AIGF exit exam questions and answers — Set 5
Set 5 of the Advanced Training for Ships subject to the IGF Code (AIGF) exit exam bank — 30 of 342 questions, with the correct option marked, and 29 of them also carry a one-line explanation. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 5 — 30 AIGF exit exam questions with answers
1. What is the full chemical name of R22?
- A. monochloro difluoromethane
- B. monoflouride difluoromethane
- C. monochloride dimethane
- D. monochloro dimethane
Answer: A — monochloro difluoromethane
2. What are the characteristics of R22?
- A. All of the above
- B. colourless
- C. non-flammable
- D. odourless
Answer: A — All of the above
R22 is a non-flammable, colorless, faint-ether-odor gas with a boiling point of -40.8°C at atmospheric pressure.
3. R22 is virtually non-toxic with a _______
- A. TLV of 1,000 ppm
- B. TLV of 2 ppm
- C. TLV of 500 ppm
- D. TLV of 30 ppm
Answer: A — TLV of 1,000 ppm
R22 has a low acute toxicity profile with a standard Threshold Limit Value - Time Weighted Average (TLV-TWA) of 1,000 ppm.
4. What is relative liquid density?
- A. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound
- B. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature
- C. The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature
- D. Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier
Answer: C — The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature
Relative liquid density is the dimensionless ratio of the mass of a liquid volume to the mass of an equal volume of pure fresh water at reference temperature.
5. What is relative vapour density?
- A. Inner surface designed to contain the cargo when the cargo containment system includes a secondary barrier
- B. The chemical union of two or more molecules of the same compound to form a larger molecule of a new compound
- C. The mass of a liquid at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of fresh water at the same temperature at a different given temperature
- D. The mass of a vapour compared with the mass of an equal volume of air, both at standard condition of temperature and pressure
Answer: D — The mass of a vapour compared with the mass of an equal volume of air, both at standard condition of temperature and pressure
Relative vapor density is the ratio of the mass of a gas volume to the mass of an equal volume of dry air at standard temperature and pressure (Air = 1.0).
6. What is restricted gauging?
- A. none of the above
- B. system employing a device, which penetrates the tank and which when in use permits a small quantity of cargo vapour to be expelled to the atmosphere.
- C. the device is kept completely closed when the device is not in use
- D. both (a) and (b)
Answer: D — both (a) and (b)
Restricted gauging uses an ullage device designed to limit the release of vapor during level measurement, such as sounding tubes with shut-off balls.
7. In restricted gauging, when the device is not in use
- A. the device is kept open
- B. none of the above
- C. the device is kept operated
- D. the device is kept completely closed
Answer: D — the device is kept completely closed
In restricted gauging arrangements, the measurement orifice is kept tightly closed when not in active use to prevent flammable vapor escape.
8. What is roll over?
- A. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
- B. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
- C. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
- D. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature
Answer: B — The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
Roll-over is a phenomenon in LNG storage tanks where stratification of two liquid layers of differing densities destabilizes, resulting in sudden, violent mixing and massive boil-off vapor generation.
9. What is Saturated Vapour Pressure?
- A. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
- B. The mass of the gas at a given temperature compared with the mass of an equal volume of gas at the same temperature at a different given temperature
- C. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
- D. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
Answer: A — The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
Saturated Vapor Pressure is the equilibrium pressure exerted by the vapor phase above its liquid in a closed system at a specific temperature.
10. What is sensible heat?
- A. The liquid resisting outer element of a cargo containment system designed to provide temporary containment of a leakage of liquid cargothrough the primary barrier
- B. The phenomenon where the stabilty of two stratified layers of liquid of differing relative density distributed resulting in a spomtaneous rapid mixing of the layers accompanied in the case of liquefied gases, by violent vapour evolution
- C. The pressure at which a vapour is in equilibrium with its liquid at a specific temperature
- D. Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
Answer: D — Heat energy given to or taken from a substance which raises or lowers its temperature
Sensible heat is thermal energy transferred to or from a substance that results in a measurable change in temperature without changing its physical phase.
11. What is specific gravity?
- A. The ratio of the density of a solid at a given temperature to the density ofsolid at a standard temperature
- B. The ratio of the density of a liquid at a given temperature to the density of fresh water at a standard temperature
- C. The ratio of the density of a molecule at a given temperature to the density of molecule at a standard temperature
- D. The ratio of the density of a gas at a given temperature to the density of gas at a standard temperature
Answer: B — The ratio of the density of a liquid at a given temperature to the density of fresh water at a standard temperature
Specific gravity is the ratio of the density of a substance to the density of fresh water (1,000 kg/m³) at a specified reference temperature.
12. What is specific heat?
- A. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
- B. The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition
- C. none of the above
- D. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
Answer: A — The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat energy (kJ) required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C (or 1 Kelvin).
13. What is spontaneous combustion?
- A. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
- B. The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition
- C. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
- D. none of the above
Answer: B — The ignition of material brought by a heat producing chemical reaction within the material itself without exposure to an external source ignition
Spontaneous combustion is the ignition of a material resulting from internal self-heating due to slow exothermic oxidation reactions without an external spark or flame.
14. What is Static electricity ?
- A. none of the above
- B. The quantity of energy in kilojoules required to change the temperature of 1 kg mass of the substance by 1 degC.
- C. The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
- D. alternating current
Answer: C — The electrical charge produced on disimilar materials caused by relative motion between each when in contact
Static electricity is the accumulation of electric charge on surfaces caused by contact, separation, and relative friction of dissimilar flowing materials.
15. What is superheated vapour?
- A. The density of a gas or vapour inder specified conditions of temperature and pressure
- B. detecting heat of gases or vapours
- C. phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the heat of liquid in the line
- D. Vapour removed from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature
Answer: D — Vapour removed from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature
Superheated vapor is vapor heated to a temperature above its boiling saturation temperature at a given pressure.
16. What is surge pressure?
- A. pressure measuring instrument used for detecting gases or vapours
- B. The density of a gas or vapour inder specified conditions of temperature and pressure
- C. phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the rate of flow of liquid in the line
- D. Vapour pressureremoved from contact with its liquid and heated beyond its boiling temperature
Answer: C — phenomenon generated in a pipeline system where there is a change in the rate of flow of liquid in the line
Surge pressure (hydraulic shock / water hammer) is a rapid pressure spike generated in a pipeline when fluid velocity suddenly changes due to quick valve closure.
17. LNG as fuel, Sulphur Oxide (SOx) and particulates emissions are ---------- compared to diesel or heavy fuel oil powered vessels.
- A. great
- B. both a and c
- C. negligible.
- D. more
Answer: C — negligible.
Using LNG as marine fuel virtually eliminates sulfur oxide (SOx) and particulate matter (PM) emissions (reducing them by over 95-99%) compared to heavy fuel oil.
18. LNG reduces CO2 emissions by --------in general, compared to diesel or heavy fuel oil powered vessels.
- A. 25 to 30 percent
- B. 10 to 15 percent
- C. negligible
- D. 5 to 10 percent
Answer: A — 25 to 30 percent
LNG combustion produces approximately 20% to 25-30% lower carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions compared to conventional heavy fuel oil (HFO) due to its higher hydrogen-to-carbon ratio.
19. Engine efficiency can be increased by utilising existing turbo charger with the __________
- A. All the above
- B. Not rematching existing turbo charger
- C. Not modifying turbo chargers to meet tyre 2 and 3 emission standards
- D. latest man disel turbo charger
Answer: A — All the above
Engine thermal efficiency is improved by modern turbocharger retrofits, variable turbine geometry, and waste heat recovery integration.
20. Basic thing for a hybrid turbo charger is
- A. Does not runs at very high speed
- B. an altenator is attached to a blower end
- C. Doesn't requires cooling system
- D. All the above
Answer: B — an altenator is attached to a blower end
A hybrid turbocharger incorporates an electric motor-generator attached to the turbocharger rotor shaft to generate electricity from excess exhaust gas energy.
21. NOX and SOX emission can be controlled by using which type of fuel
- A. Heavy fuel oil
- B. marine diesel oil
- C. petrol
- D. LNG
Answer: D — LNG
Using natural gas (LNG) as fuel enables vessels to meet IMO Tier III NOx limits in Emission Control Areas (ECAs) without requiring post-combustion SCR systems.
22. low specific fuel oil consumption at all loads can be achieved by
- A. medium rating propulsion engines
- B. derating a propulsion engines
- C. low rating propulsion engines
- D. high rating propulsion engines
Answer: B — derating a propulsion engines
Engine derating optimizes engine timing, compression ratio, and turbocharging for lower continuous service power, minimizing specific fuel oil consumption (SFOC).
23. ________ causes the changes in engine power on speed distinguishing rating for Slow steaming market
- A. rerating
- B. increase the rating
- C. flow rating
- D. derating
Answer: D — derating
Engine derating lowers maximum continuous rating (MCR) to match slower vessel operating speeds, optimizing thermal efficiency and reducing fuel consumption.
24. What is mean by hybrid turbo charging?
- A. it also generates hydrogen
- B. it also generates electricity
- C. it also generates water
- D. None of the above
Answer: B — it also generates electricity
Hybrid turbocharging uses high exhaust gas energy to drive a shaft-mounted alternator, generating shipboard electrical power and reducing auxiliary engine running hours.
25. A ____________ is attached with a hybrid turbo charger
- A. pump
- B. None of the above
- C. motor
- D. alternator
Answer: D — alternator
An alternator/motor is mounted directly onto the turbocharger shaft in a hybrid turbocharger arrangement.
26. What is the RPM of a turbo charger?
- A. 6000
- B. 7000
- C. 9000
- D. 5000
Answer: C — 9000
Marine engine turbocharger rotors operate at high rotational speeds typically ranging from 9,000 to over 20,000 RPM depending on turbocharger frame size.
27. ___________ is required for the alternator fitted with HYBRID turbo charger
- A. None of the above
- B. cooling system
- C. circulating system
- D. heating system
Answer: B — cooling system
Dedicated water or air cooling jackets are fitted to the high-speed alternator attached to a hybrid turbocharger to dissipate electrical heat.
28. In addition to fuel savings WHRS gives
- A. large CO2 reduction
- B. All of the above
- C. large NOX reduction
- D. large sox reduction
Answer: B — All of the above
Waste Heat Recovery Systems (WHRS) produce electrical power, reduce fuel consumption, lower GHG emissions, and improve the vessel's Energy Efficiency Design Index (EEDI).
29. Waste heat recovery system pay back time is _________
- A. medium
- B. None of the above
- C. short
- D. long
Answer: C — short
Due to high marine fuel savings, modern marine Waste Heat Recovery Systems have relatively short economic payback periods on large container ships and tankers.
30. _________ on the hull is done to increase the vessel hydrodynamic performance
- A. removal of paints on the hull
- B. addition of water on the hull
- C. addition of oil on the hull
- D. removal of fouling on the hull
Answer: D — removal of fouling on the hull
Regular removal of biofouling and application of low-friction silicone hull coatings significantly reduces hydrodynamic drag and ship resistance.
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