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BIGF exit exam questions and answers — Set 9 — Basic Training for Ships subject to the IGF Code

Set 9 of the Basic Training for Ships subject to the IGF Code (BIGF) exit exam bank — 30 of 429 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 9 — 30 BIGF exit exam questions with answers

1. According to the IGF Code, fixed gas detection systems generally give an alarm at a gas concentration of:

  • A. 50% of the lower explosion limit
  • B. 100% of the lower explosion limit
  • C. 5% of the lower explosion limit
  • D. 20% of the lower explosion limit
Answer: D — 20% of the lower explosion limit
The IGF Code requires an audible and visual alarm when gas concentration reaches 20% LEL, with safety actions such as shutdown of gas supply typically initiated at 40% LEL, giving warning well before a flammable mixture forms.

2. Which personal protective equipment is most appropriate when there is a risk of contact with LNG liquid during bunkering?

  • A. Rubber boots only
  • B. Ordinary cotton gloves and safety glasses
  • C. A chemical suit made of PVC with no thermal insulation
  • D. Cryogenic gloves, face shield and protective clothing that resists cold liquid
Answer: D — Cryogenic gloves, face shield and protective clothing that resists cold liquid
Contact with LNG causes severe cold burns, so loose-fitting cryogenic gloves, a full face shield or goggles and protective clothing suited for cryogenic splashes are worn by personnel at the bunkering manifold.

3. What is the main purpose of an emergency escape breathing device (EEBD)?

  • A. To allow a person to escape from a hazardous atmosphere
  • B. To rescue a casualty from a fuel tank
  • C. To carry out tank entry for maintenance
  • D. To fight a fire in an enclosed space
Answer: A — To allow a person to escape from a hazardous atmosphere
An EEBD is a supplied-air or oxygen device used only for escape from a compartment with a hazardous atmosphere; it must not be used for fire-fighting, entry into oxygen-deficient spaces or rescue work.

4. Which instrument is used to measure the hydrocarbon content of an atmosphere containing little or no oxygen, such as an inerted fuel tank?

  • A. Infrared gas analyser or tankscope
  • B. Catalytic explosimeter
  • C. Hygrometer
  • D. Smoke detector
Answer: A — Infrared gas analyser or tankscope
Infrared analysers and tankscopes measure hydrocarbon percentage by volume without needing oxygen, making them suitable for inerted atmospheres where catalytic explosimeters would give unreliable readings.

5. Equipment for rescuing a casualty from a fuel tank or other enclosed space on an IGF ship includes:

  • A. A lifebuoy with self-igniting light
  • B. A line-throwing appliance
  • C. Breathing apparatus, rescue harness, lifeline and hoisting arrangement
  • D. A portable fire extinguisher only
Answer: C — Breathing apparatus, rescue harness, lifeline and hoisting arrangement
Tank evacuation and rescue require self-contained breathing apparatus for rescuers, a harness and lifeline, and a tripod or hoisting device or stretcher to lift the casualty out of the space.

6. Before entry into an enclosed space, the atmosphere should be tested and confirmed to have:

  • A. 21% oxygen by volume and not more than 1% of the LFL
  • B. Flammable gas below 50% of the LFL
  • C. At least 15% oxygen
  • D. Oxygen of 25% by volume
Answer: A — 21% oxygen by volume and not more than 1% of the LFL
IMO Resolution A.1050(27) on enclosed space entry recommends that the atmosphere has 21% oxygen by volume, not more than 1% of the LFL of flammable vapour and toxic gases below their occupational exposure limits.

7. Hot work in or near a hazardous area on an IGF ship may only be carried out:

  • A. At night when fewer people are working
  • B. Under a hot work permit after gas testing, isolation of fuel systems and fire precautions
  • C. Whenever the chief engineer is on board
  • D. Without a permit if the job is short
Answer: B — Under a hot work permit after gas testing, isolation of fuel systems and fire precautions
Hot work near gas fuel systems requires a hot work permit under the SMS, with the area isolated and gas-freed, atmosphere tested, fire-fighting equipment ready and a fire watch posted throughout the work.

8. During entry into an enclosed space, the atmosphere should be:

  • A. Tested only after the work is completed
  • B. Left unventilated to save energy
  • C. Monitored continuously or at regular intervals and the space ventilated
  • D. Tested only once before entry
Answer: C — Monitored continuously or at regular intervals and the space ventilated
Conditions may change during work, so the atmosphere is monitored continuously or frequently while personnel are inside, and ventilation is maintained throughout to keep oxygen and gas levels safe.

9. What is the role of the attendant stationed at the entrance of an enclosed space during entry?

  • A. To leave once the entrants are inside
  • B. To monitor the entrants, maintain communication and raise the alarm if needed
  • C. To enter the space immediately to help if anyone collapses
  • D. To carry out gas tests inside the space
Answer: B — To monitor the entrants, maintain communication and raise the alarm if needed
The attendant stays at the entrance, keeps communication with those inside and raises the alarm in an emergency; they must not enter to rescue without proper backup and breathing apparatus.

10. Before work is carried out on a gas fuel system on an IGF ship, the permit to work should require that:

  • A. The gas detection system is disconnected
  • B. The system remains pressurised for testing
  • C. The ventilation is switched off
  • D. The system is isolated, depressurised, purged and verified gas free
Answer: D — The system is isolated, depressurised, purged and verified gas free
A permit to work for fuel system maintenance ensures isolation of the section, depressurisation, inert gas purging and gas testing, plus locking and tagging of isolations, before any flange or component is opened.

11. Why is a permit to work system used for work on fuel systems?

  • A. To speed up maintenance work
  • B. To ensure hazards are identified and controls verified and authorised before work begins
  • C. To replace the risk assessment
  • D. To record crew overtime
Answer: B — To ensure hazards are identified and controls verified and authorised before work begins
A permit to work formally confirms that hazards are assessed, isolations and safety precautions are in place and the work is authorised by a responsible officer, and that the system is safely restored afterwards.

12. Which precaution is important when carrying out cold work, such as opening a flange, in a gas-hazardous area?

  • A. No precautions are needed as no heat is involved
  • B. Use a permit, ensure the line is isolated and gas free, and monitor the atmosphere
  • C. Carry out the work while gas is flowing to detect leaks
  • D. Use compressed air to blow out the line
Answer: B — Use a permit, ensure the line is isolated and gas free, and monitor the atmosphere
Cold work in hazardous areas can still release gas or create sparks; a permit, isolation, gas freeing and atmosphere monitoring are needed, with suitable PPE and tools appropriate to the hazard.

13. Why must a risk assessment be carried out before non-routine maintenance on IGF fuel systems?

  • A. To identify hazards such as gas release and cold liquid, and to put appropriate controls in place
  • B. Only to satisfy port state control
  • C. To determine the crew wage
  • D. Because it removes the need for a permit to work
Answer: A — To identify hazards such as gas release and cold liquid, and to put appropriate controls in place
Under the ISM Code and IGF ship SMS, risk assessment identifies hazards such as flammable gas, cryogenic liquid and pressure release, and sets controls before work starts, supporting the permit to work system.

14. What is the correct first-aid treatment for a cold burn caused by contact with LNG?

  • A. Apply hot water above 60°C
  • B. Gently warm the affected area with lukewarm water and do not rub it
  • C. Apply oil-based ointment and keep the area cold
  • D. Rub the affected area vigorously with snow
Answer: B — Gently warm the affected area with lukewarm water and do not rub it
Cold burns should be thawed gently, for example with lukewarm water; rubbing or applying direct heat damages tissue further. The area is then covered loosely with a sterile dressing and medical advice obtained.

15. Clothing frozen to the skin after contact with cryogenic liquid should:

  • A. Be pulled off immediately
  • B. Not be pulled off; thaw it with lukewarm water first
  • C. Be left on and the casualty kept cold
  • D. Be cut away with a hot knife
Answer: B — Not be pulled off; thaw it with lukewarm water first
Removing frozen clothing can tear skin, so it should be loosened by gentle thawing with lukewarm water; loose clothing that is not frozen may be removed to allow warming of the affected area.

16. A crew member is found unconscious in a space where nitrogen has leaked. After the casualty is removed to fresh air by properly equipped rescuers, what is the first priority?

  • A. Leave the casualty to recover alone
  • B. Wait for the ship's doctor before doing anything
  • C. Check breathing and start CPR if not breathing normally, giving oxygen when available
  • D. Give the casualty water to drink
Answer: C — Check breathing and start CPR if not breathing normally, giving oxygen when available
Nitrogen causes asphyxiation by displacing oxygen. Once rescued, the casualty's airway and breathing are checked; if not breathing normally, CPR is started immediately, and oxygen is given and medical advice sought.

17. What is the recommended first aid for eye contact with a cold liquefied gas or a chemical fuel such as methanol?

  • A. Cover the eye and do nothing else
  • B. Apply eye ointment immediately without rinsing
  • C. Irrigate the eye with plenty of clean water for at least 15 minutes and obtain medical advice
  • D. Rub the eye to remove the liquid
Answer: C — Irrigate the eye with plenty of clean water for at least 15 minutes and obtain medical advice
Eyes should be flushed gently with copious clean (lukewarm for cold burns) water for at least 15 minutes, keeping the eyelids open, and medical advice obtained, as indicated in the SDS and MFAG.

18. Which IMO publication provides medical first aid guidance for accidents involving dangerous goods and is used together with the SDS?

  • A. IAMSAR Manual
  • B. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
  • C. Cargo Securing Manual
  • D. International Code of Signals
Answer: B — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
The Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods (MFAG) gives treatment guidance for chemical exposure, used together with the substance-specific first-aid information in the SDS.

19. What is a serious health effect of swallowing methanol fuel?

  • A. No effect, as methanol is non-toxic
  • B. Immediate cold burns to the mouth
  • C. Only mild stomach upset
  • D. Damage to the optic nerve leading to blindness, and possibly death
Answer: D — Damage to the optic nerve leading to blindness, and possibly death
Methanol is toxic by ingestion, inhalation and skin absorption; it is metabolised to formaldehyde and formic acid, which can cause metabolic acidosis, blindness and death, so urgent medical treatment is required.

20. What are typical early symptoms of oxygen deficiency caused by inhalation of methane or nitrogen?

  • A. Increased alertness
  • B. Watering eyes and severe coughing only
  • C. Rapid breathing, dizziness, loss of coordination and confusion
  • D. Skin rash and itching
Answer: C — Rapid breathing, dizziness, loss of coordination and confusion
Asphyxiant gases reduce oxygen available to the body, causing rapid breathing, fatigue, dizziness, poor judgement and loss of coordination, followed by unconsciousness and death if the casualty is not removed.

21. When treating a casualty for frostbite after exposure to cold gas, which action should be avoided?

  • A. Applying direct heat such as a heater or hot water bottle to the affected area
  • B. Removing the casualty from the cold source
  • C. Loosening tight clothing
  • D. Seeking medical advice
Answer: A — Applying direct heat such as a heater or hot water bottle to the affected area
Frostbitten tissue is easily damaged; direct heat can burn the numb area and rubbing worsens injury. Gentle rewarming, loose dressing and medical advice are recommended instead.

22. Methanol absorbed through the skin is a hazard because:

  • A. It causes cold burns at room temperature
  • B. It causes immediate asphyxiation
  • C. It is toxic and can be absorbed through intact skin
  • D. It is radioactive
Answer: C — It is toxic and can be absorbed through intact skin
Methanol is classified as toxic by skin contact as well as by inhalation and ingestion, so skin contact should be avoided by using suitable gloves and clothing, and contaminated skin washed with plenty of water.

23. What is the most important first action when dealing with a gas fuel fire fed by a leak?

  • A. Open all doors to ventilate the space
  • B. Extinguish the flame immediately with water jets
  • C. Cover the flame with a blanket
  • D. Isolate the source of gas to stop the fuel supply
Answer: D — Isolate the source of gas to stop the fuel supply
A gas fire should be controlled by shutting off the gas supply. If a gas fire is extinguished while gas is still escaping, the gas cloud may spread and re-ignite explosively, so isolation is the priority.

24. Why should a gas fire normally not be extinguished unless the gas supply can be isolated?

  • A. Extinguishing agents react with methane
  • B. Escaping unburnt gas may form a vapour cloud that can explode on re-ignition
  • C. It is illegal to extinguish gas fires
  • D. The fire will go out by itself within seconds
Answer: B — Escaping unburnt gas may form a vapour cloud that can explode on re-ignition
While the leak continues, burning gas is safer than unburnt gas accumulating; a vapour cloud may re-ignite with a much more severe explosion, so surrounding areas are cooled until the gas is isolated.

25. Which extinguishing agent is most effective for putting out a gas jet fire at the bunkering station?

  • A. Water jet
  • B. Dry chemical powder
  • C. Carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher in open air
  • D. Sand
Answer: B — Dry chemical powder
Dry chemical powder interrupts the combustion chain reaction and is effective on gas jet fires; the IGF Code requires a fixed dry chemical powder system covering the bunkering station area.

26. What is the main role of the water spray system covering fuel storage tanks on open deck?

  • A. Cooling and fire protection of the tank surfaces exposed to fire
  • B. Extinguishing an LNG pool fire
  • C. Filling the tank in an emergency
  • D. Washing the deck after bunkering
Answer: A — Cooling and fire protection of the tank surfaces exposed to fire
The IGF Code requires a water spray system for cooling and fire prevention to cover exposed parts of fuel tanks on open deck, protecting the tanks from heat radiation and reducing the risk of failure or BLEVE.

27. Why should water not be applied directly onto a pool of spilled LNG?

  • A. It causes the LNG to freeze into a solid
  • B. It reduces the visibility of the cloud
  • C. It reacts chemically to form a toxic gas
  • D. It increases the rate of vaporisation of the LNG
Answer: D — It increases the rate of vaporisation of the LNG
Water is far warmer than LNG and adds heat to the pool, greatly increasing boil-off and vapour release; water is instead used to cool surrounding structures and to protect personnel.

28. Which agent is used to control vapour release and radiant heat from an LNG pool fire on deck or in a drip tray?

  • A. Water jet
  • B. High-expansion foam
  • C. Seawater from the fire main applied directly
  • D. Steam
Answer: B — High-expansion foam
High-expansion foam blankets the LNG pool, reducing vaporisation and radiant heat from the fire, although it does not extinguish it completely; the spill is allowed to burn off in a controlled way.

29. Which extinguishing medium is recommended for a methanol fuel fire?

  • A. High-pressure water jet only
  • B. Ordinary protein foam
  • C. Alcohol-resistant foam
  • D. Sand
Answer: C — Alcohol-resistant foam
Methanol is water-miscible and destroys ordinary foam blankets, so alcohol-resistant foam is used; water spray can dilute and cool, and dry powder may be used for small fires.

30. What special hazard of a methanol fire makes it difficult to detect?

  • A. It produces a loud explosion when it starts
  • B. It produces thick black smoke
  • C. It burns with an almost invisible flame in daylight
  • D. It burns only at night
Answer: C — It burns with an almost invisible flame in daylight
Methanol burns with a pale blue, nearly invisible flame in daylight, so fires may go unnoticed; heat detection, thermal imaging cameras and careful approach are needed when responding.

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