GASCO exit exam questions and answers — Set 23 — Advanced Training for Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations
Set 23 of the Advanced Training for Liquefied Gas Tanker Cargo Operations (GASCO) exit exam bank — 30 of 710 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 23 — 30 GASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. Normal butane and isobutane have the same chemical formula, C4H10, but different molecular structures. They are called:
- A. Isomers
- B. Isotopes
- C. Polymers
- D. Allotropes
2. What is the chemical formula of propylene?
- A. C3H6
- B. C3H8
- C. C2H4
- D. C4H6
3. Which of the following liquefied gas cargoes is a saturated hydrocarbon?
- A. Propane
- B. Ethylene
- C. Propylene
- D. Butadiene
4. Why must the temperature of an inhibited cargo such as butadiene or vinyl chloride monomer be kept as low as practicable during the voyage?
- A. Polymerisation is accelerated at higher temperature and the inhibitor is depleted faster
- B. Higher temperature makes the cargo freeze
- C. Higher temperature converts the cargo to hydrates
- D. Higher temperature makes the cargo non-flammable
5. Why is a water spray or water curtain effective in reducing an ammonia vapour cloud?
- A. Ammonia is highly soluble in water
- B. Ammonia reacts with water to form an inert gas
- C. Water raises ammonia's flash point
- D. Water freezes ammonia into solid hydrates
6. Under IGC Code chapter 19, which ship type is required for the carriage of chlorine?
- A. Type 1G
- B. Type 2G
- C. Type 2PG
- D. Type 3G
7. Before loading a cargo, compatibility must be checked between the cargo and which of the following?
- A. Materials of construction, previous cargo residues, other cargoes carried and the refrigerant of the reliquefaction plant
- B. Only the paint on the deck
- C. Only the ship's fuel oil
- D. Only the lifeboat equipment
8. Mixing which two cargoes, if carried on the same ship, would require completely separate cargo handling and reliquefaction systems because they react dangerously?
- A. Ammonia and chlorine
- B. Propane and butane
- C. Methane and ethane
- D. Propane and propylene
9. Which industry publication provides guidance for ship-to-ship transfer of liquefied gases together with petroleum and chemicals?
- A. Ship to Ship Transfer Guide for Petroleum, Chemicals and Liquefied Gases (ICS, OCIMF, SIGTTO, CDI)
- B. International Code of Signals
- C. IMDG Code
- D. Bridge Procedures Guide
10. In an STS transfer at sea, which ship normally maintains a steady course and speed while the other manoeuvres alongside?
- A. The constant heading ship, usually the larger vessel
- B. The manoeuvring ship, usually the larger vessel
- C. Neither ship; both must stop engines
- D. The ship with the most cargo remaining
11. What type of primary fenders is most commonly used between two ships during an STS operation?
- A. Large floating pneumatic (Yokohama-type) fenders
- B. Wooden fender boards
- C. Old tyres tied to the rails
- D. Rope fenders
12. In an STS operation, what is the role of the 'Person in Overall Advisory Control' (POAC)?
- A. To advise and coordinate the whole STS operation, without relieving the masters of their responsibility
- B. To take command of both ships
- C. To act as cargo surveyor for custody transfer
- D. To represent the port state control authority
13. In the Ship/Shore Safety Checklist, what does the code 'R' against an item indicate?
- A. The item must be re-checked at the intervals agreed and stated in the declaration
- B. The item has been rejected
- C. The item applies only to refrigerated cargo
- D. The item is the responsibility of the shore only
14. What is the purpose of an insulating flange fitted in the terminal loading arm or hose string?
- A. To prevent stray electrical currents flowing between ship and shore and causing arcing at the manifold
- B. To insulate the cargo from heat ingress
- C. To act as an emergency release coupling
- D. To allow nitrogen purging of the arm
15. Which items must be agreed between ship and terminal at the pre-transfer meeting before liquefied gas cargo operations begin?
- A. Transfer rates, ESD procedures and signals, communications, emergency procedures and vapour return arrangements
- B. Only the date of departure
- C. Only the agent's fees
- D. Only the crew list
16. Why must a gas carrier be checked for compatibility with a terminal before first arrival?
- A. To confirm that mooring, manifold, loading arm envelope, ESD link and gangway arrangements match the berth
- B. To confirm the crew's nationality
- C. To agree the freight rate
- D. To check the ship's paint scheme
17. During STS transfer of liquefied gas, what is required for cargo hoses between the two ships?
- A. Hoses must be suitable for the cargo and temperature, tested and certified, and supported so that their minimum bend radius is not exceeded
- B. Any hose of the correct diameter may be used
- C. Hoses need not be tested if new
- D. Hoses should be left unsupported to allow free movement
18. Which condition would normally require an STS transfer of liquefied gas to be stopped and hoses disconnected?
- A. Weather or sea conditions exceeding the limits agreed in the STS plan
- B. Arrival of a provisions boat at the other ship
- C. Change of watch on either ship
- D. Completion of one tank in the sequence
19. Under the IGC Code, a type 2PG ship is one of 150 m in length or less that carries products in which type of cargo tank?
- A. Independent type C tanks with MARVS of at least 0.7 MPa gauge and design temperature of -55°C or above
- B. Membrane tanks with MARVS not exceeding 0.025 MPa gauge
- C. Independent type A tanks designed for -163°C
- D. Integral tanks forming part of the hull structure
20. Which cargo is required by chapter 19 of the IGC Code to be carried only in a type 1G ship?
- A. Chlorine
- B. Propane
- C. Butane
- D. Methane (LNG)
21. A fully refrigerated LPG carrier typically carries its cargo in which condition?
- A. At about atmospheric pressure and at or near its boiling point, down to about -50°C
- B. At ambient temperature under pressures up to about 18 bar
- C. At -163°C in membrane tanks
- D. At about 5 to 8 bar and -10°C in spherical tanks
22. Why are ethylene carriers normally of the semi-pressurised/fully refrigerated type with a cascade reliquefaction plant?
- A. Ethylene boils at about -104°C at atmospheric pressure and has a low critical temperature, so it cannot be liquefied by pressure alone at ambient temperature
- B. Ethylene is heavier than LPG and needs stronger tanks
- C. Ethylene must be carried at -163°C like LNG
- D. Ethylene polymerises if carried under refrigeration
23. What is the principal function of a Floating Storage and Regasification Unit (FSRU)?
- A. To receive and store LNG and convert it back to gas on board for send-out to a shore pipeline
- B. To liquefy natural gas from offshore wells
- C. To act as a bunker barge supplying LPG to ships
- D. To carry compressed natural gas in cylinders
24. According to the IGC Code, entrances and openings to accommodation spaces on the side boundaries of a deckhouse must be located how far from the end facing the cargo area?
- A. At least L/25, but not less than 3 m, which need not exceed 5 m
- B. At least 10 m in all cases
- C. At least B/3 or 6 m, whichever is greater
- D. At least 1.5 m
25. What is the main advantage of a semi-pressurised/semi-refrigerated gas carrier over a fully pressurised ship?
- A. Reduced tank wall thickness and weight, allowing larger cargo capacity, while still able to load from pressurised or refrigerated terminals
- B. It needs no reliquefaction plant
- C. It can carry LNG at -163°C
- D. It does not require any secondary barrier or insulation for any cargo
26. Traditionally, why were steam turbines used on LNG carriers?
- A. Boilers could burn the boil-off gas together with fuel oil in any proportion, disposing of BOG safely
- B. Steam turbines were cheaper to run than diesel engines
- C. Diesel engines were prohibited on gas carriers
- D. Steam was needed to keep the cargo warm
27. Under the IGC Code, how many pressure relief valves must be fitted to a cargo tank with a volume of more than 20 m³?
- A. At least two of approximately equal capacity
- B. At least one
- C. At least three, one of which is spring-loaded
- D. At least four, two for pressure and two for vacuum
28. What is the minimum required height of a cargo tank vent outlet above the weather deck according to the IGC Code?
- A. B/3 or 6 m, whichever is greater
- B. 2.4 m
- C. B/15 or 2 m, whichever is less
- D. 10 m in all cases
29. Cargo vent outlets must be arranged at a distance from the nearest air intake or opening to accommodation, service and machinery spaces of at least:
- A. B or 25 m, whichever is less
- B. 5 m
- C. L/25
- D. 50 m, whichever is greater
30. When alternative (harbour) pressure relief valve settings are used, which requirement applies?
- A. Changes are made under the Master's supervision per approved procedures, recorded in the log, and the set pressure is displayed at the cargo control station and at each relief valve
- B. The chief officer may change settings by adjusting springs without recording
- C. Settings may be raised above MARVS while in port
- D. No requirement, as harbour settings are optional
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