MEK exit exam questions and answers
All 195 questions from the Marine Engineering Knowledge (MEK) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 1 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. Boiler is related to __________________
- A. Storing Vegetables
- B. Steam Generation
- C. Steering
- D. Human waste
Answer: B — Steam Generation
A boiler is a crucial piece of equipment onboard a ship responsible for generating steam. This steam is utilized for various purposes, including propulsion in steam-powered vessels and for heating systems.
2. Which of the following is bottom most part of a diesel engine?
- A. Piston
- B. Turbo charger
- C. Connecting Rod
- D. Exhaust valve
Answer: C — Connecting Rod
The connecting rod is positioned between the piston and the crankshaft. It is the bottom-most component among the choices provided that is directly involved in transmitting the linear motion of the piston to the rotating motion of the crankshaft.
3. Main Engine is part of the _________________ system
- A. Electrical
- B. Propulsion
- C. Bilge
- D. Ballast
Answer: B — Propulsion
The main engine is the primary source of power for a ship's movement, providing the necessary force to turn the propeller. Therefore, it is an integral part of the propulsion system.
4. Domestic Fridge is related to __________________.
- A. Human waste
- B. Storing Vegetables
- C. Steering
- D. Starting of Main Engine
Answer: B — Storing Vegetables
A domestic refrigerator onboard is used for the primary purpose of storing perishable items like vegetables, ensuring their freshness. It is a component of the ship's provisions and galley facilities.
5. Which of the following is top most part of a diesel engine?
- A. crankcase door
- B. crank shaft
- C. cylinder head
- D. piston
Answer: C — cylinder head
The cylinder head is the topmost component of a diesel engine cylinder, sealing the combustion chamber and housing the valves and injectors. It sits above the piston and cylinder liner.
6. Which of the following is lower most part of a diesel engine?
- A. exhaust valve
- B. bed plate
- C. piston
- D. turbo charger
Answer: B — bed plate
The bed plate forms the base of the diesel engine structure, supporting the crankshaft and carrying the main engine load. It is the lowest structural part of the engine assembly.
7. Which of the following is within the engine room?
- A. cargo pump room
- B. purifiers room
- C. CO2 Room
- D. paint storage room
Answer: B — purifiers room
The purifiers room (or centrifuge room) is dedicated to housing the machinery used for purifying fuel and lubricating oils, essential for the operation of the main engine and auxiliary machinery. This room is typically located within the engine room complex.
8. Which of the following is not within the engine room?
- A. fresh water generator
- B. fire pump
- C. fridge room
- D. refrigeration machinery
Answer: C — fridge room
The fridge room, used for storing provisions, is typically located in the galley or on deck, not within the engine room where machinery operates. The fresh water generator, fire pump, and refrigeration machinery are all essential engine room equipment.
9. Which of the following is job of an engine room rating?
- A. report to bridge about engine condition
- B. assist in maintenance work
- C. overhaul air compressor
- D. start and stop engine
Answer: B — assist in maintenance work
An engine room rating's primary duties include assisting in watchkeeping, performing routine maintenance under supervision, and carrying out specific tasks assigned by engineers. Starting and stopping the main engine, overhauling components, or reporting directly to the bridge are generally not their responsibilities.
10. Sewage Treatment Plant is related to __________________.
- A. Starting of Main Engine
- B. Steering
- C. Storing Vegetables
- D. Human waste
Answer: D — Human waste
The Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) is specifically designed to process human waste generated by the crew and passengers, treating it to meet environmental discharge standards as per MARPOL regulations. It is unrelated to engine starting, steering, or food storage.
11. What is not a system
- A. Main Engine
- B. Air compressor
- C. Purifier
- D. Boiler
Answer: A — Main Engine
The main engine is a complete functional unit that propels the ship. The boiler, purifier, and air compressor are individual systems or machines that are often part of the ship's overall engineering setup, but the main engine itself is the primary propulsion machine.
12. A "BOLT" has
- A. Thread at both ends
- B. Hexagonal head and threads at other end
- C. Double pitch threads
- D. Slotted head and threads at other end
Answer: B — Hexagonal head and threads at other end
A bolt is a fastener characterized by external screw threads and typically a hexagonal head, designed to be inserted through unthreaded holes in assembled parts and secured by a nut. It is not a threaded rod or a screw with a slotted head.
13. "Cuts" are caused by
- A. Blunt chisels
- B. Flat spanners
- C. Sharp objects
- D. Hammers
Answer: C — Sharp objects
Cuts, abrasions, and lacerations are typically caused by sharp objects such as knives, burrs on metal, or broken glass. While hammers and blunt chisels can cause blunt force trauma, they are not the direct cause of cuts.
14. For lifting a heavy load, you will use
- A. Air Cylinder
- B. Chain Block
- C. Hydraulic Jack
- D. Eye bolt
Answer: B — Chain Block
A chain block is a mechanical device used for lifting heavy loads, consisting of a chain and pulley system. While an eye bolt can be used for lifting, it's a component, and a hydraulic jack lifts by fluid pressure; a chain block is the general tool for heavy lifting.
15. A "STUD" has
- A. Double pitch threads
- B. Thread at both ends
- C. Threads at one end with a slot at the other end
- D. Hexagonal head and thread at the other end
Answer: B — Thread at both ends
A stud is a threaded fastener that has threads on both ends and no head, used for connecting two components where nuts are typically threaded onto both ends. It differs from a bolt, which has a head and threads at one end for a nut.
16. Under STCW Code Table A-III/4, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Marine Engineering Knowledge operations?
- A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
- B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
- C. Applicable only during drydock operations
- D. Verbal recommendation without documentation
Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-III/4 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Marine Engineering Knowledge.
17. Which of this is not fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine
- A. turbo charger
- B. exhaust valve
- C. starting valve
- D. indicator valve
Answer: A — turbo charger
A turbocharger is an exhaust gas-driven turbine that forces more air into the engine cylinders to increase power and efficiency. It is not a component directly fitted on the cylinder head itself, unlike the exhaust valve, starting valve, and indicator valve.
18. Regarding practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation in Marine Engineering Knowledge, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-III/4?
- A. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
- B. Non-mandatory recommendation
- C. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
- D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
STCW Code Section A-III/4 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Marine Engineering Knowledge.
19. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Temperature check only
- B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
- C. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
- D. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.
20. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for emergency procedures and alarm protocols under Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
- B. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
- C. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
- D. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
Answer: C — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.
21. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in deck and engine room operational protocols during Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
- B. Bill of Lading description
- C. Crew List document
- D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Answer: D — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.
22. What is the main function of the lubricating oil crosshead bearings in a two-stroke marine diesel engine?
- A. Provide high-pressure oil film to withstand heavy piston combustion loads
- B. Drive the camshaft chain
- C. Cool the engine flywheel
- D. Lubricate the turbocharger shaft
Answer: A — Provide high-pressure oil film to withstand heavy piston combustion loads
Crosshead bearings require high-pressure oil to support oscillating combustion forces.
23. What component in a marine diesel engine converts reciprocating piston motion into rotary crankshaft motion?
- A. Connecting Rod
- B. Piston Rod
- C. Crosshead Guide
- D. Camshaft
Answer: A — Connecting Rod
The connecting rod links the crosshead/piston to the crankshaft pin, converting motion.
24. What is the purpose of the scavenger air receiver in a two-stroke marine diesel engine?
- A. Cool jacket cooling water
- B. Collect waste exhaust carbon
- C. Store starting air at 30 bar
- D. Accumulate pressurized air from the turbocharger to scavenge exhaust gases from cylinders
Answer: D — Accumulate pressurized air from the turbocharger to scavenge exhaust gases from cylinders
Scavenge receivers supply fresh air to clear burnt gases and recharge cylinders.
25. What instrument measures exhaust gas temperatures at individual cylinder outlets?
- A. Tachometer
- B. Pyrometer / Thermocouple
- C. Manometer
- D. Hydrometer
Answer: B — Pyrometer / Thermocouple
Pyrometers monitor combustion quality and load distribution across cylinders.
26. What is the purpose of a crankcase explosion relief valve on a marine engine?
- A. Vent oil vapor continuously to deck
- B. Relieve internal crankcase overpressure safely and prevent flame return into engine room
- C. Allow inspection of main bearings
- D. Drain waste oil to bilge
Answer: B — Relieve internal crankcase overpressure safely and prevent flame return into engine room
Relief valves release pressure during oil mist ignition and seal shut to stop air ingress.
27. What component removes solid impurities and water from heavy fuel oil before combustion?
- A. Fuel heater
- B. Viscosimeter
- C. Duplex mesh strainer
- D. Centrifugal Fuel Purifier / Separator
Answer: D — Centrifugal Fuel Purifier / Separator
Centrifugal purifiers spin at high speed to separate water and heavy solids from HFO.
28. What is the function of the main engine thrust block?
- A. Prevent propeller shaft rotation
- B. Transfer propeller axial thrust force from the shafting to the ship's hull structure
- C. Cool stern tube bearings
- D. Support generator weight
Answer: B — Transfer propeller axial thrust force from the shafting to the ship's hull structure
Thrust blocks absorb forward/astern propeller thrust and push the vessel's hull.
29. Why is jacket cooling water kept treated with chemical inhibitors in marine diesel engines?
- A. Lubricate water pump impellers
- B. Reduce water density
- C. Prevent corrosion, cavitation, and scale formation inside cooling water passages
- D. Increase water boiling point to 300°C
Answer: C — Prevent corrosion, cavitation, and scale formation inside cooling water passages
Chemical treatment prevents liner pitting, scale buildup, and heat transfer degradation.
30. What is the function of the economizer fitted in a ship's main engine exhaust boiler system?
- A. Increase turbocharger speed
- B. Burn HFO waste sludges
- C. Generate auxiliary steam by absorbing waste heat from engine exhaust gases
- D. Cool exhaust gas before stack discharge
Answer: C — Generate auxiliary steam by absorbing waste heat from engine exhaust gases
Economizers recover waste heat from exhaust gases to generate service steam at sea.
Set 2 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. What safety device prevents starting air from entering an engine cylinder when the piston is in motion?
- A. Cylinder relief valve
- B. Fuel injector needle
- C. Starting air distributor / control valve
- D. Exhaust valve rotator
Answer: C — Starting air distributor / control valve
Air distributors time air delivery strictly during the starting stroke sequence.
2. What is the function of an oily water separator (OWS) bilge alarm (15 ppm monitor)?
- A. Measure fuel viscosity
- B. Check bilge well level
- C. Continuously monitor discharge water purity and stop overboard valve if oil exceeds 15 ppm
- D. Pump bilge water out faster
Answer: C — Continuously monitor discharge water purity and stop overboard valve if oil exceeds 15 ppm
The 15 ppm monitor ensures compliance with MARPOL Annex I by auto-stopping illegal discharge.
3. What causes thermal surging in a marine engine turbocharger?
- A. Excessive cooling water temperature
- B. High fuel viscosity
- C. Low engine lube oil pressure
- D. Breakdown of smooth airflow through compressor due to sudden engine load changes or fouled grid
Answer: D — Breakdown of smooth airflow through compressor due to sudden engine load changes or fouled grid
Surging occurs when compressor backpressure exceeds aerodynamic delivery pressure.
4. What is the main advantage of using a variable pitch propeller (CPP) on merchant vessels?
- A. Allows continuous engine operation at optimal RPM while controlling vessel speed via blade pitch
- B. Requires no hydraulic oil
- C. Reduces hull resistance to zero
- D. Eliminates need for stern tube bearings
Answer: A — Allows continuous engine operation at optimal RPM while controlling vessel speed via blade pitch
CPP allows rapid maneuvering without reversing main engine rotation direction.
5. What type of valve is installed on cylinder heads to protect against excessive combustion pressure?
- A. Starting air valve
- B. Fuel injection valve
- C. Cylinder Safety Relief Valve
- D. Indicator cock
Answer: C — Cylinder Safety Relief Valve
Relief valves lift automatically if cylinder firing pressure exceeds safe limits.
6. What is the primary function of the stern tube seal assembly?
- A. Measure shaft RPM
- B. Cool the propeller shaft tail
- C. Support propeller weight only
- D. Prevent seawater from entering the engine room and prevent lube oil from leaking into sea
Answer: D — Prevent seawater from entering the engine room and prevent lube oil from leaking into sea
Stern tube seals maintain watertight integrity around the rotating shafting.
7. Why must auxiliary diesel engines be warmed up before applying heavy electrical load?
- A. To increase generator frequency to 100 Hz
- B. To ensure uniform thermal expansion of engine components and proper lube oil circulation
- C. To burn off carbon in exhaust pipe
- D. To test overspeed governor
Answer: B — To ensure uniform thermal expansion of engine components and proper lube oil circulation
Warming up prevents thermal stress, piston scuffing, and bearing damage.
8. What is the purpose of an air compressor intercooler?
- A. Increase air pressure directly
- B. Lubricate compressor valves
- C. Cool compressed air between stages to reduce volume, increase air density, and remove moisture
- D. Heat air before entering receiver
Answer: C — Cool compressed air between stages to reduce volume, increase air density, and remove moisture
Intercooling improves volumetric efficiency and prevents moisture carryover to air bottles.
9. What condition causes high exhaust gas temperature across all cylinders of a diesel engine?
- A. High cooling water temperature
- B. Engine overload, fouled turbocharger compressor/turbine, or restricted air intake filter
- C. Excessive lube oil level
- D. Low fuel temperature
Answer: B — Engine overload, fouled turbocharger compressor/turbine, or restricted air intake filter
Air starvation or thermal overload increases exhaust temperatures uniformly.
10. What is the function of a governor on a marine diesel engine?
- A. Control cooling water valve
- B. Regulate lube oil pressure
- C. Start the engine on air
- D. Automatically adjust fuel rack position to maintain set engine speed under varying loads
Answer: D — Automatically adjust fuel rack position to maintain set engine speed under varying loads
Governors maintain speed stability and prevent overspeeding in rough seas.
11. What is the function of an indicator cock fitted on a engine cylinder head?
- A. Vent air from cooling jacket
- B. Sample exhaust gases
- C. Inject fuel into cylinder
- D. Allow attachment of engine indicator gear to measure cylinder pressure diagrams and blow out water
Answer: D — Allow attachment of engine indicator gear to measure cylinder pressure diagrams and blow out water
Indicator cocks allow taking combustion cards and venting moisture prior to engine start.
12. What type of pump is self-priming and commonly used for positive displacement lube oil transfer?
- A. Centrifugal Pump
- B. Ejector Pump
- C. Gear Pump or Screw Pump
- D. Axial Flow Pump
Answer: C — Gear Pump or Screw Pump
Positive displacement gear/screw pumps generate suction lift without external priming.
13. What is cavitation in a centrifugal pump and how does it affect performance?
- A. Overheating of electric motor bearings
- B. High pressure at suction flange
- C. Air trapped in discharge pipe
- D. Formation and collapse of vapor bubbles near impeller causing noise, vibration, and metal erosion
Answer: D — Formation and collapse of vapor bubbles near impeller causing noise, vibration, and metal erosion
Cavitation occurs when fluid pressure drops below vapor pressure, eroding impeller blades.
14. What is the function of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) on a marine alternator?
- A. Control engine governor speed
- B. Maintain constant generator terminal voltage despite changes in electrical load
- C. Trip main circuit breaker
- D. Synchronize frequency
Answer: B — Maintain constant generator terminal voltage despite changes in electrical load
AVR adjusts alternator field excitation current to keep output voltage steady.
15. What safety precaution must be taken before opening an engine crankcase after a hot spot alarm?
- A. Open doors immediately to vent smoke
- B. Spray cold water inside crankcase
- C. Start lube oil pump at max pressure
- D. Wait at least 30 minutes to allow hot spots to cool down before opening doors
Answer: D — Wait at least 30 minutes to allow hot spots to cool down before opening doors
Opening crankcase doors immediately introduces oxygen, triggering explosive oil mist ignition.
16. What is the purpose of thermostatic control valves in engine cooling water systems?
- A. Shut off water when engine stops
- B. Increase pump discharge pressure
- C. Maintain constant engine cooling water temperature by modulating bypass flow to heat exchanger
- D. Filter dirt from fresh water
Answer: C — Maintain constant engine cooling water temperature by modulating bypass flow to heat exchanger
Thermostatic valves regulate coolant temperature for optimal engine thermal balance.
17. What is the function of a emergency generator automatic main failure (AMF) panel?
- A. Supply power to main engine lube pump
- B. Step down voltage from 440V to 220V
- C. Charge radio batteries only
- D. Detect loss of main switchboard power and auto-start the emergency generator within 45 seconds
Answer: D — Detect loss of main switchboard power and auto-start the emergency generator within 45 seconds
AMF panels restore essential lighting and safety loads during blackouts.
18. Which of this is not a moving part of a diesel engine
- A. piston
- B. crankshaft
- C. connecting rod
- D. crankcase
Answer: D — crankcase
The crankcase is the housing for the crankshaft and part of the engine block; it is a stationary component. The piston, crankshaft, and connecting rod are all essential moving parts within the diesel engine's power cycle.
19. Generator engine on board ship is started using
- A. hydraulic oil motors/pressure
- B. compressed air
- C. air compressor
- D. turbo generator
Answer: B — compressed air
Generator engines on ships are typically started using compressed air stored in receiver tanks, which engages the engine's starting mechanism. Hydraulic systems or air compressors are used to supply this air, but the immediate starting medium is the compressed air itself.
20. Purpose of fresh water circulation through diesel engine cylinder is to
- A. prevent corrosion
- B. remove heat of combustion
- C. clean exhaust gases
- D. lubricate moving part
Answer: B — remove heat of combustion
The primary purpose of circulating fresh water through a diesel engine's cooling system is to absorb and remove the immense heat generated by combustion, thereby maintaining optimal operating temperatures. It does not primarily prevent corrosion or clean exhaust gases.
21. Turning gear on main engine is provided for
- A. remove exhaus gases from cylinder
- B. turning the engine during overhaul
- C. releasing parts if jammed
- D. ensure turning of propeller
Answer: B — turning the engine during overhaul
The turning gear is provided on the main engine to allow slow rotation of the crankshaft during maintenance, overhaul, or pre-starting checks. This ensures even cooling, allows access to components, and prevents seizure.
22. Exhaust gas economiser produces
- A. steam
- B. fresh water
- C. inert gas
- D. electricity
Answer: A — steam
An exhaust gas economizer is a heat exchanger that recovers waste heat from the exhaust gases of the main engine or auxiliary boilers to generate steam or preheat feedwater. It is not involved in producing fresh water, inert gas, or electricity directly.
23. Turbo chargers on diesel engine
- A. increases pressure of intake air
- B. acts as fuel charger
- C. increases RPM
- D. decreases the pressure of intake air
Answer: A — increases pressure of intake air
Turbochargers are used to increase the power output of diesel engines by compressing and forcing more intake air into the cylinders. This results in higher volumetric efficiency and improved combustion, not a decrease in air pressure.
24. Exhaust gases from the main engine go to the atmosphere through
- A. oil fired boiler
- B. inert gasgenerator
- C. exhaust fan
- D. exhaust gas boiler
Answer: D — exhaust gas boiler
Exhaust gases from the main engine, after potentially passing through an exhaust gas boiler (economizer) for heat recovery, are released to the atmosphere through the ship's exhaust uptake or funnel. An inert gas generator or exhaust fan serves different purposes.
25. Relief valves are provided on main engine cylinders for protection against high
- A. level of water
- B. pressure
- C. exhaust temperature
- D. speed
Answer: B — pressure
Cylinder head relief valves are safety devices designed to protect the engine from potentially catastrophic over-pressurization within the combustion chamber. This can occur due to excessive fuel injection or other abnormal combustion events, not high exhaust temperature or speed.
26. Function of a cylinder head relief valve is to
- A. reduce the speed of engine
- B. prevent crankcase explosion
- C. stop the engine
- D. release excessive pressure
Answer: D — release excessive pressure
A cylinder head relief valve is a safety device that opens automatically to release excessive pressure from within the cylinder during operation. This prevents damage to the engine components and potential hazards from over-pressurization.
27. Function of crankcase relief door is to
- A. detect the mist inside the crankcase
- B. release pressure from crankcase
- C. stop the engine
- D. reduce the speed of engine
Answer: B — release pressure from crankcase
Crankcase relief doors are designed as safety vents to rapidly release any abnormal pressure build-up within the crankcase, which can be caused by a crankcase explosion. This prevents damage to the engine casing and potential injury.
28. If cooling water becomes less in a diesel engine the engine will
- A. not start
- B. cool down too much
- C. make more noise
- D. get overheated
Answer: D — get overheated
Insufficient cooling water in a diesel engine leads to inadequate heat removal from the combustion process, causing the engine's temperature to rise beyond its safe operating limits, resulting in overheating. Proper cooling is essential for engine longevity and performance.
29. Diesel engine bearing will get damaged if supply of ___________ is not enough
- A. lubricating oil
- B. fuel
- C. air
- D. water
Answer: A — lubricating oil
Bearings in a diesel engine rely on a continuous supply of lubricating oil to create a film that separates moving surfaces, reducing friction and wear. A lack of lubricating oil will lead to metal-to-metal contact, overheating, and eventual bearing seizure or damage.
30. Speed of diesel engine is adjusted by changing the supply of
- A. lubricating oil
- B. air
- C. fuel
- D. water
Answer: C — fuel
The speed of a diesel engine is primarily regulated by controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders. Increasing fuel supply increases power and speed, while decreasing it reduces them. Air supply is also important but fuel is the primary control.
Set 3 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. While diesel engine is operating ,one of the important pressure to check is ______
- A. steam pressure
- B. exhaust gas
- C. lubricating oil
- D. sarting air
Answer: C — lubricating oil
While checking various parameters is important, the lubricating oil pressure is a critical indicator of proper lubrication, essential for preventing engine damage. Low oil pressure signals a potential problem with the lubrication system and requires immediate attention.
2. One of the function of lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce
- A. weight of the engine
- B. wexhaust gases
- C. friction between moving parts
- D. exhaust temperatures
Answer: C — friction between moving parts
The primary function of lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce friction between moving parts, thereby minimizing wear and heat generation. It also provides cooling and sealing, but friction reduction is its most crucial role.
3. Function of crankcase lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to ____
- A. prevent corrosion
- B. supply power
- C. improve combustion
- D. turn crankshaft
Answer: A — prevent corrosion
Lubricating oil within the crankcase serves multiple purposes, including lubricating the crankshaft and connecting rod bearings, cooling these components, and preventing rust and corrosion on internal surfaces. It does not directly improve combustion or supply power.
4. The lower most ring on a diesel engine piston is called
- A. oil scraper ring
- B. compression ring
- C. pressure ring
- D. split ring
Answer: A — oil scraper ring
The bottom-most ring on a piston, typically featuring a tapered or spring-loaded design, is the oil scraper ring. Its function is to scrape excess lubricating oil from the cylinder walls during the piston's downstroke, preventing it from entering the combustion chamber.
5. For good combustion, the color of the exhaust from diesel engine should be
- A. bluish white
- B. light brown
- C. colourless
- D. light grey
Answer: C — colourless
For efficient combustion in a diesel engine, the exhaust gases should be colourless, indicating complete burning of the fuel. Any discolouration, such as black, blue, or white smoke, signifies incomplete combustion or other issues needing attention.
6. Ships propeller is fitted to
- A. intermediate shaft
- B. stern tube
- C. crankshaft
- D. tail shaft
Answer: D — tail shaft
The ship's propeller, which provides propulsion by converting engine power into thrust, is directly attached to the end of the tail shaft. This shaft extends from the gearbox or engine through the stern tube to the propeller.
7. The type of engine normally used for generators on a ship is ____________
- A. 4 stroke
- B. 6 stroke
- C. 2 stroke
- D. medium stroke
Answer: A — 4 stroke
Four-stroke engines are generally preferred for ship generators due to their better fuel efficiency, smoother operation, and lower emissions compared to two-stroke engines, which are typically used for main propulsion in larger vessels.
8. When starting engine on diesel oil, before injection the oil is
- A. heated to same temp s heavy oil
- B. passed through the purifier
- C. heated if necessary in cold climate
- D. mixed with steam
Answer: C — heated if necessary in cold climate
Diesel oil, used for generators and smaller engines, has a lower ignition point than heavy fuel oil and typically does not require significant heating for injection. It may require warming in very cold climates, but not to the extent of HFO, nor is it typically mixed with steam.
9. A cam shaft on diesel engine operates
- A. starting valves
- B. fuel valves
- C. flywheel
- D. fuel injection pump
Answer: D — fuel injection pump
The camshaft, driven by the engine's timing gears or chain, has lobes that push open the valves. It directly operates the fuel injection pumps in many diesel engine designs, ensuring precise fuel delivery timing.
10. Thrust block for main engine is fitted at the
- A. tail shaft
- B. aft side of engine
- C. forward side of engine
- D. end of the cam shaft
Answer: B — aft side of engine
The thrust block is a specialized bearing designed to absorb the significant axial thrust generated by the propeller and transmitted through the propeller shaft. It is fitted at the aft end of the engine, in line with the shafting, to transfer this force to the ship's structure.
11. The purpose of Injector valve on a generator engine is for _____
- A. Fresh air intake
- B. Safety
- C. Compress air
- D. Fuel inlet
Answer: D — Fuel inlet
The injector valve, also known as a fuel injector, is responsible for injecting a precisely metered amount of fuel into the engine cylinder at the correct time and pressure for combustion. Its primary role is fuel delivery, not safety or air intake.
12. Exhaust valve in a Diesel engine ______
- A. Rotates in place
- B. Stays in place
- C. Moves up and down
- D. Opens and closes
Answer: D — Opens and closes
The exhaust valve in a diesel engine is a critical component that opens to allow burned exhaust gases to exit the cylinder and closes to seal the combustion chamber during the compression and power strokes. Thus, it must open and close cyclically.
13. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing human factors, communication, and risk assessment for Marine Engineering Knowledge on board?
- A. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
- B. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
- C. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
- D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Marine Engineering Knowledge operations.
14. Piston in a Diesel engine _______
- A. Oscillates
- B. Moves up and down
- C. Rotates in place
- D. Stays in place
Answer: B — Moves up and down
In a diesel engine's operational cycle, the piston is designed to reciprocate, meaning it moves linearly up and down within the cylinder. This reciprocating motion is fundamental to converting the energy from fuel combustion into rotational mechanical work via the crankshaft.
15. The purpose of Exhaust Gas in a Diesel engine is to ___
- A. Turns turbo charger
- B. Reduces friction
- C. Gives power
- D. Increases air supply
Answer: A — Turns turbo charger
The primary purpose of the exhaust gases, which are at high temperature and pressure, is to drive the turbine wheel of the turbocharger. This rotation then powers the compressor, which forces more air into the cylinders, thereby increasing engine power and efficiency.
16. What is to be checked on a running Main engine , during watch.
- A. Oil coming out of water side
- B. Steering angle
- C. Exhaust temperature
- D. Discharge pressure of liquid
Answer: C — Exhaust temperature
During a watch, monitoring the exhaust temperature of the main engine is crucial. Abnormal fluctuations can indicate potential issues like cylinder imbalance, cooling problems, or combustion irregularities, allowing for early intervention.
17. Air starting valve in a Diesel engine _____
- A. Moves from side to side
- B. Oscillates
- C. Opens only at engine starting
- D. Moves up and down
Answer: C — Opens only at engine starting
The air starting valve in a diesel engine is designed to operate intermittently. It opens only during the starting sequence to admit compressed air into the cylinders, initiating rotation; it remains closed during normal operation.
18. The purpose of Indicator valve on a generator engine is for _________
- A. Compressed air
- B. Blowing through
- C. Fuel inlet
- D. Fresh air intake
Answer: B — Blowing through
The indicator valve on a diesel engine serves as a port to connect a pressure indicator or to release compressed air during the 'blowing through' phase before starting. This allows for clearing residual gases or checking cylinder compression.
19. Which of these is NOT a moving part of a diesel engine:
- A. Piston
- B. Crankcase
- C. Connecting rod
- D. Crankshaft
Answer: B — Crankcase
The crankcase forms the main body of the engine housing but is typically stationary. The connecting rod, piston, and crankshaft are all essential moving components that translate combustion forces into rotational motion.
20. Cylinder Head in a Diesel engine ____
- A. Stays in place
- B. Rotates in place
- C. Moves up and down
- D. Oscillates
Answer: A — Stays in place
The cylinder head is a fixed component that seals the top of the engine cylinder. It houses the valves and injectors and remains stationary during the engine's operation.
21. The purpose of Inlet valve on a generator engine is for ________
- A. Compress air
- B. Fresh air intake
- C. Safety
- D. Fuel inlet
Answer: B — Fresh air intake
The purpose of the inlet valve on a generator engine is to allow the intake of the fresh air-fuel mixture into the cylinder for combustion. This process is critical for the engine's power generation cycle.
22. The purpose of Exhaust valve on a generator engine is for _________
- A. Fuel inlet
- B. Combustion Gases
- C. Stop fuel
- D. Fresh air intake
Answer: B — Combustion Gases
The exhaust valve on a generator engine opens to allow the expulsion of burnt combustion gases from the cylinder. This clears the cylinder, preparing it for the next intake stroke.
23. Before starting a generator engine, LO hand pump should be operated to
- A. Turn the engine
- B. Warm up the engine
- C. Supply lub oil to moving parts
- D. Check the level of the tank
Answer: C — Supply lub oil to moving parts
Operating the LO hand pump before starting a generator engine ensures that lubrication oil is distributed to critical moving parts. This pre-lubrication is vital to minimize wear and prevent damage during the initial start-up phase.
24. Connecting rod in a Diesel engine ___________.
- A. Moves up and down
- B. Oscillates
- C. Rotates in place
- D. Stays in place
Answer: B — Oscillates
The connecting rod in a diesel engine undergoes an oscillating motion. It links the reciprocating piston to the rotating crankshaft, converting the linear movement into rotational movement.
25. The purpose of Fuel Oil in a Diesel engine is to _____
- A. Causes explosion
- B. Reduces friction
- C. Turns turbo charger
- D. Gives power
Answer: D — Gives power
The primary function of fuel oil in a diesel engine is to provide the energy for combustion. When ignited under pressure, it releases chemical energy, which is converted into mechanical power to drive the engine.
26. The purpose of Lubricating Oil in a Diesel engine is to _______
- A. Gives power
- B. Turns turbo charger
- C. Increases air supply
- D. Reduces friction
Answer: D — Reduces friction
Lubricating oil plays a crucial role in a diesel engine by reducing friction between moving parts. This minimizes wear, dissipates heat, and prevents seizing, thereby ensuring efficient and prolonged engine operation.
27. Crankshaft in a Diesel engine _______
- A. Rotates in place
- B. Moves up and down
- C. Stays in place
- D. Oscillates
Answer: A — Rotates in place
The crankshaft in a diesel engine is designed to rotate continuously. It converts the reciprocating motion of the pistons, transmitted through the connecting rods, into the rotational force needed to drive the propeller shaft.
28. The purpose of "COMPRESSED AIR" in a diesel engine is to_________
- A. Starts Engine
- B. Controls fuel Supply
- C. Gives Power
- D. Turns turbo Charger
Answer: A — Starts Engine
Compressed air is used in diesel engines primarily for starting the engine. It is injected into the cylinders at high pressure to initiate the crankshaft's rotation, allowing the combustion cycle to begin.
29. Generator engine on board ships is started using
- A. Compressed air
- B. Turbo generator
- C. Hydraulic Oil Motors / Pressure
- D. Air compressor
Answer: A — Compressed air
Generator engines on ships are typically started using a compressed air system. A dedicated starting air receiver stores air under pressure, which is then admitted to the cylinders to turn the engine over.
30. Function of crankcase lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce friction between moving parts, cooling the parts and to _______________
- A. Improve combustion
- B. Prevent corrosion
- C. Supply power
- D. Turn the crankshaft
Answer: B — Prevent corrosion
Besides reducing friction and cooling, lubricating oil in the crankcase also serves to prevent corrosion on internal engine components. It forms a protective film that inhibits rust and oxidation, especially during periods of inactivity.
Set 4 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. The purpose of Turbocharger in a Diesel engine is to _________
- A. Reduces friction
- B. Turns turbo charger
- C. Increase air supply
- D. Gives power
Answer: C — Increase air supply
The primary function of a turbocharger in a diesel engine is to increase the volume of air supplied to the cylinders. By using exhaust gas energy to drive a compressor, it forces more air into the combustion chamber, enhancing power output and efficiency.
2. Why diesel engine generator does not have a reversing mechanism
- A. Running reverse its phase sequence will change
- B. Running reverse it consumes power instead of producing power
- C. Running reverse it produces DC instead of AC
- D. Running reverse does not produce power
Answer: B — Running reverse it consumes power instead of producing power
Diesel engine generators are not designed with reversing mechanisms because they are coupled to alternators which produce AC power. Running a generator in reverse would cause it to consume electrical power rather than produce it, and it would likely disrupt the ship's electrical grid synchronization.
3. Which system is not required for main engine
- A. Fuel system
- B. Feed system
- C. Cooling system
- D. Lubricating system
Answer: B — Feed system
A feed system is primarily associated with steam boilers, providing water for steam generation. Main engines on a ship, whether diesel or turbine, do not require a boiler feed system for their direct operation.
4. Steam turbine driven generator is called
- A. Turbo alternator
- B. Shaft generator
- C. Alternator
- D. Generator
Answer: A — Turbo alternator
A turbo alternator is specifically defined as a generator driven by a steam turbine, which is typically powered by steam produced from the exhaust gas economizer or a fired boiler.
5. Main engine is part of _________ system
- A. feed water
- B. Electricity generation
- C. Propulsion
- D. Bilge
Answer: C — Propulsion
The main engine is the prime mover dedicated to generating thrust, making it the core component of the ship's propulsion system.
6. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for human factors, communication, and risk assessment concerning Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
- B. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
- C. Port State Control advisory note only
- D. STCW Code Section A-III/4 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
Answer: D — STCW Code Section A-III/4 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-III/4 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Marine Engineering Knowledge.
7. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Making Axial hole in a Round bar.
- A. Lathe machine
- B. Drill machine
- C. Bending machine
- D. Grinding machine
Answer: A — Lathe machine
A lathe machine is used for axial drilling, boring, and turning operations on round bars. It precisely rotates the workpiece while a cutting tool moves axially or radially to create the desired hole or shape, ensuring accuracy and a smooth finish.
8. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Cutting a joint.
- A. Bending machine
- B. Scissors
- C. Lathe machine
- D. Drill machine
Answer: B — Scissors
Scissors are not a machine tool; however, if referring to a machine for cutting, a power saw (like a bandsaw or hacksaw) or a shearing machine would be used for cutting joints in materials. The provided option 'Scissors' is incorrect in a workshop context.
9. What machine will you use for cutting a large plate
- A. Grinding Machine
- B. Welding Machine
- C. Gas Cutting Machine
- D. Drill Machine
Answer: C — Gas Cutting Machine
A gas cutting machine, such as an oxy-acetylene cutter, is specifically designed for thermally cutting thick metal plates by using a high-pressure oxygen jet. This method is efficient for severing large sections of steel, unlike drilling or grinding.
10. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Joining two plates.
- A. Drill machine
- B. Grinding machine
- C. Lathe machine
- D. Welding machine
Answer: D — Welding machine
A welding machine is the primary tool used to join two metal plates by melting the edges and fusing them together, often with the addition of filler material. This creates a strong, permanent bond essential for structural integrity.
11. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Making holes in a plate
- A. Drill machine
- B. Bending machine
- C. Grinding machine
- D. Lathe machine
Answer: A — Drill machine
A drill machine is used to create holes in a plate or other materials. It utilizes a rotating cutting tool (drill bit) to remove material, allowing for the insertion of fasteners or for creating passages.
12. To make a new flange for a pipe you will need:
- A. Lathe machine and drilling machine
- B. Grinding machine, drilling machine and pipe cutter
- C. Chisel, hammer and drilling machine
- D. Welding machine and milling machine
Answer: A — Lathe machine and drilling machine
To fabricate a new flange for a pipe, a lathe machine is essential for shaping the basic cylindrical form and creating precise mounting surfaces. A drilling machine is then used to accurately create the bolt holes required for connection.
13. Which of these is NOT a part of a lathe
- A. Chuck
- B. Head stock
- C. Anvil
- D. Tool post
Answer: C — Anvil
An anvil is a heavy metal block used as a surface for forging and hammering metal, and is typically found in a blacksmith's workshop, not a lathe. The headstock, tool post, and chuck are integral parts of a lathe machine's operation.
14. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Removing extra material after welding
- A. Bending machine
- B. Lathe machine
- C. Grinding machine
- D. Drill machine
Answer: C — Grinding machine
A grinding machine is used for finishing surfaces and removing excess material, particularly after welding. It employs abrasive wheels to precisely remove weld spatter, smooth out rough joints, or achieve a desired surface finish.
15. During lathe work, goggles protect our eyes from _______
- A. Heat
- B. Flash Light
- C. Metal chips
- D. Fumes
Answer: C — Metal chips
During lathe operations, metal is removed in the form of chips or swarf. Goggles are essential personal protective equipment (PPE) to shield the eyes from these flying metal fragments, preventing serious injury.
16. Danger for lifting heavy equipment manually is _________
- A. fall
- B. slip
- C. sprain
- D. fracture
Answer: C — sprain
Manually lifting heavy equipment can lead to musculoskeletal injuries such as sprains and strains due to improper lifting techniques or exceeding physical capacity. While fractures are possible with severe accidents, sprains are more common direct consequences of manual lifting.
17. DO'S on Machine safety...Mark the incorrect one
- A. Keep machine clean and in good condition
- B. Check wheel rotation after running of machine
- C. Switch off machine immediately if anything goes wrong
- D. Check oil levels of machine before starting
Answer: B — Check wheel rotation after running of machine
Checking wheel rotation after a machine has been running is not a standard safety 'do'. It implies touching a potentially moving or hot wheel. All other options are valid safety precautions to ensure the machine operates correctly and safely.
18. DONT'S in the workshop...Mark the incorrect one
- A. Do not touch any equipment unless authorised to do so
- B. Do not run in the workshop
- C. Do not throw things or play practical jokes
- D. Do leave your machine unattended
Answer: D — Do leave your machine unattended
Leaving a machine unattended while it is running is a significant safety hazard and is strictly prohibited in any workshop environment. It increases the risk of accidents, damage, or unauthorized operation.
19. When starting to weld you must hold the electrode at an angle of about?
- A. 70°
- B. 90°
- C. 50°
- D. 30°
Answer: A — 70°
An electrode angle of approximately 70° relative to the direction of travel is standard practice to ensure good arc control, weld penetration, and slag management.
20. Oxygen and ______ is used in gas welding on board
- A. Acetylene
- B. LPG
- C. Argon
- D. Nitrogen
Answer: A — Acetylene
Oxy-acetylene welding is the standard gas welding method used on ships. Acetylene provides the high-temperature flame necessary to melt steel effectively when mixed with oxygen.
21. Before starting arc welding you must:
- A. Connect the welding cable to the earth clamp
- B. Extend the welding cables
- C. Connect the earth Clamp to the work piece
- D. Connect the electrode holder to the earth clamp
Answer: C — Connect the earth Clamp to the work piece
For a safe arc, the earth clamp must be securely connected directly to the workpiece to ensure the electrical circuit is complete and to prevent stray current arcs.
22. Gases used in gas welding are
- A. CO2 and LPG
- B. Acetylene and LPG
- C. Acetylene and oxygen
- D. Oxygen and LPG
Answer: C — Acetylene and oxygen
Gas welding relies on the combustion of oxygen and acetylene, which produces a flame with a temperature high enough to weld steel parts effectively.
23. The welding arc length should be:
- A. Equal to the diameter of the electrode
- B. Less than the diameter of the electrode
- C. 6-12mm
- D. 20mm
Answer: A — Equal to the diameter of the electrode
For stable arc welding, the arc length should be maintained roughly equal to the diameter of the electrode core wire to prevent arc instability or poor fusion.
24. Too long an arc will cause
- A. Low penetration coarse splatter & flat bead
- B. Even bead & good penetration & good welding
- C. This is bulb up the weld pool
- D. Uncontrolled penetration slag globules electrode stuck to weld
Answer: A — Low penetration coarse splatter & flat bead
An excessively long arc results in increased voltage, leading to low penetration, unstable arc characteristics, and significant coarse splatter. The instability often produces a flat, uneven weld bead because the heat is not sufficiently concentrated to fuse the base metal effectively.
25. Too short an arc length will cause an uneven bead due to arc failure
- A. None of the above
- B. Flat bead
- C. Low penetration coarse splatter
- D. Good welding
Answer: A — None of the above
A short arc length is preferred for stability and control. The provided options for this specific question imply that none of the listed consequences (low penetration or flat bead) are inherent to a short arc, as a short arc generally provides better control and deeper penetration if maintained correctly.
26. Electrode should be kept at a distance of ________ above the spot where we wish to strike the arc
- A. 20-30 mm
- B. 30-40 mm
- C. 35-45 mm
- D. 40-50 mm
Answer: A — 20-30 mm
When preparing to strike an arc, the electrode tip should be positioned approximately 20-30 mm above the intended starting point. This distance allows the welder to stabilize their position and prepare for the initial strike while minimizing the risk of accidental arcing or sticking.
27. Welding gloves made from tanned leather can be following combinations
- A. 1-finger and 2-finger type
- B. 4-finger and 6-finger type
- C. 2-finger and 4-finger type
- D. 3-finger and 5-finger type
Answer: D — 3-finger and 5-finger type
Welding gloves used in manual metal arc welding are designed for dexterity and protection, commonly available in 3-finger and 5-finger configurations. These provide the necessary heat resistance and allow for the specific grip required for electrode holders.
28. In the event of an emergency involving containment, isolation, and emergency response during Marine Engineering Knowledge tasks, what immediate action is required?
- A. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
- B. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
- C. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
- D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: A — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.
29. The level measuring device, Gauge glass & can be used for
- A. Oil can
- B. Multi Purpose
- C. Tanks of Small depths
- D. Tanks of large depth
Answer: C — Tanks of Small depths
Gauge glasses utilize the principle of communicating vessels to indicate liquid levels. Due to their physical size and the potential for glass breakage under hydrostatic pressure, they are generally restricted to small, shallow tanks or auxiliary equipment.
30. The level measuring device, Level Indicator can be used for
- A. Oil level in generator crankcase
- B. Small to large tanks within the engine room
- C. Sumps of purifiers, compressors, etc
- D. Oil can
Answer: C — Sumps of purifiers, compressors, etc
Level indicators in this context are typically sight glasses or float-type local indicators used for small, localized machinery sumps. These allow for quick visual checks of oil levels in equipment like purifiers and compressors.
Set 5 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. The level measuring device, Sounding tape can be used for
- A. Oil can
- B. Multi Purpose
- C. Tanks of large depth
- D. Oil level in generator crankcase
Answer: C — Tanks of large depth
A sounding tape is a flexible, calibrated steel tape with a weighted plummet. It is the industry standard for measuring liquid depths in large-capacity storage tanks, such as double-bottom or deep tanks, where accuracy over a long vertical distance is required.
2. The level measuring device, Remote level indicators can be used for
- A. Multi Purpose
- B. Oil can
- C. Oil level in generator crankcase
- D. Tanks of large depth
Answer: A — Multi Purpose
Remote level indicators utilize various technologies (ultrasonic, hydrostatic, or radar) to transmit data to a central control station. Their versatility allows them to be used across a multi-purpose range of tank types and depths throughout the ship.
3. A sounding tape is used for measuring level of a liquid in a:
- A. Tank
- B. Boiler
- C. Crank case
- D. Cylinder
Answer: A — Tank
A sounding tape is a specialized measuring tool consisting of a graduated tape and a heavy bob. It is used specifically to measure the liquid level or ullage in ships' tanks to ensure compliance with loading and stability requirements.
4. A gauge-glass for checking liquid level is fitted on which tanks
- A. Lub Oil Storage Tank
- B. FO Storage Double Bottom Tank
- C. Fore Peak Ballast Tank
- D. After Peak Ballast Tank
Answer: A — Lub Oil Storage Tank
Gauge glasses are frequently installed on lubricating oil storage tanks in the engine room for convenient visual monitoring. Ballast and fuel tanks typically use sounding pipes or remote sensors to avoid the risk of oil or water leakage associated with glass tubes.
5. A dip stick is used for checking level of oil in a
- A. Filter
- B. Tank
- C. Crank case
- D. Cylinder
Answer: C — Crank case
A dipstick is a simple rod used to check the oil level directly within a machinery crankcase. It works by showing the oil level against marked graduation lines, providing a quick and reliable reading for reciprocating machinery.
6. The level measuring device, Dip stick can be used for
- A. Tanks of large depth
- B. Oil level in generator crankcase
- C. Oil can
- D. Multi Purpose
Answer: B — Oil level in generator crankcase
Dipsticks are specifically designed for small volumes and enclosed spaces like machinery crankcases. They provide a direct, tactile method for checking oil levels to ensure proper lubrication before and during machinery operation.
7. The most common item provided for checking oil level in a small machine is
- A. Sounding rod
- B. Remote level indicator
- C. Sight glass
- D. Sounding tape
Answer: C — Sight glass
A sight glass is a transparent tube or window attached to the side of a small machine or reservoir. It allows the operator to see the oil level instantly without opening the system, making it the most common and convenient indicator for small equipment.
8. What material is not a commonly used as insulation material?
- A. Wood
- B. Plastic
- C. Fire Bricks
- D. Glass Wool
Answer: B — Plastic
Plastic is a poor insulation material for high-temperature maritime applications and can melt or release toxic fumes if exposed to heat. Materials like glass wool and fire bricks are standard for their thermal resistance and safety properties.
9. What is used to prevent the transfer of heat from pipes or equipment?
- A. Cooling system
- B. Insulating material
- C. Air circulation
- D. Turbo charger
Answer: B — Insulating material
Insulating materials are substances with low thermal conductivity used to reduce the rate of heat transfer. They are essential on ships to keep heat within pipes and equipment, thereby improving thermal efficiency and preventing personnel burns.
10. What is the common name for item used for preventing the loss of heat from pipes or equipment?
- A. Exhaust boiler
- B. Air circulation
- C. Lagging
- D. Cooling system
Answer: C — Lagging
Lagging is the maritime term for the thermal insulation applied to pipes, boilers, and machinery. It serves the primary purpose of heat conservation and personnel protection by reducing surface temperatures to safe limits.
11. What materials are banned for use as insulation materials?
- A. Thermocole
- B. Asbestos
- C. Fiberglass Wool
- D. Fire Bricks
Answer: B — Asbestos
Asbestos is a hazardous material known to cause severe respiratory illnesses and cancer. It is strictly prohibited under SOLAS regulations in the construction and maintenance of modern ships; non-hazardous alternatives must be used.
12. Electrical Insulation prevent flow of ......
- A. Electricity
- B. Voltage
- C. Resistance
- D. Power
Answer: A — Electricity
Electrical insulation refers to materials used to wrap conductors to prevent the flow of electricity to unwanted paths. This prevents short circuits, equipment damage, and electrical shocks to personnel.
13. Chemicals should be stored in _______
- A. on deck
- B. in engine room
- C. in separate well ventilated store
- D. in accommodation
Answer: C — in separate well ventilated store
Chemicals must be stored in a dedicated, well-ventilated storeroom to prevent the accumulation of hazardous vapors and to ensure safety. Storing them in accommodation or the engine room poses significant health and fire risks.
14. If any chemical fall on the body, first action should be
- A. thoroughly wash affected area
- B. call for the doctor
- C. apply medicine to affected area
- D. wipe clean the affected area
Answer: A — thoroughly wash affected area
In the event of chemical contact, immediate flushing with large quantities of clean, fresh water is the universal first-aid procedure. This dilutes and removes the chemical agent, minimizing potential chemical burns.
15. Chemicals on-board are not to be used for
- A. cleaning the cooking utensils
- B. boiler water treatment
- C. fuel oil treatment
- D. cleaning the boiler
Answer: A — cleaning the cooking utensils
Chemicals used for industrial applications, such as boiler water treatment or fuel oil treatment, are often toxic and hazardous. They must never be used for any domestic purposes, such as cleaning cooking utensils, due to the risk of poisoning.
16. Disposal of used/expired chemical container should be done by
- A. throwin into deep sea
- B. burning in incinerator
- C. disposal with ships garbage
- D. disposal as per makers instruction
Answer: D — disposal as per makers instruction
Used or expired chemical containers must be disposed of strictly according to the manufacturer's Safety Data Sheet (SDS) and the ship's Garbage Management Plan. This ensures environmental compliance and avoids safety hazards.
17. Chemicals are mainly used for
- A. All of the above
- B. Testing quality of water
- C. Boilers
- D. Fuel treatment
Answer: A — All of the above
Chemicals on board are essential for maintaining the integrity of mechanical systems. This includes fuel oil treatment, boiler water quality monitoring, and cooling water maintenance, all of which are crucial for reliable ship operation.
18. Use of personal protective gear while handling chemicals...Mark the incorrect one
- A. Sun protect Goggles
- B. Face mask
- C. Apron
- D. Rubber gloves
Answer: A — Sun protect Goggles
Sun protection goggles are intended for outdoor UV protection and provide no defense against chemical splashes. Proper PPE for chemical handling includes chemical-resistant goggles, gloves, and aprons to prevent injury.
19. Steering gear is used to turn the
- A. rudder
- B. crane boom/jib
- C. propeller
- D. main engine
Answer: A — rudder
The steering gear is the machinery responsible for rotating the rudder to control the heading of the ship. It is a critical component for the safe navigation and maneuvering of the vessel.
20. Steering gear is located in the
- A. in a separate compartment aft of engine room
- B. forward of engine room
- C. on the bridge
- D. forecastle
Answer: A — in a separate compartment aft of engine room
Steering gear is located in the steering gear flat, which is situated at the extreme aft of the ship. This position allows for a direct, mechanical, or hydraulic connection to the rudder stock.
21. Rudder of the ship is turned by means of a
- A. steering wheel
- B. propeller
- C. hydraulic pump
- D. Cylinder and Ram arrangement only
Answer: D — Cylinder and Ram arrangement only
In most modern ships, the steering gear utilizes a hydraulic system where power units drive hydraulic rams. These rams act on the tiller to move the rudder, translating hydraulic force into mechanical steering motion.
22. Which of the following is a correct statement
- A. Rudder is connected to the propeller
- B. Steering gear is located at aft part of the ship
- C. Rudder is located in the steering flat
- D. Propeller is turned by the rudder
Answer: B — Steering gear is located at aft part of the ship
The steering gear flat is located at the aft-most part of the ship, directly above or near the rudder assembly. This allows the steering gear hydraulic rams to engage with the rudder stock efficiently.
23. Various components of Steering Gear ...Tick the incorrect one
- A. Hydrophore Unit
- B. Actuating Unit
- C. Control Unit
- D. Power Unit
Answer: A — Hydrophore Unit
A hydrophore unit is part of the ship's freshwater distribution system, not the steering gear. The steering gear consists of the power unit, control unit, and actuating (or tiller) unit.
24. While taking rounds in the Steering flat, following to be checked...Mark the incorrect
- A. Abnormal noise or vibrations
- B. Oil level of MDO in the steering gear system
- C. Load of the pump in Ampere
- D. Leakages from pumps, pipe joints, etc
Answer: B — Oil level of MDO in the steering gear system
Checking the oil level of MDO (Marine Diesel Oil) is irrelevant in the steering gear flat, as steering systems use specific hydraulic oil. Operators should check the hydraulic oil level, not fuel oil levels.
25. A quick closing valve is fitted on
- A. main engine cooling system
- B. boiler steam line
- C. fuel tanks above double bottom tanks
- D. compressed air line
Answer: C — fuel tanks above double bottom tanks
Quick closing valves are mandatory on fuel tanks located above double-bottom tanks. They provide an immediate, remote means to shut off fuel supply in the event of an engine room fire.
26. Man hole door on a tank is fitted for
- A. preventing entry by unauthorized persons
- B. strengthening the tank
- C. preventing damage on tanks
- D. allowing entry to the tank when needed
Answer: D — allowing entry to the tank when needed
A manhole door provides access to the interior of a tank for essential maintenance, such as cleaning, inspection, or repairs. These doors must be pressure-tight when closed to ensure tank integrity.
27. A quick closing valve
- A. stops air supply to main engine
- B. prevents fire from occuring
- C. prevents oil spills in engine room
- D. can be remotely closed in an emergency
Answer: D — can be remotely closed in an emergency
Quick closing valves are essential safety devices designed to be shut remotely from outside the engine room. They are triggered during fire emergencies to cut off fuel supply to machinery and prevent the escalation of a fire.
28. Air vent to tanks is provided for
- A. preventing build up of pressure or vaccum
- B. allowing liquid to come out when tank is full
- C. preventing fire
- D. for ventilation
Answer: A — preventing build up of pressure or vaccum
Air vent pipes are installed on tanks to allow air to escape when filling and to let air enter when emptying. This prevents dangerous pressure buildup or vacuum formation which could cause tank structural damage.
29. Sounding pipes on tanks are fitted for finding
- A. pressure in the tank
- B. level of liquid in the tank
- C. abnormal sound in the tank
- D. temperature in the tank
Answer: B — level of liquid in the tank
Sounding pipes provide a direct, reliable method for measuring the depth of liquid in a tank. By inserting a sounding tape into the pipe, the crew can determine the quantity of fuel or water present.
30. Quick closing valve operation is carried out from
- A. steering flat
- B. remote location outside engine room
- C. navigation bridge
- D. anywhere in the engine room
Answer: B — remote location outside engine room
For safety, quick closing valves must be operable from a location outside the machinery space. This ensures that in a fire scenario, the fuel supply can be shut down without endangering personnel.
Set 6 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. Ballast tank on a ship are filled up with _____
- A. water from other tanks
- B. drinking water
- C. sea water
- D. cargo oil
Answer: C — sea water
Ballast tanks are filled with sea water to maintain the ship's stability, trim, and draft requirements. This allows the ship to operate safely even when not carrying a full cargo load.
2. Settling tanks on ship are provided for
- A. storing oils before its use
- B. filtering water from fuel oil
- C. allowing water and sludge to separate before oil seperator
- D. mixing oils before use
Answer: C — allowing water and sludge to separate before oil seperator
Settling tanks provide the residence time necessary for water and sludge to settle at the bottom of the fuel. This separation process ensures that the fuel oil purifier receives cleaner oil for final treatment.
3. While bunkering is going on, what will be the most important thing to monitor
- A. Oil sounding in bunker barge
- B. Temperature of oil being supplied
- C. Oil sample is being taken
- D. Oil sounding in the tank being filled
Answer: D — Oil sounding in the tank being filled
Monitoring the tank sounding is critical during bunkering to prevent overflows. Preventing spills is a high priority for MARPOL compliance and shipboard safety, requiring constant vigilance of tank levels.
4. Quick Closing Valves can be operated...
- A. All of the above
- B. Locally
- C. Pneumatically
- D. Remotely
Answer: A — All of the above
Quick closing valves are versatile safety devices designed for emergency operations. They can be closed locally by hand or remotely via pneumatic or hydraulic systems to ensure maximum safety in diverse fire scenarios.
5. Each tank is required to have at least the following
- A. Sounding Pipe
- B. All of the above
- C. Outlet Line
- D. Air Vent
Answer: B — All of the above
Each tank requires an outlet line for discharge, an air vent to prevent over-pressurization during filling, and a sounding pipe to manually check levels. As all these components are fundamental for safe tank operation, 'All of the above' is the correct answer.
6. Storage Tank in the engine room will be called as ______ if the tank capacity is in between 2-50 tonnes
- A. Large Tank
- B. Ballast Tank
- C. Medium Tank
- D. Small Tank
Answer: D — Small Tank
Under standard maritime nomenclature for engine room storage containers, tanks with a capacity ranging between 2 and 50 tonnes are classified as Small Tanks.
7. On finding an injured person in the engine room, your first action will be to
- A. bring a stretcher
- B. report to the duty officer on watch
- C. look for the cause of injury
- D. apply first aid
Answer: B — report to the duty officer on watch
Safety procedures prioritize immediate communication. Reporting to the duty officer ensures help is mobilized quickly and proper emergency procedures are activated without delay, which is the primary duty before attempting independent medical aid.
8. A fire alarm in the engineroom is activated
- A. due to fire in the engine room
- B. due to a black out
- C. from the bridge
- D. automatically on machinery failure
Answer: A — due to fire in the engine room
A fire alarm in the engine room is specifically triggered by fire detection sensors (heat or smoke) identifying an active fire, requiring immediate emergency response protocols.
9. On hearing a CO2 alarm in the engine room, your first action will be
- A. use large fire extinguisher on the fire
- B. raise fire alarm
- C. report to the duty officer on watch
- D. use emergency exit to get out
Answer: D — use emergency exit to get out
A CO2 fire extinguishing system releases asphyxiating gas into the engine room space. Therefore, the immediate priority upon hearing the warning alarm is to evacuate via the emergency exit to avoid suffocation.
10. A machinery failure alarm in the engine room is activated
- A. automatically on machinery failure
- B. due to collision of the ship
- C. due to fire in the engine room
- D. from the bridge
Answer: A — automatically on machinery failure
Machinery failure alarms are designed to alert engineers to faults in running equipment (e.g., low lube oil pressure or high jacket water temperature). These are generated automatically by monitoring systems.
11. A general alarm is activated
- A. from the bridge
- B. automatically on machinery failure
- C. due to black out
- D. due to high bilge level
Answer: A — from the bridge
The General Alarm (GA) is the highest-level emergency signal on a ship. It is manually activated from the bridge by the master or duty officer to alert all personnel of an emergency situation requiring mustering.
12. UMS stands for
- A. Under Machinery Space Operation
- B. Uniform Machinery Space Operation
- C. Unattended Machinery Space Operation
- D. Undermanned Machinery Space Operation
Answer: C — Unattended Machinery Space Operation
UMS refers to Unattended Machinery Space operations, where the engine room is not manned by engineers on a watch-keeping basis, relying instead on comprehensive alarm and monitoring systems.
13. Which of the following is NOT an audio visual alram
- A. Fire Alarm
- B. Ship security alarm
- C. Co2 Alarm
- D. Machinery Alarm
Answer: B — Ship security alarm
The Ship Security Alarm (SSAS) is a covert, silent alarm system used to alert authorities of piracy or security threats, intentionally excluding audible or visual indicators to protect the crew.
14. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for containment, isolation, and emergency response be conducted for Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
- B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
- C. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
- D. Once every 5 years during special survey
Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.
15. Emergencies that can occur in the Engine room
- A. Flooding of the engine room
- B. All of the above
- C. Crank case explosion
- D. Stoppage of Main engine
Answer: B — All of the above
Crankcase explosions, main engine failure, and flooding are all critical operational emergencies requiring immediate intervention to maintain ship safety and environmental compliance.
16. Fixed fire fighting system for engine room
- A. DCP
- B. inert gas
- C. nitrogen
- D. CO2
Answer: D — CO2
Fixed CO2 systems are the industry standard for engine room fire suppression due to the gas’s ability to reach inaccessible areas and effectively smother Class B and C fires without leaving residues.
17. Not a part of a fire triangle
- A. air
- B. electricity
- C. heat
- D. fuel
Answer: B — electricity
The fire triangle consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. Electricity is an energy source that may ignite fuel but is not an element of the triangle itself.
18. Main fire pump is located
- A. at the fire station
- B. in the steering flat
- C. in the engine room
- D. on main deck
Answer: C — in the engine room
Under SOLAS regulations, the main fire pumps must be located within the machinery space to be readily available for engine room firefighting, distinct from the emergency fire pump.
19. To fight an electric fire you would use
- A. steam jet
- B. water spray
- C. dry powder
- D. special foam
Answer: C — dry powder
Dry powder is an electrical non-conductor and is the preferred medium for Class C electrical fires to suppress flames without damaging equipment or risking electrocution to the operator.
20. Means of forcing water out of a portable extinguisher
- A. nitrogen cartridge
- B. CO2 cartridge
- C. air cartridge
- D. chemical cartridge
Answer: B — CO2 cartridge
Most portable fire extinguishers on board use a pressurized gas cartridge, such as CO2, to expel the contents from the canister onto the fire source.
21. High expansion foam system is suitable for fighting fires in
- A. cargo holds
- B. engine room
- C. accommodation
- D. deck of ship
Answer: B — engine room
High expansion foam systems are specifically designed to fill large, confined volumes like engine rooms, effectively displacing oxygen and cooling surfaces to extinguish major fires.
22. Which of the following provided for connecting to shore water supply
- A. fixed foam system
- B. international shore connection
- C. fire hydrant
- D. foam tank
Answer: B — international shore connection
The International Shore Connection (ISC) is a standardized flange required by MARPOL/SOLAS regulations to allow port authorities to connect their shore water supply to the ship's fire main.
23. The emergency fire pump on a ship is located
- A. at the boat deck
- B. at the poop deck
- C. inside the engine room
- D. outside the engine room
Answer: D — outside the engine room
The emergency fire pump is specifically located outside the engine room to ensure that, in the event of a total engine room fire, a firefighting water supply remains available.
24. Fire hose on ship are made of
- A. thick cloth
- B. flexible teel
- C. strong canvas
- D. leather
Answer: C — strong canvas
Fire hoses used on ships must be flexible and durable; they are constructed from high-strength canvas or synthetic fabric to withstand high pressure and environmental wear.
25. What is used in case the fire in the engine room becomes out of control
- A. portable fire extinguisher
- B. fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
- C. fire pumps and hoses
- D. 45 liters foam fire extinguisher
Answer: B — fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
Fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems are designed for total flooding of the engine room when a fire is beyond the capacity of portable equipment or localized firefighting systems.
26. Which one of the following will be used first on a small fire in the engine room
- A. fire blancket
- B. fire pumps and hoses
- C. portable fire extinguisher
- D. fixed fire extinguishing system
Answer: C — portable fire extinguisher
Portable fire extinguishers are the initial line of defense for small, localized fires, allowing for immediate action before a fire can propagate across the engine room.
27. Full form of PASS....Mark the correct one
- A. Push, Automatic, Sweep, Squeeze
- B. Pull, Aim, Smoke,
- C. Pull, Aim, Sponge, Sweep
- D. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Answer: D — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS is the universal acronym for operating a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.
28. Following is not a part of Fire detection system
- A. Heat Detector
- B. Body Detector
- C. Smoke Detector
- D. Flame Detector
Answer: B — Body Detector
Fire detection systems utilize sensors for heat, smoke, and flame. A 'body detector' is not a component of maritime fire detection equipment.
29. Which Instrument is used for testing Insulation
- A. Jagger
- B. Driver
- C. Megger
- D. Drager
Answer: C — Megger
A Megger (megohmmeter) is the standard electrical test instrument used to measure the insulation resistance of electrical cables and windings.
30. Before starting maintenance on any equipment, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one
- A. Remove the safety guards
- B. Put a warning notice on the Mains switch
- C. Switch on the main supply
- D. Switch off the machine
Answer: C — Switch on the main supply
Switching on the main supply during maintenance is dangerous and violates all LOTO (Lock-Out, Tag-Out) safety protocols, which strictly mandate isolation of power to prevent accidental energization.
Set 7 — 15 MEK exit exam questions with answers
1. Before re-starting a machine, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one
- A. Replace the safety guard after starting the machine
- B. Check that no tools have been left on or near the machine
- C. Remove any warning notices
- D. Restore the power supply
Answer: A — Replace the safety guard after starting the machine
Safety guards must be reinstalled and secured before starting any machine. Running machinery without guards exposes personnel to rotating parts and creates a severe safety hazard.
2. Dry full contact body resistance is about ______ ohms at 250V
- A. 2000
- B. 4000
- C. 3000
- D. 5000
Answer: A — 2000
The average electrical resistance of the human body when dry is approximately 2000 ohms. This value decreases significantly if the skin is wet, increasing the risk of fatal shock.
3. What is the minimum value of shock current (AC) which can be fatal
- A. 35 mA
- B. 20 mA
- C. 15mA
- D. 25 mA
Answer: C — 15mA
Current as low as 15mA can cause involuntary muscle contraction and interfere with cardiac function, making it a threshold for potentially fatal electric shock.
4. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to containment, isolation, and emergency response in Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. No written record is required
- B. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
- C. Verbal update to port agent without logging
- D. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Answer: D — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.
5. What regulation under STCW Code applies to Marine Engineering Knowledge mandatory minimum requirements?
- A. SOLAS Chapter V Rule 10
- B. Chapter III Regulation 5
- C. MARPOL Annex I Regulation 12
- D. Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
Answer: D — Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
STCW Code Chapter VI specifies mandatory standards for safety and emergency functions.
6. Under STCW standards for Marine Engineering Knowledge, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?
- A. Every 10 years
- B. Every 2 years
- C. Every 5 years
- D. Annually
Answer: C — Every 5 years
STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.
7. What primary safety objective is governed by the Marine Engineering Knowledge module on board ship?
- A. Minimizing port dues
- B. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
- C. Automating engine control
- D. Optimizing fuel consumption
Answer: B — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.
8. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
- B. Verbal request to port authority
- C. Bridge sign-off without briefing
- D. Engine logbook entry only
Answer: A — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.
9. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during Marine Engineering Knowledge practical tasks?
- A. Basic cotton coveralls only
- B. Standard street clothes with safety boots
- C. High-visibility vest only
- D. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Answer: D — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.
10. Which international convention mandates compliance for Marine Engineering Knowledge operational procedures?
- A. STCW Convention as amended
- B. Tonnage Convention 1969
- C. COLREGs 1972
- D. Load Line Convention 1966
Answer: A — STCW Convention as amended
STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.
11. In case of an emergency scenario during Marine Engineering Knowledge operations, what is the immediate first step?
- A. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
- B. Log the event in diary
- C. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
- D. Attempt to fix without informing others
Answer: A — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.
12. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding Marine Engineering Knowledge?
- A. Cargo Manifest
- B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
- C. Oil Record Book Part I
- D. Garbage Record Book
Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions
The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.
13. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in Marine Engineering Knowledge drills?
- A. Observing without participating
- B. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
- C. Bypassing safety gear for speed
- D. Signing attendance without attending
Answer: B — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.
14. What log entry is required following completion of Marine Engineering Knowledge drills on board?
- A. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
- B. No log entry required
- C. Verbal update to port agent
- D. Personal diary note
Answer: A — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.
15. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling containment, isolation, and emergency response under Marine Engineering Knowledge guidelines?
- A. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
- B. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
- C. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
- D. High-visibility vest only
Answer: C — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.
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