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LGTCO/LGTF exit exam questions and answers — Set 12 — Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations

Set 12 of the Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations (LGTCO/LGTF) exit exam bank — 30 of 599 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 12 — 30 LGTCO/LGTF exit exam questions with answers

1. In LNG custody transfer, the quantity delivered is determined from:

  • A. The number of hours of pumping multiplied by the pump rating
  • B. The ship's bunker consumption
  • C. The difference between the opening and closing custody transfer surveys, corrected for trim, list and temperature
  • D. The shore flow meter reading only
Answer: C — The difference between the opening and closing custody transfer surveys, corrected for trim, list and temperature
The custody transfer measurement system records levels, temperatures and pressures before and after transfer; the corrected volume difference, converted using density and calorific value, gives the energy transferred.

2. On a fully refrigerated LPG carrier loading without a vapour return line, the vapour generated during loading is handled by:

  • A. The deck water spray system
  • B. Venting it to atmosphere through the mast
  • C. The inert gas generator
  • D. The ship's reliquefaction plant
Answer: D — The ship's reliquefaction plant
Flash gas and displaced vapour produced during loading are taken by the cargo compressors and condensed in the reliquefaction plant, then returned to the tanks as liquid, avoiding release of cargo vapour.

3. Under the ISM Code, the person who provides a link between the company and those on board and has direct access to the highest level of management is the:

  • A. Designated Person Ashore
  • B. Master
  • C. Chief Officer
  • D. Flag State surveyor
Answer: A — Designated Person Ashore
ISM Code section 4 requires every company to designate a person or persons ashore with direct access to the highest level of management, to monitor the safety and pollution-prevention aspects of each ship and provide a link with the ship.

4. Under the ISM Code, the Master's overriding authority enables him to:

  • A. Change the company's safety management system without approval
  • B. Make decisions with respect to safety and pollution prevention and request company assistance
  • C. Sign the ship/shore safety checklist on behalf of the terminal
  • D. Ignore flag State requirements in port
Answer: B — Make decisions with respect to safety and pollution prevention and request company assistance
ISM Code section 5 requires the SMS to state that the Master has the overriding authority and responsibility to make decisions with respect to safety and pollution prevention and to request the company's assistance as necessary.

5. A permit-to-work system on a gas tanker is primarily intended to:

  • A. Replace the need for risk assessment
  • B. Record crew working hours
  • C. Ensure hazards of specified work are identified and controlled and the work is authorised before it starts
  • D. Allow work to proceed without supervision
Answer: C — Ensure hazards of specified work are identified and controlled and the work is authorised before it starts
A permit-to-work formally identifies the work, its hazards and the precautions required, confirms they are in place and records authorisation, so that high-risk tasks such as hot work or enclosed space entry are done under control.

6. Who on board has the authority to stop a cargo operation that he or she believes is unsafe?

  • A. Only the terminal representative
  • B. Only the Chief Officer
  • C. Only the Master
  • D. Any crew member
Answer: D — Any crew member
A sound safety culture gives every person stop-work authority: anyone who sees an unsafe act or condition may stop the job without fear of blame, after which the situation is reviewed by the responsible officer.

7. A near-miss is best defined as:

  • A. An event that could have resulted in injury, damage or pollution but did not
  • B. A breach of company policy
  • C. An accident that caused minor injury
  • D. Damage discovered during a survey
Answer: A — An event that could have resulted in injury, damage or pollution but did not
A near-miss is an unplanned event that did not result in loss but had the potential to; reporting and analysing near-misses under the SMS helps identify and correct hazards before an accident occurs.

8. Safety culture on board a tanker is best described as:

  • A. The frequency of inspections by terminals
  • B. The shared values, attitudes and behaviours of the crew and company towards safety
  • C. The safety equipment carried on board
  • D. The number of safety posters displayed
Answer: B — The shared values, attitudes and behaviours of the crew and company towards safety
Safety culture refers to how people think and act about safety; a positive culture shows itself in reporting, questioning unsafe practices, following procedures and leadership commitment, rather than just in equipment or paperwork.

9. In a risk assessment matrix, the level of risk of a task is determined by combining:

  • A. Cost and duration of the job
  • B. Weather and sea state only
  • C. Likelihood of occurrence and severity of consequence
  • D. Number of crew and time of day
Answer: C — Likelihood of occurrence and severity of consequence
Risk assessment rates each hazard by how likely it is to occur and how severe its consequences would be; the combination places it in the matrix and indicates whether additional control measures are needed before work proceeds.

10. What is the main purpose of a toolbox talk before a cargo-related job?

  • A. To test the fire alarm
  • B. To allocate overtime
  • C. To complete the deck logbook
  • D. To brief the team on the task, its hazards, precautions and individual responsibilities
Answer: D — To brief the team on the task, its hazards, precautions and individual responsibilities
A toolbox talk is a short pre-job meeting at the work site where the person in charge explains the task, the risk assessment and permit conditions, the controls and each person's role, and invites questions.

11. Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride monomer may be carried with an added inhibitor in order to prevent:

  • A. Self-polymerisation
  • B. Static electricity
  • C. Hydrate formation
  • D. Corrosion of the cargo pump
Answer: A — Self-polymerisation
Some liquefied gases can self-polymerise, generating heat and pressure; an inhibitor is added by the shipper to prevent this reaction during the voyage, and its effective life must exceed the voyage duration.

12. When a cargo is carried with an inhibitor, the certificate provided by the manufacturer must state, among other things:

  • A. The name of the ship's Master
  • B. The name and amount of inhibitor added, date added and its expected effective lifetime
  • C. The terminal berth number
  • D. The cargo sale price
Answer: B — The name and amount of inhibitor added, date added and its expected effective lifetime
The IGC Code requires an inhibitor certificate stating the name and amount of inhibitor, the date it was added, its expected lifetime, any temperature limitations and the action to be taken if the voyage exceeds the inhibitor's life.

13. Liquid ammonia is incompatible with cargo system components made of:

  • A. Aluminium-free alloys
  • B. Carbon steel
  • C. Copper, brass and other copper or zinc alloys
  • D. Austenitic stainless steel
Answer: C — Copper, brass and other copper or zinc alloys
Ammonia attacks copper, zinc and their alloys such as brass and bronze, so these materials must not be used in ammonia cargo systems; this is one reason cargo compatibility with the ship's materials must be checked before loading.

14. Why is an insulating flange fitted at the shore end of a cargo loading arm or hose string?

  • A. To reduce heat ingress into the cargo
  • B. To measure cargo flow
  • C. To allow the arm to swivel
  • D. To prevent arcing caused by stray or ship/shore electrical currents during connection and disconnection
Answer: D — To prevent arcing caused by stray or ship/shore electrical currents during connection and disconnection
An insulating flange interrupts electrical continuity between ship and shore so that currents from cathodic protection or potential differences cannot flow through the arm and cause an incendive spark when the connection is made or broken.

15. For flammable cargoes carried in tanks requiring a full or partial secondary barrier, the IGC Code requires the interbarrier and hold spaces to be:

  • A. Inerted with suitable dry inert gas
  • B. Flooded with water ballast
  • C. Ventilated with outside air
  • D. Filled with dry air
Answer: A — Inerted with suitable dry inert gas
Because cargo may leak through the primary barrier into these spaces, the IGC Code requires interbarrier and hold spaces associated with such tanks to be inerted, so that leaked vapour cannot form a flammable mixture.

16. A Safety Data Sheet prepared in the GHS format contains how many standard sections?

  • A. 8
  • B. 16
  • C. 20
  • D. 12
Answer: B — 16
The Globally Harmonized System prescribes a 16-section SDS format, from identification of the substance and supplier through hazards, first aid, fire-fighting and handling to transport, regulatory and other information.

17. In a GHS-format SDS, first-aid measures for exposure to the product are given in which section?

  • A. Section 2
  • B. Section 11
  • C. Section 4
  • D. Section 8
Answer: C — Section 4
Section 4 of the 16-section SDS gives first-aid measures for inhalation, skin and eye contact and ingestion, together with the most important symptoms and any immediate medical attention needed.

18. In a GHS-format SDS, suitable extinguishing media and special fire-fighting hazards are found in:

  • A. Section 7 – Handling and storage
  • B. Section 3 – Composition
  • C. Section 13 – Disposal considerations
  • D. Section 5 – Fire-fighting measures
Answer: D — Section 5 – Fire-fighting measures
Section 5 of the SDS covers fire-fighting measures, including suitable and unsuitable extinguishing media, specific hazards arising from the product and special protective equipment for fire-fighters.

19. Occupational exposure limits and the personal protective equipment required for a cargo are given in which SDS section?

  • A. Section 8 – Exposure controls/personal protection
  • B. Section 1 – Identification
  • C. Section 15 – Regulatory information
  • D. Section 12 – Ecological information
Answer: A — Section 8 – Exposure controls/personal protection
Section 8 of the SDS lists exposure limit values such as TLV/OEL and the engineering controls and personal protection, including respiratory, hand, eye and skin protection, needed when handling the product.

20. Boiling point, vapour pressure, flash point and relative density of a cargo are listed in which SDS section?

  • A. Section 4
  • B. Section 9
  • C. Section 14
  • D. Section 6
Answer: B — Section 9
Section 9 of the SDS gives the physical and chemical properties of the product, such as appearance, odour, boiling point, flash point, flammability limits, vapour pressure and relative density.

21. Information on incompatible materials, hazardous polymerisation and conditions to avoid is given in which SDS section?

  • A. Section 16 – Other information
  • B. Section 2 – Hazard identification
  • C. Section 10 – Stability and reactivity
  • D. Section 5 – Fire-fighting measures
Answer: C — Section 10 – Stability and reactivity
Section 10 of the SDS describes chemical stability, the possibility of hazardous reactions such as polymerisation, conditions to avoid, incompatible materials and hazardous decomposition products.

22. Personal precautions, emergency procedures and methods for containing a release are found in which SDS section?

  • A. Section 3
  • B. Section 13
  • C. Section 11
  • D. Section 6
Answer: D — Section 6
Section 6 of the SDS, accidental release measures, gives personal precautions, protective equipment and emergency procedures, environmental precautions and methods for containment and clean-up of spills.

23. Under the IGC Code, the cargo information that must be on board and available to all concerned includes:

  • A. The minimum allowable inner hull steel temperature
  • B. The cargo's sale price
  • C. The previous cargo of the shore tank
  • D. The names of the terminal staff
Answer: A — The minimum allowable inner hull steel temperature
The IGC Code requires information on board covering physical and chemical properties, spill and contact countermeasures, fire-fighting, transfer, gas-freeing and tank cleaning procedures, special equipment, emergency procedures and the minimum allowable inner hull steel temperatures.

24. The threshold limit value – time-weighted average (TLV-TWA) quoted in an SDS is the concentration to which a worker may be repeatedly exposed:

  • A. Only while wearing breathing apparatus
  • B. For a normal 8-hour working day and 40-hour week without adverse effect
  • C. For no more than 1 minute
  • D. For a single 15-minute period
Answer: B — For a normal 8-hour working day and 40-hour week without adverse effect
The TLV-TWA is the time-weighted average concentration for a conventional 8-hour workday and 40-hour work week to which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed day after day without adverse health effects.

25. The TLV-STEL (short-term exposure limit) shown in an SDS refers to a maximum exposure averaged over:

  • A. 1 hour
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 15 minutes
  • D. 8 hours
Answer: C — 15 minutes
The STEL is a 15-minute time-weighted average exposure that should not be exceeded at any time during the workday, even if the 8-hour TWA is within limits; it protects against short-term irritant or narcotic effects.

26. On an SDS, the GHS pictogram showing a skull and crossbones indicates:

  • A. Hazard to the aquatic environment
  • B. Gases under pressure
  • C. Flammable material
  • D. Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)
Answer: D — Acute toxicity (fatal or toxic)
The skull and crossbones pictogram is used for substances with acute toxicity in the higher categories, such as fatal or toxic if inhaled, swallowed or in contact with skin; toxic gas cargoes like chlorine carry it.

27. The GHS pictogram depicting a gas cylinder on an SDS indicates:

  • A. Gases under pressure, including refrigerated liquefied gases
  • B. Corrosive substances
  • C. Explosive substances
  • D. Oxidising substances
Answer: A — Gases under pressure, including refrigerated liquefied gases
The gas cylinder pictogram identifies gases under pressure, covering compressed, liquefied, refrigerated liquefied and dissolved gases, warning of explosion if heated and, for refrigerated gases, cryogenic burns.

28. Which GHS signal word on an SDS indicates the more severe hazard category?

  • A. Warning
  • B. Danger
  • C. Caution
  • D. Notice
Answer: B — Danger
GHS uses only two signal words: 'Danger' for the more severe hazard categories and 'Warning' for the less severe; the signal word appears on the SDS hazard identification section and on labels.

29. Who is responsible for providing the Safety Data Sheet for a liquefied gas cargo before loading?

  • A. The ship's Master
  • B. The pilot
  • C. The shipper or cargo manufacturer
  • D. The classification society
Answer: C — The shipper or cargo manufacturer
The shipper or manufacturer, who knows the product, must supply the SDS and cargo information to the ship before loading; the ship should not load a cargo for which adequate information has not been provided.

30. Under the IGC Code, emergency escape respiratory and eye protection for every person on board a ship carrying toxic products must have a service duration of at least:

  • A. 30 minutes
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 5 minutes
  • D. 15 minutes
Answer: D — 15 minutes
The IGC Code requires suitable respiratory and eye protection for emergency escape for every person on board ships carrying toxic products; filter types are used only where effective, and the equipment must provide at least 15 minutes' service.

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