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LGTCO/LGTF exit exam questions and answers — Set 13 — Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations

Set 13 of the Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations (LGTCO/LGTF) exit exam bank — 30 of 599 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

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Set 13 — 30 LGTCO/LGTF exit exam questions with answers

1. Under the IGC Code, each self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus forming part of the required safety equipment sets must have a capacity of at least:

  • A. 1,200 litres of free air
  • B. 3,600 litres of free air
  • C. 600 litres of free air
  • D. 2,400 litres of free air
Answer: A — 1,200 litres of free air
The IGC Code specifies that each complete set of safety equipment includes a self-contained air-breathing apparatus, not using stored oxygen, having a capacity of at least 1,200 litres of free air.

2. Ships carrying toxic or corrosive liquefied gases must have which of the following available on deck under the IGC Code?

  • A. A dedicated hospital
  • B. Suitably marked decontamination showers and an eyewash
  • C. A helicopter landing area
  • D. A portable swimming pool
Answer: B — Suitably marked decontamination showers and an eyewash
The IGC Code requires suitably marked decontamination showers and an eyewash on deck, in convenient locations, operable in all ambient conditions, for ships carrying products for which these are specified in the cargo list.

3. Under the IGC Code, gas carriers must be provided with a stretcher that is:

  • A. Used only for drills ashore
  • B. Kept in the master's cabin
  • C. Suitable for hoisting an injured person up from spaces such as the cargo machinery room
  • D. Made only of aluminium
Answer: C — Suitable for hoisting an injured person up from spaces such as the cargo machinery room
The IGC Code requires a stretcher suitable for hoisting an injured person from below-deck spaces such as the cargo machinery room, kept in a readily accessible location, together with medical first-aid and oxygen resuscitation equipment.

4. Before donning an SCBA for entry into a hazardous atmosphere, the wearer should check:

  • A. Only the colour of the harness
  • B. The expiry date of the fire extinguisher
  • C. Only that the lifeline is coiled
  • D. Cylinder pressure, face-mask seal and operation of the low-pressure warning device
Answer: D — Cylinder pressure, face-mask seal and operation of the low-pressure warning device
Pre-use checks confirm that the cylinder is adequately charged, the face mask seals properly and the low-pressure warning whistle operates, so the wearer knows the set will protect them and warn them in time to withdraw.

5. What is the function of an oxygen resuscitator carried on a gas carrier?

  • A. To supply oxygen to a casualty, including assisting breathing where respiration is inadequate
  • B. To refill SCBA cylinders
  • C. To test the oxygen content of cargo tanks
  • D. To inert the hold spaces
Answer: A — To supply oxygen to a casualty, including assisting breathing where respiration is inadequate
An oxygen resuscitator delivers oxygen to a casualty and can assist ventilation where breathing is weak or has stopped; the IGC Code requires oxygen resuscitation equipment to be available on gas carriers.

6. A crew member has collapsed after inhaling toxic cargo vapour on deck. What is the first priority of the rescuer?

  • A. Rub the casualty's chest
  • B. Protect themselves with breathing apparatus, then move the casualty to fresh air
  • C. Give the casualty water to drink
  • D. Wait for the vapour to clear before acting
Answer: B — Protect themselves with breathing apparatus, then move the casualty to fresh air
MFAG and SDS first aid for inhalation start with rescuer safety: approach with appropriate respiratory protection, remove the casualty to fresh air, then check breathing and give oxygen or CPR as required.

7. Liquid ammonia has splashed into a crew member's eyes. The correct first aid is to:

  • A. Rub the eyes to remove the liquid
  • B. Neutralise with dilute acid
  • C. Flush the eyes immediately with copious clean water for at least 15 minutes, holding the eyelids open
  • D. Apply eye ointment and bandage immediately
Answer: C — Flush the eyes immediately with copious clean water for at least 15 minutes, holding the eyelids open
Ammonia is highly alkaline and quickly damages eye tissue; immediate and prolonged irrigation with plenty of clean water, keeping the lids apart, is the first-aid measure given in SDS and MFAG, followed by medical advice.

8. Liquid ammonia has contaminated a crew member's clothing and skin. What should be done?

  • A. Apply hot compresses
  • B. Leave the clothing on and apply a dressing
  • C. Cover the area with oil
  • D. Remove contaminated clothing and drench the skin with plenty of water
Answer: D — Remove contaminated clothing and drench the skin with plenty of water
Ammonia causes chemical and cold burns; contaminated clothing should be removed (thawing first with water if frozen to the skin) and the affected skin washed with large quantities of water, as stated in the SDS first-aid section.

9. Clothing that has become frozen to the skin after a splash of liquefied gas should be:

  • A. Thawed with tepid water before careful removal
  • B. Left until the casualty reaches hospital
  • C. Pulled off quickly
  • D. Cut away with heated scissors
Answer: A — Thawed with tepid water before careful removal
Pulling frozen clothing off tears the skin; it should be loosened by gently thawing with tepid water and then removed carefully, after which the cold-burned area is treated by gentle rewarming and covered with a sterile dressing.

10. According to current ILCOR-based guidance, chest compressions for an adult in cardiac arrest should be delivered at a rate of:

  • A. 140–160 per minute
  • B. 100–120 per minute
  • C. 80–100 per minute
  • D. 60–80 per minute
Answer: B — 100–120 per minute
Current resuscitation guidelines based on the ILCOR consensus call for adult chest compressions at 100–120 per minute, allowing full chest recoil and minimising interruptions. Too slow a rate reduces blood flow to the brain and heart.

11. For an adult casualty, current guidance recommends a chest compression depth of:

  • A. Only as deep as is comfortable
  • B. 8–10 cm
  • C. 5–6 cm
  • D. 2–3 cm
Answer: C — 5–6 cm
Resuscitation guidelines specify compressions of 5–6 cm in an adult, which generates adequate blood flow while limiting injury; shallower compressions are a common cause of ineffective CPR.

12. For a single rescuer performing CPR on an adult, the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:

  • A. 15:1
  • B. 50:5
  • C. 15:2
  • D. 30:2
Answer: D — 30:2
Adult basic life support uses 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths; where the rescuer is unable or unwilling to give breaths, continuous compressions should be given.

13. A casualty who is unconscious but breathing normally after rescue from a gas leak should be:

  • A. Placed in the recovery position and monitored
  • B. Left alone while help is sought
  • C. Sat upright on a chair
  • D. Given CPR immediately
Answer: A — Placed in the recovery position and monitored
An unconscious casualty who is breathing normally is placed in the recovery position to keep the airway open and allow fluids to drain, with breathing checked continuously in case CPR becomes necessary.

14. A casualty with breathing difficulty after inhaling cargo vapour may be given:

  • A. Nothing until reaching port
  • B. Oxygen, if trained personnel and equipment are available
  • C. Alcohol to stimulate breathing
  • D. Large amounts of food
Answer: B — Oxygen, if trained personnel and equipment are available
MFAG advises giving oxygen to casualties with breathing difficulty after inhalation of toxic or asphyxiant gases, using the ship's oxygen resuscitator, while seeking radio medical advice.

15. Why should a casualty exposed to chlorine or ammonia vapour be kept at rest and under observation even if he feels better?

  • A. Because the SDS requires 24 hours of sleep
  • B. Because the vapour may ignite on his clothing
  • C. Because delayed pulmonary oedema can develop hours after exposure
  • D. Because the casualty may develop frostbite later
Answer: C — Because delayed pulmonary oedema can develop hours after exposure
Irritant gases such as chlorine and ammonia can cause fluid to build up in the lungs some hours after exposure; MFAG therefore advises rest, observation and medical advice even when early symptoms have subsided.

16. The IMO Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods (MFAG) is published as part of:

  • A. SOLAS Chapter V
  • B. The ISM Code
  • C. The LSA Code
  • D. The Supplement to the IMDG Code
Answer: D — The Supplement to the IMDG Code
MFAG is included in the Supplement to the IMDG Code and is used together with the SDS and the ship's medical guide to treat casualties of chemical and gas cargo exposure.

17. When a gas-exposure casualty at sea needs professional medical advice, the ship should contact:

  • A. A Telemedical Assistance Service (radio medical advice)
  • B. The classification society
  • C. The ship's agent only
  • D. The cargo receivers
Answer: A — A Telemedical Assistance Service (radio medical advice)
Radio medical advice through a Telemedical Assistance Service, normally reached via the MRCC or coast radio station, gives the ship access to a doctor who can advise treatment using the ship's medical stores.

18. When an automated external defibrillator (AED) becomes available during CPR, the rescuer should:

  • A. Stop CPR and wait for a doctor
  • B. Switch it on and follow its prompts, minimising interruptions to compressions
  • C. Use it only if the casualty is breathing normally
  • D. Remove it from the casualty after one shock
Answer: B — Switch it on and follow its prompts, minimising interruptions to compressions
Current guidance is to attach and switch on the AED as soon as it arrives and follow its voice prompts, continuing high-quality chest compressions with minimal interruption around rhythm analysis and shocks.

19. A crew member suffers a thermal burn during a cargo-area fire. The recommended first aid is to:

  • A. Apply butter or oil
  • B. Burst any blisters
  • C. Cool the burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes
  • D. Apply ice directly to the burn
Answer: C — Cool the burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes
Current first-aid guidance is to cool a thermal burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes, then cover it loosely with cling film or a sterile non-adherent dressing; ice, oils and bursting blisters cause further harm.

20. Before decontaminating a casualty splashed with liquid cargo, rescuers must first:

  • A. Remove their own gloves for better grip
  • B. Close the cargo manifold valves by hand
  • C. Give the casualty a hot drink
  • D. Wear the protective equipment specified in the SDS
Answer: D — Wear the protective equipment specified in the SDS
Rescuers must protect themselves with the PPE recommended in the SDS so they do not become secondary casualties; decontamination using showers and copious water then follows.

21. A significant liquid leak occurs at the manifold during cargo transfer. What should be the immediate action?

  • A. Activate the ESD to stop the transfer and raise the alarm
  • B. Disconnect the loading arm by hand
  • C. Increase the transfer rate to finish quickly
  • D. Continue the transfer and observe
Answer: A — Activate the ESD to stop the transfer and raise the alarm
Stopping the flow is the first priority: activating the ESD closes the ship and shore ESD valves and stops pumps, after which the alarm is raised, water spray started and the emergency plan followed.

22. A fire at the terminal threatens a gas carrier alongside. Preparations for emergency unberthing include:

  • A. Lowering the gangway onto the jetty
  • B. Stopping cargo operations, disconnecting the arms and having engines and crew ready to leave the berth
  • C. Starting tank cleaning
  • D. Opening all cargo tank domes
Answer: B — Stopping cargo operations, disconnecting the arms and having engines and crew ready to leave the berth
Terminal and ship emergency plans require cargo transfer to be stopped by ESD, arms disconnected (by ERS if necessary), moorings ready to let go, and engines, steering and tugs prepared so the ship can leave the berth safely.

23. On receiving the alarm for a cargo vapour release on deck, which action helps protect the accommodation?

  • A. Sending all crew to the open deck at the manifold
  • B. Opening all accommodation doors and portholes
  • C. Closing doors and openings and stopping or recirculating accommodation ventilation to prevent gas ingress
  • D. Starting the incinerator
Answer: C — Closing doors and openings and stopping or recirculating accommodation ventilation to prevent gas ingress
Emergency procedures require doors, ports and ventilation intakes to be closed and air conditioning stopped or put on recirculation so that flammable or toxic vapour is not drawn into the accommodation and machinery spaces.

24. Why does a spill of LNG on the sea not leave a persistent oil-type slick?

  • A. It forms a solid ice layer
  • B. It sinks to the seabed
  • C. It dissolves fully in sea water
  • D. It vaporises completely, leaving no liquid residue
Answer: D — It vaporises completely, leaving no liquid residue
LNG boils rapidly when it contacts the much warmer sea and evaporates entirely; the main hazards are the flammable vapour cloud, cold effects and possible rapid phase transition rather than persistent pollution.

25. What is the main environmental effect of a large ammonia release into the sea?

  • A. It dissolves readily and is highly toxic to aquatic life, raising the local pH
  • B. It forms a floating oil slick
  • C. It solidifies and blocks sea inlets
  • D. It has no effect as it is a natural substance
Answer: A — It dissolves readily and is highly toxic to aquatic life, raising the local pH
Ammonia is very soluble in water and forms an alkaline solution that is acutely toxic to fish and other marine organisms, so a spill can cause local damage to marine life as well as producing toxic vapour above the sea.

26. A rapid phase transition (RPT) that may occur when LNG is spilled onto water is:

  • A. The ignition of methane by static electricity
  • B. A flameless physical explosion caused by the instantaneous vaporisation of LNG
  • C. A slow freezing of the sea surface
  • D. A chemical reaction producing chlorine
Answer: B — A flameless physical explosion caused by the instantaneous vaporisation of LNG
When LNG contacts water under certain conditions it can superheat and vaporise almost instantaneously, producing a pressure wave; this RPT is a physical, not combustion, explosion and can damage nearby structures.

27. Brittle fracture of a gas carrier's hull or deck plating occurs when:

  • A. The plating is painted with antifouling
  • B. The ship rolls heavily in ballast
  • C. Ordinary hull steel is cooled by cryogenic cargo below the temperature at which it loses its toughness
  • D. The steel is heated by the sun
Answer: C — Ordinary hull steel is cooled by cryogenic cargo below the temperature at which it loses its toughness
Ordinary carbon steel loses ductility at low temperatures; a spill of cold liquefied gas can chill it below its ductile-to-brittle transition temperature so that it cracks suddenly, which is why spills must be kept away from hull steel.

28. Which arrangement fitted at the cargo manifold protects the deck from brittle fracture in case of liquid leakage?

  • A. Rubber mats on the deck
  • B. Wooden gratings
  • C. Canvas covers over the flanges
  • D. Stainless steel drip trays beneath the manifold connections
Answer: D — Stainless steel drip trays beneath the manifold connections
Drip trays of low-temperature-resistant stainless steel are placed under the manifold connections to collect any leakage, and are used together with the water curtain on the hull side to keep cold liquid off ordinary steel.

29. On discovering a cargo leak during a deck watch, a rating should first:

  • A. Raise the alarm and report immediately to the officer on watch
  • B. Photograph the leak for the company
  • C. Try to repair the leak alone
  • D. Finish the watch and report at handover
Answer: A — Raise the alarm and report immediately to the officer on watch
Basic training requires seafarers to report relevant information promptly to the responsible persons; raising the alarm and informing the officer on watch allows ESD, water spray and the emergency plan to be activated without delay.

30. Under the IGC Code, venting of cargo vapour to atmosphere as a means of controlling cargo tank pressure is:

  • A. Permitted whenever the ship is at sea
  • B. Not acceptable except in emergency situations
  • C. The normal method on all gas carriers
  • D. Required daily to remove impurities
Answer: B — Not acceptable except in emergency situations
The IGC Code requires cargo tank pressure to be controlled by means such as reliquefaction, fuel consumption or a thermal oxidation unit; venting cargo to control pressure is not acceptable except in emergencies.

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