C. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5- PV valve; 6- Tank Isolating Valve
• D. 1-Deck Isolating Valve; 2- IG Main; 3- Vent Main; 4- By-Pass Valve; 5 - Tank Isolating Valve; 6- PV valve

26. Cargo tank fill alarm indicator panels:

• A. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes on deck
• B. are normally fitted in the engine control room and sometimes on deck
• C. are normally fitted on the bridge and sometimes in the engine control room
• D. are normally fitted in the cargo control room and sometimes on deck

27. Identify the equipment in the IG system correctly,

• A. 1-O2 Analyzer ; 2-Demister; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
• B. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Air Intake-Gas Freeing; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Blowers
• C. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3 - Blowers ; 4- Regulating Valves; 5- Air Intake-Gas Freeing
• D. 1- Demister; 2-O2 Analyzer; 3-Regulating Valves; 4-Air Intake-Gas Freeing ; 5- Blowers

28. Tank level measurement by gauging tape and plumb bob: find the labeling combination that is correct,

• A. 1- Reference Point; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Innage
• B. 1- Reference Point; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Innage; 5- Ullage
• C. 1- Bob Cut; 2-Reference Point; 3-Tape Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Innage
• D. 1- Innage; 2-Tape Cut; 3-Bob Cut; 4-Ullage; 5- Reference Point

29. Cargo discharging: find a statement that ensures safe cargo discharging from start to finish,

• A. When the vessel arrives at the discharge port, the inert gas system should be tested and ready for operation in due time for discharge.
• B. Before pumping of cargo oil is started, the inert gas system should be in operation and connected to the deck line, with the pressure control in the "automatic" position.
• C. Cargo discharge should not be commenced until all the conditions have been checked; tanks should be re- pressurized if required
• D. During discharge the oxygen content and pressure of the inert gas in the inert gas main should be continuously recorded as per regulation.

30. Automatic shutdown systems independent of operator intervention: how to ensure that it will work correctly?

• A. Express approval for their use is required from both the flag administration and the port state authorities.
• B. Automatic shutdown systems are normally designed to shut the main cargo tank filling valve if the liquid level rises above the maximum level permitted.
• C. Ensure that the activation point is set accurately, and that the operation of the device is checked by simulation whenever the system is recommissioned.
• D. If the ship and shore shutdown circuits are to be linked their operation should be checked before cargo transfer begins; if not, the terminal should be informed of the closing rate of the ship's valves.

1. Statements on Float Gauges; identify the key statement of importance,

• A. Floats should be secured when at sea, except briefly during measurement of tank contents.
• B. If the float remains unsecured at sea it will almost certainly be damaged due to sloshing of the cargo
• C. Remote and local readings should be compared frequently to determine discrepancies;
• D. Readings may need to be corrected to allow for tape and tank expansion or contraction, and ship trim and heel. Tables are normally provided for this purpose

2. Several types of bobs connected to handheld tapes: Identify those correctly,

• A. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Plain Ullage Bob; 3-Extension Outage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob
• B. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Extension Outage Bob; 3-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob; 4-Plain Ullage Bob
• C. 1-Extension Outage Bob; 2-InnageBob ; 3-Plain Ullage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob
• D. 1-Innage Bob; 2-Extension Outage Bob; 3-Plain Ullage Bob; 4-Deep-grooved ullaged Bob

3. Example of cargo heating system: identify correct labelling

• A. 1-Steam Return Line; 2-Compressed Air Line ; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector
• B. 1-- Toxic Gas Detector; 2-Steam Return Line; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4-Compressed Air Line
• C. 1-Compressed Air Line; 2-Steam Return Line; 3- Steam Supply Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector
• D. 1-Steam Supply Line; 2-Steam Return Line; 3-Compressed Air Line; 4- Toxic Gas Detector

4. Inerting Operations:During normal operation of oil tankers the following operational modes frequently take place: find an operation that is required after tank cleaning during a ballast voyage and before loading

• A. Inerting of empty tanks
• B. Inerting during loading and simultaneous discharge of ballast
• C. Inerting during loaded sea voyage
• D. Inerting during discharging and ballasting

5. The terminal indicates to you that they are going to use a booster pump to assist the discharging operation. You start the discharge and in a few minutes the pressure drops sharply. This could be a result of the ___________.

• A. booster pump coming on the line and discharging properly
• B. booster pump failing to start
• C. ship's pump speeding up
• D. booster pump being lined up in the wrong direction

6. A restricted tank gauging system

• A. Allows limited amounts of vapour to escape
• B. Does not allow vapour to escape
• C. Uses a float gauge
• D. Does not use an ullage tape

7. The lowest temperature at which the liquid remains a fluid is called the:

• A. The flow point
• B. The pour point
• C. The melting point
• D. The Liquefaction point

8. An inert gas system installed on a tanker is designed to

• A. aid in the stripping and cleaning of cargo tanks
• B. increase the rate of discharge of cargo
• C. force toxic and explosive fumes from a cargo tank to vent to the outside atmosphere
• D. lower the oxygen levels inside cargo tanks, making explosion nearly impossible

9. For the purposes of cargo oil containment, the fixed container under the manifold of an eight-inch loading line must hold a minimum of

• A. three barrels
• B. four barrels
• C. six barrels
• D. eight barrels

10. What is the purpose of the relief valve of a cargo pump?

• A. Provides for the removal of vapors
• B. Allows two or more tanks to be filled at the same time
• C. Provides for the emergency shutdown of the pump
• D. Permits the return of cargo to the suction side of the pump

11. Identify correct labelling for Tanker VEC

• A. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Mast Riser; 4 - Deck water seal
• B. 1- P/V Valve; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- Deck water seal; 4- Mast Riser
• C. 1- Mast Riser; 2- P/V Breaker; 3- P/V Valve; - Deck water seal
• D. 1- P/V Valve; 2- Mast Riser; 3- P/V Breaker; 4 - Deck water seal

12. A single fitting installed in a pipeline that either blanks off the pipe or allows a full flow passage of a liquid through the pipe is referred to as a _____.

• A. blind flange
• B. pivot coupling
• C. quick-release coupling
• D. spectacle flange

13. Hydrocarbon gas normally encounted in petroleum tankers cannot burn in an atmosphere containing oxygen less than

• A. 2%
• B. 11%
• C. 5%
• D. 8%

14. Who is responsible for ensuring instruments are sent ashore for calibration when required ?

• A. The Company
• B. The Master
• C. The Safety Officer
• D. The Chief Officer

15. An on-board monitoring system, using level sensors permanently installed in each vessel compartment, will have a high level alarm set at not more than

• A. 90% of compartment capacity
• B. 95% of compartment capacity
• C. 97% of compartment capacity
• D. 99% of compartment capacity

16. The volatility of a flammable liquid is indicated by its

• A. ignition temperature
• B. flash point
• C. flammable range
• D. conversion index

17. Which action must be taken when an individual cargo tank is closed off from the inert gas system by the tank isolation valve?

• A. The tank must be gas freed.
• B. The tank must be ballasted.
• C. The tank must be vented to the atmosphere.
• D. The bypass valve must also be closed.

18. The purpose of inert gas systems aboard tankers is to

• A. allow sufficient oxygen in the tank to sustain life
• B. prevent outside air from entering the tank
• C. provide increase in cargo discharge pressure
• D. comply with double hull pollution prevention regulations

19. Before a tank is to be crude oil washed, the oxygen content in the tank must be measured at a position ________.

• A. immediately above the level of the oil
• B. at the top of the tank
• C. in the vent riser
• D. one meter from the deck

20. The explosive range of petroleum vapors mixed with air is

• A. 0% to 1%
• B. 1% to 10%
• C. 10% to 15%
• D. 12% to 20%

21. The (auto) ignition temperature is that temperature at which __________.

• A. no spark or flame is required to ignite gas or vapor
• B. a fuel begins to give off explosive vapors
• C. a fuel if ignited will continue to burn
• D. a 1% mixture of the fuel with air will explode

22. In reference to accidental oil pollution, the most critical time during bunkering is when

• A. you first start to receive fuel hoses are being disconnected
• B. hoses are being blown down
• C. final topping off is occurring
• D. hoses are being disconnected

23. Which characteristic is an advantage of a butterfly valve as compared to a gate valve?

• A. Precise control over cargo flow
• B. Quick operation
• C. No resistance to cargo flow when open
• D. Less maintenance required

24. Which of the following is not an exception provided under MARPOL, Annex-1, regarding the discharge of oil or oily mixture into the sea?

• A. Discharge for the purpose of securing safety of a ship
• B. Discharge for the purpose of saving life at sea
• C. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship because of Master's fault even if the Master/Owner of the ship has taken all reasonable precautions to prevent/minimize discharge
• D. Discharge resulting due to damage to the ship not because of Master's fault, but because of a third party's fault and action awaited by Master from that third party to prevent /minimize discharge

25. While using a combustible gas indicator, if the hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere exceeds the U.E.L., the needle of the indicator will

• A. remain at zero without moving
• B. move to the maximum reading and stay there
• C. move halfway up the scale
• D. move to the maximum reading and immediately return to zero

26. In the ‘flow through’ method of ballast water exchange:

• A. Ballast equal to approximately two times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
• B. Ballast equal to approximately three times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
• C. Ballast equal to approximately four times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank
• D. Ballast equal to approximately five times the tank capacity must be pumped through the tank

27. The preferred type of pollution control for oil spills on the water is(are)

• A. straw
• B. booms
• C. skimmers
• D. chemical dispersants

28. Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the prescribed limits?

• A. Loading
• B. Discharging
• C. Crude oil washing
• D. Steaming tanks

29. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be

• A. in the midships house
• B. at the main deck manifold
• C. at the vent header
• D. in the pumproom

30. Identify the correct labeling, when the tanker has heeled to a small angle.

• A. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Gravity; 4- Center of Buoyancy
• B. 1- Center of Gravity; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Metacenter
• C. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ-Shift of Buoyancy; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Center of Gravity
• D. 1- Metacenter; 2- GZ- Righting Lever; 3-Center of Buoyancy; 4- Center of Gravity

1. Working instructions specifying the manner in which the ship is to be loaded and ballasted to avoid unacceptable stresses in the vessel’s structure is required for tankers:

• A. Greater than 50 metres in length
• B. Greater than 75 meters in length
• C. Greater than 100 meters in length
• D. Greater than 150 meters in length

2. A self-contained breathing apparatus is used to

• A. make underwater repairs to barges
• B. determine if the air in a tank is safe for men
• C. enter areas that may contain dangerous fumes or lack oxygen
• D. resuscitate an unconscious person

3. Part A of the the ISGOTT Ship/Shore Safety Check-List provides operational procedures for:

• A. Transfer of bulk liquids, physical checks
• B. Transfer of bulk liquids – elements to be verified verbally
• C. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquid Chemicals
• D. Additional considerations for Bulk Liquefied Gases

4. The approval period for a shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan expires after

• A. two years
• B. three years
• C. four years
• D. five years

5. Which of the listed functions is the purpose of a gas scrubber in an inert gas generation system?

• A. Cools the inert gas.
• B. Maintains the oxygen content at 5% by volume.
• C. Bleeds off static electricity in the inert gas.
• D. Maintains flow to the water seal on the gas main.

6. With an increase in temperature the volume of flammable and combustible liquids____.

• A. expands
• B. contracts
• C. remains constant
• D. remains constant if pressure remains constant

7. The standard unit of liquid volume used in the petroleum industry, as well as the tanker industry, is a __________.

• A. barrel
• B. drum
• C. gallon
• D. liter

8. Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument

• A. over an electrically heated platinum filament
• B. where it is mixed with nitrogen
• C. where it is ignited by a sparking device
• D. where its specific gravity is measured

9. After each reading of an oxygen indicator, the instrument should be purged with

• A. CO2
• B. fresh air
• C. the tested compartment's air
• D. water

10. When the cofferdam to be purged to check the leakage and remove the leaked oil?

• A. Before starting the cargo operation
• B. Before starting the cargo operation and after the cargo operation is completed
• C. During the cargo operation
• D. After the cargo operation is completed

11. How the Framo pump has almost eliminated cavitation for free flowing liquids?

• A. Volute casing is designed in such a way, that its smoothness avoids cavitation
• B. The backwards curved vanes eliminate the cavitation
• C. The hydrofoil design of the curved vanes, eliminate cavitation
• D. Since the suction pipe is eliminated, cavitation is also eliminated for liquids with free flow

12. Select the correct statement.

• A. Pressure type vacuum valves can prevent Backflow.
• B. Dynamic pressure is a function of the fluid velocity and its density.
• C. The water reservoir of a self-priming pump may be at the back of the impeller.
• D. Stripping pumps are not of the self-priming type.

13. Why the cargo pump in the Framo cannot be overloaded?

• A. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the flow is always kept constant
• B. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pump runs at the optimum speed
• C. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, when the pump over speeds, the flow of oil is reduced
• D. The pressure of hydraulic oil to the motor driving the cargo pump is designed in such a way that, the pressure can run the pump at 75% of the capacity

14. Normally how much hydraulic oil is required to run the Framo portable pump?

• A. 360 litres per min
• B. 250 litres per min
• C. 140 litres per min
• D. 90 litres per min

15. Select the correct point regarding the operation of the portable pumps?

• A. Before using portable pump, rig the pump on the deck and while pumping, lower the hose in the tank
• B. When the liquid cargo level goes down, lower the hose accordingly, keeping the rigged pump on the deck
• C. Make sure that the portable pump is completely submerged and lowered till the bottom of the tank and then start the pumping operation
• D. Ensure that only the lower half of the pump is submerged and is lowered as the cargo level falls.

16. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the return side after running the hydraulic motor?

• A. Around 3 Bar
• B. Around 10 bar
• C. Around 15 bar
• D. Above 15 bar

17. Normally what is the discharge capacity of Framo portable pumps?

• A. 150 cubic meter per hour
• B. 100 cubic meter per hour
• C. 70 cubic meter per hour
• D. 200 cubic meter per hour

18. In a centrifugal pump:

• A. The discharge side has a negative pressure.
• B. The fluid moves in a direction opposite to the impeller.
• C. The fluid moves in the same direction as the impeller.
• D. The width of the discharge pipeline decreases outwards.

19. Where is cofferdam in Framo pumps?

• A. On the cargo pump side of the seal
• B. On the hydraulic motor side of the seal
• C. On both pump and motor side of the seal
• D. Not on the pump end or the motor end

20. Bernoulli’s principle states that:

• A. pressure (P) x height (H) is a constant
• B. height (H) x velocity (V) is a constant
• C. pressure (P) x velocity (V) is a constant
• D. pressure (P) x density (D) is a constant

21. How the speed of the portable pump can be varied?

• A. Portable pump speed cannot be varied
• B. Using the flow control valve of the main cargo pump
• C. By varying the speed of the feed pump
• D. The portable pump is always rigged with its own flow control valve which is used for speed variation

22. What kind of pumps can move extremely thick fluids like sludge without clogging ?

• A. Rotary vane pumps
• B. Reciprocating pumps
• C. Deep well pumps
• D. Screw pumps

23. What is the pressure of the hydraulic oil in the inlet side for running the hydraulic motor?

• A. Around 50 Bar
• B. Around 170 bar
• C. Around 100 bar
• D. Around 25 bar

24. The reciprocating pump creates a suction effect when there is a

• A. decrease in pressure
• B. increase in pressure
• C. no change in pressure
• D. decrease or an increase in pressure

25. What happens within the hull girder due to the development of bending moment due to stresses on hull are the following: find a statement that provides structural strength to the hull girder

• A. A bending stress is developed at every transverse section of the hull.
• B. The universal expression for bending stress is:bending stress = (bendingmoment)/(section modulus)
• C. Maximum bending moment at the midship means that the bending stress at the midships will be the maximum, and hence the deciding factor for the design.
• D. The bending stress at the midship is kept within safe limits by designing the midship section with a sufficient section modulus.

26. When doing an enclosed space rescue, the person in charge must co- ordinate the rescue:

• A. From inside the space
• B. From the Bridge
• C. From outside the space
• D. From the Engine Control Room

27. Select the correct statement.

• A. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system may undertake one ballast voyage before proceeding to a repair port, under certain circumstances.
• B. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system cannot undertake a ballast voyage.
• C. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system need only repair the system before the next annual MARPOL survey of the IOPP Certificate.
• D. A tanker with a defective oil discharge monitoring and control system may undertake one ballast voyage and one loaded voyage before proceeding to a repair port, provided permission is taken from the relevant authority.

28. Control of Entry into Enclosed Spaces; identify the most important statement which is a key measure to safe entry

• A. Prior to entry into an enclosed space, a risk assessment should be completed to identify the potential hazards and to determine the safeguards to be adopted.
• B. The safe working practice should be documented and approved by the responsible officer before being countersigned by the master, who confirms that the practice is safe and in compliance with the ship’s Safety Management System.
• C. The permit, or other enabling document, should be sighted and completed by the person entering the space, prior to entry.
• D. The controls required for safe entry vary with the task being performed and the potential hazards identified during the risk assessment.

29. Lung inflammation will cause:

• A. Breathlessness and drowsiness
• B. Breathlessness and confusion
• C. Breathlessness and a dry cough
• D. Breathlessness and slurred speech

30. The Convention that allows States to intervene in a pollution incident at sea is the

• A. MARPOL Convention
• B. SOLAS Convention
• C. CLC Convention
• D. Intervention Convention

1. Emergency alarm signals are provided on tankers in case of the following; which one of these alarms will be of major importance on a double-hull tankship with empty ballast tanks?

• A. High concentration of toxic or flammable vapors
• B. A discharge in engine-room or pumproom
• C. When level of oxygen in inert gas entering tanks exceeds 5%
• D. High level of oil residues in overboard discharge

2. While in port, if a fire occurs on board ship, support available from the shore includes the following; which one, in your opinion, makes the most important distinction for a shipboard fire?

• A. Assistance from the fire brigade – experienced manpower and firefighting equipment.
• B. Medical services of shore hospitals including ambulances with stretchers and paramedics in attendance, helicopters, etc.
• C. Transportation for evacuating personnel from ship that are non-essential for firefighting.
• D. Catering services where ship’s resources are restricted by the fire.

3. Typical Locations for High Sensitivity to Fatigue Failure The following areas are considered to be prone to fatigue failure on double hull oil tankers: which one is the most common

• A. Side shell area below the load and ballast waterlines. These areas are subjected to the highest cycle loading through the ship’s life due to the passage of waves along the side of the ship.
• B. Deck plating at connection to primary supporting members.
• C. Connection between transverse bulkheads to the upper and lower bulkhead stools.
• D. Connection between lower hopper sloping plating and inner bottom plating.

4. Safeguards for Enclosed Space Entry; Before allowing access to the space, the responsible officer should ensure, amongst other things, that: identify the most important of all the elements

• A. The personal protective equipment to be used by people entering the enclosed space must be prescribed.
• B. Approved safety torches.
• C. Approved UHF radio.
• D. Personal gas detector or an area gas detector and alarm.

5. In case of a collision, the following, amongst other steps are considered as a general plan of action; which one will be a priority in case of an underwater hull damage?

• A. Assessing possible pollution due to rupture of fuel and or cargo (oil or chemical) tanks;
• B. Taking corrective action to minimize the quantum of pollution; reporting the incident.
• C. Assembling the emergency party.
• D. Preparing for or implementing fire-fighting measures (in the event of a fire).

6. The Medical First Aid Guide is published by the:

• A. International Maritime Organisation
• B. World Health Organisation
• C. United Nations
• D. International Labour Organisation

7. Find a statement that in your opinion, is the most critical in a grounding incident?

• A. Grounding can cause loss of human life.
• B. Grounding can cause harmful environmental impact, especially in the case where large tanker ships are involved.
• C. Grounding can cause financial consequences to local communities close to the accident.
• D. Grounding can cause financial consequences to ship- owners, due to ship loss or penalties.

8. Safeguards for Enclosed Space Entry; Before allowing access to the space, the responsible officer should ensure, amongst other things, that: identify the most important of all the elements

• A. A rescue harness, complete with lifeline, is ready for immediate use at the entrance to the space.
• B. Fully charged safety torch is ready for immediate use at the entrance to the space.
• C. A responsible member of the crew is in constant attendance outside the enclosed space, in the immediate vicinity of the entrance and in direct contact with a responsible officer.
• D. These persons should be trained in the actions to be taken in the event of an emergency.

9. Statements on Boiler: identify a statement that supports the use of a watertube boiler with a superheater in many tanker vessels?

• A. The boiler on a tanker vessel is equally important as the main propulsion engines
• B. On a large oil tanker, the fuel consumption in the boiler could be as high as 2/3rd of the engines.
• C. Without having steam at superheated condition, you may not be able to operate the cargo pump turbines efficiently and safely
• D. Without having steam, you may not be able to maintain the oil temperatures correctly within the cargo tanks for discharging.

10. Which function is NOT provided by the scrubber of an inert gas system?

• A. Cools the inert gas.
• B. Removes particulate matter like soot.
• C. Maintains gas pressure in the tanks.
• D. Removes chemical impurities from the gas.

11. Introducing inert gas into a tank already inert with the object of further reducing the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to prevent combustion if air enters the tank is called

• A. purging
• B. gas freeing
• C. gas dispersion
• D. bonding

12. Typically nitrogen contained in inert gas generated from boiler flue gas, at the scrubber outlet is

• A. 50%
• B. 60%
• C. 70%
• D. 83%

13. Which statement about inert gas pressures in a cargo tank is TRUE?

• A. The pressures of the inert gas in the tank may create excessive pressure at the pump while discharging.
• B. Gas pressures should be maintained at the highest permissible level throughout the discharging process.
• C. High gas pressures may cause pyrophoric oxidation in the tank.
• D. High gas pressures may cause loss of suction when stripping.

14. The purpose of the deck seal in an inert gas system is to prevent

• A. flammable vapors from entering machinery space
• B. flue gas escaping to atmosphere
• C. inert gas escaping to atmosphere
• D. air entering inert gas system

15. After the initial cleaning of flue gas in an inert gas system the gas is passed through what device for final cleaning?

• A. Scrubber
• B. Demister
• C. Deck water seal
• D. Final filter

16. The "flammable limits" of an atmosphere are the

• A. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will self ignite
• B. upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
• C. upper and lower pressures between which an atmosphere will not burn
• D. two temperatures between which an atmosphere will burn if an ignition source is present

17. Flue gas is drawn from the boiler uptake and delivered to the inert gas scrubber by a:

• A. Exhaust gas pressure from the stack
• B. High capacity fan
• C. Inert gas compressor
• D. Natural aspiration

18. What is the major function of the deck water seal in an inert gas system?

• A. Relieves excessive pressures from the system.
• B. Isolates hazardous areas from nonhazardous areas.
• C. Prevents the flow of inert gas into closed or isolated tanks.
• D. Removes any leftover water or soot after the gas has been scrubbed.

19. Inert gas systems must be capable of delivering inert gas with an oxygen content by volume in the inert gas main of not more than

• A. 2%
• B. 5%
• C. 8%
• D. 11%

20. On a hydrocarbon flammability chart the line which extends from 0% to 21.8% oxygen, lying tangent to the flammability range, is called the

• A. minimum oxygen content line upper threshold limit
• B. critical displacement line
• C. critical dilution line
• D. upper threshold limit

21. The component in an inert gas system used for cleaning the gas of solid and sulfur combustion products, while simultaneously cooling the inert gas, is called the

• A. filter
• B. cooler
• C. scrubber
• D. purifier

22. Inert gas systems must be capable of maintaining inert gas with an oxygen content by volume in the cargo tanks of not more than

• A. 2%
• B. 5%
• C. 8%
• D. 11%

23. You are discharging cargo and the inert gas system is in operation to inert the tanks. The pressure in a tank being discharged starts to drop below the allowable limit. What action should you take?

• A. Cut in another IG fan to increase gas flow.
• B. Open the pressure control valve until the pressure increases.
• C. Open the tank isolation valve to the fully open position.
• D. Reduce the pumping rate.

24. The fresh air intake of the inert gas system

• A. prevents the flue gas from falling below an oxygen content of 3%
• B. allows the inert gas piping to be used for gas freeing the tanks
• C. opens when there is excessive vacuum on the deck water seal
• D. enables outside air to mix with and to cool the hot flue gasses

25. What is the maximum oxygen content below which flaming combustion will no longer occur?

• A. 5%
• B. 8%
• C. 10%
• D. 12%

26. In which of the following conditions, the IG blower fans should shut down automatically?

• A. Oxygen content above 8%
• B. Low water level in deck seal
• C. Low water level in the scrubber tower
• D. High scrubber water level

27. What type of liquid is used in the liquid P/V breaker?

• A. Hydraulic oil
• B. Water-antifreeze mixture
• C. Distilled water
• D. Oil from the cargo

28. What is the maximum percent of oxygen, by volume, allowed to be maintained in the cargo tanks prior to the commencement of crude oil tank washing?

• A. 5%
• B. 8%
• C. 10%
• D. 12%

29. Checks to be done, amongst others, before and during COW are listed; identify the most important safety check

• A. When carrying out crude oil washing during cargo discharge, the Master should inform the terminal competent authority 24 hours before commencement (or other ship when ship-to-ship transfer is involved)
• B. The Oxygen analyzing equipment to be tested and working satisfactorily
• C. Inert gas in tank to be checked – (Oxygen to be less than 8%), IG pressure to be satisfactory (positive pressure)
• D. All hydrant valves on the tank washing line to be shut

30. Concurrent COW with cargo discharge: identify the precaution for the Concurrent COW method for use

• A. COW concurrent method utilizes the crude oil stream being discharged, together with its associated back pressure, to supply the COW pipeline with crude oil.
• B. COW concurrent method can be achieved either by a "bleed-off' system from the main crude oil discharge pipelines for supply to the COW pipeline or by separate supply using a designated cargo pump.
• C. COW concurrent method: The normal minimum back pressure required for the operation of the COW guns is 8 kg/cm2.
• D. COW concurrent method: If supply is achieved by the bleed-off from the bulk discharge, then sufficient back pressure has to be maintained at all times.

1. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, the vessel should be__________.

• A. stopped with the wind dead ahead
• B. stopped with the wind on the beam
• C. underway with the wind 30° on the bow
• D. underway on a course to provide no apparent wind

2. A rescue helicopter's hoist area should have a radius of at least __________.

• A. 6 feet of clear deck
• B. 10 feet of clear deck
• C. 25 feet of clear deck
• D. 50 feet of clear deck

3. Usually the most gentle way of riding out a severe storm on a larger vessel is__________.

• A. head on at slow speeds
• B. hove to
• C. running before the seas
• D. to rig a sea anchor

4. Your vessel is off a lee shore in heavy weather and laboring. Which action should you take?

• A. Put the sea and wind about two points on either bow and reduce speed.
• B. Heave to in the trough of the sea.
• C. Put the sea and wind on either quarter and proceed at increased speed.
• D. Put the bow directly into the sea and proceed at full speed.

5. You are steaming in a heavy gale and find it necessary to heave to. Under most circumstances, this is best done by __________.

• A. stopping the engines and drifting beam to the seas
• B. going slow astern and taking the seas on the quarter
• C. taking the sea fine on the bow and reducing the speed to the minimum to hold that position
• D. maintaining speed and taking the sea broad on the bow

6. Snow has obliterated surface features and the sky is covered with uniform, altostratus clouds. There are no shadows and the horizon has disappeared. What is this condition called?

• A. Ice blink
• B. Whiteout
• C. Water sky
• D. Aurora reflection

7. A vessel is wind rode when it is __________.

• A. at anchor and heading into the wind
• B. backing into the wind
• C. carrying lee rudder
• D. necessary to apply a leeway correction to the course

8. When evacuating a seaman by helicopter lift, which course should the ship take?

• A. Downwind so that the apparent wind is close to nil.
• B. A course that will keep a free flow of air, clear of smoke, over the hoist area.
• C. A course that will have the hoist area in the lee of the superstructure.
• D. With the wind dead ahead because the helicopter is more maneuverable when going into the wind.

9. When the gyro-pilot is used for steering, what control is adjusted to compensate for varying sea conditions?

• A. Rudder control
• B. Sea control
• C. Lost motion adjustment
• D. Weather adjustment

10. What types of mooring lines are used for larger tankers?

• A. Ropes with high elastic elongation properties
• B. Ropes with low plastic elongation properties
• C. Ropes with high modulus of rigidity
• D. Strain hardened ropes

11. Normally Brakes must be ___________tightened to achieve the required holding capacity of the line's Minimum Breaking Load.

• A. 30%
• B. 50%
• C. 60%
• D. 75%

12. ‘It is preferred to have all mooring lines of the same material and construction’ This is strictly followed due to

• A. The load on all the mooring lines should be same
• B. To avoid undue stress on mooring lines
• C. To increase the life of the mooring lines
• D. To avoid compressive over loading of any of the mooring ropes

13. How to prevent failure of the mooring and other components in the mooring system during large swell conditions?

• A. By attaching fibre tails in the mooring ropes
• B. By attaching fibre tails on the ends in the mooring ropes
• C. By attaching fibre tails on the sides of the mooring ropes
• D. By attaching fibre tails perpendicular to the mooring ropes

14. Mooring winch brakes should be tested at regular intervals, not exceeding _____. Choose the correct period from below?

• A. 18 months
• B. 12 months
• C. 24 months
• D. 30months

15. What is the possible alternate for winch-stowed steel wire ropes for the mooring of large tankers at terminals?

• A. Low Modulus synthetic fibre ropes
• B. High Modulus synthetic wire ropes
• C. High Modulus synthetic fibre ropes
• D. Low Modulus nylon ropes

16. Why mooring wires used by large tankers are normally stored on self- stowing mooring winches?

• A. Self - stowing winches are convenient
• B. Weight and size make manual handling difficult
• C. Self – stowing winches have brakes
• D. Self-stowing winches are reliable

17. What is IOPC fund?

• A. International Oil Pollution Compensation Funds
• B. International Oil tanker Pollution Compensation Funds
• C. International Oil and hazardous chemical Compensation Funds
• D. International Oil Pollution Compensatory Funds

18. In March 1989, Exxon Valdez ran aground in Alaska (U.S.) spilling approximately 40,000 tons of crude oil into the sea, causing serious environmental damage. What was the outcome legislation that followed the disaster?

• A. CLC Convention and the Fund Convention
• B. Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90)
• C. Bunker Convention
• D. LLMC Convention

19. What does LLMC Convention stand for?

• A. Convention on Limitations of Liabilities for Maritime Claims
• B. Conventionon Limited Liabilities for Marine Claims
• C. Convention on Liabilities limited for Marine Claims
• D. Convention on Liabilities with Limits for Maritime Claims

20. The meaning of the CLC Convention is,

• A. Civil Liability Convention for Oil Pollution Damage
• B. Civil Liability Convention for Damage from NLS
• C. Civil Liability Convention for Air Pollution
• D. Civil Liability Convention for pollution by Sewage

21. Under which operation the volumetric cargo losses are more?

• A. During Tank to tank transfer onboard
• B. During Ship to shore transfer
• C. During COW
• D. During circulation inside the same Tank onboard

22. In spite of using clean sample bottles to acquire individual samples from each level (ie top, middle and bottom of each of the ship’s tanks) and clearly labelled for density calculation, why the final result may not provide the correct density value?

• A. Due to temperature variations
• B. Due to Viscosity variations
• C. Due to the loss of volatile fractions to atmosphere
• D. Due to changes in Emulsion

23. What can be the probable causes for a gross mismatch between ship and shore oil figures?

• A. Ullages incorrectly measured, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
• B. Incorrectly measured Ullages/ Temperatures/ densities, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
• C. Ullages incorrectly measured, Tanks filled but not taken into account, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, and Cargo lost in the shore installation.
• D. Ullages incorrectly measured, The contents of pipelines not allowed for, Incorrect temperatures or densities, Cargo mistakenly loaded on top of ballast and Cargo lost in the shore installation.

24. Normally which one will affect the final cargo measurement more when there is a 0.1% variation in their respective reading?

• A. Ullage measurement
• B. Density measurement
• C. Temperature measurement
• D. Water in cargo measurement

25. Why water finding pastes or electronic tape interface reading to measure water in the take do not give accurate results?

• A. Due to emulsion
• B. Due to temperature difference
• C. Due temperature and density difference
• D. Due to differences in Viscosity

26. What are all the Claims/ disputes you can successfully defend if some records if maintained on board properly?

• A. Shortage, contamination and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
• B. Shortage, performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
• C. Shortage, contamination, performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.
• D. Contamination performance claims, and demurrage / dispatch disputes.

27. What are the factors that may affect the calculation of OBQ value?

• A. Residues on tank floors, the age of the vessel and previous cargoes carried.
• B. Residues on tank floors and previous cargoes carried.
• C. Residues on tank floors and structures, and previous cargoes carried.
• D. Residues on tank floors and structures, and these will vary with the age of the vessel and previous cargoes carried.

28. What are all the cargo measurement issues creep up when liquid cargo is measured for volume calculations

• A. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, and temperature of cargo
• B. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, water in cargo and temperature of cargo
• C. Ullage, listing of vessel, sea conditions, water in cargo, density and temperature of cargo
• D. Ullage, listing of vessel, water in cargo, density and temperature of cargo

29. What can be the ship’s defence if the Oil discharged from board is more than the B/L figure?

• A. Water seepage into cargo onboard the ship
• B. The onboard quantity (OBQ) prior to loading has not been taken into consideration
• C. The cargo has been slightly over heated to reduce viscosity
• D. The flow meter on the shore at the discharge port is not working well

30. What are all the normal defence for the Ship, in case of an ‘Oil Shortage’

• A. To prove that all the cargo has been discharged with no (ROB).
• B. To prove that there was no significant in-transit loss
• C. To prove that the ship tank calibrations are more accurate than the shore tank calibrations.
• D. To prove that the shore’s flow meter is wrong

1. Why is it the potential for volumetric losses is greater where COW is performed?

• A. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a low pressure spray and completely atomised
• B. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a high pressure spray and completely atomised
• C. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a high pressure spray and partially atomised
• D. During COW, the cargo is being formed into a low pressure spray and partially atomised

2. When the sea conditions are not exactly calm, how will you make sure that the ullage measurement reading is closer to accurate?

• A. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements and average, then apply trim correction
• B. For each tank, take 3 ullage measurements and average, then apply trim correction
• C. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements, leave the maximum and minimum values, then average the remaining three values and apply trim correction
• D. For each tank, take 5 ullage measurements, leave the maximum and minimum values, then average the remaining three values.

3. Select the appropriate sentence from below describing the ‘Oil Shortage claim’

• A. The discrepancy between what has been received on board and what has been discharged from the ship
• B. The discrepancy between what has been received on board as per B/L and what has been discharged from the ship
• C. The discrepancy between the quantity of cargo as stated in the B/L and the out turn quantity as calculated in the discharge port.
• D. The discrepancy between the quantity of cargo as stated in the B/L and the out turn quantity as calculated in the discharge port after due consideration for the allowable transportation loss

4. How to find out ‘True in-Transit losses’ during the voyage?

• A. The ship’s gross volume at normal temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at normal temperature prior to discharge
• B. The ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature prior to discharge
• C. The ship’s gross volume at standard temperature on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at standard temperature prior to discharge
• D. The ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature & pressure on loading is compared with the ship’s gross volume at atmospheric temperature & pressure prior to discharge

5. What are all the records, if maintained onboard will assist in case of claims /disputes?

• A. Voyage abstract (deck), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations
• B. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/ transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations
• C. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book.
• D. Voyage abstract (deck and engine), notice of readiness (NOR), port log, Cargo pumping/loading/transfer records and Oil record book including bunker operations

6. How to find out ‘Theoretical in-Transit losses’ during the voyage?

• A. The ship’s net volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board at standard temperature prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
• B. The ship’s net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board at normal temperature & pressure prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
• C. The ship’s gross volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the net volume on board prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.
• D. The ship’s net volume on board at standard temperature on completion of loading is compared with the gross volume on board at standard temperature prior to the commencement of discharge emptying and filling losses.

7. What are the international classification that describes petroleum liquid cargoes ?

• A. flammable and combustible
• B. volatile and non-volatile
• C. Organic and Inorganic
• D. Acidic and non-acidic

8. Petroleum liquids derived from the naturally occurring crude oil that may include the following

• A. Gasoline, Lubricant, Asphalt
• B. Phosphoric acid, Sulfuric acid, Hydrochloric acid
• C. Caustic soda, molten sulfur, Boric acid
• D. Tallow, grease, molasses

9. The EmS guide is given in

• A. Volume 1 of IMDG code
• B. Volume 2 of IMDG code
• C. IMDG code supplement
• D. SOLAS

10. MARPOL Annex I came into force in

• A. 1987
• B. 1983
• C. 1992
• D. 2003

11. How to reduce Hydrogen Sulphide Hazard in Residual Fuel Oils?

• A. Ventilation to lower the concentration of vapour in the ullage space and in specific areas where vapours may accumulate should be carried out as soon as practicable.
• B. Transfer the oil to some other tank using fuel transfer pump,
• C. Keep heating the oil to maintain a higher temperature
• D. Circulate the oil in the same tank using the fuel transfer pump

12. What is pressure surge ?

• A. When the pressure of oil increases suddenly at the manifold
• B. When the pressure of oil decreases suddenly at the manifold
• C. When the discharge pressure at the pump drops to zero
• D. A sudden increase in the pressure of the liquid in a pipeline brought about by an abrupt change in flow rate

13. Burning of candle is an example of ______________.

• A. rapid combustion
• B. spontaneous combustion
• C. slow oxidation
• D. explosion

14. What is flammable range ?

• A. The range in which nothing will burn
• B. The range in which the oxygen content is too low to cause explosion
• C. The range in which the oxygen content is too high to cause explosion
• D. The range of hydrocarbon gas concentrations in air between the lower and upper flammable limits. Mixtures within this range are capable of being ignited and of burning.

15. What is the eight-hour safe exposure limit for Carbon Monoxide?

• A. 15ppm
• B. 25ppm
• C. 125ppm
• D. 250ppm

16. What is Oxygen deficiency?

• A. Oxygen less than 21%
• B. Oxygen less than 16%
• C. Oxygen less than 8%
• D. Oxygen less than 5%

17. It is possible to find the appropriate EmS SPILLAGE SCHEDULE from the

• A. Proper shipping name
• B. UN Number
• C. Packing group
• D. Packing instructions

18. Pyrophoric oxidation occurs when loading:

• A. Light crude oils
• B. Sour crude oils
• C. Refined products
• D. Chemical cargoes

19. Systemic poisons are those that cause an adverse health effect on------------

• A. the whole body
• B. several organs of the human body
• C. the skin only
• D. a specific organ

20. The products of combustion are

• A. carbon dioxide and water
• B. oxygen and water
• C. only carbon dioxide
• D. only oxygen

21. In the burning process hydrocarbon gases react with oxygen in the air:

• A. To produce carbon and water
• B. To produce hydrogen and water
• C. To produce carbon dioxide and water
• D. To produce carbon monoxide and water

22. Buildup of electrostatic charge when loading static accumulator oils is avoided by:

• A. Increasing the flow rate
• B. Not using natural fibre ropes in ullaging equipment
• C. Taking tank soundings within a metal sounding pipe
• D. Fitting, fixed equipment away from the tank wall

23. What is a resuscitator ?

• A. Equipment to revive an unconscious person
• B. To supply air to a person in a tank
• C. Equipment to restore the breathing of a person overcome by gas or lack of oxygen
• D. It is a rescue equipment for use in emergency

24. What is the TLV-TWA for hydrogen sulphide over a period of 8 hours ?

• A. 5 ppm
• B. 10 ppm
• C. 15 ppm
• D. 20 ppm

25. The International Medical Guide for Ships gives guidelines on how to diagnose, treat and prevent health problems in seafarers, mainly focusing on the first _____________ hours after injury.

• A. 6
• B. 48
• C. 12
• D. 24

26. When required to work in an area where explosive gases may accumulate, you should use tools which are

• A. approved by the Coast Guard
• B. high carbon steel
• C. fixed with a ferrous cover
• D. non-sparking

27. Multi-gas instruments are widely used and are usually capable of housing four different sensors. A typical configuration would comprise sensors for measuring: identify one that will be of major importance for enclosed space entry,

• A. Hydrocarbon vapor as a % LFL (explosimeter function using a pellistor sensor).
• B. Hydrocarbon vapor in inert gas as a % Volume (tankscope function using an infra-red sensor).
• C. Oxygen (using an electrochemical sensor).
• D. Hydrogen Sulfide (using an electrochemical sensor).

28. Tanker pump room ventilation must be switched on at least how many minutes before entry ?

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 15 minutes
• C. 30 minutes
• D. One hour

29. Which of the following hazards is the main concern when entering a ballast tank?

• A. toxic gases
• B. flammable gases
• C. infection
• D. lack of oxygen

30. A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should __________.

• A. lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
• B. administer a liquid stimulant
• C. lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
• D. attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness

1. A diffuse discharge from a single sharp conductor is called

• A. A spark
• B. A corona
• C. A brush discharge
• D. A Propagating brush discharge

2. What is the type of gas detection system fitted for spaces with air?

• A. Spot metering type fixed inside the individual insulation spaces
• B. Infrared type using sequential measurement
• C. Portable gas detection system due to mobility of this method
• D. Catalytic combustion type

3. Class B fires involve

• A. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
• B. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
• C. Energised electrical equipment
• D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.

4. Lower flammable limit (LFL) or Lower Explosive Limit (LEL), is usually expressed:

• A. as a percentage of the air volume
• B. as a percentage of hydrocarbon volume
• C. in volume percent
• D. as a percentage of the volume of oxygen

5. For Oxygen analyzer, identify the statement that explains the working principle

• A. Electrochemical Sensors: Analyzers of this type determine the oxygen content of a gas mixture by measuring the output of an electrochemical cell.
• B. Oxygen diffuses through a membrane into the cell and current flows between two special electrodes separated by a liquid or gel electrolyte.
• C. The current flow is related to the oxygen concentration in the sample and the scale is arranged to give a direct indication of oxygen content.
• D. The analyzer readings are directly proportional to the pressure in the measuring cell, and only small errors are caused by normal variations in atmospheric pressure.

6. The bypass valve on a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) bypasses

• A. a breathing bag containing excessive pressure
• B. the regulator in an emergency
• C. oxygen to the atmosphere
• D. the regenerator in an emergency

7. A fuel tank is considered to be gas free when the tank is

• A. free of most flammable gas concentrations
• B. thoroughly ventilated for at least 24 hours
• C. inerted with carbon dioxide for 24 hours
• D. free of all dangerous concentrations of flammable or toxic gases

8. Which of the gases listed is the poisonous gas most likely to be found in a closed compartment involved in a fire?

• A. Nitrogen
• B. Hydrogen
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Carbon monoxide

9. Which type of cargoes are often known as static accumulator cargoes?

• A. Crude oil
• B. Vegetable oil
• C. Highly refined petroleum products
• D. Animal oil

10. What is the priority order of a Company's on board policies and procedures?

• A. Safety of the crew; Safe operation of the vessel; Protection of the environment
• B. Safe operation of the vessel; Safety of the crew; Protection of the environment
• C. Protection of the environment; Safety of the crew; Safe operation of the vessel
• D. Protection of the environment; Safe operation of the vessel; Safety of the crew

11. When preparing to pump flammable liquids with a centrifugal pump, you should

• A. draw a small quantity of liquid to prime the pump
• B. check for gland leakage and any fire hazard
• C. have a standby pump running with the discharge valve closed
• D. lift the relief valve by hand to check its operation

12. Certain operations can give rise to accumulations of electric charge which may be released suddenly in electrostatic discharges with sufficient energy to ignite

• A. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/air mixtures
• B. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/Nitrogen mixtures
• C. Combustible hydrocarbon liquid
• D. Flammable hydrocarbon gas/CO2 mixtures

13. How many portable multi – gas detectors should be carried onboard?

• A. At least one with methane gas and one of propane gas detection capability
• B. At least one with methane and one of carbon monoxides gas detection capability
• C. At least one with methane gas and one of ammonia gas detection capability
• D. At least two sets with methane gas detection capability

14. Class A fires involve

• A. Solid cellulosic materials such as wood, paper, clothing, etc.
• B. Vapour/air mixture over the surface of flammable liquids
• C. Energised electrical equipment
• D. Combustible materials such as magnesium, sodium, etc.

15. The ISM Code requires work procedures which ensures ________ performance

• A. Superior
• B. Profitable
• C. Safe
• D. Excellent

16. What is the procedure for checking for spinal cord damage in an unconscious patient?

• A. Beginning at the back of the neck, and proceeding to the buttocks, press the spine to find where it hurts
• B. Prick the skin of the hands and the soles of the feet with a sharp object to check for reaction
• C. Selectively raise each arm and each leg and watch patient's face to see if he registers pain
• D. Roll patient onto his stomach and prick along the length of his spine to check reaction

17. The airborne concentrations of substances (such as hydrogen sulfide) under which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effects are called

• A. exposure limits
• B. concentration limits
• C. threshold limit values
• D. substance limit values

18. Optimum Oxygen values in the inert gas for delivery into cargo tanks is between:

• A. 1 to 2%
• B. 3 to 4%
• C. 5 to 6%
• D. 9 to 10%

19. If a cargo tank has not been certified as gas free,

• A. breathing apparatus would not be necessary in an emergency as you would only be in the tank a short time
• B. a man may work safely without breathing apparatus in cold weather, as vapors are less volatile
• C. entry without a breathing apparatus may be made at the top of the tank since petroleum vapors are heavier than air
• D. breathing apparatus should always be used

20. Cargo tank pressure is monitored on tankers:

• A. To ensure IG backpressure is slightly positive at all times
• B. To prevent back pressure
• C. To ensure enough tanks are open for loading
• D. To ensure that the loading rate is not too high

21. Identify the statement that highlights the purpose of using a non-catalytic heated filament gas indicator,

• A. The working of catalytic gas indicator depends on the property of its combustion with air.
• B. Since the inerted atmosphere is deficient in oxygen the catalytic gas indicators cannot be used in inerted atmospheres.
• C. Instruments used in inerted atmosphere have a filament sensitive to the variations in the heat conductivity.
• D. Instruments used in inerted atmosphere have a filament that are good for monitoring inerting operations.

22. The highest concentration of a harmful substance to which a person may be exposed without danger to health, is termed the

• A. vapor pressure
• B. tolerance point
• C. threshold limit value
• D. odor threshold

23. Vessel's enclosed spaces that are not to be treated as such:

• A. Spaces which must be entered through small hatchways or access points;
• B. Cargo tanks and holds ;
• C. Double-bottom tanks;
• D. Crew accommodation

24. Which would be the appropriate arrangement for entering into a DB tank through the ductkeel?

• A. Entry permit for ductkeel and standby person at the entrance
• B. Entry permit for DB tank and standby person loacated inside ductkeel outside DB tank
• C. Combined entry permit for both but standby person ductkeel entrance and DB entrance
• D. Separate enclosed space entry permit for both spaces including standby person outside both

25. Which of the devices listed would be safe to use in a compartment with insufficient oxygen?

• A. Wet handkerchief.
• B. Self-contained breathing apparatus.
• C. Dust or gas mask.
• D. Canister type mask.

26. Where is the electrostatic discharge plate installed?

• A. Near the cargo manifold
• B. At the forward end of the ship
• C. At the accommodation entrance on upper deck
• D. At the aft part of the ship

27. For Oxygen analyzer, identify the key principle upon which the analyzer is working,

• A. A Wheatstone bridge circuit is formed using the two wires. It is used to measure a resistance by balancing two legs of the circuit.
• B. The sample of atmosphere is filtered and passed through a diffuser before reaching the two chambers.
• C. One chamber is with a magnetic field and the other without a magnetic field.
• D. A difference in the thermal conductivity of the oxygen with respect to air is developed and this causes an imbalance in the resistance.

28. The ________ depends upon the pressure of contact exerted on live wires.

• A. voltage
• B. current
• C. impedance
• D. power

29. What is related to the relaxation time of the material in which the electical charges are accumulated?

• A. That material's density
• B. That material's viscosity
• C. That material's conductivity
• D. That material's flammabilty

30. Operating Principle of the Infrared instrument: identify the key principle that leads to detection of hydrocarbon gas,

• A. The amount of absorption is related to the concentration of the gas and is measured by a set of optical detectors and suitable electronic systems.
• B. The change in the intensity of the absorbed light is measured relative to the intensity of light at a non-absorbed wavelength.
• C. When there is no gas present the signals of reference signal detector and measurement signal detector are balanced.
• D. When there is combustible gas present, there is a predictable drop in the output from measurement signal detector because the gas is absorbing light.

1. When using a permit to work system one must make how many copies of the permit ?

• A. One copy
• B. Two copies
• C. Three copies
• D. Four copies

2. A method NOT usually allowed for cleaning up oil spills would be the use of _________.

• A. skimmers
• B. dispersants
• C. straw
• D. sawdust

3. A liquid-filled pressure vacuum breaker

• A. is fitted on the tank dome
• B. is fitted on the main deck a tanker
• C. is fitted on the inert gas main line of a tanker
• D. is fitted in the pump room

4. A thermoelectric detector:

• A. Uses a heat sensor uses a fixed temperature stop
• B. converts heat to electrical energy
• C. detects a rise in tempetrature
• D. uses a fixed temperature stop

5. The vacuum strip system was developed on oil tankers to

• A. remove all hydrocarbon gases from the tanks after discharging
• B. prevent cavitation in centrifugal cargo pumps
• C. quickly remove rain water collecting on deck
• D. discharge cargo without any human intervention

6. Gas Dispersion through tank vents; There is a potential danger of fire and explosion if the flammable zone with emitted vapor reaches any location where there may be sources of ignition such as the follows; which one of these can be prevented easily by onboard systems?

• A. Superstructures and accommodation blocks into which the gas can enter through doors, ports or ventilation intakes.
• B. The cargo deck which, although it is usually regarded as free of sources of ignition, is a work area and thoroughfare.
• C. An adjacent jetty which, although it is usually regarded as free of sources of ignition, is a work area and thoroughfare.
• D. Adjacent vessels such as lightering ships, bunker and stores craft, pilot and crew transfer boats.

7. A stripping pump is fitted in the pump room so that

• A. the last remaining traces of liquid can be pumped out from the tanks, pipelines and pumps
• B. cargo from the tanks can be discharged if the main pumps should fail
• C. the liquids collected in the bilge can be pumped out
• D. slops can be discharged overboard at a slow rate

8. Tanks of tankers do not exceed:

• A. 0.1 of ship’s length
• B. 0.15 of ship’s length
• C. 0.2 of ship’s length
• D. 0.25 of ship’s length

9. What do you understand from the term "Bleed off COW" ?

• A. The process of pressure testing the COW lines onboard
• B. The process of diverting part of cargo discharged for reducing rate
• C. The process of diverting part of cargo discharged for crude oil washing
• D. The process of draining oil from the COW lines after washing

10. The pipeline system that has valves fitted on bulkheads is called:

• A. The direct line system
• B. The free flow system
• C. The ring main system
• D. The free line system

11. Before gas freeing operations the hydrocarbon content is reduced to:

• A. to 15% or less by volume
• B. to 10% or less by volume
• C. to 8% or less by volume
• D. to 2% or less by volume

12. Turbidity:

• A. is an optical characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
• B. is a motion characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
• C. is a refractive characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid
• D. is a characteristic that indicates the degree of clarity of a liquid

13. Tank bulkheads on a tanker are strengthened using:

• A. Web frames, transverse webs and stringers.
• B. Longitudinals, transverse webs and stringers.
• C. Web frames, transverse webs and gusset plates.
• D. Gusset plates, transverse webs and longitudinals

14. What is LEAST likely to be used to strip a cargo tank?

• A. Centrifugal pump
• B. Eductor
• C. Rotary pump
• D. Reciprocating pump

15. Deep tanks on oil tankers are used normally to carry

• A. nothing at all
• B. additional ballast in bad weather
• C. extra bunkers for long international voyages
• D. more cargo for increasing freight

16. The main purpose of introducing double hull design in tankers was

• A. to offer an extra layer of protection against environmental pollution
• B. to increase the light weight of ship and reduce ballast required
• C. to allow ships to navigate with reduced UKC without worrying about pollution
• D. to increase the cargo carrying capacity of the ship with same dimensions

17. Quick Closing Valve: identify the purpose of such a valve,

• A. Fuel oil gravity tanks must be fitted with valves that can be closed rapidly and remotely in the event of an emergency such as a fire.
• B. Quick closing valves can be wire operated mechanically from outside the engineroom
• C. Quick closing valves can behydraulically or pneumaticallyoperated from outside the engineroom
• D. Quick closing valves are not usedfor throttle purpose

18. Which of the following is true about eductors?

• A. They can be used only when there is a good level of liquid in the tank to be pumped out
• B. Sea water can be used as drive and crude oil pumped out from the tanks
• C. They sometimes make high vibrations and even lead to pipeline and gauge damage
• D. A long preparation is required before eductor can be put to use

19. Which one of the following is not a piping system found on an oil tanker?

• A. Ring main system
• B. Integrated system
• C. Direct line system
• D. Free flow system

20. The purpose of a cofferdam between two compartments is to

• A. store tools and equipment that are necessary for the adjacent compartments
• B. give access to the bulkhead for inspection and repairs when the tanks are full with liquid
• C. keep a reserve space if capacity of either compartment needs to be increased
• D. prevent different liquids from the two tanks coming in contact in case of a leak

21. Prior to entering a cargo pump room, you should ensure that

• A. the forced ventilating system is operating
• B. the cargo pumps are secured
• C. no mono carbon gases are present
• D. the oily water separator is de-energized

22. The complete details of a crude oil washing system aboard your vessel, including the operating sequences and procedures, design characteristics, a description of the system, and required personnel will be found in the

• A. Oil Transfer Procedures Manual
• B. Crude Oil Washing Operations and Equipment Manual
• C. Code of Federal Regulations
• D. Crude Oil Washing addendum to the Certificate of Inspection

23. You are testing a tank that contained gasoline by using a combustible gas indicator. Under testing, the tank sample caused the needle to move rapidly to 100 on the dial then fall to zero. What is the concentration of flammable gas?

• A. Less than the flammable range
• B. Within the flammable range
• C. Over the flammable range
• D. The explosimeter is defective and giving a false reading.

24. Which of the following documents carried by a ship is not issued under the MARPOL convention?

• A. IOPP certificate
• B. Oil Record Book
• C. SOPEP
• D. Safety Management Certificate

25. Which of the following conditions need NOT be satisfied while discharging oil or oil mixtures from ships into the sea?

• A. The ship must be proceeding en route
• B. The ship must be at a distance of 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
• C. The oily mixture is processed through an oil filtering equipment as per Reg. 14 of Annex-1
• D. The oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed 15 ppm

26. Which tanker discharge pattern would be the safest and most efficient?

• A. Empty the forward tanks and start working aft, emptying each tank in sequence
• B. Start discharging with most of the discharge coming from forward, but include some from midships and after tanks
• C. Start pumping from forward, midships, and aft with the discharge distributed equally among the tanks
• D. Start pumping from midships and then work forward and aft simultaneously as the midships tank is emptied

27. Ballast water exchange should be done:

• A. at least 100 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 100 metres in depth.
• B. at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 100 metres in depth.
• C. at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 200 metres in depth.
• D. at least 100 nautical miles from the nearest land and in waters at least 200 metres in depth.

28. As per requirements of Marpol, Annex 1, all ships delivered on or after 1st Aug. 2010 with an aggregate oil fuel capacity 600 m3 and above, the oil fuel can be carried in

• A. Any of the tanks without any restriction
• B. Deep tanks and Double bottom tanks
• C. Deep tanks in protective locations
• D. Double bottom tanks not extending upto the ship's side

29. The atmosphere in a tank is too rich when it is

• A. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content
• B. makes the atmosphere below the LFL (Lower Flammable Level) capable of supporting combustion
• C. in a noncombustible state which can be relied on to occur naturally on a regular basis
• D. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon vapor content makes the atmosphere above the UFL (Upper Flammable Limit)

30. Reid vapor pressure is __________.

• A. exerted by liquid cargo on the sides of a tank
• B. exerted by liquid cargo on a cargo hose body
• C. the lowest temperature and pressure that will cause a flammable liquid to give off vapors
• D. a measurement of the amount of flammable vapors given off by a liquid at a certain temperature

1. The fitting at the end of a cargo line in a tank that allows suction to be taken close to the bottom of a tank is a ___________.

• A. suction end
• B. strainer
• C. bell-mouth
• D. vacuum valve

2. The use of sinking and dispersing chemical agents for removal of surface oil is

• A. the most common method used
• B. too expensive for common use
• C. generally safe to sea life
• D. authorized only with prior approval

3. High level and overfill tank alarms are set:

• A. as per the ships cargo system
• B. to values as recommended by the manufacturer
• C. to values depending on cargo type
• D. to values as recommended by the ISGOTT guide

4. You are planning to use a crude oil washing system. What precaution must be taken with the source tank for the washing machines?

• A. At least one meter must be decanted from the source tank.
• B. The oil in the source tank must be sampled for compatibility.
• C. The source tank must have been crude oil washed at least once in the past 150 days.
• D. The inert gas system must lower the oxygen content in the source tank to a maximum of 12%.

5. As per definition of MARPOL Annex-1, a Crude oil tanker means a tanker designed to carry

• A. Crude oil and other dirty oils
• B. Crude oil alongwith some refined products
• C. Crude oil only
• D. Crude oil, but alternatively may carry at times dirty and clean oil products also

6. The atmosphere in a tank is too lean if it is

• A. incapable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is below the LFL (LowerFlammable Limit)
• B. capable of supporting combustion because the hydrocarbon content is above the UFL (UpperFlammable Limit)
• C. capable of supporting a fire once started
• D. not safe for ballasting

7. While testing a cargo tank, your oxygen indicator reads 25% oxygen in the tank. You would then

• A. enter the tank safely
• B. suspect the accuracy of the reading
• C. ventilate the tank
• D. test for nitrogen

8. As per the definition of MARPOL, Annex-1, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry

• A. Crude oil and refined oil products at the same time in different tanks
• B. Refined oil products and chemical products at the same time in different tanks
• C. A combination of different products at the same time, sometimes also known as a parcel tanker
• D. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk

9. The main function of a stripping system is to

• A. maintain the temperature of the cargo throughout the vessel
• B. dispose of dangerous vapors within the cargo tanks
• C. increase the loading rate of the shoreside pumps
• D. discharge liquid left in the cargo tanks after the main pumps have discharged the bulk

10. Pollution regulations require that each scupper in an enclosed deck area have a

• A. wooden plug
• B. soft rubber plug
• C. two-piece soft patch
• D. mechanical means of closing

11. During loading and discharging operation in addition o when the cargo tanks have been properly filled each inert gas system must be capable of maintaining a minimum gas pressure of

• A. 50 millimeters of water pressure
• B. 25 millimeters of water pressure
• C. 100 millimeters of water pressure
• D. 5 millimeters of water pressure

12. When authorized to use chemical agents on an oil spill they would

• A. absorb the oil for easy removal
• B. dissolve the oil in the water
• C. facilitate the removal of the pollutant from the water
• D. sink the oil

13. In developing the stability booklet, consideration must be given to including the following information: which one of these will be most important prior sailing out?

• A. Tank sounding tables showing capacities, vertical centers of gravity, and longitudinal centers of gravity in graduated intervals and showing free surface data for each tank.
• B. Information on maximum KG or minimum GM curve that can be used to determine compliance with applicable intact and damage stability criteria.
• C. A rapid and simple means for evaluating other loading conditions.
• D. A brief description of the stability calculations done including assumptions.

14. One of the requirements of a vessel’s intact stability criteria is that:

• A. The GZ should be at least 0.15 metres at an angle of 25 degrees or more
• B. The GZ should be at least 0.15 metres at an angle of 30 degrees or more
• C. The GZ should be at least 0.20 metres at an angle of 25 degrees or more
• D. The GZ should be at least 0.20 metres at an angle of 30 degrees or more

15. As regulation 12 of Annex 1 of MARPOL, all ships of __________ gross tonnage and above shall be provided with a sludge tank for collection of oil residues

• A. 150 tonnes deadweight
• B. 150 gross tonnage
• C. 400 tonnes deadweight
• D. 400 gross tonnage

16. The lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off sufficient vapors to form a flammable mixture with air is known as the _________.

• A. fire point
• B. flash point
• C. lower explosive limit
• D. threshold limit value

17. The high-level overfill tank alarm, installed in the on-board monitoring system, must

• A. operate in unison with other alarms
• B. be both audible and visual
• C. be the same as the overfill alarm
• D. sound when the tank is 90% full

18. What is NOT a precaution to be taken when topping off?

• A. Reduce the loading rate.
• B. Notify the engine room of the procedure.
• C. Maintain communications with the dock man.
• D. Give the operation your undivided attention.

19. The minimum concentration of a vapor in air which can form an explosive mixture is called the

• A. auto-ignition point
• B. flash point
• C. lower explosive limit (LEL)
• D. threshold limit value (TLV)

20. What is the material used in cargo pump?

• A. EN 8
• B. Bronze
• C. Aluminium
• D. Stainless steel

21. What happens in the volute casing of the centrifugal pump?

• A. Pressure energy converted into Kinetic energy
• B. Velocity of the liquid increases
• C. Kinetic energy converted into pressure energy
• D. Air bubbles are produced, creating cavitation

22. What type of pump, the FRAMO system uses for liquid chemical cargo?

• A. Reciprocating pump
• B. Variable delivery axial flow pump
• C. Centrifugal pump
• D. Gear pump

23. Each inert gas system gas main must have an automatic shut down valve at the outlet of the gas production plant.

• A. cargo pump failure
• B. blower failure
• C. deck seal low water level
• D. low inert gas temperature

24. Cargoes carried by a tanker as miscellaneous liquids are

• A. Palm oil, molasses, tallow
• B. Soybean oil, Sunflower oil, Other vegetable oils
• C. Animals oils, Grease
• D. Freshwater, Wine, Beer

25. The organic chemical liquids are

• A. Phosphoric acid, Hydrochloric acid, Molten sulfur
• B. Tallow and greases, Molasses, Wine
• C. Boric acid, Sulfuric acid, Caustic soda
• D. Vinyl chloride, Acetone, Acetic acid

26. The chemical liquids may be categorized as

• A. Organic or Inorganic
• B. Volatile or Non-volatile
• C. Flammable or combustible
• D. Petroleum or special

27. Why personal protective equipment may be required when a chemical tanker carry high vapor pressure cargo?

• A. Because high vapor pressure releases more vapor
• B. Because high vapor pressure releases less vapor
• C. Because high vapor pressure releases hot vapor
• D. Because high vapor pressure releases cold vapor

28. Molarity = Number of moles of solute per

• A. Solvent in kilograms
• B. Solution in litres
• C. Mililitres
• D. Litres

29. Vegetable and animal oils may vary in composition and the most important factor is their free fatty acid content, which greatly affects

• A. The carriage pressure
• B. The cargo pumping rate
• C. The suitability of coatings
• D. The cargo tank atmosphere

30. What is the effect of intermolecular forces on vapor pressure?

• A. Relatively strong force will increase vapor pressure
• B. Relatively strong force will decrease vapor pressure
• C. Relatively weak force will decrease vapor pressure
• D. Relatively weak force does not have any effect on vapor pressure

1. Specific gravity is used by the American Petroleum Institute (API) to classify various

• A. Viscosities of oil
• B. Vapor densities of oil
• C. Weights of oil
• D. Volumes of oil

2. Vegetable and animal oils may vary in composition. The most important factor is their

• A. Alkalinity content
• B. Hydrocarbon content
• C. Composition
• D. Free fatty acid content

3. System in which both matter and energy can be exchanged with the surroundings is

• A. Open system
• B. Closed system
• C. Surrounding
• D. Isolated system

4. Combustion of carbon is an example for

• A. Exothermic reaction
• B. Endothermic reaction
• C. Reversible reaction
• D. Irreversible reaction

5. Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from

• A. Liquid to the gas phase & Vice versa
• B. Solid to the Liquid phase & Vice versa
• C. Gas to the super heated gas phase & Vice versa
• D. Solid to the gas phase & Vice versa

6. The change in the internal energy is represented as

• A. ∆U
• B. ∆H
• C. ∆G
• D. ∆T

7. Bottle A contains a dilute solution of vinegar and bottle B contains sodium carbonate solution, the colours seen in pH paper dipped in A and B are :

• A. orange, blue
• B. green, blue
• C. blue, orange
• D. orange, green

8. Which process does not result in the formation of both carbon dioxide and water?

• A. addition of a dilute acid to a carbonate
• B. burning ethanol
• C. burning methane
• D. heating crystals of hydrated sodium carbonate

9. In a volumetric experiment involving the addition of hydrochloric acid to 25.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide it is necessary to determine when the reaction is just complete. Which piece of apparatus could be used to determine the end-point of the reaction

• A. balance
• B. gas syringe
• C. stop watch
• D. thermometer

10. Which compound in a 1 mol/dm3 solution has the lowest pH value?

• A. ethanoic acid
• B. hydrogen chloride
• C. sodium chloride
• D. sodium hydroxide

11. In a binary homogeneous solution the component present in a _____ amount is called a solute.

• A. smaller
• B. Larger
• C. fixed
• D. miscible

12. The energy possesed by all the molecules or atoms is called

• A. Internal energy
• B. Enthalpy
• C. Gibbs energy
• D. Free energy

13. Indicators used in acid-base titrations are

• A. strong organic acids
• B. strong organic bases
• C. weak organic acids or weak organic bases
• D. non electrolysis

14. A bee sting is acidic. Which household substance will neutralise a bee sting?

• A. damp bicarbonate of soda pH8
• B. damp common salt pH7
• C. lemon juice pH5
• D. vinegar pH4

15. The complex group of liquid cargoes that includes alcohols, ketones, glycols, esters, ethers, aromatic hydrocarbons, chlorinated hydrocarbons, etc. are known as

• A. Solvents and Chemicals
• B. White Oil
• C. Non-petroleum oil
• D. Other chemicals

16. In solid solution, solute can be _______

• A. Liquid and Gas
• B. Liquid or gas
• C. Only solid
• D. Only liquid

17. Mixture of two or more substance in which composition can vary within a limit is called -------------------solution.

• A. Homogenous
• B. Heterogenous
• C. Nonvenomous
• D. Colloids are homogeneous mixtures where the particles are small enough that they stay suspended.

18. Which statement does not describe a property of a weak acid in solution?

• A. It forms a salt with sodium hydroxide.
• B. It has a pH of between 8 and 9.
• C. It is only partly dissociated into ions.
• D. It reacts with sodium carbonate to give off carbon dioxide.

19. Lube oils and additives group of cargoes (excluding halogenated, phosphated, and ester types) usually poses no problems for carriage in coated cargo tanks, but contamination of cargo may be a problem which requires

• A. Thorough venting of tanks during carriage
• B. Thorough cleaning and drying of tanks after discharging
• C. Thorough inerting of tanks before loading
• D. Thorough cleaning and drying of tanks before loading

20. The reaction which absorbs the chemical energy is,

• A. Forward reaction
• B. Reverse reaction
• C. Exothermic reaction
• D. Endothermic reaction

21. Cargoes should not be loaded into a tank that is not specially for that purpose; if it exceeds normal atmospheric pressure at

• A. 60.0 Deg C (140 Deg F)
• B. 15.6 Deg C (60 Deg F)
• C. 25.0 Deg C (77 Deg F)
• D. 37.8 Deg C (100 Deg F)

22. Colder liquids hold more _________ than warmer liquid.

• A. Gases
• B. Liquid
• C. Pressure
• D. Water

23. In exothermic reactions heat is released due to ______ taking place in them.

• A. Cyclic reaction
• B. Irreversible reaction
• C. Physical reaction
• D. Chemical reaction

24. The system which contains uniform or same physical state of its matter is a

• A. Homogeneous system
• B. Hetrogeneous system
• C. Mixture
• D. Unisystem

25. In exothermic reactions, the amount of energy required for a chemical reaction is

• A. Equal to the the total energy released
• B. Greater than the total energy released
• C. Less than the total energy released
• D. Zero

26. The colour of the pH paper strip turned red when it was dipped into a sample. The sample could be:

• A. dil. Na2CO3 solution
• B. tap water
• C. dil. NaOH solution
• D. dil. HCI acid

27. Which reactants could be used safely to prepare potassium chloride?

• A. aqueous potassium hydroxide and dilute hydrochloric acid
• B. aqueous potassium sulphate and aqueous sodium chloride
• C. potassium and aqueous sodium chloride
• D. potassium and dilute hydrochloric acid

28. Modified epoxy or zinc silicate coated tanks may be required to carry some

• A. Lub oils
• B. Vegitable oils
• C. Unleaded Gasolines
• D. Animal oils

29. The product of coefficient of viscosity, surface area and the velocity difference between layers of flowing liquid is

• A. Viscosity of Liquid
• B. Force of friction between liquid layers
• C. Velocity of the fluid
• D. Vapor pressure of liquid

30. The reaction which releases the chemical energy is

• A. Forward reaction
• B. Reverse reaction
• C. Exothermic reaction
• D. Endothermic reaction

1. Some of these Solvents and Chemicals products require extreme care in the choice of

• A. Tank material
• B. Tank construction
• C. Tank coating and cargo handling
• D. Type of cargo pumps

2. What is auto-ignition?

• A. The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs
• B. Automatic ignition of material in a hot atmosphere
• C. Ignition of materials when they come in contact with each other
• D. Ignition caused by a mixture of vapours given off by cargoes

3. What is the limitation of a catalytic combustion type combustible gas detector (explosimeter)?

• A. It cannot be used for measurement in air
• B. It cannot be used for measurement in an inert (oxygen-deficient) atmosphere such as nitrogen
• C. It cannot be used for measuring methane
• D. It cannot be used in an atmosphere containing 21% oxygen

4. Small oil spills on deck can be kept from going overboard by ____.

• A. Driving wooden plugs into the vents
• B. Closing the lids on the vents
• C. Plugging the scuppers
• D. Plugging the sounding pipes

5. During ship-to-ship (STS) transfer operations, the manoeuvring vessel normally berths ____.

• A. Either side to
• B. Port side to
• C. Starboard side to
• D. As instructed by the mother vessel

6. As required by MARPOL Annex I Regulation 31, the ODMCS shall be fitted with a recording device giving a ____ record of the discharge in litres per nautical mile and the total quantity discharged. This record shall be kept on board for at least ____.

• A. Intermittent, 1 year
• B. Continuous, 1 year
• C. Intermittent, 3 years
• D. Continuous, 3 years

7. Each ship fitted with an inert gas system must carry a portable instrument for measuring hydrocarbon vapour concentration in inert atmospheres, and an instrument for measuring ____.

• A. Nitrogen
• B. Oxygen
• C. Carbon dioxide
• D. Hydrogen sulphide

8. How is intrinsic safety achieved for electrical circuits used in hazardous areas?

• A. By limiting the ignition energy and surface temperature that can arise during operation
• B. By limiting the number of items of equipment used in a space
• C. By increasing mechanical ventilation to the area
• D. By installing higher-powered machinery so that operating time is shorter

9. What is the gas group classification of an LNG carrier, based on the gas likely to be present in its hazardous spaces?

• A. Group IIC
• B. Group IIB
• C. Group I
• D. Group IIA

10. Which international bodies provide regulatory standards for electrical equipment certification for hazardous areas?

• A. IEEC and CENELEC
• B. IEC and CENELEC
• C. IEEC and ISO
• D. IMO and ISO

11. What should the Master of an LNG carrier do if the Custody Transfer System (CTS) fails?

• A. Use the gauging reports of the shore receiving tanks
• B. Inform the company and receivers, and use manual gauging with the tank tables
• C. Inform the terminal and activate the ESD button
• D. Suspend cargo operations until the CTS is repaired

12. The location of electrical equipment is classified by zones. What does Zone 1 mean?

• A. Flammable material is under control and explosion or fire can never occur
• B. Flammable material is under control and an explosive mixture can occur only in abnormal conditions
• C. Flammable material is present continuously within the LEL and UEL
• D. Flammable material is present and an explosive mixture is likely to form in normal operation

13. A radar tank gauge is stamped Ex ia IIC T4. What is the maximum surface temperature allowed?

• A. 450°C
• B. 135°C
• C. 85°C
• D. 200°C

14. Which IEC symbol denotes explosion-proof (flameproof) electrical protection?

• A. Ex e
• B. Ex d
• C. Ex n
• D. Ex p

15. Why is the maximum surface temperature identified for electrical equipment used in hazardous areas onboard LNG carriers?

• A. The limit is on minimum surface temperature on LNG carriers, as the cargo is cryogenic
• B. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce power and boil-off consumption
• C. Equipment should operate within these limits to prevent a hot surface becoming a source of ignition
• D. Equipment should operate within these limits to reduce heat transfer to the cryogenic cargo

16. What happens when certain synthetic polymers are vigorously rubbed together and then separated?

• A. Electrical charge separation occurs
• B. Electrical charge accumulation occurs
• C. Electrostatic discharge occurs
• D. None of the above

17. Before entering a fuel tank that has been cleaned, it should be checked with an oxygen indicator and a/an ____.

• A. halide torch
• B. flame safety lamp
• C. Orsat apparatus
• D. combustible gas indicator

18. What is the typical measuring range of a portable oxygen analyser?

• A. 0 to 10 ppm oxygen by volume in air
• B. 0 to 25% oxygen by volume in air
• C. 0 to 5% oxygen by volume in air
• D. 0 to 100% oxygen by volume in air

19. A tank or compartment is "gas free" when there is an absence of dangerous concentrations of ____.

• A. any combustible liquid
• B. flammable or toxic gases
• C. all flammable liquids
• D. residues from cargo oil

20. For what minimum duration must an EEBD be capable of being used?

• A. 5 minutes
• B. 10 minutes
• C. 15 minutes
• D. 20 minutes

21. When entering the pump room of a tanker to rescue an unconscious person, which equipment are you required to use?

• A. Protective clothing and an explosion-proof flashlight
• B. Self-contained breathing apparatus and lifelines
• C. Combustible gas indicator and canister gas mask
• D. Flame safety lamp and resuscitation equipment

22. What are the three basic stages that lead to a potential static hazard and are necessary for an electrostatic ignition?

• A. Viscosity, charge separation and temperature
• B. Charge accumulation, velocity and density
• C. Charge separation, charge accumulation and electrostatic discharge
• D. Flammable gas, air and heat source

23. A permit to work should not be valid for more than ____.

• A. 12 hours
• B. 24 hours
• C. 36 hours
• D. 48 hours

24. A cargo tank should be considered an enclosed space ____.

• A. if the previous cargo was flammable
• B. always, irrespective of the nature of the cargo previously carried
• C. if the previous cargo was toxic
• D. if the chief officer declares it to be so after testing

25. Which of the following current levels can stop the heart functioning and blood circulation?

• A. 0.01 A
• B. 0.015 A
• C. 0.5 A
• D. 0.10 A

26. If there has been a fire in a closed, unventilated compartment, it may be unsafe to enter because of ____.

• A. excess hydrogen
• B. unburned carbon particles
• C. excess nitrogen
• D. a lack of oxygen

27. When the oxygen content is between ____, a person may experience fainting, nausea and vomiting.

• A. 19.5% and 16%
• B. 16% and 12%
• C. 12% and 10%
• D. 10% and 8%

28. Which of the following is required to be included in the fireman's outfit?

• A. Chemical protection face shield
• B. Approved work vest
• C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
• D. Five-cell approved flashlight

29. A man has suffered a burn on the arm with extensive skin damage and charring. How is this injury classified in standard medical terminology?

• A. Dermal burn
• B. Third-degree burn
• C. Major burn
• D. Lethal burn

30. To detect the presence of explosive gases in any space, tank or compartment, you should use a ____.

• A. flame scanner
• B. halide torch
• C. combustible gas indicator
• D. detector filament

1. What is an EEBD used for?

• A. For escape from machinery or accommodation spaces in the event of a fire
• B. For safety when entering a tank
• C. For rescuing a person from a tank
• D. For supplying oxygen to a victim

2. What is a particular advantage of using a positive-pressure self-contained breathing apparatus in an atmosphere immediately dangerous to life or health?

• A. The equipment is compact and the wearer can work in confined spaces without difficulty
• B. The equipment is lightweight and reduces physical strain on the wearer
• C. The average operating time of most air cylinders is over an hour
• D. The positive pressure in the face piece prevents contaminated air from entering it

3. Experience indicates that hazardous static potentials do not occur, once the inlet is submerged, if the loading velocity of the liquid in the pipeline is ____.

• A. below 7 m/s
• B. above 7 m/s
• C. above 10 m/s
• D. below 3 m/s

4. What should you do when the low-pressure alarm on a self-contained breathing apparatus sounds?

• A. Immediately evacuate the contaminated area
• B. Open the bypass valve on the regulator and continue working
• C. Move the cylinder selector lever to the full cylinder position and reset the alarm
• D. Move the reserve lever to the reserve position and reset the alarm so you can leave when it sounds again

5. Is an enclosed space entry permit required for entering a cargo pump room?

• A. The Master will decide based on the findings of the chief officer
• B. The chief officer will assess the situation and decide
• C. Yes, the checklist, permit and other entry procedures apply as for all enclosed spaces
• D. No, the pump room has a fixed ventilation fan and is frequently visited

6. Which of the following current levels leads to muscular contraction?

• A. 0.01 A
• B. 0.015 A
• C. 0.5 A
• D. 0.10 A

7. Which instrument is used to measure hydrocarbon gas in an inert atmosphere?

• A. Explosimeter
• B. Draeger tube instrument
• C. Multi-gas detector
• D. Tankscope

8. A crew member suffering from hypothermia should be given ____.

• A. a small dose of alcohol
• B. treatment for shock
• C. a large meal
• D. a brisk rub-down

9. The reading of a combustible gas indicator shows the percentage of the ____.

• A. lower explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
• B. upper explosive limit of a flammable gas concentration
• C. concentration of flammable gas in a compartment by volume
• D. concentration by weight of non-flammable gas in a compartment

10. Which step is NOT generally taken when gas-freeing a tank?

• A. Washing the tank interior with sea water
• B. Application of degreasing solvents
• C. Removal of corrosion products and sludge
• D. Fresh air ventilation

11. For a sequential sampling gas detection system, what is the maximum interval between sampling and analysing each sampling head location?

• A. Not exceeding 50 minutes
• B. Not exceeding 40 minutes
• C. Not exceeding 30 minutes
• D. Not exceeding 60 minutes

12. What is flash point?

• A. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient gas to form a flammable gas mixture near the surface of the liquid
• B. The temperature at which the gas is not flammable
• C. The temperature at which the liquid stops emitting gas
• D. The temperature at which an explosion is not possible

13. Which of the following is a supporter of combustion?

• A. Cooking gas
• B. Oxygen gas
• C. Nitrogen gas
• D. Producer gas

14. What is the lower flammable limit?

• A. The concentration of hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
• B. The limit at which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
• C. The limit at which there is too much oxygen to support combustion
• D. The limit for entry of personnel into tanks

15. What is bonding?

• A. Connecting together cargo pipeline flanges
• B. Connecting together metal parts to ensure electrical continuity
• C. Making a ship-to-shore cable connection
• D. Connecting together flexible couplings on deck

16. What factor mainly affects the dilution rate of a vapour cloud?

• A. Quantity of spill
• B. Weather conditions
• C. Thermal inversion only
• D. Diameter of the vapour cloud

17. Which of the following is a non-accumulator of static charge?

• A. Toluene
• B. Cyclohexane
• C. Ketones such as acetone
• D. Benzene

18. What is the Time Weighted Average (TWA)?

• A. A single instantaneous exposure
• B. The short-term exposure limit over 15 minutes
• C. The highest exposure reached
• D. The average exposure concentration over an 8-hour working day

19. What is toxicity?

• A. The degree to which a substance or mixture of substances can harm humans
• B. A substance that is poisonous only when swallowed
• C. A substance that is acidic
• D. None of the above

20. Sublimation is the phase transition of a substance ____.

• A. from the liquid to the solid phase
• B. from the solid to the liquid phase
• C. from the gas phase to the solid phase
• D. from the solid to the gas phase

21. Substances which catch fire are called ____.

• A. acids
• B. bases
• C. combustible
• D. burners

22. What is purging?

• A. The introduction of inert gas into a tank already in the inert condition to further reduce the oxygen or hydrocarbon content to a level below which combustion cannot take place if air is introduced
• B. Introducing oxygen into a tank to a high level
• C. Using blowers to push oxygen into a tank
• D. Using natural ventilation to gas free a tank

23. What is non-volatile petroleum?

• A. Petroleum having a flash point of 60°C or above
• B. Petroleum having a flash point of 60°C or below
• C. Petroleum having a flash point of 100°C or above
• D. Petroleum having a flash point of 100°C or below

24. What is hot work?

• A. Work carried out in high ambient temperatures
• B. Work involving sources of ignition or temperatures sufficiently high to cause ignition of a flammable gas mixture
• C. Work in a place where the temperature is very high
• D. Work carried out using hot material

25. What is a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?

• A. A document used only to find out the dangers of skin contact
• B. A document used only to find out the effects of inhalation
• C. A document identifying a substance and its constituents together with their hazards
• D. A document giving only the chemical name of the product

26. As required by SOLAS, how many sets of full protective clothing resistant to chemical attack must be provided, in addition to the firefighters' outfits, on ships carrying dangerous goods?

• A. 2 sets
• B. 3 sets
• C. 4 sets
• D. 5 sets

27. Where is smoking permitted on board a tanker while at a berth?

• A. Only in designated smoking rooms
• B. Anywhere on the ship
• C. In the engine room
• D. In the cargo control room

28. What is cathodic protection?

• A. Cathodes placed on the hull of a ship
• B. Anodes placed only at the stern of a ship
• C. Any protection of the hull of a ship
• D. The prevention of corrosion by electrochemical techniques

29. What is the upper flammable limit?

• A. The limit for entry of personnel into tanks
• B. The concentration of hydrocarbon gas in air above which there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
• C. The limit at which there is insufficient inert gas to support combustion
• D. The limit at which there is too much inert gas to support combustion

30. A liquid is considered to be flammable when its flash point is at or below ____.

• A. 50°F
• B. 60°F
• C. 70°F
• D. 80°F

1. What is pour point?

• A. The temperature at which oil becomes frozen solid
• B. The lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil will remain fluid
• C. The temperature at which oil cannot be discharged
• D. The temperature at which oil needs to be heated

2. How are Threshold Limit Values (TLVs) of gases normally specified?

• A. In ppm by volume of gas in air
• B. As a percentage of the LEL
• C. As a percentage by weight of liquid
• D. As a percentage of total tank volume

3. What is a hot work permit?

• A. A document used for carrying out repairs under supervision
• B. A document issued by a responsible person permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
• C. A document used only for work in dry dock
• D. A document valid for 7 days for carrying out tank cleaning

4. What is meant by "intrinsically safe"?

• A. Equipment that can be used in any atmosphere without precautions
• B. An electrical circuit in which any spark or thermal effect produced, normally or accidentally, is incapable of igniting a given gas mixture
• C. There is no danger if sparks are produced in an unsafe atmosphere
• D. Equipment fitted inside a gas-tight enclosure

5. What is cold work?

• A. Carrying out work in a cold atmosphere
• B. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
• C. Carrying out work on reefer containers
• D. Work that can be done only in cold temperatures

6. What is an inert condition?

• A. When all oxygen has been eliminated from a tank
• B. When the oxygen content is 10% by volume in a tank
• C. A condition in which the oxygen content throughout the tank atmosphere has been reduced to 8% or less by volume by the addition of inert gas
• D. When the oxygen content is 21% by volume in a tank

7. What is the open-cup flash point of petroleum liquids classified as combustible liquids?

• A. Above 80°F (26.7°C)
• B. Above 60°F (15.6°C)
• C. Below 80°F (26.7°C)
• D. Below 60°F (15.6°C)

8. The IMDG Code became mandatory on ____.

• A. 1 January 2000
• B. 1 January 2002
• C. 1 January 2004
• D. 1 January 2006

9. Animal and vegetable oils carried in tankers are classified as ____.

• A. Chemical liquids
• B. Special liquids
• C. Non-volatile liquids
• D. Non-flammable liquids

10. Grade A flammable liquids such as natural gasoline have a Reid vapour pressure of ____.

• A. more than 8.5 but less than 14 psi
• B. 14 psi and above
• C. 8.5 psi and below
• D. more than 24.6 psi only

11. What are the three broad classifications of cargoes transported in tankers?

• A. Liquefied natural gas, liquefied petroleum gas and liquefied nitrogen
• B. Petroleum liquids, chemical liquids and special liquids
• C. Container, dry bulk and refrigerated cargo
• D. General cargo, dry break bulk and frozen cargo

12. Petroleum liquids that have closed-cup flash points below 60°C (140°F) are considered ____.

• A. Non-volatile liquids
• B. Non-flammable liquids
• C. Volatile liquids
• D. Combustible liquids

13. Volume 2 of the IMDG Code contains which part?

• A. Part 1 - General provisions, definitions and training
• B. Part 2 - Classification
• C. Part 3 - The Dangerous Goods List (DGL)
• D. Part 4 - Packing and tank provisions

14. ____ is the process of separating a dissolved substance from its solution by removing the water.

• A. Distillation
• B. Evaporation
• C. Filtration
• D. Decantation

15. In a liquid solution, the solvent is a ____.

• A. solid
• B. liquid
• C. gas
• D. plasma

16. When CO2 is passed through lime water, the milkiness formed is due to ____.

• A. CaCO3 - calcium carbonate
• B. Ca(OH)2 - calcium hydroxide
• C. Ca(HCO3)2 - calcium bicarbonate
• D. CaSO4 - calcium sulphate

17. When four components are present in a solution, it is called a ____ solution.

• A. ternary
• B. quaternary
• C. primary
• D. binary

18. Which process separates a pure solid, in the form of its crystals, from a solution?

• A. Crystallisation
• B. Sublimation
• C. Chromatography
• D. Distillation

19. The quantitative relationship between pressure and the solubility of a gas in a solvent is known as ____.

• A. Henry's law
• B. Boyle's law
• C. Charles's law
• D. Raoult's law

20. What is the purpose of the seals in a Framo submerged cargo pump?

• A. To prevent hydraulic oil seeping to the cargo side only
• B. To prevent cargo seeping to the hydraulic oil side only
• C. To prevent cargo and hydraulic oil leaking into each other's side
• D. To prevent sea water entering the pump

21. How can the speed of the cargo pump in a Framo system be varied?

• A. The speed of a Framo cargo pump cannot be varied
• B. By controlling the amount of hydraulic oil supplied to the hydraulic motor
• C. By controlling the amount of hydraulic oil supplied to the cargo side of the pump
• D. By throttling the cargo discharge valve only

22. To allow for the rise and fall of tide and changes in draft of a tanker during cargo transfer, cargo hoses must be suspended with ____.

• A. slings or saddles placed at 8-metre intervals
• B. enough slack in their bight
• C. topping lifts and runners tied off to winches
• D. lashings holding them tight to the ship's rail

23. Which statement about the pressure in a tank inerted by an inert gas system is TRUE?

• A. The maximum pressure permitted is 8 psi
• B. A positive pressure should be maintained at all times
• C. The pressure must remain within the limits of +5 psi to -1 psi
• D. Pressure should be kept below atmospheric to prevent gas leakage

24. In a float gauge, the float is connected to the indicating device by a ____.

• A. rope
• B. tape
• C. tube
• D. hydraulic line

25. Which of these statements about primary cells is correct?

• A. Used primary cells can be recharged
• B. Used primary cells can be refilled and reused
• C. Used primary cells have to be discarded
• D. Used primary cells regain capacity if left idle for a week

26. How should steam pipes be protected in machinery spaces?

• A. They should be painted in different colours
• B. They should have placards to warn personnel
• C. They should be lagged
• D. They should be kept wet to cool them

27. What is the bare minimum that should be done before working on electrical equipment?

• A. Complete the electrical isolation checklist
• B. Switch off the mains and start working
• C. Open the equipment and commence work
• D. Inform the bridge and start working

28. Dry chemical powder extinguishes a fire mainly by ____.

• A. heat removal or cooling
• B. smothering or oxygen exclusion
• C. flame inhibition (breaking the chain reaction)
• D. diluting the fuel vapour with water

29. Foam extinguishes a fire mainly by ____.

• A. heat removal or cooling
• B. smothering or oxygen exclusion
• C. flame inhibition
• D. chemical reaction with the fuel

30. What precaution should be taken while lifting heavy loads in the engine room?

• A. All personnel should stand under the load
• B. All personnel should stand clear of the load being lifted
• C. All personnel should operate the controls
• D. Personnel should steady the load by holding it from below

1. Glass and iron are examples of ____ materials.

• A. combustible
• B. non-combustible
• C. flammable
• D. indicator

2. Ignition temperature is the ____.

• A. lowest temperature at which a substance will catch fire
• B. highest temperature at which a substance will catch fire
• C. any temperature at which a substance is heated
• D. temperature at which a liquid boils

3. The oxygen level in a cargo tank is reduced by the ____.

• A. Inert gas system
• B. High-expansion foam system
• C. CO2 system
• D. Water spray system

4. By which adjustment does the air flow controller regulate the combustion air flow to the boiler?

• A. Forced draught fan speed
• B. Damper movement
• C. Boiler water test
• D. Fuel pump discharge pressure

5. Blowing through the water level gauge glass of a boiler on board is carried out ____.

• A. Once a week
• B. Every day
• C. Once a month
• D. Only at the annual survey

6. Periodic blow-down of boiler water is based on ____.

• A. Boiler water tests
• B. Boiler smoke
• C. Flame control
• D. Feed pump pressure

7. Why does a rotary cup burner not require a high-pressure fuel supply for atomisation?

• A. The rotary cup rotates at a high speed
• B. The fuel is heated to a very high temperature
• C. Steam is used to atomise the fuel
• D. The fuel is supplied through a very small orifice

8. In automatic boiler combustion control, the master signal is generated by the computing relay based on the requirement of ____.

• A. Fuel
• B. Steam
• C. Air
• D. Feed water

9. On a rise in steam demand, to which controller does the high signal selector first pass the master signal?

• A. Fuel controller
• B. Air controller
• C. Flame controller
• D. Feed water controller

10. The air vent valve on top of the boiler shall be kept ____.

• A. Open for a while during raising steam from cold
• B. Closed while the boiler is shut down for maintenance
• C. Closed at all times
• D. Open continuously while the boiler is on load

11. Scum blowing of a boiler is meant for draining boiler water from the ____.

• A. Bottom
• B. Top (water surface)
• C. Middle
• D. Furnace

12. What is normally observed through the inspection hole of the boiler furnace while firing?

• A. Furnace refractory
• B. Flame condition
• C. Boiler smoke
• D. Water level

13. How is the air for combustion supplied to a marine boiler?

• A. The forced draught fan supplies air for combustion to the boiler
• B. Air for combustion flows due to the natural draught of the boiler
• C. The rotary cup draws in all the air needed
• D. Compressed air from the main air receiver is used

14. Which is the most accurate instrument for measuring the amount of oxygen in the atmosphere of a confined space?

• A. Combustible gas indicator
• B. Oxygen analyser
• C. Flame safety lamp
• D. Toxic gas detector tube

15. A catalytic combustible gas indicator will operate correctly ONLY when the ____.

• A. Hydrocarbon content of the atmosphere is less than the UEL
• B. Atmosphere is deficient in oxygen
• C. Compartment to be tested is free of CO2
• D. Ambient temperature is below 0°C

16. Gauging devices that release a small amount of cargo liquid or vapour to the atmosphere while in use are known as ____ devices.

• A. Restricted
• B. Detection
• C. Hydraulic
• D. Closed

17. Continuous exposure of the float of a float gauge to liquid movement caused by the ship's motion at sea can damage the ____.

• A. Tape tensioning device
• B. Diaphragm
• C. Sensors
• D. Ullage port cover

18. Which statement about a centrifugal cargo pump is TRUE?

• A. It is a positive displacement pump.
• B. It must have a positive suction.
• C. Increasing the rotation speed will decrease the discharge pressure.
• D. It can run dry for long periods without damage.

19. Segregated ballast tanks are required to be fitted on ____.

• A. Every crude oil and new product tanker of 20,000 dwt and above
• B. Every new crude oil tanker of 20,000 dwt and above and every new product carrier of 30,000 dwt and above
• C. Every crude oil and new product tanker of 30,000 dwt and above
• D. Every oil tanker of 5,000 dwt and above

20. MARPOL Annex VI prohibits deliberate emissions of ____, which include halons and chlorofluorocarbons.

• A. Ozone-depleting substances
• B. Ozone-enhancing substances
• C. Sulphur-sensitive substances
• D. Particulate substances

21. In cleaning up an oil spill, straw is an example of a ____.

• A. Chemical agent
• B. Sorbent
• C. Blocker
• D. Skimmer

22. What marking must be clearly visible on a crane?

• A. Manufacturer's logo
• B. Safe working load
• C. Make of the crane
• D. Name of the ship operator

23. Carbon dioxide extinguishes a fire by ____.

• A. Heat removal or cooling
• B. Smothering or oxygen exclusion
• C. Flame inhibition
• D. Removal of the fuel

24. Which of the following activities is done on completion of work in an enclosed space?

• A. Closing and securing all openings
• B. Ensuring satisfactory lighting
• C. Informing all related parties about the intended entry
• D. Testing the atmosphere before entry

25. What is the least you must do before entering a cofferdam in the engine room?

• A. Open up the manhole and enter the cofferdam
• B. Complete an enclosed space entry checklist
• C. Enter the cofferdam and simultaneously start ventilation
• D. Put on a dust mask and enter

26. Water extinguishes a fire mainly by ____.

• A. Heat removal or cooling
• B. Smothering or oxygen exclusion
• C. Flame inhibition
• D. Removal of the fuel

27. Which of the following is an entry activity?

• A. Permit closed
• B. Confirmation of removal of all equipment
• C. Entry permit issued
• D. Space closed and secured

28. What should be prohibited in the vicinity of battery rooms?

• A. Painting
• B. Smoking
• C. Washing
• D. Drinking water

29. Vapours having a lower relative density than air will be found at the ____ of the enclosed space.

• A. Middle
• B. Top
• C. Bottom
• D. Access hatch only

30. What is the least a person should do before entering machinery spaces?

• A. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
• B. Inform the bridge
• C. Inform his superiors
• D. Remove his safety shoes

1. For entering an enclosed space, ____ of 21% is necessary.

• A. Oxygen
• B. Carbon dioxide
• C. Nitrogen
• D. Argon

2. What is a corona discharge?

• A. A diffuse discharge from a single sharp conductor that slowly releases some of the available energy; on its own it is generally incapable of igniting a gas
• B. A diffuse discharge from a single sharp conductor that slowly releases some of the available energy; on its own it is generally capable of igniting a gas
• C. A diffuse discharge from a single sharp conductor that is incapable of igniting a gas only if the mixture is lean
• D. A spark between two conductors at different potentials that always ignites a flammable mixture

3. Which type of anodes must not be fitted in tanks where flammable gases can be present?

• A. Magnesium anodes
• B. Aluminium anodes
• C. Zinc anodes
• D. Iron anodes

4. A substance that takes part in combustion as the fuel is called ____.

• A. Combustible
• B. Non-combustible
• C. Inert
• D. Catalyst

5. When did Annex VI of MARPOL enter into force?

• A. 1 July 1992
• B. 19 May 2005
• C. 31 December 1988
• D. 1 January 2020

6. Under MARPOL Annex VI, from what date were new installations containing hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) prohibited on all ships?

• A. 2015
• B. 2010
• C. 1 January 2020
• D. 1 January 2025

7. What type of pollution is addressed by Annex II of MARPOL?

• A. Pollution by oil
• B. Pollution by noxious liquid substances in bulk
• C. Pollution by garbage
• D. Pollution by sewage

8. Which Annex of MARPOL deals with the prevention of pollution by sewage from ships?

• A. Annex VI
• B. Annex IV
• C. Annex III
• D. Annex V

9. Which part of the Oil Record Book deals with machinery space operations?

• A. Part I
• B. Part II
• C. Part III
• D. Cargo Record Book

10. Under which Annex of MARPOL is the Garbage Record Book required?

• A. Annex II
• B. Annex V
• C. Annex VI
• D. Annex IV

11. Which ships have to carry a Shipboard Marine Pollution Emergency Plan (SMPEP) for noxious liquid substances?

• A. Ships of 400 GT or more carrying 15 persons or more
• B. Ships of 150 GT or more carrying oil cargoes
• C. Ships of 150 GT or more certified to carry noxious liquid substances in bulk
• D. All ships of 500 GT and above

12. Under the MARPOL Annex I single-hull tanker phase-out, what is a Category 2 oil tanker?

• A. Any oil tanker of 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
• B. A crude tanker of 20,000 dwt and above (product tanker 30,000 dwt and above) without protectively located SBTs
• C. A crude tanker of 20,000 dwt and above (product tanker 30,000 dwt and above) that complies with the SBT/PL requirements
• D. Any oil tanker below 5,000 tonnes deadweight

13. What is the requirement for ships to carry a SOPEP on board?

• A. SOPEP should be carried on board oil tankers of 150 GT or more and other ships of 400 GT or more
• B. SOPEP should be carried on board oil tankers of 150 GT or more and on all other ships irrespective of size
• C. SOPEP should be carried only on board tankers of 400 GT or more
• D. SOPEP is required only on ships trading to US ports

14. What does SECA stand for?

• A. SOx Elimination Control Area
• B. SOx Emission Control Area
• C. SOx Escalation Control Area
• D. Sulphur Exhaust Clean Air

15. What is the minimum requirement for carrying a Garbage Management Plan on board a ship?

• A. Every ship of 100 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 persons or more
• B. Any ship which is 12 metres or more in length
• C. All ships irrespective of size and length
• D. Only ships of 400 GT and above

16. Outside Emission Control Areas, what is the current global maximum sulphur content of fuel oil used on board ships?

• A. 0.50% m/m
• B. 1.50% m/m
• C. 3.50% m/m
• D. 4.50% m/m

17. What is the main requirement of OPA 90?

• A. New tankers and tank barges should have double hulls
• B. New tankers and tank barges should not ply in US waters
• C. New tankers and tank barges with single hulls can ply in US ports
• D. New tankers must carry a US pilot at all times

18. After connecting the snap-on hydraulic couplings of a portable Framo pump, when is the arrangement considered safe?

• A. Only after the couplings are secured with the locking ring
• B. As soon as the coupling halves click together
• C. Only after the hydraulic pressure is raised to maximum
• D. Only after the couplings are wrapped with tape

19. Which of the following is a type of closed tank gauging equipment fitted on tankers?

• A. Radar gauge
• B. Ullage tape through an open ullage port
• C. Sounding rod
• D. Hydrometer

20. The hydrostatic pressure exerted by LNG at the bottom of a cargo tank is a function of ____.

• A. Liquid density and liquid level
• B. Tank volume only
• C. Vapour temperature only
• D. Tank surface area

21. When a flammable mixture ignites in an enclosed space, what is developed?

• A. A rapid rise in pressure
• B. A vacuum
• C. No change in pressure
• D. A drop in temperature

22. Intrinsically safe electrical equipment is designed so that ____.

• A. Any spark or thermal effect it produces is incapable of igniting the flammable mixture
• B. It can contain an internal explosion without rupturing
• C. It is pressurised with air to keep gas out
• D. It may only be used in gas-free areas

23. In an electrical circuit, resistors are used to ____.

• A. Limit the current flow
• B. Store electrical charge
• C. Increase the supply voltage
• D. Convert AC to DC

24. In a flameproof (Ex d) enclosure, the narrow gap between flanged joints serves to ____.

• A. Cool escaping hot gases so that they cannot ignite the outside atmosphere
• B. Trap the hot gases permanently inside the enclosure
• C. Allow fresh air to ventilate the enclosure
• D. Drain condensed water from the enclosure

25. During night helicopter operations, deck floodlights should be ____.

• A. Directed so as not to dazzle the pilot
• B. Pointed directly at the approaching helicopter
• C. Switched off completely
• D. Flashed on and off to signal the pilot

26. Putrefaction of cargoes such as animal and vegetable oils in a tank can result in ____.

• A. Evolution of toxic gases and oxygen depletion
• B. An increase in the oxygen content
• C. Release of pure nitrogen that makes the tank safe
• D. Formation of a breathable atmosphere

27. Before entering a cargo tank, the presence of which of the following should always be suspected?

• A. Cargo vapour or inert gas
• B. Excess oxygen only
• C. Steam
• D. Fresh air

28. Before testing the atmosphere of an enclosed space, ventilation should be stopped about ____ before the tests.

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 10 hours
• C. 24 hours
• D. 1 minute

29. In chemical tanker operations, what does the term PPE stand for?

• A. Process Parameter Enhancement
• B. Productivity and Profit Evaluation
• C. Personal Protective Equipment
• D. Production Planning Efficiency

30. Which safety measure is crucial when working with reactive chemicals?

• A. Increased temperature
• B. Adequate ventilation
• C. Minimal PPE usage
• D. Rapid handling

1. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for a chemical cargo?

• A. Employee performance evaluation
• B. Product advertising
• C. Providing information on chemical hazards
• D. Financial statement disclosure

2. Which hazard symbol represents a substance that can catch fire easily?

• A. Flame
• B. Skull and crossbones
• C. Exclamation mark
• D. Corrosion

3. What is the primary function of a scrubber in air pollution control?

• A. Increase emissions
• B. Remove pollutants from exhaust gases
• C. Enhance visibility in the environment
• D. Produce harmful by-products

4. In chemical storage and carriage, what is the purpose of segregating incompatible chemicals?

• A. Simplify inventory management
• B. Enhance colour coding
• C. Prevent accidental reactions
• D. Facilitate rapid disposal

5. Which hazard symbol represents a substance that poses an immediate (acute) toxic health hazard?

• A. Flame
• B. Skull and crossbones
• C. Exclamation mark
• D. Corrosion

6. What does the term 'hazardous area classification' refer to?

• A. Identifying areas with high productivity
• B. Designating areas with potential fire or explosion risks
• C. Analysing areas with minimal chemical exposure
• D. Classifying areas based on marketing strategies

7. What is the primary purpose of a chemical spill response plan?

• A. Minimise public awareness
• B. Maximise chemical production
• C. Ensure rapid disposal of spilled chemicals
• D. Minimise environmental and health risks

8. Under the IBC Code, cargo tanks of a ship type 1 must be located inboard from the side shell plating, at the summer load line, by at least:

• A. B/5 or 11.5 m, whichever is less
• B. B/15 or 2 m, whichever is less
• C. 760 mm only
• D. B/10 or 8 m, whichever is greater

9. For both ship type 1 and ship type 2, the IBC Code requires cargo tanks to be located above the moulded line of the bottom shell plating at centreline by not less than:

• A. B/15 or 6 m, whichever is less
• B. B/5 or 11.5 m, whichever is less
• C. 2 m in all cases
• D. 760 mm in all cases

10. For a ship type 2, the minimum distance of cargo tanks from the side shell plating required by the IBC Code is:

• A. 760 mm
• B. B/5
• C. 11.5 m
• D. No requirement

11. Which IBC ship type is intended to carry products with sufficiently severe environmental and safety hazards that require the maximum preventive measures against cargo escape?

• A. Ship type 1
• B. Ship type 2
• C. Ship type 3
• D. Ship type 4

12. Where in the IBC Code chapter 17 table is the minimum ship type for a product indicated?

• A. Column e
• B. Column c
• C. Column f
• D. Column k

13. Under the IBC Code, the quantity of a product required to be carried in a ship type 1 must not exceed how much in any one tank?

• A. 1,250 m3
• B. 3,000 m3
• C. 5,000 m3
• D. 700 m3

14. A product whose chapter 17 entry requires ship type 2 is to be loaded. What is the largest volume of it the IBC Code permits in a single cargo tank?

• A. 3,000 m3
• B. 1,250 m3
• C. 10,000 m3
• D. 2,000 m3

15. According to the IBC Code, a gravity tank is a tank having a design pressure at the top of the tank not greater than:

• A. 0.07 MPa gauge
• B. 0.7 MPa gauge
• C. 0.007 MPa gauge
• D. 0.25 MPa gauge

16. Which description correctly defines an integral tank in the IBC Code?

• A. A tank forming part of the ship's hull and stressed with the adjacent hull structure
• B. A self-supporting tank not contributing to hull strength
• C. A cylindrical pressure vessel mounted on deck
• D. A tank used only for cargo residues and slops

17. Under the IBC Code, cargoes that react in a hazardous manner with each other must be segregated by a cofferdam, void space, pump room, empty tank or tank containing a mutually compatible cargo, and also have:

• A. Separate pumping and piping systems and separate tank venting systems
• B. A common vent riser fitted with a flame screen
• C. A shared stripping line with a single blank flange
• D. Only a portable hose connection between tanks

18. What gives stainless steel cargo tanks their resistance to corrosion?

• A. A thin, self-healing chromium oxide passive film on the surface
• B. A zinc-rich primer applied at the shipyard
• C. Cathodic protection by magnesium anodes
• D. A rubber lining bonded to the steel

19. Why should seawater not be left standing in stainless steel cargo tanks for long periods?

• A. Chlorides break down the passive film and cause pitting corrosion
• B. Seawater hardens the steel and makes it brittle
• C. Seawater dissolves the nickel content completely
• D. Salt deposits increase the tank's design density

20. Which statement regarding phenolic epoxy tank coatings is correct?

• A. They have wider chemical resistance than plain epoxy but must be checked against the coating maker's resistance list for each cargo
• B. They are suitable for every cargo listed in the IBC Code without restriction
• C. They cannot be used for any vegetable oils
• D. They are the preferred coating for concentrated nitric acid

21. Under the IBC Code, cargo tanks must be segregated from machinery spaces, accommodation and service spaces and drinking-water and stores for human consumption by:

• A. Cofferdams, void spaces, cargo pump rooms, empty tanks, oil fuel tanks or similar spaces
• B. A single plate bulkhead only
• C. Insulation panels with fire rating A-60 only
• D. A water curtain system

22. Mechanical ventilation of a cargo pump room on a chemical tanker under the IBC Code must provide at least:

• A. 30 air changes per hour based on the total volume of the space
• B. 6 air changes per hour
• C. 2 air changes per hour
• D. 45 air changes per hour

23. Under the IBC Code, high-velocity vent outlets of a controlled tank venting system must be at least what height above the weather deck or fore-and-aft gangway?

• A. 3 m
• B. 1 m
• C. 6 m
• D. 10 m

24. Under the IBC Code, controlled venting outlets must be located at least what horizontal distance from the nearest air intake or opening to accommodation, service and machinery spaces and from ignition sources?

• A. 10 m
• B. 3 m
• C. 5 m
• D. 25 m

25. What is the main advantage of fitting each cargo tank of a parcel chemical tanker with its own submerged deepwell pump and dedicated line?

• A. Many grades can be carried and handled simultaneously with full segregation
• B. It removes the need for any cargo tank venting
• C. It allows cargo to be discharged without any shore manifold connection
• D. It eliminates the need for tank cleaning between cargoes

26. What is the principal hazard if a shore emergency shutdown valve closes too quickly while a chemical tanker is loading at a high rate?

• A. A pressure surge that may rupture hoses, loading arms or pipelines
• B. Static discharge inside the cargo tank
• C. An immediate vacuum in the cargo tank
• D. Overheating of the cargo pump motor

27. Under the IBC Code, ships carrying toxic or flammable products, or both, must be equipped with at least how many instruments designed and calibrated for testing the specific vapours?

• A. Two
• B. One
• C. Three
• D. Four

28. In IBC Code chapter 17, the letters 'T' and 'F' in column k indicate:

• A. Toxic and flammable vapour detection requirements
• B. Temperature class and fire protection
• C. Tank type and filling limit
• D. Tripartite agreement and flag approval

29. Why must the high-level alarm on a cargo tank be independent of the tank gauging system?

• A. So that failure of the gauge does not also disable the overfill warning
• B. So that it can be used instead of the gauge for cargo calculations
• C. So that it only operates when the ship is in port
• D. So that it can be reset by the terminal

30. When a chemical tanker uses a vapour emission control (vapour return) system, which monitoring arrangement is required in the vapour collection main?

• A. A pressure sensor with high and low pressure alarms
• B. A flow meter with a totaliser only
• C. A temperature sensor with a high temperature trip only
• D. A sight glass at the manifold

1. How is the ship's vapour manifold connection identified to prevent it being confused with a liquid cargo connection?

• A. Painted red/yellow/red bands with the word VAPOUR stencilled near the flange
• B. Painted entirely green with an arrow
• C. Fitted with a blue flange only
• D. Marked only on the cargo plan

2. During discharge of a cargo with a hydraulically driven submerged pump, which reading on the cofferdam purging of the pump indicates a possible cargo seal leak?

• A. Cargo liquid or vapour found when the pump cofferdam is purged
• B. Hydraulic oil pressure steady at the normal working value
• C. Normal discharge pressure at the manifold
• D. Ambient temperature in the cargo control room

3. For a heated cargo, why is the cargo temperature monitored and recorded at regular intervals during the voyage?

• A. To keep it within the shipper's limits and the coating and adjacent cargo limits
• B. To calculate the ship's fuel consumption
• C. To check the accuracy of the ullage tape only
• D. To decide the ballast water exchange sequence

4. What should be done before cargo operations start regarding the emergency shutdown arrangements between ship and shore?

• A. Test the ESD system and agree its activation method and closure times
• B. Disconnect the ESD link to avoid spurious trips
• C. Leave the ESD for the terminal to operate alone
• D. Test the ESD only after the first hour of loading

5. Which action is appropriate when the cargo tank high-level alarm sounds unexpectedly during loading?

• A. Stop or divert the flow to that tank immediately and verify the level by an independent means
• B. Silence the alarm and continue at the same rate
• C. Increase the loading rate to finish the tank sooner
• D. Open the tank's ullage port to relieve pressure

6. What does the oxygen analyser on a nitrogen-padded chemical tank help to confirm?

• A. That the oxygen content in the ullage space remains below the required level
• B. That the cargo has not polymerised
• C. That the cargo density is within specification
• D. That the tank coating is intact

7. What is the purpose of a tank pressure monitoring system on a chemical tanker fitted with closed venting?

• A. To give early warning of over-pressure or vacuum before P/V valves lift or the tank is damaged
• B. To measure cargo density
• C. To indicate the remaining stripping quantity
• D. To show the hydraulic oil pressure of the pump

8. Which functional group is characteristic of alcohols such as methanol and ethanol?

• A. Hydroxyl group (-OH)
• B. Carbonyl group within a carbon chain (C=O)
• C. Carboxyl group (-COOH)
• D. Amino group (-NH2)

9. Acetone and methyl ethyl ketone belong to which chemical group?

• A. Ketones
• B. Esters
• C. Alcohols
• D. Aldehydes

10. Benzene, toluene and xylene are classified as:

• A. Aromatic hydrocarbons
• B. Aliphatic alcohols
• C. Glycols
• D. Inorganic acids

11. Why does methanol present a particular hazard when it burns?

• A. It burns with a nearly invisible flame in daylight
• B. It cannot be extinguished by any foam
• C. It produces large quantities of black smoke
• D. It explodes on contact with water

12. Approximately what is the relative density of concentrated (about 98%) sulphuric acid?

• A. 1.83
• B. 1.03
• C. 0.79
• D. 1.25

13. Under MARPOL Annex II, a high-viscosity substance is a Category X or Y noxious liquid substance with a viscosity at the unloading temperature of:

• A. 50 mPa·s or more
• B. 5 mPa·s or more
• C. 20 mPa·s or more
• D. 500 mPa·s or more

14. Under MARPOL Annex II, a substance with a melting point below 15°C is a solidifying substance if, at the time of unloading, its temperature is:

• A. Less than 5°C above its melting point
• B. Less than 10°C above its melting point
• C. More than 15°C above its melting point
• D. Below 0°C

15. Paraffin wax has a melting point well above 15°C. Under MARPOL Annex II it is treated as a solidifying substance at unloading if its temperature then is:

• A. Less than 10°C above its melting point
• B. Less than 5°C above its melting point
• C. Less than 2°C above its melting point
• D. Exactly at its boiling point

16. Most chemical cargo vapours have a vapour density greater than 1. What is the practical consequence on deck and in enclosed spaces?

• A. Vapours tend to sink and collect in low points such as pump room bilges and under decks
• B. Vapours rise rapidly and disperse above the masthead
• C. Vapours are always harmless once released
• D. Vapours only collect near the funnel

17. Which chemical cargo is fully miscible with water?

• A. Methanol
• B. Benzene
• C. Toluene
• D. Xylene

18. What does the vapour pressure of a chemical cargo indicate?

• A. Its tendency to evaporate; the higher the vapour pressure, the more vapour it releases at a given temperature
• B. Its resistance to flow
• C. The temperature at which it solidifies
• D. Its density compared with water

19. How does the viscosity of most liquid chemical cargoes change when they are heated?

• A. It decreases, making the cargo easier to pump
• B. It increases sharply
• C. It remains unchanged
• D. It falls to zero above 40°C

20. Which hazard grouping on the IBC Code chapter 17 table is shown by the letter 'S' in column d?

• A. Safety hazard
• B. Solidifying cargo
• C. Special area restriction
• D. Stainless steel tank required

21. Which group of substances includes caustic soda solution and aqueous ammonia?

• A. Alkalis (bases)
• B. Mineral acids
• C. Aromatic hydrocarbons
• D. Esters

22. Which statement about esters such as vinyl acetate and ethyl acetate is correct?

• A. They are formed from an acid and an alcohol and are generally flammable solvents
• B. They are inorganic acids
• C. They are non-flammable inert gases
• D. They are always solid at ambient temperature

23. Which property mainly determines whether a cargo spilled in water will float, sink or dissolve?

• A. Its density and solubility in water
• B. Its flash point alone
• C. Its auto-ignition temperature
• D. Its colour on the Pt-Co scale

24. Phenol, paraffin wax and some fatty acids are carried heated mainly because they have:

• A. High melting points and solidify at ambient temperature
• B. Very low flash points
• C. Very high vapour pressures
• D. Low densities

25. Which organisation's hazard evaluation of substances forms the basis for assigning MARPOL Annex II pollution categories?

• A. GESAMP (Joint Group of Experts on the Scientific Aspects of Marine Environmental Protection)
• B. OCIMF
• C. SIGTTO
• D. Chemical Distribution Institute

26. Why should a tank of inhibited styrene monomer not be stowed adjacent to a tank carrying a cargo heated to a high temperature?

• A. Heat speeds up polymerisation and depletes the inhibitor, which can lead to a runaway reaction
• B. Heat raises the flash point of styrene above the safe limit
• C. Heat causes styrene to separate into water and hydrocarbon layers
• D. Heat makes styrene incompatible with stainless steel

27. Some inhibitors used in monomer cargoes are oxygen-dependent. What does this mean for the atmosphere in the cargo tank?

• A. A minimum oxygen level must be kept in the vapour space, so the tank must not be fully inerted
• B. The tank must be inerted to below 1% oxygen before loading
• C. The tank must be ventilated continuously with fresh air during the voyage
• D. The cargo must be padded with carbon dioxide instead of nitrogen

28. Isocyanates such as TDI and MDI are carried under dry nitrogen mainly because they:

• A. React with water or moist air, forming solids and carbon dioxide that can pressurise the tank
• B. Are pyrophoric and ignite spontaneously in air
• C. Polymerise only when exposed to nitrogen-free atmospheres
• D. Have a flash point below ambient temperature

29. Which pair of cargoes would be shown as incompatible on a cargo compatibility chart and must not be stowed in adjacent tanks without proper segregation?

• A. Sulphuric acid and caustic soda solution
• B. Toluene and xylene
• C. Methanol and ethanol
• D. Palm oil and soybean oil

30. Why must acrylic acid be prevented from freezing during the voyage?

• A. When it freezes, the inhibitor separates from the crystals and the thawed liquid may be uninhibited and polymerise
• B. Frozen acrylic acid expands and ruptures stainless steel tanks
• C. Freezing converts acrylic acid into a toxic gas
• D. Frozen acrylic acid cannot be tested for inhibitor content

1. Why are zinc and aluminium unsuitable materials for tanks and fittings in caustic soda (sodium hydroxide) service?

• A. Strong alkalis attack these metals and generate flammable hydrogen gas
• B. They catalyse polymerisation of caustic soda
• C. They become electrostatically charged by the cargo
• D. They absorb the cargo and change its concentration

2. Concentrated sulphuric acid can be carried in mild steel tanks, but dilution with water is dangerous because:

• A. Diluted acid attacks mild steel rapidly and releases hydrogen, besides the heat generated on mixing
• B. Diluted acid becomes flammable
• C. Diluted acid polymerises and solidifies in the lines
• D. Diluted acid stops conducting electricity, causing static build-up

3. Aqueous ammonia should not be handled with fittings made of which material?

• A. Copper and copper alloys such as brass
• B. Stainless steel
• C. Mild steel
• D. Polytetrafluoroethylene (PTFE) gaskets

4. Nitric acid must be kept well segregated from organic cargoes such as alcohols, oils and solvents mainly because it is:

• A. A strong oxidising agent that can react violently or ignite organic materials
• B. A polymerising cargo that needs an inhibitor
• C. Heavier-than-air flammable vapour
• D. Water-reactive, releasing hydrogen

5. A cargo tank has a total capacity of 1,000 m3 and may be filled to 98% at the highest temperature expected on passage, 50°C. The cargo density is 0.900 t/m3 at the loading temperature of 20°C and 0.876 t/m3 at 50°C. What is the maximum volume that may be loaded at 20°C?

• A. About 954 m3
• B. 980 m3
• C. About 1,007 m3
• D. About 931 m3

6. A cargo tank holds 2,500 m3 of cargo at standard temperature (15°C) with a density at 15°C of 0.8500 t/m3. Using the usual air buoyancy deduction of 0.0011, what is the weight of cargo in air?

• A. 2,122.25 t
• B. 2,125.00 t
• C. 2,127.75 t
• D. 2,941.18 t

7. The gross observed volume in a cargo tank is 1,200 m3 at 30°C and the volume correction factor for that temperature is 0.9850. What is the volume at standard temperature?

• A. 1,182 m3
• B. 1,218 m3
• C. 1,200 m3
• D. 1,170 m3

8. A shipper nominates 1,500 t of a chemical with a density of 1.250 t/m3 at the loading temperature. What volume will this cargo occupy in the tank?

• A. 1,200 m3
• B. 1,875 m3
• C. 1,250 m3
• D. 1,500 m3

9. 1,000 m3 of cargo is loaded at 20°C. Its coefficient of cubical expansion is 0.0010 per °C and it will be heated to 40°C on passage. Approximately what volume will it occupy when heated?

• A. 1,020 m3
• B. 1,002 m3
• C. 1,200 m3
• D. 980 m3

10. A rectangular slack cargo tank is 20 m long and 10 m wide and contains a liquid of density 1.0 t/m3. The ship's displacement is 10,000 t. What is the virtual loss of GM due to free surface?

• A. About 0.17 m
• B. About 0.02 m
• C. About 0.67 m
• D. About 1.67 m

11. Under MARPOL Annex I regulation 27, which applies to oil tankers of 5,000 dwt and above including product/chemical tankers certified for oil, what minimum initial metacentric height, corrected for free surface, is required in port?

• A. 0.15 m
• B. 0.05 m
• C. 0.30 m
• D. 0.50 m

12. Under the 2014 amendments to MARPOL Annex I and the IBC Code, chemical tankers constructed on or after 1 January 2016 must be fitted with:

• A. A stability instrument capable of verifying compliance with intact and damage stability requirements
• B. A ballast water treatment system with cargo tank monitoring
• C. A fixed cargo vapour recovery plant
• D. A hull stress monitoring system with strain gauges on deck

13. When a high-density cargo such as concentrated sulphuric acid is to be carried in a tank designed for a lower cargo density, what is the correct approach?

• A. Fill the tank only partially so the cargo mass stays within the design limit, checking any sloshing restrictions
• B. Fill the tank to 98% as with any other cargo
• C. Dilute the cargo with water to reduce its density
• D. Carry the cargo only in deck tanks

14. How do the permissible shear force and bending moment limits for harbour conditions normally compare with the seagoing limits shown in the loading manual?

• A. Harbour limits are higher, because wave-induced loads are not present in port
• B. Harbour limits are lower, because the ship is moored
• C. Both are always identical
• D. Harbour limits apply only when ballasting

15. Loading heavy cargo in the end tanks while the midship tanks are left empty will tend to make the ship:

• A. Hog
• B. Sag
• C. List to port
• D. Trim by the head only

16. Why must the loading sequence of a chemical tanker be checked on the loading computer for intermediate stages and not only for the final condition?

• A. Stress, stability and trim limits can be exceeded at an intermediate stage even when the final condition is acceptable
• B. The loading computer can only calculate intermediate stages
• C. The final condition never affects stresses
• D. It is required only for ships carrying Category X cargoes

17. According to the IBC Code, a ship type 3 chemical tanker is intended to carry products with:

• A. Sufficiently severe environmental and safety hazards to require a moderate degree of containment to increase survival capability
• B. The most severe hazards requiring maximum preventive measures
• C. No safety hazards at all
• D. Only liquefied gases under pressure

18. Duplex stainless steel is increasingly used for chemical tanker cargo tanks because it:

• A. Combines austenitic and ferritic structures, giving higher strength and better resistance to chloride stress corrosion
• B. Does not need any cleaning between cargoes
• C. Is immune to attack by all acids
• D. Is cheaper and lighter than mild steel

19. After a stainless steel tank surface has been contaminated with iron particles or damaged, which treatment restores its corrosion resistance?

• A. Pickling and passivation, usually with a nitric acid based solution
• B. Painting with zinc silicate
• C. Washing with hot seawater
• D. Applying a cathodic protection anode

20. Before a newly coated epoxy cargo tank can carry cargo, what must be ensured?

• A. The coating has fully cured according to the manufacturer's time and temperature requirements
• B. The tank has been filled with seawater for one week
• C. The coating has been covered with a layer of oil
• D. The coating is at least one year old

21. Under SOLAS chapter II-2, cargo pump rooms of tankers must be fitted with a system for continuous monitoring of hydrocarbon gas concentration, with an alarm set at not higher than:

• A. 10% of the lower flammable limit
• B. 50% of the lower flammable limit
• C. 100% of the lower flammable limit
• D. 1% by volume of oxygen

22. For cargo pumps in a pump room driven by shafts passing through the pump room bulkhead, SOLAS requires:

• A. Temperature sensing devices for the bulkhead shaft glands, bearings and pump casings
• B. A fixed water spray system on each pump
• C. Pumps to be stopped every two hours for inspection
• D. A vapour return line from each pump

23. Which monitoring arrangement is required by SOLAS in the cargo pump room bilges of a tanker?

• A. Bilge level monitoring devices with appropriately located alarms
• B. An oxygen analyser in each bilge well
• C. A sounding pipe only
• D. A fixed CO2 nozzle in each bilge

24. For the same liquid, how does the closed-cup flash point normally compare with the open-cup flash point?

• A. The closed-cup value is lower
• B. The closed-cup value is higher
• C. They are always the same
• D. Closed-cup values are used only for solids

25. A solution with a pH of 3 compared with a solution of pH 5 has a hydrogen ion concentration that is:

• A. 100 times greater
• B. 2 times greater
• C. 20 times greater
• D. 100 times smaller

26. Sodium hydroxide has a molar mass of 40 g/mol. What mass of sodium hydroxide is contained in 1 litre of a 1 molar (1 mol/L) solution?

• A. 40 g
• B. 1 g
• C. 20 g
• D. 400 g

27. What happens to the boiling point of a liquid cargo when the pressure above it is reduced?

• A. It falls, so the liquid boils at a lower temperature
• B. It rises
• C. It does not change
• D. It becomes equal to the flash point

28. When preparing a stowage plan for a parcel chemical tanker, which check must be made for every nominated product before allocating it to a tank?

• A. That the product is listed on the ship's Certificate of Fitness and the allocated tank meets its ship type, tank coating and equipment requirements
• B. That the product has the same flash point as the previous cargo
• C. That the product is lighter than water
• D. That the shipper has supplied a bill of lading in advance

29. In planning tank allocation, which combination should be avoided?

• A. A heat-sensitive cargo in a tank sharing a bulkhead with a cargo that will be heated
• B. Two compatible solvents in tanks separated by a cofferdam
• C. A heated cargo in a tank with heating coils
• D. A cargo that needs nitrogen padding in a tank connected to the nitrogen system

30. Before loading a heated cargo, why are the heating coils of the tank pressure-tested?

• A. To ensure there are no leaks that could let cargo into the heating system or heating medium into the cargo
• B. To calibrate the tank temperature sensors
• C. To verify the setting of the P/V valve
• D. To remove air from the cargo lines

1. What is the main purpose of taking a 'first foot' sample at the start of loading?

• A. To check the cargo quality in the tank and line before the bulk of the parcel is loaded, so contamination is detected early
• B. To measure the ullage after one foot of loading
• C. To calibrate the shore flow meter
• D. To test the high-level alarm

2. Why is loading started at a slow rate before increasing to the agreed maximum rate?

• A. To confirm cargo is entering the correct tank and there are no leaks before increasing flow
• B. To allow the cargo to cool in the lines
• C. To let the shore pumps warm up
• D. To reduce the vapour pressure of the cargo

3. For a static accumulator cargo loaded into a tank that is not inerted, what initial flow velocity limit is recommended by ISGOTT until the tank inlet is well covered?

• A. 1 m/s in the branch line to the tank
• B. 7 m/s
• C. 12 m/s
• D. No limit if the cargo is chemical

4. When topping off a cargo tank, which practice is correct?

• A. Give the terminal advance notice, reduce the loading rate and never close the last valve against the full flow
• B. Close all tank valves quickly at the same time
• C. Increase the rate so the tank fills before the next tank is opened
• D. Rely only on the overfill alarm to stop loading

5. At the end of loading, the shore line is blown clear into the ship with nitrogen or compressed air. Which precaution is most important?

• A. Keep a receiving tank with sufficient ullage open and control the gas pressure to avoid overflow, splashing or overpressurising the tank
• B. Close all tank valves so the gas stays in the line
• C. Open the ullage ports of all tanks
• D. Blow the line at maximum available pressure to finish quickly

6. During discharge of a nitrogen-padded cargo, what must be done to maintain the tank atmosphere?

• A. Supply nitrogen into the tank to replace the volume of liquid discharged and prevent air entry or vacuum
• B. Open the ullage port to let in fresh air
• C. Stop the P/V valve from operating
• D. Discharge only half the tank and leave the rest on board

7. Why may a high-viscosity cargo need to be heated before and during discharge?

• A. To reduce viscosity for pumping and stripping and, under MARPOL Annex II, to keep it above the temperature at which it becomes high-viscosity or solidifying
• B. To increase its vapour pressure for vapour return
• C. To raise its flash point
• D. To kill bacteria in the cargo

8. What should be checked daily during the passage for cargoes in transit on a chemical tanker?

• A. Tank pressures, cargo temperatures, padding/inert pressure, cofferdam and void space condition, and inhibitor expiry for inhibited cargoes
• B. Only the ullages of empty tanks
• C. Only the main engine fuel consumption
• D. The bill of lading quantities