AIGF exit exam questions and answers

All 342 questions from the Advanced Training for Ships subject to the IGF Code (AIGF) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked, and 323 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt 8 Sep 2026.

Practise these AIGF questions AIGF mock exit exam, 30 marks AIGF exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Insulation spaces are continually supplied with an inert gas as part of ______________

A. leak detection system
B. lever detection system
C. lever defining system
D. leak defining system

Answer: A — leak detection system

Under the IGF Code, insulation spaces and interbarrier spaces surrounding liquefied gas fuel tanks are continuously supplied with dry inert gas (nitrogen) to prevent moisture ingress and enable rapid leak detection by gas monitoring.

2. In IGF Code, Secondary barrier means

A. none of the above
B. to prevent the lowering of the temperature of the ship’s structure to an unsafe level
C. the liquid-resisting outer element of a fuel containment system designed to afford temporary containment of any envisaged leakage of liquid fuel through the primary barrier
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

Under the IGF Code, a secondary barrier is the liquid-resisting outer element of a fuel containment system designed to afford temporary containment of any envisaged leakage of liquid fuel through the primary barrier and prevent lowering the ship's hull structure temperature to unsafe levels.

3. In IGF Code, Secondary protection means

A. the liquid-resisting outer element of a fuel containment system designed to afford temporary containment of any envisaged leakage of liquid fuel through the primary protection
B. failure of the first barrier will not lead to a hazard because of the secondary protection
C. failure of the first barrier will lead to a hazard because of the primary protection
D. the liquid-resisting outer element of a fuel containment system designed to afford temporary containment of any envisaged leakage of liquid fuel through the secondary protection

Answer: B — failure of the first barrier will not lead to a hazard because of the secondary protection

In IGF Code safety philosophy, secondary protection ensures that any failure or leakage of the primary fuel barrier will not escalate into a catastrophic hazard to the ship or personnel.

4. What concept is applied to minimize the probability of a gas explosion in a machinery space with gas- fuelled machinery ?

A. none of the above
B. both (a) and (b)
C. Emergency Shutdown-protected machinery spaces
D. Gas safe machinery spaces

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

5. What is Gas safe machinery spaces?

A. both (a) and (b)
B. Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered non-hazardous
C. none of the above
D. Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered gas safe under all conditions, normal as well as abnormal conditions

Answer: D — Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered gas safe under all conditions, normal as well as abnormal conditions

6. What is Emergency Shutdown-protected machinery spaces?

A. Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered gas safe under all conditions, normal as well as abnormal conditions
B. Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered non-hazardous under normal conditions, but under certain abnormal conditions may have the potential to become hazardous
C. none of the above
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: B — Arrangements in machinery spaces are such that the spaces are considered non-hazardous under normal conditions, but under certain abnormal conditions may have the potential to become hazardous

Double-wall piping provides secondary containment for gas fuel lines in machinery spaces; the annular space is either continuously ventilated under negative pressure or pressurized with inert gas to detect leaks.

7. What will be the Gas safe machinery space failure?

A. none of the above
B. single failure may result in a gas release into the space
C. single failure cannot lead to release of fuel gas into the machinery space
D. probable maximum leakage scenario due to technical failures

Answer: C — single failure cannot lead to release of fuel gas into the machinery space

Gas fuel piping passing through enclosed spaces must be enclosed in double-walled ducts or pipes with continuous mechanical extraction ventilation of at least 30 air changes per hour.

8. Potential dangers to be avoided include

A. exposure of ship materials to temperatures below acceptable limits
B. All the above
C. flammable fuels spreading to locations with ignition sources
D. toxicity potential

Answer: B — All the above

Emergency Shutdown (ESD) systems are designed to automatically isolate fuel supplies, trip fuel pumps, and close master gas valves within seconds of detecting a hazardous condition.

9. The design life of fixed liquefied gas fuel containment system __________ whichever is greater

A. both (a) and (b)
B. none of the above
C. should not be less than the design life of the ship
D. 20 years

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

Gas detection in double-wall pipe ducts triggers alarms at 20% LEL and initiates automatic fuel shut-off (ESD) at 40% LEL.

10. In Liquefied gas fuel containment, The design life of portable tanks shall not be less than

A. both (a) and (b)
B. sthe design life of the ship
C. none of the above
D. 20 years

Answer: D — 20 years

Fuel containment systems must be designed to withstand all anticipated static and dynamic loads during vessel transit, including sloshing, thermal expansion, and ship motions.

11. The design of the secondary barrier, including spray shield if fitted will be __________

A. physical, mechanical or operational events within the liquefied gas fuel tank
B. All the above
C. it is capable of containing any envisaged leakage of liquefied gas fuel for a period of 15 days
D. failure of a support or an attachment to the hull structure will not lead to loss of liquid tightness of both the primary and secondary barriers

Answer: B — All the above

Type A independent tanks are designed primarily using classical ship structural analysis and require a complete secondary barrier to contain liquid spills.

12. The partial secondary barrier include means to detect a leak in the primary barrier, provision such as a _____________

A. spray shield to deflect any liquefied gas fuel down into the partial secondary barrier
B. none of the above
C. both (a) and (b)
D. means to dispose of the liquid which may be by natural evaporation

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

Type B independent tanks are designed using refined analytical models and fracture mechanics (leak-before-failure principle), requiring only a partial secondary barrier (drip tray).

13. What are the fundamentals to safety gas carriers?

A. All the above
B. air locks
C. segregation
D. seperation

Answer: A — All the above

Type C independent tanks are designed as pressure vessels where the design pressure and safety factors eliminate the need for a secondary barrier.

14. In design loads, Load categories contains __________

A. All the above
B. accidental load
C. environmental load
D. permanent load

Answer: A — All the above

Membrane fuel containment systems utilize a thin, non-self-supporting metallic membrane supported by load-bearing insulation attached to the ship's inner hull.

15. In design loads, the extent to which these loads depends on the ____________

A. type of water
B. type of tank
C. Man taking sounding
D. design engineer

Answer: B — type of tank

Bunkering stations must be located on open decks with natural ventilation or in dedicated spaces with mechanical ventilation and water spray deluge systems.

16. Permanent loads- Gravity loads depends on __________

A. loads caused by towers
B. weight of tank
C. All the above
D. thermal insulation weight load

Answer: C — All the above

Drip trays made of suitable cryogenic materials must be fitted beneath bunkering manifolds to prevent cryogenic liquid spills from damaging the hull structure.

17. Gravity loads of structures and equipment acting ____________ on the tank

A. from air
B. from bottom
C. from no where
D. externally

Answer: D — externally

18. What is called Functional loads?

A. Loads arising from the operational use of the tank system
B. none of the above
C. The weight of tank, thermal insulation, loads caused by towers and other attachments
D. Gravity loads of structures and equipment acting externally on the tank

Answer: A — Loads arising from the operational use of the tank system

19. Permanent external loads

A. none of the above
B. Loads arising from the operational use of the tank system
C. The weight of tank, thermal insulation, loads caused by towers and other attachments
D. loads of structures and equipment acting externally on the tank

Answer: D — loads of structures and equipment acting externally on the tank

Under STCW Table A-V/3-2, advanced IGF operations require strict adherence to approved safety procedures, permit-to-work protocols, and risk assessments.

20. Gravity loads

A. The weight of tank, thermal insulation, loads caused by towers and other attachments
B. Loads arising from the operational use of the tank system
C. loads of structures and equipment acting externally on the tank
D. none of the above

Answer: A — The weight of tank, thermal insulation, loads caused by towers and other attachments

Risk assessments and pre-job safety briefings are mandatory before conducting any maintenance or operational activity on gas fuel systems.

21. In structural analysis, ___________ may be used in combination with, or instead of, theoretical calculations.

A. integrity
B. dynamic tests
C. Model tests
D. gravity tests

Answer: C — Model tests

Fuel preparation rooms house compressors, pumps, vaporizers, and heat exchangers required to condition LNG fuel before supply to the engines.

22. In Load scenarios, What are the most unfavourable scenarios for all relevant phases are considered?

A. construction
B. handling
C. testing
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

Fuel containment structural design must evaluate the most unfavorable loading combinations across all operating phases, including bunkering, full load, sea voyage, sloshing, and emergency conditions.

23. Reliquefaction systems has to be sized in a sufficient way also in case of ____________

A. effective consumption
B. no or low consumption
C. greater consumption
D. high consumption

Answer: B — no or low consumption

Reliquefaction systems on LNG-fueled ships must be sized with sufficient redundancy to manage boil-off gas during periods of low or zero engine fuel consumption (such as port stays).

24. Thermal oxidation is done by consumption of the vapours according to the __________________.

A. regulations for ship
B. regulations for consumers
C. regulations for flag
D. regulations for cargo

Answer: B — regulations for consumers

Thermal oxidation of excess boil-off gas is carried out using Gas Combustion Units (GCU) or auxiliary boilers in compliance with environmental and consumer regulations.

25. Insulation spaces is provided to monitor the _______________

A. the quantity of fuel being supplied to individual spaces
B. the quantity of gas being supplied to individual spaces
C. the quantity of liquid being supplied to individual spaces
D. the quantity of vapour being supplied to individual spaces

Answer: B — the quantity of gas being supplied to individual spaces

Monitoring of insulation spaces ensures that inert gas atmosphere purity, pressure, and temperature are maintained, allowing early detection of primary barrier leakage.

26. In Gravity tank, what is the design pressure?

A. greater than 0.07 MPa gauge at the bottom of the tank
B. not greater than 0.07 MPa gauge at the bottom of the tank
C. not greater than 0.07 MPa gauge at the top of the tank
D. greater than 0.07 MPa gauge at the top of the tank

Answer: C — not greater than 0.07 MPa gauge at the top of the tank

Gravity tanks used for fuel storage have a maximum design vapor pressure not exceeding 0.07 MPa (0.7 bar) gauge measured at the top of the tank.

27. What will be covered by cofferdams acting as secondary barriers?

A. Tanks for high-flashpoint liquids
B. Tanks for high-flashpoint oils
C. Tanks for low-flashpoint liquids
D. Tanks for water

Answer: C — Tanks for low-flashpoint liquids

Tanks containing low-flashpoint liquid fuels require surrounding cofferdams or void spaces acting as secondary barriers to isolate them from adjacent compartments.

28. How is cofferdam arranged?

A. With gas detection and no possibility for water filling upon detection of leakage
B. With gas detection and possibility for water filling upon detection of leakage
C. With no gas detection and possibility for water filling upon detection of leakage
D. With no gas detection and no possibility for water filling upon detection of leakage

Answer: B — With gas detection and possibility for water filling upon detection of leakage

Cofferdams surrounding fuel tanks are fitted with continuous gas detection systems and arrangements for emergency water filling or inert gas purging upon detecting fuel leaks.

29. How will be the access to tanks and cofferdams?

A. be indirect from closed deck
B. be indirect from open deck
C. be direct from closed deck
D. be direct from open deck

Answer: D — be direct from open deck

Direct access to fuel tanks and surrounding cofferdams should be provided directly from open weather decks to avoid passing through enclosed accommodation or service spaces.

30. What is the minimum clear opening of hatches or manholes?

A. no less than 600 by 600 mm
B. none of the above
C. no greater than 800 by 800 mm
D. no less than 6000by 800 mm

Answer: A — no less than 600 by 600 mm

The IGF Code specifies that access hatches and manholes into fuel storage holds and void spaces must have a minimum clear opening of not less than 600 mm by 600 mm.

Set 2 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the minimum clear opening of horizontal openings?

A. no greater than 500 by 500 mm
B. no greater than 600 by 600 mm
C. no less than 600 by 600 mm
D. no less than 500 by 500 mm

Answer: C — no less than 600 by 600 mm

The minimum clear opening of horizontal access openings into fuel hold spaces and tank connection spaces under the IGF Code is not less than 600 mm by 600 mm.

2. What is the minimum clear opening of hatches or manholes through the length and breadth of the space?

A. less than 600 mm by 800 mm at the height of more than 600 mm from the bottom
B. not less than 600 mm by 800 mm at the height of not more than 600 mm from the bottom
C. not less than 600 mm by 800 mm at the height of more than 600 mm from the bottom
D. less than 600 mm by 800 mm at the height of not more than 600 mm from the bottom

Answer: B — not less than 600 mm by 800 mm at the height of not more than 600 mm from the bottom

For vertical access through the length and breadth of hold spaces, manholes must provide a minimum clear opening of not less than 600 mm by 800 mm at a sill height of not more than 600 mm.

3. In pump room, what are the basic things present?

A. continuous gas detection
B. both (a) and (b)
C. ventilation of the space
D. none of the above

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

Fuel pump rooms contain cryogenic fuel pumps, vaporizers, relief valves, gas detectors, and dedicated mechanical ventilation systems.

4. Pressure relief systems is for which type of fuel tanks?

A. both (a) and (b)
B. high-flashpoint liquid fuel tanks
C. none of the above
D. low-flashpoint liquid fuel tanks

Answer: D — low-flashpoint liquid fuel tanks

Pressure relief systems are mandatory for all low-flashpoint liquid and compressed gas fuel tanks to prevent overpressurization exceeding design limits.

5. What test is for Type A independent tanks?

A. hydropneumatic test
B. hydrostatic test
C. both (a) and (b)
D. hydrodynamic test

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

Type A independent tanks require structural design verification and complete hydrostatic or hydropneumatic testing alongside non-destructive examination (NDT).

6. For Type B tanks, the maximum primary membrane stress under test conditions of the yield will not _____________

A. exceed 90%
B. exceed 50%
C. not exceed 90%
D. not exceed 50%

Answer: C — not exceed 90%

For Type B independent tanks, the maximum primary membrane stress under test conditions must not exceed 90% of the material yield strength.

7. For Type B tanks, the maximum primary maximum bending stress under test conditions of the yield will not _____________

A. exceed 50%
B. not exceed 50%
C. not exceed 90%
D. exceed 90%

Answer: A — exceed 50%

For Type B independent tanks, the maximum primary bending stress under test conditions must not exceed 50% of the material yield strength.

8. For Type C tanks, What is the pressure vessel to a hydrostatic test at a pressure measured at the top of the tanks ?

A. not less than 1.5 Po
B. not greater than 2.5 Po
C. less than 1.5 Po
D. greater than 2.5 Po

Answer: A — not less than 1.5 Po

Type C independent pressure vessel tanks must undergo a hydrostatic pressure test at a pressure not less than 1.5 times the maximum design vapor pressure (1.5 Po).

9. What is the temperature of the water used for the test above the nilductility transition temperature of the material?

A. below 30°C
B. equal to 30°C
C. above 30°C
D. at least 30°C

Answer: D — at least 30°C

Water used for hydrostatic pressure testing of cryogenic tank materials must have a temperature of at least 30°C above the nil-ductility transition (NDT) temperature of the steel to prevent brittle fracture.

10. In Non destructive testing, What is the design temperatures?

A. colder than –500°C
B. colder than –200°C
C. colder than –10°C
D. colder than –300°C

Answer: C — colder than –10°C

Non-destructive testing (NDT) and impact toughness testing are mandatory for materials operating at design temperatures colder than -10°C.

11. During test, what is tested in valves?

A. operation of the valve
B. colour of the valve
C. length of the valve
D. width of the valve

Answer: A — operation of the valve

During factory and pre-commissioning testing of cryogenic valves, functional operation, seat tightness, and pressure containment are verified under operating temperatures.

12. Which type of test covers the fracture acceptable after a 180° bend?

A. Bend tests
B. Charpy V-notch impact tests
C. All of the above
D. Tensile tests

Answer: A — Bend tests

Bend tests of welded joints verify ductility and root soundness, requiring that no fracture or crack develops after undergoing a standard 180° guided bend.

13. What IS prevented in good mechanical strength?

A. prevent damage
B. none of the above
C. harmful
D. thermal expansion

Answer: A — prevent damage

Piping systems require adequate constructive mechanical strength and support to prevent mechanical damage, vibration fatigue, and structural deformation.

14. Mechanical strength is impracticable or would cause ________

A. lower local stresses
B. none of the above
C. excessive local stresses
D. no stress

Answer: C — excessive local stresses

Where excessive rigid piping supports would induce unacceptable thermal contraction stresses, flexible loops or expansion bellows are incorporated.

15. In allowable loads, liquid pressure surge during transfer operations cause

A. superimposed dead loads
B. live loads
C. superdead loads
D. superimposed loads

Answer: D — superimposed loads

Allowable piping loads account for superimposed forces, thermal contraction, and hydraulic pressure surges (water hammer) during rapid valve closure.

16. High pressure gas piping systems have ____________

A. sufficient destructive strength
B. sufficient constructive strength
C. insufficient constructive strength
D. insufficient destructive strength

Answer: B — sufficient constructive strength

High-pressure gas fuel piping systems (operating above 10 bar) must possess sufficient constructive strength and verified wall thickness to withstand extreme operating pressures.

17. High pressure gas piping systems are confirmed by carrying out stress analysis of

A. destresses due to the length of the piping system
B. stresses due to the length of the piping system
C. destresse due to the weight of the piping system
D. stresses due to the weight of the piping system

Answer: D — stresses due to the weight of the piping system

High-pressure gas piping stress analysis verifies that combined stresses resulting from internal pressure, thermal expansion, dynamic ship motions, and piping self-weight remain within permissible limits.

18. In allowable stress, When the design temperature is _________ a complete stress analysis all the stresses happens.

A. plus 1100 C
B. minus 2200 C
C. minus 110 C
D. plus 220 C

Answer: C — minus 110 C

For cryogenic fuel piping with design temperatures colder than -110°C, a comprehensive computerized thermal stress and flexibility analysis is required.

19. The arrangement and installation of gas piping provides the necessary flexibility to maintain the _________

A. abstinence of the piping system
B. division of the piping system
C. integrity of the piping system
D. cutting of the piping system

Answer: C — integrity of the piping system

Piping installation must provide sufficient flexibility through pipe bends, loops, and bellows to absorb thermal movements and preserve piping structural integrity.

20. _______________ comply with a standard acceptable to the Administration, taking into account the design pressure.

A. tubes
B. All of the above
C. Flanges
D. pipes

Answer: B — All of the above

All piping components, flanges, fittings, and valves must comply with recognized international standards approved by the Administration taking into account design pressure and temperature.

21. In Piping fabrication, for bellows and expansion joints used in vapour service, a ____________ than defined in is accepted.

A. lower minimum design pressure
B. higher minimum design pressure
C. higher maximum design pressure
D. lower maximum design pressure

Answer: A — lower minimum design pressure

For bellows and expansion joints in low-pressure vapor service, a lower minimum design pressure may be accepted where protected by upstream relief devices.

22. In Piping fabrication, All valves and expansion joints used in ____________

A. high pressure gas systems
B. low pressure gas systems
C. low pressure pipe system
D. high pressure pipe system

Answer: A — high pressure gas systems

All valves, expansion joints, and fittings used in high-pressure gas fuel systems must be type-approved by the Administration for the intended pressure and temperature.

23. In Piping fabrication, The piping system shall be joined by welding with a ____________

A. maximum of tanks connections
B. maximum of flange connections
C. minimum of tanks connections
D. minimum of flange connections

Answer: D — minimum of flange connections

Gas fuel piping systems must be joined primarily by butt welding with a minimum number of flanged connections to reduce potential leak paths.

24. In Piping fabrication, Gaskets shall be protected against ____________

A. mild occurance
B. light
C. blow-out
D. All of the above

Answer: C — blow-out

Flange gaskets in gas fuel piping must be constructed of blowout-proof spiral-wound metallic or composite materials to prevent catastrophic gasket failure.

25. In Piping fabrication, ____________ are protected against blow-out.

A. nut
B. liner
C. seal
D. Gaskets

Answer: D — Gaskets

Gaskets in cryogenic and pressurized gas fuel service must be protected against blowout by tongue-and-groove or raised-face spigot flange construction.

26. Piping fabrication and joining details shall comply with ___________

A. parallel connections
B. Indirect connections
C. Direct connections
D. Diverted connections

Answer: C — Direct connections

Direct piping connections and fabrication details must strictly comply with recognized classification society rules and IGF Code standards.

27. In Expansion joints of Piping fabrication, Where bellows and expansion joints are provided in accordance with _____________

A. bellows shall be protected against icing
B. bellows are removed
C. bellows are disconnected
D. bellows shall be unprotected against icing

Answer: A — bellows shall be protected against icing

Where expansion bellows are installed in open deck piping, they must be protected by external sheaths to prevent icing and physical damage.

28. In Expansion joints of Piping fabrication, In other connections,___________ is joined in accordance but for other exceptional cases the Administration or its Recognized Organization may consider alternative arrangements.

A. Piping connections
B. presssure gauge
C. steel joints
D. temperature meter

Answer: A — Piping connections

Piping connections must be fabricated in accordance with approved welding procedures; alternative mechanical joints require special consideration by the Administration.

29. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, ____________ with complete penetration at the root may be used in all applications

A. lap joints
B. corner joints
C. U-groove weld
D. Butt-welded joints

Answer: D — Butt-welded joints

Full-penetration butt-welded joints with 100% root penetration are approved and preferred for all fuel piping applications.

30. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, For design temperatures colder than__________ butt welds will be either double welded or equivalent to a double welded butt joint.

A. plus 5000°C
B. minus 10°C
C. plus 100°C
D. minus 500°C

Answer: B — minus 10°C

For design temperatures colder than -10°C, butt welds must be double-welded or equivalent full-penetration welds subject to 100% volumetric non-destructive testing.

Set 3 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. In Piping fabrication, For design pressures in ______________ and design temperatures of minus 10°C or colder, backing rings will be removed.

A. 30 bar
B. 20 bar
C. 10 bar
D. 40 bar

Answer: C — 10 bar

In piping fabrication, for design pressures exceeding 10 bar and design temperatures of -10°C or colder, backing rings must be completely removed to prevent stress concentrations.

2. In Piping fabrication, For design pressures in 10 bar and design temperatures of ___________, backing rings will be removed.

A. minus 5°C
B. plus 10°C
C. minus 10°C
D. plus 5°C

Answer: C — minus 10°C

Backing rings must be removed from fuel piping butt welds when design pressures reach 10 bar and temperatures are -10°C or colder to eliminate root crevices and fatigue notches.

3. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, ____________ with sleeves and related welding, having dimensions in accordance with recognized standards

A. socket welded joints
B. U- welded joints
C. T - welded joints
D. Slip-on welded joints

Answer: D — Slip-on welded joints

Slip-on welded sleeve joints must have standardized dimensions and are restricted to low-temperature or low-pressure auxiliary lines.

4. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, Slip-on welded joints are only be used for instrument lines and open-ended lines with an ___________

A. internal diameter of 50 mm or more
B. external diameter of 50 mm or more
C. external diameter of 50 mm or less
D. internal diameter of 50 mm or less

Answer: C — external diameter of 50 mm or less

Slip-on welded joints are only permitted for open-ended lines and instrumentation lines having an external diameter of 50 mm or less.

5. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, Slip-on welded joints are only be used for instrument lines and design temperatures not colder than _______________

A. minus 1000°C
B. minus 55°C
C. plus 55°C
D. minus 5000°C

Answer: B — minus 55°C

Slip-on welded joints are restricted to auxiliary piping systems with design temperatures not colder than -55°C.

6. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, ____________ used for accessory lines and instrumentation lines with external diameters of 25 mm or less.

A. threaded coupling
B. All of the above
C. glued coupling
D. Screwed couplings

Answer: D — Screwed couplings

Screwed couplings are permitted only for accessory and instrumentation lines with an external diameter of 25 mm or less.

7. In Direct connections of Piping fabrication, Screwed couplings used for accessory lines and instrumentation lines with _______________

A. internal diameters of 25 mm or less
B. internal diameters of 25 mm or more
C. external diameters of 25 mm or less
D. external diameters of 25 mm or more

Answer: C — external diameters of 25 mm or less

Under IGF Code piping rules, threaded screwed fittings are limited to small-bore instrumentation and sampling lines of 25 mm OD or less.

8. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, Flanges in flange connections will be of ____________

A. t-welded type
B. slip-on or socket welded type
C. U welded type
D. butt welded type

Answer: B — slip-on or socket welded type

Flanged connections in fuel piping systems are generally restricted to welding neck, slip-on, or socket welded types approved for cryogenic service.

9. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, For all piping except open ended, what restrictions is applied?

A. For design temperatures colder than minus 55°C, only welded slip on flanges shall be used
B. For design temperatures colder than minus 55°C, only welded threaded flanges shall be used
C. For design temperatures colder than minus 55°C, only welded neck flanges shall be used
D. For design temperatures colder than minus 55°C, only welded lap flanges shall be used

Answer: C — For design temperatures colder than minus 55°C, only welded neck flanges shall be used

For design temperatures colder than -55°C, only approved welding neck flanges with full penetration butt welds are permitted on fuel piping.

10. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, For all piping except open ended, For design temperatures ___________ only welded neck flanges shall be used.

A. colder than minus 4400°C
B. colder than minus 55°C
C. colder than minus 3400°C
D. colder than minus 1000°C

Answer: B — colder than minus 55°C

Welding neck flanges are mandatory for all pressurized cryogenic fuel piping operating at temperatures colder than -55°C.

11. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, For design temperatures ____________ slip-on flanges shall not be used in nominal sizes above 100 mm

A. colder than minus 30°C
B. colder than minus 150°C
C. colder than minus 20°C
D. colder than minus 10°C

Answer: D — colder than minus 10°C

Slip-on flanges must not be used for nominal pipe sizes exceeding 100 mm when design temperatures are colder than -10°C.

12. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, For design temperatures colder than minus 10°C slip-on flanges will not be used in nominal sizes _________

A. above 10 mm
B. above 100 mm
C. above 250 mm
D. above 500 mm

Answer: B — above 100 mm

For temperatures colder than -10°C, slip-on flanges are prohibited for nominal pipe sizes above 100 mm due to thermal stress and bending limitations.

13. In Direct connections of Flanged connections, welded flanges shall not be used in nominal sizes _______________

A. below 50 mm
B. below 25 mm
C. above 25 mm
D. above 50 mm

Answer: D — above 50 mm

Socket welded flanges are prohibited on cryogenic gas piping for nominal pipe diameters above 50 mm.

14. Deep well pump is the type of ____________ cargo pump found on gas carriers.

A. diaphragm
B. reciprocating
C. centrifugal
D. gear

Answer: C — centrifugal

Deep-well pumps used on liquefied gas carriers and fuel tanks are vertical multi-stage centrifugal pumps submerged at the bottom of the tank.

15. In Deep well pump, the prime mover is usually an ________

A. hydraulic motor
B. none of the above
C. electric motor
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

The prime mover of a deep-well cargo pump is an explosion-proof electric motor or hydraulic motor mounted externally on top of the tank dome.

16. In Deep well pump, the motor is usually mounted on the top of the ________________

A. drives via long transmission shaft
B. none of the above
C. cargo tanks
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

The drive motor of a deep-well pump is installed in the gas-safe area or on top of the tank dome on the open weather deck.

17. In Deep well pump, the motor is usually mounted on the top of the cargo tanks and drives via ________

A. long transmission shaft
B. the pump assembly located in the bottom of the tank
C. through a double seal arrangement
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The electric or hydraulic motor on top of the tank drives the submerged impeller stack at the bottom of the tank via an elongated vertical shaft enclosed in the discharge column.

18. In deep well pump, the cargo discharge pipeline surrounds the drive shaft and also it __________

A. heats up the bearings
B. the shaft bearings are cooled
C. both answer b and c
D. lubricated by the liquid being pumped

Answer: C — both answer b and c

In deep-well pump design, the discharge column pipe surrounds the central drive shaft and utilizes the pumped cargo liquid for lubricating the shaft intermediate bearings.

19. Under STCW Code Table A-V/3-2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear during Advanced IGF Code operations?

A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
B. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
C. Verbal recommendation without documentation
D. Applicable only during drydock operations

Answer: B — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations

STCW Code Table A-V/3-2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Advanced IGF Code.

20. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear for Advanced IGF Code on board?

A. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
B. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
C. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
D. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time

Answer: C — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Advanced IGF Code operations.

21. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear concerning Advanced IGF Code?

A. STCW Code Section A-V/3-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
B. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
C. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
D. Port State Control advisory note only

Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-V/3-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions

STCW Code Section A-V/3-2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Advanced IGF Code.

22. What is the mandatory design feature for fuel piping containing LNG on ships subject to IGF Code?

A. Double-walled piping with inert gas purging or ventilation in inter-barrier space
B. Single wall heavy duty schedule 160 steel
C. Plastic lined copper piping
D. Flexible rubber hose with steel braid

Answer: A — Double-walled piping with inert gas purging or ventilation in inter-barrier space

IGF Code mandates double-walled piping to prevent gas leakage into enclosed ship spaces.

23. Under IGF Code, what is the lower flammability limit (LFL) threshold to trigger Emergency Shutdown (ESD)?

A. 100% LFL
B. 50% LFL
C. 20% LFL in gas fuel preparation rooms or ducting
D. 5% LFL

Answer: C — 20% LFL in gas fuel preparation rooms or ducting

Gas detectors trigger alarm at 20% LFL and initiate automatic ESD at 40% LFL.

24. What gas is used to inert LNG fuel tanks and supply lines prior to gas-freeing?

A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Dry Nitrogen gas
C. Argon
D. Compressed Air

Answer: B — Dry Nitrogen gas

High-purity dry Nitrogen prevents formation of explosive mixtures during inerting.

25. What type of LNG tank is self-supporting independent Type C under IGF/IGC Code?

A. Prismatic Type A tank requiring full secondary barrier
B. Membrane tank integrated into hull
C. Spherical Kvaerner-Moss tank
D. Pressure vessel tank designed for working pressure above 2 bar gauge

Answer: D — Pressure vessel tank designed for working pressure above 2 bar gauge

Type C tanks are pressure vessels that do not require a full secondary barrier.

26. What safety device protects LNG fuel tanks from overpressure during BOG accumulation?

A. Vacuum relief valve only
B. Safety relief valves vented to dedicated vent mast
C. Automatic water spray valve
D. Rupture disc discharging into engine room

Answer: B — Safety relief valves vented to dedicated vent mast

Relief valves discharge safely into atmosphere high above deck via vent masts.

27. What parameter is monitored continuously in the inter-barrier space of LNG membrane tanks?

A. Oil content and pH
B. Water level and salinity
C. Oxygen percentage only
D. Gas concentration and temperature

Answer: D — Gas concentration and temperature

Monitoring gas and temperature detects primary barrier leaks early.

28. What type of gas detector is preferred for hydrocarbon gas detection in inert atmospheres?

A. Catalytic bead detector
B. Flame ionization detector
C. Infrared (IR) gas detector
D. Electrochemical cell

Answer: C — Infrared (IR) gas detector

IR gas detectors do not require oxygen to operate accurately, unlike catalytic bead sensors.

29. What is the function of the BOG (Boil-Off Gas) compressor on LNG fueled vessels?

A. Compress boil-off gas for use as fuel in main/auxiliary engines or boilers
B. Vent gas into cargo holds
C. Condense BOG back to sea water
D. Cool engine jacket water

Answer: A — Compress boil-off gas for use as fuel in main/auxiliary engines or boilers

BOG compressors raise gas pressure to required fuel injection levels.

30. What requirement applies to electrical equipment installed in IGF fuel preparation rooms?

A. Drip-proof industrial motor
B. Non-explosion proof with warning label
C. Standard marine IP54 enclosure
D. Certified safe type (Ex-d, Ex-i, Ex-e) for Zone 1 hazardous area

Answer: D — Certified safe type (Ex-d, Ex-i, Ex-e) for Zone 1 hazardous area

Hazardous Zone 1 areas mandate certified explosion-proof electrical equipment.

Set 4 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. What emergency procedure is required before bunkering LNG fuel from shore or barge?

A. Purge fuel tank with sea water
B. Start main engine to load generator
C. Sign Ship-to-Shore Safety Checklist and test ESD link
D. Disable gas alarms to prevent false trips

Answer: C — Sign Ship-to-Shore Safety Checklist and test ESD link

Ship-to-Shore checklist ensures mutual safety readiness and functional emergency shutdown.

2. In the event of an emergency involving personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear during Advanced IGF Code tasks, what immediate action is required?

A. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
D. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm

Answer: A — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

3. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear be conducted for Advanced IGF Code?

A. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
B. Once every 5 years during special survey
C. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
D. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)

Answer: D — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)

Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

4. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear in Advanced IGF Code?

A. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
B. No written record is required
C. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
D. Verbal update to port agent without logging

Answer: C — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters

Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

5. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear under Advanced IGF Code guidelines?

A. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
B. High-visibility vest only
C. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
D. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection

Answer: A — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards

Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

6. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear related to Advanced IGF Code?

A. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
B. Temperature check only
C. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off

Answer: A — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration

Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

7. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear under Advanced IGF Code?

A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits

Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies

Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

8. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear during Advanced IGF Code?

A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
B. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
C. Crew List document
D. Bill of Lading description

Answer: B — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

9. Regarding personal protective equipment (PPE) and safety gear in Advanced IGF Code, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-V/3-2?

A. Non-mandatory recommendation
B. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

STCW Code Section A-V/3-2 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Advanced IGF Code.

10. In Liquefied Petroleum Gas, propane and butane can be shipped

A. seperately
B. none of the above
C. as a mixture
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

In LPG transport, propane and butane can be shipped as fully pressurized at ambient temperature, semi-refrigerated under moderate pressure, or fully refrigerated at atmospheric pressure.

11. In Liquefied Petroleum Gas, __________ can be shipped seperately or as a mixture.

A. both (a) and (b)
B. none of the above
C. propane
D. butane

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

Commercial LPG is carried under refrigeration at -42°C for propane and -0.5°C for butane in fully refrigerated gas carriers.

12. Liquefied Petroleum Gas may be

A. refinery by-products
B. All of the above
C. may be produced in conjunction with natural gas
D. may be produced in conjunction with crude oil

Answer: B — All of the above

Refrigeration cycles on gas carriers use boil-off gas reliquefaction units to compress, condense, and return liquefied gas to the cargo tanks.

13. MARVS means

A. Minimum Allowable Relief Valve Setting
B. Maximum Allowable Relief Valve Setting
C. Maximum Allowed Regional Valve Setting
D. Minimum Allotted Relief Valve Setting

Answer: B — Maximum Allowable Relief Valve Setting

14. Maximum Allowable Relief Valve Setting on a ship's cargo tank as stated on the __________

A. refinery by-products
B. ship's Certificate of Fitness
C. free from chemical
D. production of conjunction with crude oil

Answer: B — ship's Certificate of Fitness

Vapor return lines are used during bunkering to transfer displaced tank vapors back to the bunker supplier, preventing atmospheric emissions.

15. What is MLC?

A. Multi Liquid Column
B. Meters Liquid Column
C. Meters Limit Column
D. Multi Limit Column

Answer: B — Meters Liquid Column

Custody transfer measurement systems (CTMS) record LNG density, temperature, liquid level, and pressure to accurately determine transferred energy content.

16. Meters Liquid Column is a unit of ________ used in some cargo pumping operations.

A. volume
B. pressure
C. none of the above
D. mass

Answer: B — pressure

Emergency Release Couplings (ERC) with Breakaway couplings disconnect bunkering lines automatically and close internal dry-break valves without fuel spillage during vessel drift.

17. What is Mollier diagram?

A. graphic method of representing ship route
B. graphic method of representing heat quantities of a refrigerant
C. graphic method of representing ship design
D. All of the above

Answer: B — graphic method of representing heat quantities of a refrigerant

Pre-cooling of cryogenic bunkering lines is performed gradually using LNG vapor to avoid severe thermal shock and rapid contraction stresses.

18. In Mollier diagram, graphic method of representing heat quantities and the conditions of liquefied gas at different ____________

A. density
B. volume
C. pressure
D. temperature

Answer: D — temperature

Emergency Shut Down Stage 1 (ESD-1) stops fuel transfer pumps and closes manifold ESD valves; ESD-2 initiates emergency dry-break disconnection.

19. What re the gases associated with Natural Gas Liquid?

A. Butane
B. All of the above
C. Ethane
D. Propane

Answer: B — All of the above

Methane slip refers to small quantities of unburned methane escaping through the engine exhaust during the combustion cycle.

20. What is oxygen analyser?

A. Instrument used to measure propane concentrations in percentage by volume
B. Instrument used to measure ethane concentrations in percentage by volume
C. Instrument used to measure oxygen concentrations in percentage by volume
D. Instrument used to measure butane concentrations in percentage by volume

Answer: C — Instrument used to measure oxygen concentrations in percentage by volume

Infrared and optical gas detectors are widely used for methane detection because they operate reliably without requiring atmospheric oxygen.

21. In oxygen analyser which gas in measured?

A. Propane
B. oxygen
C. Pentane
D. Butane

Answer: B — oxygen

Oxygen analyzers measure oxygen volumetric concentration (0-21% O2) in enclosed spaces to verify breathable conditions or inerting completeness.

22. What is oxygen deficient atmosphere?

A. atmosphere containing less than 11 percent oxygen by volume
B. atmosphere containing less than 21 percent oxygen by volume
C. atmosphere containing less than 11 percent oxygen by pressure
D. atmosphere containing less than 21 percent oxygen by pressure

Answer: B — atmosphere containing less than 21 percent oxygen by volume

An oxygen-deficient atmosphere is defined as any enclosed space with an oxygen content of less than 20.9% (statutory entry danger threshold below 19.5% by volume).

23. How is peroxide formed?

A. none of the above
B. chemical combination of cargo liquid with atmosphere oxygen
C. both (a) and (b)
D. chemical combination of vapour with atmosphere oxygen

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

Peroxides are formed by the slow autoxidation of unsaturated chemical gas monomers (like 1,3-butadiene or isoprene) when exposed to atmospheric oxygen.

24. Chemical combination of cargo liquid with oxygen from other source and vapour with oxygen from other source forms __________

A. Formation of Peroxide
B. Formation of Oxygen
C. Formation of oxide
D. Formation of Ethane

Answer: A — Formation of Peroxide

Contact between reactive chemical monomers and atmospheric oxygen results in the formation of hazardous, unstable peroxides.

25. Qualities for Peroxide is

A. none of the above
B. highly reactive
C. both (a) and (b)
D. potential hazard

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

26. In some cases, Peroxide is

A. unstable
B. both (a) and (b)
C. none of the above
D. potential hazard

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

Certain peroxides are powerful chemical oxidizing agents capable of causing spontaneous decomposition and violent explosions.

27. How is polymer formed?

A. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound
B. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a smaller molecule of a new compound
C. The chemical reaction of one molecule of the same compound to form a smaller molecule of a new compound
D. The chemical reaction of one molecule of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound

Answer: A — The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound

Polymerization is a chemical reaction in which monomer molecules combine together to form large repeating polymer chains, releasing substantial exothermic heat.

28. What is the process for the chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound called?

A. Vaporization
B. Gas freeing
C. Static electricity
D. Polymerisation

Answer: D — Polymerisation

Polymerization is the chemical reaction where monomer units bond together, which if uncontrolled on ships can generate dangerous temperatures and pressures.

29. What is a Primary Barrier in liquified gas tanks?

A. seperating barrier between liquid and gas
B. Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier
C. nothing special barrier
D. chemical combination of cargo liquid with oxygen from other source

Answer: B — Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier

The primary barrier is the inner liquid-tight containment boundary designed to directly hold cryogenic cargo or fuel under normal operating conditions.

30. ___________ is a refrigerant gas?

A. B65
B. R22
C. C24
D. A22

Answer: B — R22

R22 (chlorodifluoromethane / HCFC-22) is a synthetic halogenated hydrocarbon gas historically used as an industrial refrigerant.

Set 5 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the full chemical name of R22?

A. monochloro difluoromethane
B. monoflouride difluoromethane
C. monochloride dimethane
D. monochloro dimethane

Answer: A — monochloro difluoromethane

2. What are the characteristics of R22?

A. All of the above
B. colourless
C. non-flammable
D. odourless

Answer: A — All of the above

R22 is a non-flammable, colorless, faint-ether-odor gas with a boiling point of -40.8°C at atmospheric pressure.

3. R22 is virtually non-toxic with a _______

A. TLV of 1,000 ppm
B. TLV of 2 ppm
C. TLV of 500 ppm
D. TLV of 30 ppm

Answer: A — TLV of 1,000 ppm

R22 has a low acute toxicity profile with a standard Threshold Limit Value - Time Weighted Average (TLV-TWA) of 1,000 ppm.

4. What is relative liquid density?

A. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound
B. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature
C. The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature
D. Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier

Answer: C — The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature

Relative liquid density is the dimensionless ratio of the mass of a liquid volume to the mass of an equal volume of pure fresh water at reference temperature.

5. What is relative vapour density?

A. Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier
B. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound
C. The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature
D. The mass of a vapour compared with the mass of an equal volume of air, both at standard condition of temperature and pressure

Answer: D — The mass of a vapour compared with the mass of an equal volume of air, both at standard condition of temperature and pressure

Relative vapor density is the ratio of the mass of a gas volume to the mass of an equal volume of dry air at standard temperature and pressure (Air = 1.0).

6. What is restricted gauging?

A. none of the above
B. system employing a device, which penetrates the tank and which when in use permits a small quantity of cargo vapour to be expelled to the atmosphere.
C. the device is kept completely closed when the device is not in use
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

Restricted gauging uses an ullage device designed to limit the release of vapor during level measurement, such as sounding tubes with shut-off balls.

7. In restricted gauging, when the device is not in use

A. the device is kept open
B. none of the above
C. the device is kept operated
D. the device is kept completely closed

Answer: D — the device is kept completely closed

In restricted gauging arrangements, the measurement orifice is kept tightly closed when not in active use to prevent flammable vapor escape.

8. What is roll over?

A. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
B. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
C. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
D. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature

Answer: B — The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution

Roll-over is a phenomenon in LNG storage tanks where stratification of two liquid layers of differing densities destabilizes, resulting in sudden, violent mixing and massive boil-off vapor generation.

9. What is Saturated Vapour Pressure?

A. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
B. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature
C. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
D. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution

Answer: A — The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature

Saturated Vapor Pressure is the equilibrium pressure exerted by the vapor phase above its liquid in a closed system at a specific temperature.

10. What is sensible heat?

A. The liquid resisting outer element of a cargo containment system designed to provide temporary containment of a leakage of liquid cargothrough the primary barrier
B. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
C. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
D. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature

Answer: D — Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature

Sensible heat is thermal energy transferred to or from a substance that results in a measurable change in temperature without changing its physical phase.

11. What is specific gravity?

A. The ratio of the density of a solid at a given temperature to the density ofsolid at a standard temperature
B. The ratio of the density of a liquid at a given temperature to the density of fresh water at a standard temperature
C. The ratio of the density of a molecule at a given temperature to the density of molecule at a standard temperature
D. The ratio of the density of a gas at a given temperature to the density of gas at a standard temperature

Answer: B — The ratio of the density of a liquid at a given temperature to the density of fresh water at a standard temperature

Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of fresh water (1,000 kg/m³) at a specified reference temperature.

12. What is specific heat?

A. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
B. The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition
C. none of the above
D. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact

Answer: A — The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.

Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy (kJ) required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C (or 1 Kelvin).

13. What is spontaneous combustion?

A. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
B. The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition
C. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
D. none of the above

Answer: B — The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition

Spontaneous combustion is the ignition of a material resulting from internal self-heating due to slow exothermic oxidation reactions without an external spark or flame.

14. What is Static electricity ?

A. none of the above
B. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
C. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
D. alternating current

Answer: C — The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact

Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charge on surfaces caused by contact, separation, and relative friction of dissimilar flowing materials.

15. What is superheated vapour?

A. The density of a gas or vapour inder specified conditions of temperature and pressure
B. detecting heat of gases or vapours
C. phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the heat of liquid in the line
D. Vapour removed from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature

Answer: D — Vapour removed from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature

Superheated vapor is vapor heated to a temperature above its boiling saturation temperature at a given pressure.

16. What is surge pressure?

A. pressure measuring instrument used for detecting gases or vapours
B. The density of a gas or vapour inder specified conditions of temperature and pressure
C. phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the rate of flow of liquid in the line
D. Vapour pressureremoved from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature

Answer: C — phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the rate of flow of liquid in the line

Surge pressure (hydraulic shock / water hammer) is a rapid pressure spike generated in a pipeline when fluid velocity suddenly changes due to quick valve closure.

17. LNG as fuel, Sulphur Oxide (SOx) and particulates emissions are ---------- compared to diesel or heavy fuel oil powered vessels.

A. great
B. both a and c
C. negligible.
D. more

Answer: C — negligible.

Using LNG as marine fuel virtually eliminates sulfur oxide (SOx) and particulate matter (PM) emissions (reducing them by over 95-99%) compared to heavy fuel oil.

18. LNG reduces CO2 emissions by --------in general, compared to diesel or heavy fuel oil powered vessels.

A. 25 to 30 percent
B. 10 to 15 percent
C. negligible
D. 5 to 10 percent

Answer: A — 25 to 30 percent

LNG combustion produces approximately 20% to 25-30% lower carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions compared to conventional heavy fuel oil (HFO) due to its higher hydrogen-to-carbon ratio.

19. Engine efficiency can be increased by utilising existing turbo charger with the __________

A. All the above
B. Not rematching existing turbo charger
C. Not modifying turbo chargers to meet tyre 2 and 3 emission standards
D. latest man disel turbo charger

Answer: A — All the above

Engine thermal efficiency is improved by modern turbocharger retrofits, variable turbine geometry, and waste heat recovery integration.

20. Basic thing for a hybrid turbo charger is

A. Does not runs at very high speed
B. an altenator is attached to a blower end
C. Doesn't requires cooling system
D. All the above

Answer: B — an altenator is attached to a blower end

A hybrid turbocharger incorporates an electric motor-generator attached to the turbocharger rotor shaft to generate electricity from excess exhaust gas energy.

21. NOX and SOX emission can be controlled by using which type of fuel

A. Heavy fuel oil
B. marine diesel oil
C. petrol
D. LNG

Answer: D — LNG

Using natural gas (LNG) as fuel enables vessels to meet IMO Tier III NOx limits in Emission Control Areas (ECAs) without requiring post-combustion SCR systems.

22. low specific fuel oil consumption at all loads can be achieved by

A. medium rating propulsion engines
B. derating a propulsion engines
C. low rating propulsion engines
D. high rating propulsion engines

Answer: B — derating a propulsion engines

Engine derating optimizes engine timing, compression ratio, and turbocharging for lower continuous service power, minimizing specific fuel oil consumption (SFOC).

23. ________ causes the changes in engine power on speed distinguishing rating for Slow steaming market

A. rerating
B. increase the rating
C. flow rating
D. derating

Answer: D — derating

Engine derating lowers maximum continuous rating (MCR) to match slower vessel operating speeds, optimizing thermal efficiency and reducing fuel consumption.

24. What is mean by hybrid turbo charging?

A. it also generates hydrogen
B. it also generates electricity
C. it also generates water
D. None of the above

Answer: B — it also generates electricity

Hybrid turbocharging uses high exhaust gas energy to drive a shaft-mounted alternator, generating shipboard electrical power and reducing auxiliary engine running hours.

25. A ____________ is attached with a hybrid turbo charger

A. pump
B. None of the above
C. motor
D. alternator

Answer: D — alternator

An alternator/motor is mounted directly onto the turbocharger shaft in a hybrid turbocharger arrangement.

26. What is the RPM of a turbo charger?

A. 6000
B. 7000
C. 9000
D. 5000

Answer: C — 9000

Marine engine turbocharger rotors operate at high rotational speeds typically ranging from 9,000 to over 20,000 RPM depending on turbocharger frame size.

27. ___________ is required for the alternator fitted with HYBRID turbo charger

A. None of the above
B. cooling system
C. circulating system
D. heating system

Answer: B — cooling system

Dedicated water or air cooling jackets are fitted to the high-speed alternator attached to a hybrid turbocharger to dissipate electrical heat.

28. In addition to fuel savings WHRS gives

A. large CO2 reduction
B. All of the above
C. large NOX reduction
D. large sox reduction

Answer: B — All of the above

Waste Heat Recovery Systems (WHRS) produce electrical power, reduce fuel consumption, lower GHG emissions, and improve the vessel's Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI).

29. Waste heat recovery system pay back time is _________

A. medium
B. None of the above
C. short
D. long

Answer: C — short

Due to high marine fuel savings, modern marine Waste Heat Recovery Systems have relatively short economic payback periods on large container ships and tankers.

30. _________ on the hull is done to increase the vessel hydrodynamic performance

A. removal of paints on the hull
B. addition of water on the hull
C. addition of oil on the hull
D. removal of fouling on the hull

Answer: D — removal of fouling on the hull

Regular removal of biofouling and application of low-friction silicone hull coatings significantly reduces hydrodynamic drag and ship resistance.

Set 6 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Derating is an engine for reduction of the vessels maximum speed to increase the efficiency by limiting the __________

A. potential power output
B. None of the above
C. kinetic power output
D. total output

Answer: A — potential power output

Derating an engine reduces maximum service power output and matches turbocharging and injection timing to optimal lower load profiles for maximum fuel efficiency.

2. Derating is an engine for ________ of the vessels maximum speed to increase the efficiency by limiting the potential power output

A. reduction
B. increase
C. production
D. addition

Answer: A — reduction

Derating limits the potential maximum power output of the propulsion engine to operate at peak thermodynamic efficiency during slow steaming.

3. Derating is an engine for reduction of the vessels _______ speed to increase the efficiency by limiting the potential power output

A. normal
B. minimum
C. None of the above
D. maximum

Answer: B — minimum

Engine derating re-optimizes the engine for lower continuous operational speeds to reduce specific fuel consumption and carbon intensity.

4. What is meant by engine performance optimization?

A. automatic increase of engine efficiency
B. mechanical increase of engine efficiency
C. non automatic increase of engine efficiency
D. manual increase of engine efficiency

Answer: A — automatic increase of engine efficiency

Engine performance optimization automatically adjusts fuel injection timing, exhaust valve timing, and scavenge air pressure to maintain peak firing pressures across all loads.

5. ______ requires thermal energy from the exhaust gas and convert it into electrical energy

A. None of the above
B. recirculation recovery system
C. manual heat recovery system
D. waste heat recovery system

Answer: D — waste heat recovery system

Waste Heat Recovery Systems (WHRS) utilize exhaust gas economizers, steam turbines, and power turbines to convert waste thermal energy into electrical power.

6. Waste heat recovery system requires _______ energy from the exhaust gas and convert it into electrical energy

A. kinetic
B. potential
C. thermal
D. dynamic

Answer: C — thermal

WHRS extracts residual thermal energy from high-temperature engine exhaust gases to drive a steam turbine-generator set.

7. Waste heat recovery system requires thermal energy from the _______ gas and convert it into electrical energy

A. inert
B. exhaust
C. energise
D. None of the above

Answer: B — exhaust

Main engine exhaust gas holds significant waste thermal energy that can be recovered by combined steam and gas turbine systems.

8. Turbo charger refitting increases efficieny and reduce emissions of _______ engine

A. main
B. side
C. left
D. right

Answer: A — main

Retrofitting advanced turbochargers on main propulsion engines optimizes scavenge air mass flow, improves combustion efficiency, and lowers emissions.

9. Turbo charger refitting _______ efficieny and reduce emissions of main engine

A. balance
B. equalize
C. decrease
D. increases

Answer: D — increases

Turbocharger upgrading increases engine thermodynamic efficiency and lowers specific emissions across intermediate engine load ranges.

10. Upgrading Turbo charger to ________ will increase efficiency

A. VTA technology
B. ATV technology
C. to A technology
D. Vat tehnology

Answer: A — VTA technology

Variable Turbine Area (VTA) technology incorporates adjustable nozzle vanes to optimize exhaust gas velocity and scavenge air pressure at all engine loads.

11. Upgrading _______ to VTA technology will increase efficiency

A. exhaust boiler
B. None of the above
C. propulsion shaft
D. Turbo charger

Answer: D — Turbo charger

Upgrading standard turbochargers with Variable Turbine Area (VTA) technology optimizes scavenge pressure and enhances low-load combustion efficiency.

12. Upgrading Turbo charger to VTA technology will _______ efficiency

A. equalize
B. decrease
C. increase
D. balance

Answer: C — increase

VTA turbochargers increase part-load fuel efficiency and engine responsiveness by adjusting nozzle blade angles to match exhaust mass flow.

13. _______ efficiency can be increased by utilising existing turbo charger with the latest man disel turbo charger

A. Motor
B. propeller
C. Engine
D. All the above

Answer: C — Engine

Propulsion engine efficiency is maximized by matching modern turbocharging systems with optimized fuel injection and electronic valve control.

14. What is mean by jet assist systems?

A. None of the above
B. giving compressed air from an external source to aid compresser will acceleration in turbo chargers
C. to give compressed air service to auxiliary engines
D. to give compressed air supply for cleaning sewage treatment plant

Answer: B — giving compressed air from an external source to aid compresser will acceleration in turbo chargers

Jet assist systems inject compressed air into the turbocharger compressor casing to accelerate the rotor and eliminate turbo lag during rapid engine acceleration.

15. LNG engines reduces CO2 emission by how much ?

A. 15-20%
B. 45-50%
C. 25-30%
D. 35-40%

Answer: C — 25-30%

Natural gas fueled dual-fuel engines achieve a 20% to 25-30% reduction in carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions compared to standard heavy fuel oil.

16. LNG has fuel reduces Nox emission by about

A. 90%
B. 100%
C. 91%
D. 92%

Answer: A — 90%

Low-pressure dual-fuel gas engines (Otto cycle) reduce nitrogen oxide (NOx) emissions by up to 85-90%, complying inherently with IMO Tier III limits.

17. LNG has fuel reduces sox emission by about

A. 92%
B. 91%
C. 90%
D. almost negligible

Answer: D — almost negligible

Because natural gas contains virtually no sulfur, SOx emissions from LNG-fueled engines are almost zero (negligible).

18. Advantages of VTA turbo charger

A. an alternator is attached to a blower end
B. reduces the fuel consumption
C. to eliminates the need for auxiliary blower
D. All the above

Answer: A — an alternator is attached to a blower end

19. Turbo charger works efficiently in _________

A. entire load of the engine
B. start of the engine
C. None of the above
D. partial load of the engine

Answer: A — entire load of the engine

Modern turbochargers are designed to operate efficiently across the entire engine load envelope from idle to 100% MCR.

20. The low pressure XDF tecnhnology concept is based on the __________

A. exhaust gas principle
B. None of the above
C. sewage plant principle
D. lean burn principle

Answer: D — lean burn principle

WinGD low-pressure X-DF dual-fuel engines operate on the lean-burn Otto cycle, premixing low-pressure gas with scavenge air before pilot fuel ignition.

21. XDF engine provide which benefit

A. low pressure gas supply
B. pilot fuel quantity below 1%
C. All the above
D. DF engine can be operated on gas from ideal

Answer: C — All the above

Low-pressure X-DF technology offers IMO Tier III compliance without exhaust gas aftertreatment, lower gas supply pressure (<16 bar), and reduced capital costs.

22. _______ engine provide pilot fuel quantity below 1%

A. YDF
B. XTF
C. GDF
D. XDF

Answer: D — XDF

WinGD X-DF engines require very small amounts of pilot diesel fuel (less than 1% of total energy at high loads) to ignite the lean gas-air mixture.

23. Particulate matters emissions reduced to almost zero in which technology

A. high pressure XDF
B. low pressure YDF
C. low pressure XDF
D. high pressure YDF

Answer: C — low pressure XDF

Particulate matter (PM) and soot emissions are reduced to near zero in low-pressure lean-burn gas engines due to clean methane combustion.

24. Which type of engine does not need exhaust gas treatment system

A. GDF engines
B. ZDF engines
C. XDF engines
D. YDF engines

Answer: C — XDF engines

Low-pressure dual-fuel Otto cycle engines meet IMO Tier III NOx limits in gas mode without needing Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) or Exhaust Gas Recirculation (EGR).

25. What are the advantages of Mr. diesel process man engine

A. All the above
B. diesel process maintain
C. load response unchanged
D. low preignition or no knocking

Answer: A — All the above

MAN ME-GI engines utilize high-pressure gas injection on the Diesel cycle, delivering high thermal efficiency, zero knock risk, and minimal methane slip.

26. Mr otto process LNG engine has got following advantage

A. All the above
B. reduction in nox emissions
C. low pressure gas injection
D. gas mixture is important

Answer: A — All the above

Otto-cycle low-pressure gas engines operate with low gas supply pressures (<10-16 bar), simpler fuel gas supply systems, and low Tier III NOx emissions.

27. Derating of the propulsion engine can be achieved by

A. All the above
B. modifying fuel valves
C. simming between crosscuts and piston rods
D. rematching the turbo chargers

Answer: A — All the above

Engine derating can be achieved by installing smaller turbocharger nozzle rings, adjusting fuel injection profiles, and modifying electronic control parameters.

28. Disadvantage of rerating a engine is

A. this may require additional denox measures
B. increased specific fuel oil consumption
C. this may require additional sox measures
D. None of the above

Answer: A — this may require additional denox measures

Rerating or modifying engine combustion for higher maximum pressure without proper tuning may elevate peak combustion temperatures, potentially increasing NOx formation.

29. Disadvantage of hybrid turbo charger is

A. doesn’t require lubrication
B. heat generated is less
C. doesn’t require cooling
D. heat generated is more

Answer: D — heat generated is more

Disadvantages of hybrid turbochargers include increased mechanical complexity, additional electrical cooling requirements, and higher capital expense.

30. Advantage of hybrid turbo charger is

A. it recovers cold energy
B. it is doing nothing
C. it decreses the power of the main engine
D. it recovers hot energy

Answer: D — it recovers hot energy

The main advantage of a hybrid turbocharger is the recovery of waste exhaust energy to generate electrical power, reducing auxiliary diesel generator fuel consumption.

Set 7 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Hybrid turbo charger is useful in __________

A. None of the above
B. cutting down garbage from the ship
C. cutting down emission from the ship
D. cutting down sewage from the ship

Answer: C — cutting down emission from the ship

Hybrid turbochargers recover surplus exhaust gas energy at higher engine loads to produce electrical power for the ship's main switchboard.

2. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, gas can leak ___________ into the auxiliary system medium

A. invariably
B. indirectly
C. differently
D. directly

Answer: D — directly

3. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, gas can leak directly into the ______________

A. main system medium
B. secondary system medium
C. primary system medium
D. auxiliary system medium

Answer: D — auxiliary system medium

Shaft generators reduce auxiliary diesel generator runtime by generating electrical power directly from the main propulsion shaft.

4. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, the gas extracted from ____________are vented to a safe location in the atmosphere.

A. secondary systems media
B. main systems media
C. primary systems media
D. auxiliary systems media

Answer: D — auxiliary systems media

5. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, the crankcase of a trunk piston type engines are fitted with a means of ______________

A. automatically injecting inert gas
B. manually injecting inert gas
C. manually forcing inert gas
D. automatically forcing inert gas

Answer: B — manually injecting inert gas

Variable Turbine Area (VTA) turbochargers adjust nozzle vanes to optimize scavenge air pressure across intermediate engine loads.

6. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, if combustion has not been detected by the engine monitoring system within an engine specific time after the opening of the fuel supply valve, the ____________________-

A. fuel supply valve shall be automatically shut off
B. fuel supply valve shall be manually switched on
C. fuel supply valve shall be manually shut off
D. fuel supply valve shall be automatically switched on

Answer: A — fuel supply valve shall be automatically shut off

LNG fuel virtually eliminates sulfur oxide (SOx) and particulate matter (PM) emissions compared to standard heavy fuel oil.

7. In case of shut-off of the gas fuel supply, the engines are capable of continuous operation by ________ only without interruption

A. oil fuel
B. gas fuel
C. oxygen fuel
D. vapour fuel

Answer: A — oil fuel

Gas combustion units (GCU) safely incinerate excess boil-off gas when propulsion consumers are stopped or running at low load.

8. An automatic system shall be fitted to change over from __________

A. oil fuel operation to oil fuel operation
B. oil fuel operation to gas fuel operation
C. vapour fuel operation to oil fuel operation
D. gas fuel operation to oil fuel operation

Answer: D — gas fuel operation to oil fuel operation

Emergency shutdown (ESD) systems automatically trip fuel gas supply valves upon detecting gas leaks or ventilation failure.

9. In the case of unstable operation on engines when gas firing, the engine shall automatically change to ______________

A. gas fuel mode
B. fuel mode
C. oil fuel mode
D. vapour fuel mode

Answer: C — oil fuel mode

Fuel storage hold spaces are inerted with dry nitrogen to prevent the formation of flammable atmospheres in interbarrier spaces.

10. A ship, irrespective of the date of construction, which is converted to __________ for main or auxiliary machinery on or after date of entry into force shall comply with IGF Code

A. dual fuel
B. multi fuel
C. consume gas
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

11. How shall a ship be converted to __________ for main machinery after date of entry into force shall comply with IGF Code?

A. All the above
B. low-flashpoint fuel
C. consume gas
D. dual fuel

Answer: A — All the above

Methane slip in low-pressure dual-fuel engines is mitigated through optimized valve timing and oxidation catalysts.

12. A ship be converted to __________ for auxiliary machinery after date of entry into force shall comply with IGF Code?

A. All the above
B. dual fuel
C. low-flashpoint fuel
D. use of gas as fuel

Answer: A — All the above

13. In power generation including propulsion and other energy converters, the exhausts system are configured to prevent ____________

A. accumulation of un-burnt gaseous fuel
B. accumulation of burnt gaseous fuel
C. none of the above
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: A — accumulation of un-burnt gaseous fuel

Bunkering safety zones prohibit non-certified electrical equipment, open flames, and unauthorized personnel during fuel transfer.

14. In power generation including propulsion and other energy converters, the strength to withstand the worst case over pressure due to ignited gas leaks to contain an ignitable gas and air mixture are fitted with ______________

A. closable non-return valve system
B. single nonreturn valves system
C. two nonreturn valves system
D. Pressure relief systems

Answer: D — Pressure relief systems

Emergency release couplings (ERC) automatically disconnect bunkering hoses without fuel release if the vessel drifts.

15. In power generation including propulsion and other energy converters, what is vented away from where personnel may normally be present?

A. disarm
B. explosive gas
C. safe
D. slump

Answer: B — explosive gas

Cryogenic liquid fuel piping is thermally insulated to prevent cold loss and avoid structural deck embrittlement.

16. In power generation including propulsion and other energy converters, All energy converters shall have ________

A. secondary exhaust system
B. separate exhaust system
C. combined exhaust system
D. primary exhaust system

Answer: B — separate exhaust system

17. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, The exhaust system shall be equipped with ____________ to prevent excessive explosion pressures.

A. explosion relief ventilation
B. primary relief ventilation
C. gravity ventilation
D. circuit relief ventilation

Answer: A — explosion relief ventilation

Membrane fuel tanks utilize a thin liquid-tight metallic barrier supported by load-bearing insulation attached to the hull.

18. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, for engines where the space _____________ with the crankcase.

A. above the piston is in direct communication
B. below the piston is in direct communication
C. below the piston is in indirect communication
D. above the piston is in indirect communication

Answer: B — below the piston is in direct communication

Inerting fuel lines with nitrogen before bunkering eliminates air and prevents flammable mixtures during connection.

19. In Requirements for internal combustion engines of Piston type, each engine other than _______________ are fitted with vent systems independent of other engines for crankcases and sumps

A. two-stroke crosshead diesel engines
B. single-stroke crosshead diesel engines
C. single-stroke crosshead petrol engines
D. two-stroke crosshead petrol engines

Answer: A — two-stroke crosshead diesel engines

Water spray deluge systems provide cooling and boundary protection for fuel storage tanks and bunkering manifolds.

20. In case of shut-off of one fuel supply, the engines are capable of _____________ by an alternative fuel with minimum fluctuation of the engine power

A. non-continuous operation
B. continuous operation
C. unstable operation
D. stable operation

Answer: B — continuous operation

Drip trays beneath bunkering manifolds must be thermally insulated from deck steel to prevent brittle fracture from spills.

21. In case of shut-off of one fuel supply, the engines are capable of continuous operation by an alternative fuel with _______________

A. higher fluctuation of the engine power
B. maximum fluctuation of the engine power
C. minimum fluctuation of the engine power
D. nil fluctuation of the engine power

Answer: C — minimum fluctuation of the engine power

Fixed dry chemical powder (DCP) systems are installed at bunkering stations for rapid gas fire suppression.

22. In the case of unstable operation on an engine when using a particular fuel the engine are ______________ change to an alternative fuel mode.

A. instructed
B. manual
C. programmed
D. automatically

Answer: D — automatically

Gas detectors in machinery spaces trigger visual and audible alarms at 20% LEL and trip gas supply at 40% LEL.

23. What are designed to prevent any accumulation of gaseous fuel?

A. shaft
B. Combustion chambers
C. bulkhead valves
D. overhead valves

Answer: B — Combustion chambers

Ventilation extraction fans for fuel preparation rooms must deliver at least 30 air changes per hour under the IGF Code.

24. VTA turbo charger works on __________ load range of the engine efficiently

A. entire
B. final step
C. None of the above
D. starting load range

Answer: A — entire

Air locks maintain an overpressure differential to prevent hazardous gas vapors from entering non-hazardous spaces.

25. Two stage turbo charging of auxiliary engines increases

A. not extensive experience in component design
B. All of the above
C. fuel consumption high
D. reduce emissions

Answer: D — reduce emissions

Certified Ex-rated electrical equipment is required in all hazardous zones (Zone 0, Zone 1, Zone 2) on gas-fueled vessels.

26. Alternate marine power provides power to _______

A. air conditioner
B. All of the above
C. Main sea water pump
D. Main fire pump

Answer: A — air conditioner

Tankscope instruments measure hydrocarbon vapor concentrations (0-100% volume) in inert gas atmospheres.

27. Disadvantages of Cold ironing

A. compatible for tankers
B. huge investment for setting up of equipments for AMP
C. All of the above
D. problems not pertaining to cost

Answer: B — huge investment for setting up of equipments for AMP

Cold ironing (Alternative Maritime Power - AMP) requires substantial capital investment for shore power substations, high-voltage shipside transformers, and cable management systems.

28. Energy recovery can be achieved by _________

A. Not fixing flettner rotors
B. fixing sails or wings
C. Not fixing kite
D. All of the above

Answer: B — fixing sails or wings

Wind-assisted propulsion technologies, such as rotor sails, rigid wings, and suction sails, harness aerodynamic wind force to reduce main propulsion fuel consumption.

29. The advantage of hydrogen powered vessels is _______

A. there is no emission of nox
B. there is no emission of CO2
C. there is no emission of SO2
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Hydrogen fuel cell propulsion vessels emit zero greenhouse gases and zero criteria air pollutants (emitting only water vapor), offering completely clean maritime transport.

30. ________ produces electricity from the main proposion engine

A. main geenrator
B. shaft generator
C. auxiliary geenrator
D. ordinary generator

Answer: B — shaft generator

A shaft generator is driven by the main propulsion engine or propeller shaft, producing electrical power at sea using the high fuel efficiency of the main engine.

Set 8 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Shaft generator produces electricity from the _________

A. None of the above
B. side proposion engine
C. main proposion engine
D. left engine

Answer: C — main proposion engine

A shaft generator utilizes mechanical rotational power from the main propulsion engine shaft to generate shipboard electricity, eliminating the need to run auxiliary diesel generators at sea.

2. Prime surgreen focuses towards fulfilling of all emission standards from the _____________

A. None of the above
B. Director General of Shipping
C. Mercantile Marine department
D. International Maritime Organisation

Answer: D — International Maritime Organisation

Maritime green shipping initiatives focus on meeting and exceeding IMO greenhouse gas reduction targets, EEDI/CII ratings, and Tier III emission limits.

3. Prime surgreen focuses towards fulfilling of all _________ standards from the International Maritime Organisation

A. depletion
B. emission
C. None of the above
D. omision

Answer: B — emission

Environmental regulations set by the IMO mandate continuous reductions in vessel greenhouse gas emissions, SOx, NOx, and particulate matter.

4. ________ increases efficieny and reduce emissions of main engine

A. propulsion shaft cleaning
B. turbo charger refitting
C. None of the above
D. exhaust boiler cleaning

Answer: B — turbo charger refitting

Retrofitting high-efficiency turbochargers improves scavenge air pressure and combustion efficiency, reducing specific fuel consumption and exhaust emissions.

5. Reducing fouling of engine parts can be achieved by using ___________

A. VTA technology
B. None of the above
C. ATV technology
D. Vat tehnology

Answer: A — VTA technology

Variable Turbine Area (VTA) turbochargers reduce engine carbon deposits and fouling by maintaining optimal air-to-fuel ratios during low-load operation.

6. Disadvantage of LNG fuel is

A. emission of CO2
B. emission of NOX
C. release of unburned methane into atmosphere
D. emission of sox

Answer: C — release of unburned methane into atmosphere

A primary environmental challenge of Otto-cycle gas engines is methane slip, where unburned methane escapes into the exhaust stream.

7. Burners are designed to maintain _____________ under all firing conditions.

A. spontaneous combustion
B. stable combustion
C. explosive combustion
D. unstable combustion

Answer: B — stable combustion

Gas burners on marine auxiliary boilers are engineered with specialized flame stabilizers and air registers to maintain stable combustion under all firing rates.

8. On the pipe of each gas burner a _______________ are fitted

A. automatically operated shut-off valve
B. manually operated shut-off valve
C. manually operated switch-on valve
D. automatically operated switch-on valve

Answer: B — manually operated shut-off valve

Each gas burner supply pipe must be equipped with a local manual shut-off valve in addition to automated double block and bleed safety valves.

9. The exhausts are appropriately configured to prevent any accumulation of ___________

A. un-burnt fuel gas
B. none of the above
C. burnt fuel gas
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: A — un-burnt fuel gas

Exhaust uptakes and boiler flues on gas-fueled vessels are configured to prevent pockets or dead zones where unburned fuel gas could accumulate.

10. Pressure relief systems within the exhaust uptakes to be lead to a ______________ location away from personnel.

A. non-hazardous
B. toxic
C. hazardous
D. risky

Answer: A — non-hazardous

Pressure relief vents on boiler exhaust ducts and gas supply systems must discharge to safe non-hazardous open-air locations clear of personnel and air intakes.

11. In gas turbine may be fitted in a gas-tight enclosure a ____________ in the gas supply piping may be accepted within this enclosure

A. pressure above 30 bar
B. pressure above 10 bar
C. pressure above 50 bar
D. pressure below 10 bar

Answer: B — pressure above 10 bar

When marine gas turbines are housed in gas-tight enclosures, fuel gas piping with pressures exceeding 10 bar may be approved within the ventilated enclosure.

12. What is the full redundancy for ventilation for the enclosure for ESD protected machinery spaces ?

A. 2x100% capacity fans from different electrical circuits
B. 2x200% capacity fans from same electrical circuits
C. 2x100% capacity fans from same electrical circuits
D. 2x200% capacity fans from different electrical circuits

Answer: A — 2x100% capacity fans from different electrical circuits

Ventilation for ESD-protected machinery enclosures must feature 100% redundancy with two independent extraction fans powered from separate electrical circuits.

13. Each __________ are fitted with an automatic shutdown device for high exhaust temperatures.

A. pelton wheel
B. none of the above
C. both (a) and (b)
D. turbine

Answer: A — pelton wheel

Gas turbines and high-temperature machinery are equipped with automatic over-temperature trips to initiate emergency gas fuel shutoff if exhaust temperatures exceed safe limits.

14. Fuel cells design are to ensure that any single failure in active components of the fuel cell system not lead to ____________

A. loss of propulsion
B. loss of efficiency
C. loss of manoeuring
D. loss of brake air

Answer: A — loss of propulsion

Marine fuel cell installations must be designed with redundancy so that a single failure in any active component will not result in total loss of vessel propulsion or steering.

15. To make a fuel cell space non hazardous, all fuel pipes are enclosed in a gas tight _________

A. loss of propulsion
B. double open space
C. single enclosure
D. ring space

Answer: A — loss of propulsion

To maintain a fuel cell compartment as a gas-safe space, all fuel supply piping must be fully enclosed within gas-tight double-wall ducts or ventilated casings.

16. The fuel cell space is fitted with gas detection and an _______________ for Emergency ShutDown protected machinery spaces.

A. programmed shut down system
B. instructed shut down system
C. automatic shut down system
D. manual shut down system

Answer: C — automatic shut down system

Fuel cell compartments must be fitted with continuous gas detection systems and automated emergency shutdown (ESD) systems to isolate fuel upon leak detection.

17. For fuel cell systems with aggregate power ______________, the installation of the whole fuel cell system in the same compartment may be accepted by the Administration

A. lower than 375 kW
B. lower than 500 kW
C. lower than 775 kW
D. lower than 275 kW

Answer: A — lower than 375 kW

Small fuel cell systems with an aggregate power below 375 kW may be installed in a single compartment subject to approval by the Administration.

18. Fuel tanks located above the bulkhead deck shall be shielded with ________ insulation towards accommodation.

A. class A-120
B. class A-90
C. class A-60
D. class A-80

Answer: C — class A-60

Fuel tanks situated on open decks above the bulkhead deck must be shielded from accommodation spaces, service spaces, and control stations by A-60 class thermal insulation.

19. ______________used for refrigeration or cooling of fuel must be compatible with the fuel.

A. boiler
B. freezing
C. Refrigerants
D. Griller

Answer: C — Refrigerants

Refrigerants utilized in fuel reliquefaction and gas cooling systems must be chemically compatible with the fuel and non-reactive in the event of heat exchanger leakage.

20. Heat exchangers can be repaired on board without ___________

A. heat sources
B. external sources
C. power sources
D. internal sources

Answer: B — external sources

Plate and shell-and-tube fuel heat exchangers are arranged with isolation valves and bypasses to allow maintenance and tube cleaning on board without external assistance.

21. What is arranged to enable each fuel storage tank to be safely gasfreed and to be safely filled with fuel gas from a gas-free condition?

A. storage tank
B. Gas Combining Unit
C. heat exchangers
D. piping system

Answer: D — piping system

Dedicated piping connections must be provided to allow each fuel storage tank to be safely inerted, gas-freed with air, and re-gassed from a gas-free state.

22. Dry air only applicable for which type of tankvwhere condensation and icing due to cold surfaces is an issue?

A. cargo tanks
B. storage tanks
C. fuel tanks
D. liquid tanks

Answer: C — fuel tanks

Dry air purging is utilized to dry fuel tanks and hold spaces prior to gassing up to eliminate moisture and prevent ice formation on cryogenic surfaces.

23. The ship's motion shall include ______________

A. surge
B. heave
C. sway
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

Structural design of fuel tanks must account for all six degrees of ship motion: rolling, pitching, yawing, surging, swaying, and heaving.

24. What properties are adequate for the intended service to Thermal insulation and other materials used in liquefied gas fuel containment systems?

A. All the above
B. absorption of the liquefied gas fuel
C. solubility in the liquefied gas fuel
D. compatibility with the liquefied gas fuels

Answer: A — All the above

Thermal insulation materials used on cryogenic fuel containment systems must exhibit proven structural integrity, low thermal conductivity, and fire-resistant properties at service temperatures.

25. The properties for Thermal insulation the range should be how much

A. neutral
B. minimum
C. between temperature in service and 5°C below the minimum design temperature
D. zero

Answer: C — between temperature in service and 5°C below the minimum design temperature

Thermal insulation properties must be tested and certified across the temperature range between operational service conditions and 5°C below the minimum design temperature.

26. The properties for Thermal insulation and other materials including composites tested how much should be the minimum Design temperature should not be lower than__________

A. plus196°C
B. minus196°C
C. plus196°F
D. minus196°F

Answer: B — minus196°C

Materials used in cryogenic LNG fuel containment systems must be impact tested at design temperatures down to -196°C to verify ductility against brittle failure.

27. _________ refers to the usage of other power supply sources to feed power to the ship

A. alternate marine power system
B. ship marine power system
C. None of the above
D. alternate feed power system

Answer: A — alternate marine power system

Alternative Marine Power (AMP / Cold Ironing) supplies electrical power to the vessel from the shoreside grid while berthed, allowing auxiliary engines to be shut down.

28. _______ reduces the emission by the ship by a great margin

A. main marine power system
B. auxiliary marine power system
C. alternate marine power system
D. None of the above

Answer: C — alternate marine power system

Shore power connection (AMP) drastically reduces local port emissions of NOx, SOx, PM, and greenhouse gases while ships are berthed in port.

29. Alternate Marine Power provides powers to

A. lights
B. refrigerator
C. All of the above
D. air conditioner

Answer: C — All of the above

AMP supplies high-voltage electrical power to all shipboard consumers, including hotel loads, refrigeration, lighting, and auxiliary pumps.

30. Which type of vessel has got the biggest disadvantage with reference to Alternate Marine Power?

A. tanker
B. bulK carrier
C. passenger ships
D. container

Answer: A — tanker

Tankers face significant safety challenges with shore power connections due to hazardous area zoning and potential ignition risks during cargo operations.

Set 9 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Speed recovery solutions can save fuel upto

A. 1%
B. 20-30%
C. 2%
D. 4-11%

Answer: D — 4-11%

Speed reduction and operational efficiency measures (slow steaming and hull optimization) can deliver substantial fuel savings of 4% to 11% or more.

2. Coating is done to reduce ___________

A. air resistance
B. oil resistance
C. None of the above
D. hull sytems

Answer: A — air resistance

Aerodynamic superstructure fairings and low-friction hull coatings reduce aerodynamic and hydrodynamic resistance, improving overall vessel propulsive efficiency.

3. ________ is an engine for reduction of the vessels maximum speed to increase the efficiency by limiting the potential power output

A. over rating
B. rerating
C. None of the above
D. derating

Answer: D — derating

Engine derating involves limiting the maximum power rating of a marine engine to optimize its thermal efficiency and specific fuel consumption at lower operating speeds.

4. LNG fuel should have after treatment systems like ___________

A. oxidation catalyst
B. nitrogen catalyst
C. hydrogen catalyst
D. helium catalyst

Answer: A — oxidation catalyst

Methane oxidation catalysts (MOC) are exhaust aftertreatment devices designed to oxidize residual unburned methane (methane slip) in lean-burn gas engine exhausts.

5. _______ should have after treatment systems like oxidation catalyst

A. petrol
B. LNG fuel
C. coal
D. gas fuel

Answer: B — LNG fuel

LNG-fueled lean-burn Otto-cycle engines utilize oxidation catalysts to reduce carbon monoxide, unburned hydrocarbons, and methane slip.

6. Slow steaming is otherwise called

A. maxrating of the engine
B. rerating of the engine
C. derating of the engine
D. duerating of the engine

Answer: C — derating of the engine

Slow steaming is an operational strategy that involves reducing vessel transit speed and derating main engines to achieve significant fuel and emissions savings.

7. The cooling jacket of a hybrid turbo charger is made up of which material

A. aluminium
B. stainless steel
C. steel
D. silver

Answer: A — aluminium

The water-cooling jacket on high-speed hybrid turbocharger alternators is commonly fabricated from corrosion-resistant marine aluminum alloys.

8. GCU means ___________________

A. Gas Consumption Unit
B. Gas Combustion Unit
C. Goods Combustion Unit
D. Gas Combining Unit

Answer: B — Gas Combustion Unit

GCU stands for Gas Combustion Unit, a dedicated thermal oxidizer on LNG-fueled ships that safely burns excess boil-off gas when engines cannot consume it.

9. _____________ utilized for gas freeing of tanks may be provided externally to the ship.

A. Green gas
B. Non-Toxic gas
C. Toxic gas
D. Inert gas

Answer: D — Inert gas

Inert gas (such as liquid nitrogen) used for purging and gas-freeing fuel tanks may be supplied from shoreside tanker trucks during bunkering or drydocking.

10. Spaces surrounding fuel tanks is filled with which type of air?

A. vapour
B. cool air
C. moistured air
D. dry air

Answer: D — dry air

Hold spaces surrounding independent Type C fuel tanks are filled with dry air or inert gas and continuously monitored for pressure and flammable gas.

11. What is electrically bonded in ship's structure?

A. All gasketed pipe joints
B. All non-gasketed pipe joints
C. fresh water line
D. sea water line

Answer: A — All gasketed pipe joints

All gasketed pipe joints, flanges, and flexible hoses in fuel systems must be electrically bonded with copper bonding straps to prevent static charge accumulation.

12. All pipelines isolated in a liquid full condition are provided with ___________

A. diaphgramvalves
B. butterfly valves
C. relief valves
D. control valves

Answer: C — relief valves

Thermal relief valves must be installed on any pipeline section that can be isolated while full of liquid to prevent overpressurization from thermal expansion.

13. Pipework contain ____________ which is thermally insulated to an extent which will minimize condensation of moisture

A. low temperature liquid
B. high temperature liquid
C. low pressure liquid
D. high pressure liquid

Answer: A — low temperature liquid

Cryogenic fuel pipework is thermally insulated with aerogel, polyurethane, or perlite to prevent ambient heat ingress and avoid structural moisture condensation.

14. Pipework contain low temperature liquid or gas which is thermally insulated to an extent which will ___________

A. maximize condensation of moisture
B. minimize evaporation of moisture
C. maximize evaporation of moisture
D. minimize condensation of moisture

Answer: D — minimize condensation of moisture

Thermal insulation on cryogenic gas piping prevents excessive heat ingress into the fuel and prevents heavy condensation and frost formation on external pipe surfaces.

15. Piping other than fuel supply piping, what is arranged in the double wall piping?

A. none of the above
B. sea water
C. fresh water
D. cabling

Answer: D — cabling

Instrumentation cabling and tracing lines associated with gas fuel supply systems may be routed inside double-wall piping ducts provided they are Ex-certified.

16. Piping other than cabling, what is arranged in the double wall piping?

A. fuel supply piping
B. fresh water
C. none of the above
D. sea water

Answer: A — fuel supply piping

Fuel supply piping is routed inside double-walled outer ducts to contain any potential inner pipe leakage and provide an extraction pathway for gas detection.

17. What is provided that they do not create a source of ignition compromise the integrity of the double pipe?

A. closure
B. drain
C. entry
D. duct

Answer: D — duct

Double-wall ducts must be structurally designed and certified so that internal components do not create ignition sources or compromise duct integrity.

18. In the minimum wall thickness, t=(to + b + c)/(1 - a/100)(mm), What is to?

A. allowance for bending
B. corrosion allowance
C. theoretical thickness
D. design pressure

Answer: C — theoretical thickness

In the standard pipe wall thickness formula, 'to' represents the theoretical design wall thickness required to withstand internal working pressure.

19. Indicators fitted on the ____________ ,the engine control room and the manoeuvring platform operation of Main engine

A. none of the above
B. navigation bridge,
C. Pump room
D. Deck

Answer: B — navigation bridge,

The navigation bridge must be equipped with essential propulsion status indicators, gas trip alarms, and emergency shutdown controls.

20. Where is permanently installed gas detectors fitted?

A. remote operation
B. both (a) and (b)
C. the tank connection spaces
D. in all ducts around gas pipes

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

Permanently installed gas detectors are fitted in tank connection spaces, double-wall pipe ducts, fuel preparation rooms, and machinery space exhaust hoods.

21. Where is redundant gas detection systems be provided?

A. ESD-protected detection space
B. ESD-protected machinery space
C. ESD-unprotected machinery space
D. ESD-unprotected detection space

Answer: B — ESD-protected machinery space

Redundant gas detection systems with dual optical/infrared detectors are mandatory in ESD-protected machinery spaces to ensure immediate fail-safe trip capability.

22. In which area electrical equipment or wiring are not installed unless essential for operational purposes or safety enhancement?

A. safe area
B. hazardous areas
C. protected area
D. Gas free area

Answer: B — hazardous areas

Electrical equipment and wiring must not be installed in hazardous zones unless strictly necessary for operational or safety functions and certified explosion-proof (Ex-rated).

23. How is the lighting system in hazardous areas be divided ?

A. at least five branch circuits
B. at least three branch circuits
C. single circuits
D. at least two branch circuits

Answer: D — at least two branch circuits

Lighting systems in explosion-hazardous areas must be divided between at least two independent branch circuits to prevent total darkness upon single-circuit tripping.

24. Where will the switches and protective devices interrupt all poles or phases are provided

A. non-hazardous area
B. Gas area
C. toxic area
D. hazardous area

Answer: A — non-hazardous area

Electrical switches, circuit breakers, and motor protection devices controlling hazardous area circuits must be located in non-hazardous gas-safe areas.

25. The liquefied gas fuel containment system structure and its structural components shall withstand _______________ without loss of containment

A. loads liable to occur during its construction
B. testing
C. All the above
D. anticipated use in service

Answer: C — All the above

The fuel containment system structure must withstand all static, dynamic, sloshing, thermal, and collision loads without loss of containment.

26. The liquefied gas fuel containment system structure and its structural components shall withstand loads liable to occur during its ____________ without loss of containment.

A. testing
B. All the above
C. anticipated use in service
D. construction

Answer: B — All the above

Fuel containment structures are engineered to maintain structural integrity across their entire design operational lifetime without fatigue failure or leak development.

27. In Ultimate Design Conditions –the design shall take into account proper combinations of which type of loads?

A. All the above
B. External pressure
C. Dynamic loads due to the motion of the ship in all loading conditions
D. Internal pressure

Answer: A — All the above

Ultimate limit state design of fuel tanks accounts for simultaneous combinations of internal vapor pressure, liquid weight, hull girder deflection, and dynamic acceleration forces.

28. What are the accident design conditions addressed in IGF Code?

A. Collision
B. All the above
C. Fire
D. Flooded compartment causing buoyancy on tank

Answer: B — All the above

Accidental design conditions under the IGF Code evaluate extreme events including collision, grounding, secondary barrier liquid flooding, and external fire envelope exposure.

29. The hull structure may be designed as a secondary barrier where the liquefied gas fuel temperature at atmospheric pressure is not below minus 55°C on ______________

A. the design can be such that this temperature will not result in unacceptable hull stresses
B. the hull material can be suitable for the liquefied gas fuel temperature at atmospheric pressure
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

The ship's inner hull structure may serve as a secondary barrier only when the fuel temperature at atmospheric pressure is not colder than -55°C and approved cryogenic grade steel is used.

30. In ship design and arrangement is to provide for

A. refuelling systems
B. mechanical protection of power generation equipment
C. space arrangements
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

The IGF Code establishes safety goals and mandatory functional requirements for the arrangement, installation, and operation of machinery using low-flashpoint fuels.

Set 10 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. the fuel when carried in a fuel containment system requiring a complete or partial secondary barrier, hold spaces shall be segregated from the sea by a double bottom.is carried at temperatures below ___________,

A. 0ºC
B. minus 10ºC
C. plus 10ºC
D. none of the above

Answer: B — minus 10ºC

Fuel containment systems must be arranged and located to minimize the risk of fire or explosion damage from external hazards and collisions.

2. the fuel when carried in a fuel containment system requiring a complete or partial secondary barrier, at temperatures below ____________, the ship shall also have a longitudinal bulkhead forming side tanks

A. plus 55ºC
B. none of the above
C. minus 55ºC
D. 0ºC

Answer: C — minus 55ºC

3. Liquefied gas fuel containment systems can be designed in accordance with ___________ environmental conditions

A. north Indian ocean
B. north Antartic
C. north Atlantic
D. north Pacific

Answer: C — north Atlantic

Fuel preparation rooms house compressors, pumps, and heat exchangers required to condition gas fuel before supply to engines.

4. Liquefied gas fuel containment systems can be designed with suitable safety margins such as ___________

A. being appropriate for uncertainties in loads
B. the environmental conditions anticipated for the liquefied gas fuel containment system's design life and the loading conditions appropriate for them
C. All the above
D. to withstand in the intact condition

Answer: C — All the above

Double block and bleed valve arrangements provide positive, fail-safe isolation of the gas fuel supply line to each engine.

5. What criteria to be considered when establishing functional loads?

A. All the above
B. Internal pressure
C. Thermally induced loads
D. External pressure

Answer: A — All the above

Automated master gas fuel valves close automatically upon emergency shutdown (ESD) activation, gas detection, or loss of ventilation.

6. What are the cases Internal pressure in Liquefied gas fuel containment safety principles ?

A. both (a) and (b)
B. Po shall not be less than the gauge vapour pressure of the liquefied gas fuel at a temperature of 45°C
C. Po shall not be less than MARVS
D. none of the above

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

Gas fuel piping must not be led through accommodation spaces, service spaces, or control stations under any circumstances.

7. External design pressure loads can be based on the difference between the

A. No need to consider any pressure while designing
B. minimum internal pressure and the maximum external pressure to which any portion of the tank
C. inside temperature and outside temperature
D. none of the above

Answer: B — minimum internal pressure and the maximum external pressure to which any portion of the tank

Ventilation ducts for hazardous spaces must be separate from all other ventilation systems on the ship.

8. Where the liquefied gas fuel temperature at atmospheric pressure is not____________ the hull structure may be designed as a secondary barrier

A. below minus 55°C
B. below 255°C
C. below plus 55°C
D. above plus 55°C

Answer: A — below minus 55°C

Hazardous area classifications (Zone 0, Zone 1, Zone 2) define the degree of hazard and specify certified Ex equipment requirements.

9. Stationary thermally induced loads shall be considered for liquefied gas fuel containment systems where

A. both (a) and (b)
B. operating temperature may give rise to significant thermal stresses
C. none of the above
D. the design supporting arrangements or attachments

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

Electrical bonding straps must bridge all flange connections and piping joints in gas systems to prevent electrostatic sparking.

10. The static component of loads resulting _____________ can be considered.

A. both (a) and (b)
B. All the above
C. loads from associated structure and equipment,
D. from interaction between liquefied gas fuel containment system and the hull structure,

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

11. Environmental loads are not otherwise classified as a ____________

A. permanent load
B. accidental load
C. functional load
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

12. In dynamic loads reduction, Account may due to necessary ___________

A. both (a) and (b)
B. none of the above
C. speed reduction
D. variation of heading

Answer: A — both (a) and (b)

Tank connection spaces contain all fuel tank penetrations, valves, and instruments, functioning as secondary containment.

13. The accelerations acting on tanks shall be estimated at their centre of gravity and includes which type of components?

A. All the above
B. transverse acceleration: motion accelerations of sway, yaw and roll and gravity component of roll
C. vertical acceleration: motion accelerations of heave, pitch and, possibly roll
D. longitudinal acceleration: motion accelerations of surge and pitch and gravity component of pitch

Answer: A — All the above

Fuel tank overflow prevention systems include independent high-level (95%) alarms and high-high level (98%) automatic shut-off valves.

14. The dynamic component of loads resulting from interaction between ___________

A. the hull structure
B. liquefied gas fuel containment systems
C. All the above
D. including loads from associated structures and equipment

Answer: C — All the above

Bunkering control stations must be equipped with remote tank level gauges, pressure indicators, and manual ESD push buttons.

15. Accidental loads are loads that are imposed on a liquefied gas fuel containment system and it's supporting arrangements under ______________ conditions

A. unplanned
B. both (a) and (b)
C. none of the above
D. abnormal

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

Custody transfer systems record LNG temperature, density, level, and pressure for accurate fiscal energy calculation.

16. The structural design can take into account the possibility of ________

A. buckling
B. plastic deformation
C. All the above
D. fatigue failure

Answer: C — All the above

Pre-cooling of bunkering lines with LNG vapor prevents severe thermal contraction shock to cryogenic pipes and flanges.

17. With reference to load calculation LRFD means ____________________

A. Load Resistance Factor Design
B. Load Resistance Fever Design
C. Level Reaction Factor Design
D. Level Resistance Factor Design

Answer: A — Load Resistance Factor Design

Emergency release couplings (ERC) feature dry-break poppet valves that shut instantaneously when line tension exceeds set limits.

18. In Structural analysis, The design analyses is based on accepted principles of ___________

A. strength of materials
B. statics load
C. All the above
D. dynamics load

Answer: C — All the above

Water spray deluge systems on fuel storage tanks must deliver a minimum water application rate of 10 L/min/m² of projected surface.

19. Simplified methods or simplified analyses may be used to calculate the ____________

A. dynamics effects
B. statics effects
C. theory effects
D. load effects

Answer: D — load effects

Dry chemical powder (DCP) extinguishers are the primary firefighting appliance for gas fuel leaks and manifold fires.

20. In structural analysis, the most unfavourable scenarios for all relevant phases during ____________ shall be considered

A. handling stage
B. All the above
C. testing stage
D. construction stage

Answer: B — All the above

Personnel handling cryogenic LNG must wear specialized low-temperature gloves, face shields, safety boots, and protective coveralls.

21. How is Structural capacity determined?

A. analysis
B. testing
C. none of the above
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: D — both (a) and (b)

22. How is Structural capacity determined by simplified linear elastic analysis or by Code provisions?

A. Plastic deformation and buckling shall be considered
B. both (a) and (b)
C. Analysis shall be based on characteristic load values
D. none of the above

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

23. How is Structural capacity How is analysis based on characteristic load values follows for Environmental Loads?

A. For wave loads; most probable largest load encountered during 108 wave encounters
B. strength Values
C. Specified Values
D. Expected Values

Answer: A — For wave loads; most probable largest load encountered during 108 wave encounters

Gas detectors in fuel preparation rooms trigger automated alarms and increase ventilation extraction to high speed upon detection.

24. Stresses may be further limited by ____________

A. All the above
B. fatigue analysis
C. buckling criteria
D. crack propagation analysis

Answer: A — All the above

Optical infrared gas detectors provide rapid, fail-safe detection of hydrocarbon gas clouds without requiring atmospheric oxygen.

25. On what basis analysis based on characteristic load values for Permanent Loads?

A. Expected Values
B. Dynamic Valves
C. Expected Load History, but not less than 108 cycles
D. Specified Values

Answer: A — Expected Values

Portable gas detectors must be bump-tested and calibrated before each use to ensure accurate atmospheric readings.

26. On what basis analysis based on characteristic load values for Functional Loads?

A. Specified Values
B. Dynamic Valves
C. Expected Values
D. Expected Load History, but not less than 108 cycles

Answer: A — Specified Values

Risk assessments (HAZID/HAZOP) must be conducted for all low-flashpoint fuel bunkering, maintenance, and operational procedures.

27. On what basis analysis based on characteristic load values for Environmental Loads?

A. Specified Values
B. Dynamic Valves
C. Expected Values
D. Expected Load History, but not less than 108 cycles

Answer: D — Expected Load History, but not less than 108 cycles

Permit-to-work (PTW) systems control high-risk activities such as hot work, enclosed space entry, and cryogenic line breaking.

28. Fracture mechanics analyses of fatigue crack growthis carried out by?

A. Crack propagation paths in the structure
B. The time required for a crack to propagate to cause a leakage from the tank
C. Crack growth rate
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

Emergency response drills for gas fuel emergencies must be conducted at regular intervals in accordance with the vessel's SMS.

29. The accidental design condition is a design condition for _________ with extremely LOW PROBABILITY of occurrence

A. accidental loads
B. static load
C. environmental load
D. gravity load

Answer: A — accidental loads

The accidental design condition evaluates abnormal load cases such as hull damage, external fire, or containment leakage to ensure the ship's survivability.

30. IMDG Code means

A. Indian Maritime Dangerous Goods Code
B. International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code
C. International Maritime Deck Goods Code
D. International Marine Dangerous Goods Code

Answer: B — International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code

The IMDG Code is the International Maritime Dangerous Goods Code, regulating the safe seaborne transport of packaged dangerous goods.

Set 11 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Reliquefaction of vapours method chosen shall be capable of maintaining tank pressure ___________ of the tank for a period of 15 days assuming full tank at normal service pressure

A. above the set volume
B. above the set pressure
C. below the set volume
D. below the set pressure

Answer: D — below the set pressure

2. How is reliquefaction system be designed and calculated?

A. direct system where evaporated fuel is compressed, condensed and returned to cargo tanks
B. direct system where evaporated fuel is compressed, condensed and returned to fuel tanks
C. an indirect system where evaporated fuel is compressed, condensed and returned to cargo tanks
D. an indirect system where evaporated fuel is compressed, condensed and returned to fuel tanks

Answer: B — direct system where evaporated fuel is compressed, condensed and returned to fuel tanks

Membrane fuel containment systems rely on load-bearing insulation to transfer dynamic liquid loads directly to the inner hull.

3. Which method is used in case of a single failure of the fuel tank pressure and temperature can be maintained by another service/system ?

A. Refrigerants system and its supporting auxiliary services
B. Primary system and its supporting auxiliary services
C. The non-availability of the system and its supporting auxiliary services
D. The availability of the system and its supporting auxiliary services

Answer: D — The availability of the system and its supporting auxiliary services

Secondary barriers must hold liquid fuel for a specified period without allowing the hull steel temperature to drop to brittle levels.

4. ___________ are for maintaining the pressure and temperature of the gas fuel tanks within their design ranges

A. Heat exchangers
B. Primary system
C. Freezing
D. none of the above

Answer: A — Heat exchangers

Interbarrier spaces of Type A independent tanks must be continuously inerted with dry nitrogen gas.

5. Heat exchanger's standby heat exchanger have a capacity ____________ of the largest required capacity for pressure control.

A. lack of 25%
B. need of 25%
C. in excess of 25%
D. inadequacy of 25%

Answer: C — in excess of 25%

Hold spaces surrounding Type C pressure vessel tanks may be filled with dry air provided gas detection is installed.

6. Interbarrier and hold spaces associated with cargo containment systems for ______________ requiring full or partial secondary barriers shall be inerted with a suitable dry inert gas

A. Inert gas
B. flammable gases
C. inflammable gases
D. Green gas

Answer: B — flammable gases

Gas detection in interbarrier spaces provides immediate warning of primary barrier leaks or membrane failure.

7. Interbarrier and hold spaces associated with cargo containment systems are kept inerted with make-up gas provided by a shipboard _________________

A. flammable gas generation system
B. toxic gas generation system
C. inert gas generation system
D. Green gas generation system

Answer: C — inert gas generation system

Boil-off gas management systems must prevent fuel tank pressure from exceeding the Maximum Allowable Relief Valve Setting (MARVS).

8. Equipment for the provision of _______________ of suitable quality to satisfy the expected demand for dry air shall be provided.

A. insufficient moistured air
B. insufficient dry air
C. sufficient dry air
D. sufficient moistured air

Answer: C — sufficient dry air

Gas Combustion Units (GCU) burn surplus boil-off gas in a controlled combustion chamber when engines cannot consume it.

9. The connections to the gas piping systems are _______________

A. non-permanent
B. permanent
C. hazardous
D. non-hazardous

Answer: A — non-permanent

Reliquefaction units compress and condense boil-off gas vapors back into liquid fuel to return to the storage tanks.

10. In connections to the gas piping systems, what are substituted for the valves?

A. single nonreturn valves
B. two nonreturn valves
C. multi nonreturn valves
D. two return valves

Answer: B — two nonreturn valves

Connections from inert gas systems to gas fuel piping must have two non-return valves and a spool piece to prevent backflow of gas into inert systems.

11. How is the arrangement for each space being inerted ?

A. none of the above
B. groups
C. isolated
D. multi space

Answer: C — isolated

Each space subject to inerting must be arranged with independent isolation valves and local sampling connections.

12. What is provided for controlling pressure in isolated spaces?

A. two nonreturn valves
B. closable non-return valve
C. relief valves
D. single nonreturn valves

Answer: C — relief valves

Pressure relief valves must be provided on all isolated inerted spaces to prevent overpressurization during purging.

13. What is the goal of material and general pipe design?

A. to ensure the safe handling of pipes
B. to ensure the safe handling of gas fuel
C. to ensure the safe handling of drinking water
D. to ensure the safe handling of cargoes

Answer: B — to ensure the safe handling of gas fuel

The goal of material and general piping design under the IGF Code is to ensure the safe, leak-free containment and handling of gas fuel under all operating conditions.

14. Under which condition goal of material and general pipe design works?

A. only on limited conditions
B. under all operating conditions
C. based on the best condition
D. based on the fuel

Answer: B — under all operating conditions

Piping systems and fuel containment materials must maintain ductile mechanical properties under all foreseeable operating conditions down to design minimum temperatures.

15. What does goal of material and general pipe design minimize?

A. risk personnel
B. both (a) and (b)
C. none of the above
D. the risk to the ship

Answer: B — both (a) and (b)

Proper piping and containment design minimizes the risk of gas leakage, fire, and structural hull damage.

16. What is fuel piping capable of?

A. eliminate vaccum space
B. eliminate thermal expansion
C. absorbing thermal expansion
D. absorbing vaccum space

Answer: C — absorbing thermal expansion

Fuel piping arrangements must incorporate expansion loops or bellows capable of absorbing thermal contraction during cryogenic cooldown.

17. In Provision made in Functional requirements, fuel tanks from excessive stresses are due to _________

A. none of the above
B. pressure movement
C. vaccum movement
D. thermal movement

Answer: D — thermal movement

Functional requirements under the IGF Code mandate that fuel tanks and piping must be protected from excessive stresses caused by thermal contraction and expansion.

18. What is not essential to the structural completeness of the ship's hull?

A. An independent tank
B. none of the above
C. Dependent tank
D. Enclosed tank

Answer: A — An independent tank

An independent tank is a self-supporting fuel container that does not contribute to the structural strength or completeness of the ship's hull.

19. Which tank contains the fuel-containment envelope which forms part of the ship's hull and by the same loads which stress the contiguous hull structure?

A. none of the above
B. Gravity tank
C. Integral tank
D. both (a) and (b)

Answer: C — Integral tank

An integral tank is a fuel containment envelope that forms part of the ship's hull structure and is stressed by the same loads as the adjacent hull.

20. Which type of test covers the tensile strength not less than the specified minimum tensile strength?

A. Charpy V-notch impact tests
B. Tensile tests
C. Bend tests
D. All of the above

Answer: B — Tensile tests

Tensile testing of welded piping joints verifies that the ultimate tensile strength is not less than the specified minimum tensile strength of the base metal.

21. Which type of test conducted at the temperature prescribed for the base material being joined?

A. Tensile tests
B. All of the above
C. Bend tests
D. Charpy V-notch impact tests

Answer: D — Charpy V-notch impact tests

Charpy V-notch impact tests are conducted at prescribed minimum design temperatures to verify material resistance to brittle fracture.

22. What is the unit of P, design pressure?

A. K
B. Pa
C. bar
D. mm

Answer: C — bar

In piping design formulas, design pressure 'P' is standardly expressed in bar (or MPa).

23. In the theoretical thickness, to=PD/(20Ke + P) (mm), What is D?

A. pressure volume
B. theoretical thickness
C. outside diameter
D. PRESSURE

Answer: C — outside diameter

In the standard pipe wall thickness formula, 'D' represents the outside diameter of the pipe.

24. In the theoretical thickness, What is the unit of D, outside diameter?

A. Newtons
B. Bar
C. km
D. mm

Answer: D — mm

In pipe wall thickness calculations, outside diameter 'D' is standardly measured in millimeters (mm).

25. In IGF Code, Gas only engine means

A. two stroke engine
B. a power generating engine capable of operating on gas-only and not able to switch over to of fuel operation
C. four stroke engine
D. a power generating engine capable of operating on gas-only and able to switch over to oil fuel operation

Answer: A — two stroke engine

A gas-only engine operates solely on gas fuel without diesel pilot injection, utilizing spark ignition systems.

26. When assessing LNG fire risk in Hazardous and Safety Zones for LNG bunkering, which possible source of ignition would be caused by X ray apparatus, radioactive material, absorption of energy leads to heating up?

A. Lightning strike
B. lonizing radiation
C. Ultrasound
D. Adiabatic compression and shock wave

Answer: A — Lightning strike

Assessing LNG fire risk in hazardous zones requires identifying all potential ignition sources, leak frequencies, ventilation patterns, and emergency isolation capabilities.

27. Nitrogen pipes shall only be led through well ventilated spaces. Nitrogen pipes in enclosed spaces shall

A. Be fully welded
B. Have only a minimum of flange connections as needed for fitting of valves; and
C. Be as short as possible.
D. All of above

Answer: D — All of above

Nitrogen pipes routed through enclosed spaces must be all-welded, well-ventilated, and protected against accidental damage to prevent asphyxiation hazards.

28. In IGF Code, Certified safe type means

A. electrical equipment that is certified safe by the relevant authorities recognized by the Administration for operation in a flammable atmosphere based on a recognized standard
B. an enclosed space exceeding the maximum overpressure the container
C. measures provided to prevent the explosion pressure int a container
D. space is designed for, by releasing the overpressure through designated openings

Answer: A — electrical equipment that is certified safe by the relevant authorities recognized by the Administration for operation in a flammable atmosphere based on a recognized standard

Under the IGF Code, 'certified safe type' refers to electrical equipment certified by recognized authorities (ATEX/IECEx) for safe operation in flammable atmospheres.

29. Risk analysis is to be carried out in relevent accident scenarios to determine

A. Damage and deformities to the hull
B. Load and resistance factors
C. Damage to the machineries
D. Enviromental pollution

Answer: A — Damage and deformities to the hull

Accident scenario risk analysis evaluates collision, grounding, and fire impacts to determine potential damage and deformities to the ship's hull and fuel containment.

30. What according to you shall be fitted in every bunkering line close to the connectin point?

A. A manually operated valve.
B. A combined manually operated and remote valve.
C. A remote operated valve.
D. none of the above.

Answer: B — A combined manually operated and remote valve.

A combined manually operated stop valve and remote emergency shutdown valve must be fitted in every bunkering line close to the manifold connection point.

Set 12 — 12 AIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. Fuel lines outside the machinery spaces shall be installed and protected so as to minimize

A. The risk of injury to personnel
B. Damage to the ship in case of leakage
C. Risk of pollution
D. All of above

Answer: D — All of above

Fuel lines outside machinery spaces must be installed and protected to minimize the risk of mechanical damage, collision impact, and excessive thermal stress.

2. In the type of Fuel tank liquid level gauges, What is indirect devices?

A. which do not determine the amount of fuel by weighing ur in line flow metering
B. which determine the amount of fuel by weighing or out-line fow metering
C. which determine the amount of fuel by weighing or in-line fiove metering
D. which do not determine the amount of fuel by weighing or out-lite flove tretering

Answer: B — which determine the amount of fuel by weighing or out-line fow metering

Indirect level gauging devices determine the mass of fuel in tanks using external mass flow meters, weighing systems, or acoustic transducers.

3. Fire Blankets are used for

A. Smothering of tire
B. Ccoling of fire (
C. Inhicition of fire
D. Starvation uf fire

Answer: A — Smothering of tire

Fire blankets are utilized for rapid smothering of small localized fires by depriving the flames of oxygen.

4. Piping systems, containment and over-pressure relief arrangements are

A. Such that there is no fuel gases enter non hazardous area
B. Of suitable design, construction and installation for their intended application shali be provided.
C. Such that in case of any leakage gases are led to atmosphere
D. Arranged in such a way that chances of fire and explosions are reduced

Answer: A — Such that there is no fuel gases enter non hazardous area

Piping systems, containment barriers, and overpressure relief systems are engineered to prevent any fuel gas from entering non-hazardous spaces.

5. Self Contained Breathing Apparatus used for

A. fire fighting
B. rescue operations
C. both (a) and (b)
D. none of the above

Answer: C — both (a) and (b)

Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) is mandatory for emergency entry, firefighting, and rescue operations in toxic or oxygen-deficient atmospheres.

6. A zone where ship traffic and other activities should be monitored during bunkering is known as:

A. Hazardous Zone
B. Safety Zone
C. Security Zone
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Safety Zone

The bunkering safety zone is a designated perimeter where access, hot work, and non-certified electrical equipment are strictly controlled during bunkering.

7. Following any reasonably foreseeable failure during risk assessment consideration shall be given to the

A. Hazards associated with physical layout, operation and maintenance
B. Condition of ships machineries
C. Condition of cargo holds
D. Condition of the ships structure and hull

Answer: A — Hazards associated with physical layout, operation and maintenance

Risk assessments under the IGF Code evaluate potential failure modes related to physical layout, hazardous zone boundaries, and maintenance access.

8. Each liquefied gas fuel tank shall have an overflow control and be fitted with

A. High liquid leveglarm operating independently of other liquid level indicators and giving an audible and visual warning when activated.
B. An additional sensor operating independently of the high liquid level alarm shall automatically actuate a shutoff valve
C. The position of the sensors in the liquefied gas fuel tank shall be capable of being verified before commissioning.
D. All of above 132 k.

Answer: C — The position of the sensors in the liquefied gas fuel tank shall be capable of being verified before commissioning.

Overflow control systems on fuel tanks feature high-high level sensors whose calibration and position must be verified prior to commissioning.

9. Measure of the resistance of natural gas to detonation when it is burned as a fuel in an engine is:

A. fuel in an engine is: Q al Calonfic value
B. Wobbe Number
C. The Methane Number (MN)
D. none of the above

Answer: C — The Methane Number (MN)

The Methane Number (MN) measures the knock resistance of a fuel gas in internal combustion engines, analogous to the Octane Number for gasoline.

10. The drip tray shall be thermally insulated from the ship's structure

A. To prevent any cracks in hull in case of leakage
B. So that the surrounding deck structures are not exposed to unacceptable cooling, in case of leakage of liquid fuel.
C. To prevent immdiate evaporation of liquid fuel due to high ambient temerature
D. To ensure that the liquid fuel remains liquid till is drained to appropriate tank

Answer: B — So that the surrounding deck structures are not exposed to unacceptable cooling, in case of leakage of liquid fuel.

Drip trays beneath bunkering manifolds must be thermally insulated from the deck structure to prevent cryogenic cooling and brittle fracture of the hull.

11. What does hazardous area zone O includes?

A. any pipework for density-relief
B. any pipework for quantity-relief
C. any pipework for pressure-relief
D. any pipework for volume-relief

Answer: B — any pipework for quantity-relief

Hazardous Area Zone 0 includes the interior of fuel tanks, relief valve vent lines, and pipes containing fuel gas under normal conditions.

12. The hood or casing shall be equipped with _____ _

A. wind driven ventilation
B. natural ventilation
C. stack ventilation
D. mechanical exhaust ventilation

Answer: D — mechanical exhaust ventilation

Exhaust hoods over gas fuel machinery must be equipped with continuous mechanical extraction ventilation providing negative pressure.

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Practise these AIGF questions as a timed paper AIGF exit exam sets and syllabus All 27 STCW exit exam courses

AIGF exit exam questions and answers

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