MEK exit exam questions and answers — Marine Engineering Knowledge

All 298 questions from the Marine Engineering Knowledge (MEK) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt 13 Oct 2026.

Practise these MEK questions MEK mock exit exam, 30 marks MEK exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. Boiler is related to __________________

A. Storing Vegetables
B. Steam Generation
C. Steering
D. Human waste

Answer: B — Steam Generation

A boiler is a crucial piece of equipment onboard a ship responsible for generating steam. This steam is utilized for various purposes, including propulsion in steam-powered vessels and for heating systems.

2. Which of the following is bottom most part of a diesel engine?

A. Piston
B. Turbo charger
C. Connecting Rod
D. Exhaust valve

Answer: C — Connecting Rod

The connecting rod is positioned between the piston and the crankshaft. It is the bottom-most component among the choices provided that is directly involved in transmitting the linear motion of the piston to the rotating motion of the crankshaft.

3. Main Engine is part of the _________________ system

A. Electrical
B. Propulsion
C. Bilge
D. Ballast

Answer: B — Propulsion

The main engine is the primary source of power for a ship's movement, providing the necessary force to turn the propeller. Therefore, it is an integral part of the propulsion system.

4. Domestic Fridge is related to __________________.

A. Human waste
B. Storing Vegetables
C. Steering
D. Starting of Main Engine

Answer: B — Storing Vegetables

A domestic refrigerator onboard is used for the primary purpose of storing perishable items like vegetables, ensuring their freshness. It is a component of the ship's provisions and galley facilities.

5. Which of the following is top most part of a diesel engine?

A. crankcase door
B. crank shaft
C. cylinder head
D. piston

Answer: C — cylinder head

The cylinder head is the topmost component of a diesel engine cylinder, sealing the combustion chamber and housing the valves and injectors. It sits above the piston and cylinder liner.

6. Which of the following is lower most part of a diesel engine?

A. exhaust valve
B. bed plate
C. piston
D. turbo charger

Answer: B — bed plate

The bed plate forms the base of the diesel engine structure, supporting the crankshaft and carrying the main engine load. It is the lowest structural part of the engine assembly.

7. Which of the following is within the engine room?

A. cargo pump room
B. purifiers room
C. CO2 Room
D. paint storage room

Answer: B — purifiers room

The purifiers room (or centrifuge room) is dedicated to housing the machinery used for purifying fuel and lubricating oils, essential for the operation of the main engine and auxiliary machinery. This room is typically located within the engine room complex.

8. Which of the following is not within the engine room?

A. fresh water generator
B. fire pump
C. fridge room
D. refrigeration machinery

Answer: C — fridge room

The fridge room, used for storing provisions, is typically located in the galley or on deck, not within the engine room where machinery operates. The fresh water generator, fire pump, and refrigeration machinery are all essential engine room equipment.

9. Which of the following is job of an engine room rating?

A. report to bridge about engine condition
B. assist in maintenance work
C. overhaul air compressor
D. start and stop engine

Answer: B — assist in maintenance work

An engine room rating's primary duties include assisting in watchkeeping, performing routine maintenance under supervision, and carrying out specific tasks assigned by engineers. Starting and stopping the main engine, overhauling components, or reporting directly to the bridge are generally not their responsibilities.

10. Sewage Treatment Plant is related to __________________.

A. Starting of Main Engine
B. Steering
C. Storing Vegetables
D. Human waste

Answer: D — Human waste

The Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) is specifically designed to process human waste generated by the crew and passengers, treating it to meet environmental discharge standards as per MARPOL regulations. It is unrelated to engine starting, steering, or food storage.

11. What is not a system

A. Main Engine
B. Air compressor
C. Purifier
D. Boiler

Answer: A — Main Engine

The main engine is a complete functional unit that propels the ship. The boiler, purifier, and air compressor are individual systems or machines that are often part of the ship's overall engineering setup, but the main engine itself is the primary propulsion machine.

12. A "BOLT" has

A. Thread at both ends
B. Hexagonal head and threads at other end
C. Double pitch threads
D. Slotted head and threads at other end

Answer: B — Hexagonal head and threads at other end

A bolt is a fastener characterized by external screw threads and typically a hexagonal head, designed to be inserted through unthreaded holes in assembled parts and secured by a nut. It is not a threaded rod or a screw with a slotted head.

13. "Cuts" are caused by

A. Blunt chisels
B. Flat spanners
C. Sharp objects
D. Hammers

Answer: C — Sharp objects

Cuts, abrasions, and lacerations are typically caused by sharp objects such as knives, burrs on metal, or broken glass. While hammers and blunt chisels can cause blunt force trauma, they are not the direct cause of cuts.

14. For lifting a heavy load, you will use

A. Air Cylinder
B. Chain Block
C. Hydraulic Jack
D. Eye bolt

Answer: B — Chain Block

A chain block is a mechanical device used for lifting heavy loads, consisting of a chain and pulley system. While an eye bolt can be used for lifting, it's a component, and a hydraulic jack lifts by fluid pressure; a chain block is the general tool for heavy lifting.

15. A "STUD" has

A. Double pitch threads
B. Thread at both ends
C. Threads at one end with a slot at the other end
D. Hexagonal head and thread at the other end

Answer: B — Thread at both ends

A stud is a threaded fastener that has threads on both ends and no head, used for connecting two components where nuts are typically threaded onto both ends. It differs from a bolt, which has a head and threads at one end for a nut.

16. Which of this is not fitted on the cylinder head of a diesel engine

A. turbo charger
B. exhaust valve
C. starting valve
D. indicator valve

Answer: A — turbo charger

A turbocharger is an exhaust gas-driven turbine that forces more air into the engine cylinders to increase power and efficiency. It is not a component directly fitted on the cylinder head itself, unlike the exhaust valve, starting valve, and indicator valve.

17. Regarding practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation in Marine Engineering Knowledge, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-III/4?

A. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
B. Non-mandatory recommendation
C. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

STCW Code Section A-III/4 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Marine Engineering Knowledge.

18. What is the main function of the lubricating oil crosshead bearings in a two-stroke marine diesel engine?

A. Provide high-pressure oil film to withstand heavy piston combustion loads
B. Drive the camshaft chain
C. Cool the engine flywheel
D. Lubricate the turbocharger shaft

Answer: A — Provide high-pressure oil film to withstand heavy piston combustion loads

Crosshead bearings require high-pressure oil to support oscillating combustion forces.

19. What component in a marine diesel engine converts reciprocating piston motion into rotary crankshaft motion?

A. Connecting Rod
B. Piston Rod
C. Crosshead Guide
D. Camshaft

Answer: A — Connecting Rod

The connecting rod links the crosshead/piston to the crankshaft pin, converting motion.

20. What is the purpose of the scavenger air receiver in a two-stroke marine diesel engine?

A. Cool jacket cooling water
B. Collect waste exhaust carbon
C. Store starting air at 30 bar
D. Accumulate pressurized air from the turbocharger to scavenge exhaust gases from cylinders

Answer: D — Accumulate pressurized air from the turbocharger to scavenge exhaust gases from cylinders

Scavenge receivers supply fresh air to clear burnt gases and recharge cylinders.

21. What instrument measures exhaust gas temperatures at individual cylinder outlets?

A. Tachometer
B. Pyrometer / Thermocouple
C. Manometer
D. Hydrometer

Answer: B — Pyrometer / Thermocouple

Pyrometers monitor combustion quality and load distribution across cylinders.

22. What is the purpose of a crankcase explosion relief valve on a marine engine?

A. Vent oil vapor continuously to deck
B. Relieve internal crankcase overpressure safely and prevent flame return into engine room
C. Allow inspection of main bearings
D. Drain waste oil to bilge

Answer: B — Relieve internal crankcase overpressure safely and prevent flame return into engine room

Relief valves release pressure during oil mist ignition and seal shut to stop air ingress.

23. What component removes solid impurities and water from heavy fuel oil before combustion?

A. Fuel heater
B. Viscosimeter
C. Duplex mesh strainer
D. Centrifugal Fuel Purifier / Separator

Answer: D — Centrifugal Fuel Purifier / Separator

Centrifugal purifiers spin at high speed to separate water and heavy solids from HFO.

24. What is the function of the main engine thrust block?

A. Prevent propeller shaft rotation
B. Transfer propeller axial thrust force from the shafting to the ship's hull structure
C. Cool stern tube bearings
D. Support generator weight

Answer: B — Transfer propeller axial thrust force from the shafting to the ship's hull structure

Thrust blocks absorb forward/astern propeller thrust and push the vessel's hull.

25. Why is jacket cooling water kept treated with chemical inhibitors in marine diesel engines?

A. Lubricate water pump impellers
B. Reduce water density
C. Prevent corrosion, cavitation, and scale formation inside cooling water passages
D. Increase water boiling point to 300°C

Answer: C — Prevent corrosion, cavitation, and scale formation inside cooling water passages

Chemical treatment prevents liner pitting, scale buildup, and heat transfer degradation.

26. What is the function of the economizer fitted in a ship's main engine exhaust boiler system?

A. Increase turbocharger speed
B. Burn HFO waste sludges
C. Generate auxiliary steam by absorbing waste heat from engine exhaust gases
D. Cool exhaust gas before stack discharge

Answer: C — Generate auxiliary steam by absorbing waste heat from engine exhaust gases

Economizers recover waste heat from exhaust gases to generate service steam at sea.

27. What safety device prevents starting air from entering an engine cylinder when the piston is in motion?

A. Cylinder relief valve
B. Fuel injector needle
C. Starting air distributor / control valve
D. Exhaust valve rotator

Answer: C — Starting air distributor / control valve

Air distributors time air delivery strictly during the starting stroke sequence.

28. What is the function of an oily water separator (OWS) bilge alarm (15 ppm monitor)?

A. Measure fuel viscosity
B. Check bilge well level
C. Continuously monitor discharge water purity and stop overboard valve if oil exceeds 15 ppm
D. Pump bilge water out faster

Answer: C — Continuously monitor discharge water purity and stop overboard valve if oil exceeds 15 ppm

The 15 ppm monitor ensures compliance with MARPOL Annex I by auto-stopping illegal discharge.

29. What causes thermal surging in a marine engine turbocharger?

A. Excessive cooling water temperature
B. High fuel viscosity
C. Low engine lube oil pressure
D. Breakdown of smooth airflow through compressor due to sudden engine load changes or fouled grid

Answer: D — Breakdown of smooth airflow through compressor due to sudden engine load changes or fouled grid

Surging occurs when compressor backpressure exceeds aerodynamic delivery pressure.

30. What is the main advantage of using a variable pitch propeller (CPP) on merchant vessels?

A. Allows continuous engine operation at optimal RPM while controlling vessel speed via blade pitch
B. Requires no hydraulic oil
C. Reduces hull resistance to zero
D. Eliminates need for stern tube bearings

Answer: A — Allows continuous engine operation at optimal RPM while controlling vessel speed via blade pitch

CPP allows rapid maneuvering without reversing main engine rotation direction.

Set 2 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. What type of valve is installed on cylinder heads to protect against excessive combustion pressure?

A. Starting air valve
B. Fuel injection valve
C. Cylinder Safety Relief Valve
D. Indicator cock

Answer: C — Cylinder Safety Relief Valve

Relief valves lift automatically if cylinder firing pressure exceeds safe limits.

2. What is the primary function of the stern tube seal assembly?

A. Measure shaft RPM
B. Cool the propeller shaft tail
C. Support propeller weight only
D. Prevent seawater from entering the engine room and prevent lube oil from leaking into sea

Answer: D — Prevent seawater from entering the engine room and prevent lube oil from leaking into sea

Stern tube seals maintain watertight integrity around the rotating shafting.

3. Why must auxiliary diesel engines be warmed up before applying heavy electrical load?

A. To increase generator frequency to 100 Hz
B. To ensure uniform thermal expansion of engine components and proper lube oil circulation
C. To burn off carbon in exhaust pipe
D. To test overspeed governor

Answer: B — To ensure uniform thermal expansion of engine components and proper lube oil circulation

Warming up prevents thermal stress, piston scuffing, and bearing damage.

4. What is the purpose of an air compressor intercooler?

A. Increase air pressure directly
B. Lubricate compressor valves
C. Cool compressed air between stages to reduce volume, increase air density, and remove moisture
D. Heat air before entering receiver

Answer: C — Cool compressed air between stages to reduce volume, increase air density, and remove moisture

Intercooling improves volumetric efficiency and prevents moisture carryover to air bottles.

5. What condition causes high exhaust gas temperature across all cylinders of a diesel engine?

A. High cooling water temperature
B. Engine overload, fouled turbocharger compressor/turbine, or restricted air intake filter
C. Excessive lube oil level
D. Low fuel temperature

Answer: B — Engine overload, fouled turbocharger compressor/turbine, or restricted air intake filter

Air starvation or thermal overload increases exhaust temperatures uniformly.

6. What is the function of a governor on a marine diesel engine?

A. Control cooling water valve
B. Regulate lube oil pressure
C. Start the engine on air
D. Automatically adjust fuel rack position to maintain set engine speed under varying loads

Answer: D — Automatically adjust fuel rack position to maintain set engine speed under varying loads

Governors maintain speed stability and prevent overspeeding in rough seas.

7. What is the function of an indicator cock fitted on a engine cylinder head?

A. Vent air from cooling jacket
B. Sample exhaust gases
C. Inject fuel into cylinder
D. Allow attachment of engine indicator gear to measure cylinder pressure diagrams and blow out water

Answer: D — Allow attachment of engine indicator gear to measure cylinder pressure diagrams and blow out water

Indicator cocks allow taking combustion cards and venting moisture prior to engine start.

8. What type of pump is self-priming and commonly used for positive displacement lube oil transfer?

A. Centrifugal Pump
B. Ejector Pump
C. Gear Pump or Screw Pump
D. Axial Flow Pump

Answer: C — Gear Pump or Screw Pump

Positive displacement gear/screw pumps generate suction lift without external priming.

9. What is cavitation in a centrifugal pump and how does it affect performance?

A. Overheating of electric motor bearings
B. High pressure at suction flange
C. Air trapped in discharge pipe
D. Formation and collapse of vapor bubbles near impeller causing noise, vibration, and metal erosion

Answer: D — Formation and collapse of vapor bubbles near impeller causing noise, vibration, and metal erosion

Cavitation occurs when fluid pressure drops below vapor pressure, eroding impeller blades.

10. What is the function of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) on a marine alternator?

A. Control engine governor speed
B. Maintain constant generator terminal voltage despite changes in electrical load
C. Trip main circuit breaker
D. Synchronize frequency

Answer: B — Maintain constant generator terminal voltage despite changes in electrical load

AVR adjusts alternator field excitation current to keep output voltage steady.

11. What safety precaution must be taken before opening an engine crankcase after a hot spot alarm?

A. Open doors immediately to vent smoke
B. Spray cold water inside crankcase
C. Start lube oil pump at max pressure
D. Wait at least 30 minutes to allow hot spots to cool down before opening doors

Answer: D — Wait at least 30 minutes to allow hot spots to cool down before opening doors

Opening crankcase doors immediately introduces oxygen, triggering explosive oil mist ignition.

12. What is the purpose of thermostatic control valves in engine cooling water systems?

A. Shut off water when engine stops
B. Increase pump discharge pressure
C. Maintain constant engine cooling water temperature by modulating bypass flow to heat exchanger
D. Filter dirt from fresh water

Answer: C — Maintain constant engine cooling water temperature by modulating bypass flow to heat exchanger

Thermostatic valves regulate coolant temperature for optimal engine thermal balance.

13. What is the function of a emergency generator automatic main failure (AMF) panel?

A. Supply power to main engine lube pump
B. Step down voltage from 440V to 220V
C. Charge radio batteries only
D. Detect loss of main switchboard power and auto-start the emergency generator within 45 seconds

Answer: D — Detect loss of main switchboard power and auto-start the emergency generator within 45 seconds

AMF panels restore essential lighting and safety loads during blackouts.

14. Which of this is not a moving part of a diesel engine

A. piston
B. crankshaft
C. connecting rod
D. crankcase

Answer: D — crankcase

The crankcase is the housing for the crankshaft and part of the engine block; it is a stationary component. The piston, crankshaft, and connecting rod are all essential moving parts within the diesel engine's power cycle.

15. Generator engine on board ship is started using

A. hydraulic oil motors/pressure
B. compressed air
C. air compressor
D. turbo generator

Answer: B — compressed air

Generator engines on ships are typically started using compressed air stored in receiver tanks, which engages the engine's starting mechanism. Hydraulic systems or air compressors are used to supply this air, but the immediate starting medium is the compressed air itself.

16. Purpose of fresh water circulation through diesel engine cylinder is to

A. prevent corrosion
B. remove heat of combustion
C. clean exhaust gases
D. lubricate moving part

Answer: B — remove heat of combustion

The primary purpose of circulating fresh water through a diesel engine's cooling system is to absorb and remove the immense heat generated by combustion, thereby maintaining optimal operating temperatures. It does not primarily prevent corrosion or clean exhaust gases.

17. Turning gear on main engine is provided for

A. remove exhaus gases from cylinder
B. turning the engine during overhaul
C. releasing parts if jammed
D. ensure turning of propeller

Answer: B — turning the engine during overhaul

The turning gear is provided on the main engine to allow slow rotation of the crankshaft during maintenance, overhaul, or pre-starting checks. This ensures even cooling, allows access to components, and prevents seizure.

18. Exhaust gas economiser produces

A. steam
B. fresh water
C. inert gas
D. electricity

Answer: A — steam

An exhaust gas economizer is a heat exchanger that recovers waste heat from the exhaust gases of the main engine or auxiliary boilers to generate steam or preheat feedwater. It is not involved in producing fresh water, inert gas, or electricity directly.

19. Turbo chargers on diesel engine

A. increases pressure of intake air
B. acts as fuel charger
C. increases RPM
D. decreases the pressure of intake air

Answer: A — increases pressure of intake air

Turbochargers are used to increase the power output of diesel engines by compressing and forcing more intake air into the cylinders. This results in higher volumetric efficiency and improved combustion, not a decrease in air pressure.

20. Exhaust gases from the main engine go to the atmosphere through

A. oil fired boiler
B. inert gasgenerator
C. exhaust fan
D. exhaust gas boiler

Answer: D — exhaust gas boiler

Exhaust gases from the main engine, after potentially passing through an exhaust gas boiler (economizer) for heat recovery, are released to the atmosphere through the ship's exhaust uptake or funnel. An inert gas generator or exhaust fan serves different purposes.

21. Relief valves are provided on main engine cylinders for protection against high

A. level of water
B. pressure
C. exhaust temperature
D. speed

Answer: B — pressure

Cylinder head relief valves are safety devices designed to protect the engine from potentially catastrophic over-pressurization within the combustion chamber. This can occur due to excessive fuel injection or other abnormal combustion events, not high exhaust temperature or speed.

22. Function of a cylinder head relief valve is to

A. reduce the speed of engine
B. prevent crankcase explosion
C. stop the engine
D. release excessive pressure

Answer: D — release excessive pressure

A cylinder head relief valve is a safety device that opens automatically to release excessive pressure from within the cylinder during operation. This prevents damage to the engine components and potential hazards from over-pressurization.

23. Function of crankcase relief door is to

A. detect the mist inside the crankcase
B. release pressure from crankcase
C. stop the engine
D. reduce the speed of engine

Answer: B — release pressure from crankcase

Crankcase relief doors are designed as safety vents to rapidly release any abnormal pressure build-up within the crankcase, which can be caused by a crankcase explosion. This prevents damage to the engine casing and potential injury.

24. If cooling water becomes less in a diesel engine the engine will

A. not start
B. cool down too much
C. make more noise
D. get overheated

Answer: D — get overheated

Insufficient cooling water in a diesel engine leads to inadequate heat removal from the combustion process, causing the engine's temperature to rise beyond its safe operating limits, resulting in overheating. Proper cooling is essential for engine longevity and performance.

25. Diesel engine bearing will get damaged if supply of ___________ is not enough

A. lubricating oil
B. fuel
C. air
D. water

Answer: A — lubricating oil

Bearings in a diesel engine rely on a continuous supply of lubricating oil to create a film that separates moving surfaces, reducing friction and wear. A lack of lubricating oil will lead to metal-to-metal contact, overheating, and eventual bearing seizure or damage.

26. Speed of diesel engine is adjusted by changing the supply of

A. lubricating oil
B. air
C. fuel
D. water

Answer: C — fuel

The speed of a diesel engine is primarily regulated by controlling the amount of fuel injected into the cylinders. Increasing fuel supply increases power and speed, while decreasing it reduces them. Air supply is also important but fuel is the primary control.

27. While diesel engine is operating ,one of the important pressure to check is ______

A. steam pressure
B. exhaust gas
C. lubricating oil
D. sarting air

Answer: C — lubricating oil

While checking various parameters is important, the lubricating oil pressure is a critical indicator of proper lubrication, essential for preventing engine damage. Low oil pressure signals a potential problem with the lubrication system and requires immediate attention.

28. One of the function of lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce

A. weight of the engine
B. wexhaust gases
C. friction between moving parts
D. exhaust temperatures

Answer: C — friction between moving parts

The primary function of lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce friction between moving parts, thereby minimizing wear and heat generation. It also provides cooling and sealing, but friction reduction is its most crucial role.

29. Function of crankcase lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to ____

A. prevent corrosion
B. supply power
C. improve combustion
D. turn crankshaft

Answer: A — prevent corrosion

Lubricating oil within the crankcase serves multiple purposes, including lubricating the crankshaft and connecting rod bearings, cooling these components, and preventing rust and corrosion on internal surfaces. It does not directly improve combustion or supply power.

30. The lower most ring on a diesel engine piston is called

A. oil scraper ring
B. compression ring
C. pressure ring
D. split ring

Answer: A — oil scraper ring

The bottom-most ring on a piston, typically featuring a tapered or spring-loaded design, is the oil scraper ring. Its function is to scrape excess lubricating oil from the cylinder walls during the piston's downstroke, preventing it from entering the combustion chamber.

Set 3 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. For good combustion, the color of the exhaust from diesel engine should be

A. bluish white
B. light brown
C. colourless
D. light grey

Answer: C — colourless

For efficient combustion in a diesel engine, the exhaust gases should be colourless, indicating complete burning of the fuel. Any discolouration, such as black, blue, or white smoke, signifies incomplete combustion or other issues needing attention.

2. Ships propeller is fitted to

A. intermediate shaft
B. stern tube
C. crankshaft
D. tail shaft

Answer: D — tail shaft

The ship's propeller, which provides propulsion by converting engine power into thrust, is directly attached to the end of the tail shaft. This shaft extends from the gearbox or engine through the stern tube to the propeller.

3. The type of engine normally used for generators on a ship is ____________

A. 4 stroke
B. 6 stroke
C. 2 stroke
D. medium stroke

Answer: A — 4 stroke

Four-stroke engines are generally preferred for ship generators due to their better fuel efficiency, smoother operation, and lower emissions compared to two-stroke engines, which are typically used for main propulsion in larger vessels.

4. When starting engine on diesel oil, before injection the oil is

A. heated to same temp s heavy oil
B. passed through the purifier
C. heated if necessary in cold climate
D. mixed with steam

Answer: C — heated if necessary in cold climate

Diesel oil, used for generators and smaller engines, has a lower ignition point than heavy fuel oil and typically does not require significant heating for injection. It may require warming in very cold climates, but not to the extent of HFO, nor is it typically mixed with steam.

5. A cam shaft on diesel engine operates

A. starting valves
B. fuel valves
C. flywheel
D. fuel injection pump

Answer: D — fuel injection pump

The camshaft, driven by the engine's timing gears or chain, has lobes that push open the valves. It directly operates the fuel injection pumps in many diesel engine designs, ensuring precise fuel delivery timing.

6. Thrust block for main engine is fitted at the

A. tail shaft
B. aft side of engine
C. forward side of engine
D. end of the cam shaft

Answer: B — aft side of engine

The thrust block is a specialized bearing designed to absorb the significant axial thrust generated by the propeller and transmitted through the propeller shaft. It is fitted at the aft end of the engine, in line with the shafting, to transfer this force to the ship's structure.

7. The purpose of Injector valve on a generator engine is for _____

A. Fresh air intake
B. Safety
C. Compress air
D. Fuel inlet

Answer: D — Fuel inlet

The injector valve, also known as a fuel injector, is responsible for injecting a precisely metered amount of fuel into the engine cylinder at the correct time and pressure for combustion. Its primary role is fuel delivery, not safety or air intake.

8. Exhaust valve in a Diesel engine ______

A. Rotates in place
B. Stays in place
C. Moves up and down
D. Opens and closes

Answer: D — Opens and closes

The exhaust valve in a diesel engine is a critical component that opens to allow burned exhaust gases to exit the cylinder and closes to seal the combustion chamber during the compression and power strokes. Thus, it must open and close cyclically.

9. Piston in a Diesel engine _______

A. Oscillates
B. Moves up and down
C. Rotates in place
D. Stays in place

Answer: B — Moves up and down

In a diesel engine's operational cycle, the piston is designed to reciprocate, meaning it moves linearly up and down within the cylinder. This reciprocating motion is fundamental to converting the energy from fuel combustion into rotational mechanical work via the crankshaft.

10. The purpose of Exhaust Gas in a Diesel engine is to ___

A. Turns turbo charger
B. Reduces friction
C. Gives power
D. Increases air supply

Answer: A — Turns turbo charger

The primary purpose of the exhaust gases, which are at high temperature and pressure, is to drive the turbine wheel of the turbocharger. This rotation then powers the compressor, which forces more air into the cylinders, thereby increasing engine power and efficiency.

11. What is to be checked on a running Main engine , during watch.

A. Oil coming out of water side
B. Steering angle
C. Exhaust temperature
D. Discharge pressure of liquid

Answer: C — Exhaust temperature

During a watch, monitoring the exhaust temperature of the main engine is crucial. Abnormal fluctuations can indicate potential issues like cylinder imbalance, cooling problems, or combustion irregularities, allowing for early intervention.

12. Air starting valve in a Diesel engine _____

A. Moves from side to side
B. Oscillates
C. Opens only at engine starting
D. Moves up and down

Answer: C — Opens only at engine starting

The air starting valve in a diesel engine is designed to operate intermittently. It opens only during the starting sequence to admit compressed air into the cylinders, initiating rotation; it remains closed during normal operation.

13. The purpose of Indicator valve on a generator engine is for _________

A. Compressed air
B. Blowing through
C. Fuel inlet
D. Fresh air intake

Answer: B — Blowing through

The indicator valve on a diesel engine serves as a port to connect a pressure indicator or to release compressed air during the 'blowing through' phase before starting. This allows for clearing residual gases or checking cylinder compression.

14. Which of these is NOT a moving part of a diesel engine:

A. Piston
B. Crankcase
C. Connecting rod
D. Crankshaft

Answer: B — Crankcase

The crankcase forms the main body of the engine housing but is typically stationary. The connecting rod, piston, and crankshaft are all essential moving components that translate combustion forces into rotational motion.

15. Cylinder Head in a Diesel engine ____

A. Stays in place
B. Rotates in place
C. Moves up and down
D. Oscillates

Answer: A — Stays in place

The cylinder head is a fixed component that seals the top of the engine cylinder. It houses the valves and injectors and remains stationary during the engine's operation.

16. The purpose of Inlet valve on a generator engine is for ________

A. Compress air
B. Fresh air intake
C. Safety
D. Fuel inlet

Answer: B — Fresh air intake

The purpose of the inlet valve on a generator engine is to allow the intake of the fresh air-fuel mixture into the cylinder for combustion. This process is critical for the engine's power generation cycle.

17. The purpose of Exhaust valve on a generator engine is for _________

A. Fuel inlet
B. Combustion Gases
C. Stop fuel
D. Fresh air intake

Answer: B — Combustion Gases

The exhaust valve on a generator engine opens to allow the expulsion of burnt combustion gases from the cylinder. This clears the cylinder, preparing it for the next intake stroke.

18. Before starting a generator engine, LO hand pump should be operated to

A. Turn the engine
B. Warm up the engine
C. Supply lub oil to moving parts
D. Check the level of the tank

Answer: C — Supply lub oil to moving parts

Operating the LO hand pump before starting a generator engine ensures that lubrication oil is distributed to critical moving parts. This pre-lubrication is vital to minimize wear and prevent damage during the initial start-up phase.

19. Connecting rod in a Diesel engine ___________.

A. Moves up and down
B. Oscillates
C. Rotates in place
D. Stays in place

Answer: B — Oscillates

The connecting rod in a diesel engine undergoes an oscillating motion. It links the reciprocating piston to the rotating crankshaft, converting the linear movement into rotational movement.

20. The purpose of Fuel Oil in a Diesel engine is to _____

A. Causes explosion
B. Reduces friction
C. Turns turbo charger
D. Gives power

Answer: D — Gives power

The primary function of fuel oil in a diesel engine is to provide the energy for combustion. When ignited under pressure, it releases chemical energy, which is converted into mechanical power to drive the engine.

21. The purpose of Lubricating Oil in a Diesel engine is to _______

A. Gives power
B. Turns turbo charger
C. Increases air supply
D. Reduces friction

Answer: D — Reduces friction

Lubricating oil plays a crucial role in a diesel engine by reducing friction between moving parts. This minimizes wear, dissipates heat, and prevents seizing, thereby ensuring efficient and prolonged engine operation.

22. Crankshaft in a Diesel engine _______

A. Rotates in place
B. Moves up and down
C. Stays in place
D. Oscillates

Answer: A — Rotates in place

The crankshaft in a diesel engine is designed to rotate continuously. It converts the reciprocating motion of the pistons, transmitted through the connecting rods, into the rotational force needed to drive the propeller shaft.

23. The purpose of "COMPRESSED AIR" in a diesel engine is to_________

A. Starts Engine
B. Controls fuel Supply
C. Gives Power
D. Turns turbo Charger

Answer: A — Starts Engine

Compressed air is used in diesel engines primarily for starting the engine. It is injected into the cylinders at high pressure to initiate the crankshaft's rotation, allowing the combustion cycle to begin.

24. Generator engine on board ships is started using

A. Compressed air
B. Turbo generator
C. Hydraulic Oil Motors / Pressure
D. Air compressor

Answer: A — Compressed air

Generator engines on ships are typically started using a compressed air system. A dedicated starting air receiver stores air under pressure, which is then admitted to the cylinders to turn the engine over.

25. Function of crankcase lubricating oil in a diesel engine is to reduce friction between moving parts, cooling the parts and to _______________

A. Improve combustion
B. Prevent corrosion
C. Supply power
D. Turn the crankshaft

Answer: B — Prevent corrosion

Besides reducing friction and cooling, lubricating oil in the crankcase also serves to prevent corrosion on internal engine components. It forms a protective film that inhibits rust and oxidation, especially during periods of inactivity.

26. The purpose of Turbocharger in a Diesel engine is to _________

A. Reduces friction
B. Turns turbo charger
C. Increase air supply
D. Gives power

Answer: C — Increase air supply

The primary function of a turbocharger in a diesel engine is to increase the volume of air supplied to the cylinders. By using exhaust gas energy to drive a compressor, it forces more air into the combustion chamber, enhancing power output and efficiency.

27. Why diesel engine generator does not have a reversing mechanism

A. Running reverse its phase sequence will change
B. Running reverse it consumes power instead of producing power
C. Running reverse it produces DC instead of AC
D. Running reverse does not produce power

Answer: B — Running reverse it consumes power instead of producing power

Diesel engine generators are not designed with reversing mechanisms because they are coupled to alternators which produce AC power. Running a generator in reverse would cause it to consume electrical power rather than produce it, and it would likely disrupt the ship's electrical grid synchronization.

28. Which system is not required for main engine

A. Fuel system
B. Feed system
C. Cooling system
D. Lubricating system

Answer: B — Feed system

A feed system is primarily associated with steam boilers, providing water for steam generation. Main engines on a ship, whether diesel or turbine, do not require a boiler feed system for their direct operation.

29. Steam turbine driven generator is called

A. Turbo alternator
B. Shaft generator
C. Alternator
D. Generator

Answer: A — Turbo alternator

A turbo alternator is specifically defined as a generator driven by a steam turbine, which is typically powered by steam produced from the exhaust gas economizer or a fired boiler.

30. Main engine is part of _________ system

A. feed water
B. Electricity generation
C. Propulsion
D. Bilge

Answer: C — Propulsion

The main engine is the prime mover dedicated to generating thrust, making it the core component of the ship's propulsion system.

Set 4 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Making Axial hole in a Round bar.

A. Lathe machine
B. Drill machine
C. Bending machine
D. Grinding machine

Answer: A — Lathe machine

A lathe machine is used for axial drilling, boring, and turning operations on round bars. It precisely rotates the workpiece while a cutting tool moves axially or radially to create the desired hole or shape, ensuring accuracy and a smooth finish.

2. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Cutting a joint.

A. Bending machine
B. Scissors
C. Lathe machine
D. Drill machine

Answer: B — Scissors

A 'joint' (gasket) is cut from sheet jointing material with scissors/shears; lathe, drill and bending machine are not used for this.

3. What machine will you use for cutting a large plate

A. Grinding Machine
B. Welding Machine
C. Gas Cutting Machine
D. Drill Machine

Answer: C — Gas Cutting Machine

A gas cutting machine, such as an oxy-acetylene cutter, is specifically designed for thermally cutting thick metal plates by using a high-pressure oxygen jet. This method is efficient for severing large sections of steel, unlike drilling or grinding.

4. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Joining two plates.

A. Drill machine
B. Grinding machine
C. Lathe machine
D. Welding machine

Answer: D — Welding machine

A welding machine is the primary tool used to join two metal plates by melting the edges and fusing them together, often with the addition of filler material. This creates a strong, permanent bond essential for structural integrity.

5. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Making holes in a plate

A. Drill machine
B. Bending machine
C. Grinding machine
D. Lathe machine

Answer: A — Drill machine

A drill machine is used to create holes in a plate or other materials. It utilizes a rotating cutting tool (drill bit) to remove material, allowing for the insertion of fasteners or for creating passages.

6. To make a new flange for a pipe you will need:

A. Lathe machine and drilling machine
B. Grinding machine, drilling machine and pipe cutter
C. Chisel, hammer and drilling machine
D. Welding machine and milling machine

Answer: A — Lathe machine and drilling machine

To fabricate a new flange for a pipe, a lathe machine is essential for shaping the basic cylindrical form and creating precise mounting surfaces. A drilling machine is then used to accurately create the bolt holes required for connection.

7. Which of these is NOT a part of a lathe

A. Chuck
B. Head stock
C. Anvil
D. Tool post

Answer: C — Anvil

An anvil is a heavy metal block used as a surface for forging and hammering metal, and is typically found in a blacksmith's workshop, not a lathe. The headstock, tool post, and chuck are integral parts of a lathe machine's operation.

8. What Machine Tool will you be Using for Removing extra material after welding

A. Bending machine
B. Lathe machine
C. Grinding machine
D. Drill machine

Answer: C — Grinding machine

A grinding machine is used for finishing surfaces and removing excess material, particularly after welding. It employs abrasive wheels to precisely remove weld spatter, smooth out rough joints, or achieve a desired surface finish.

9. During lathe work, goggles protect our eyes from _______

A. Heat
B. Flash Light
C. Metal chips
D. Fumes

Answer: C — Metal chips

During lathe operations, metal is removed in the form of chips or swarf. Goggles are essential personal protective equipment (PPE) to shield the eyes from these flying metal fragments, preventing serious injury.

10. Danger for lifting heavy equipment manually is _________

A. fall
B. slip
C. sprain
D. fracture

Answer: C — sprain

Manually lifting heavy equipment can lead to musculoskeletal injuries such as sprains and strains due to improper lifting techniques or exceeding physical capacity. While fractures are possible with severe accidents, sprains are more common direct consequences of manual lifting.

11. DO'S on Machine safety...Mark the incorrect one

A. Keep machine clean and in good condition
B. Check wheel rotation after running of machine
C. Switch off machine immediately if anything goes wrong
D. Check oil levels of machine before starting

Answer: B — Check wheel rotation after running of machine

Checking wheel rotation after a machine has been running is not a standard safety 'do'. It implies touching a potentially moving or hot wheel. All other options are valid safety precautions to ensure the machine operates correctly and safely.

12. DONT'S in the workshop...Mark the incorrect one

A. Do not touch any equipment unless authorised to do so
B. Do not run in the workshop
C. Do not throw things or play practical jokes
D. Do leave your machine unattended

Answer: D — Do leave your machine unattended

Leaving a machine unattended while it is running is a significant safety hazard and is strictly prohibited in any workshop environment. It increases the risk of accidents, damage, or unauthorized operation.

13. When starting to weld you must hold the electrode at an angle of about?

A. 70°
B. 90°
C. 50°
D. 30°

Answer: A — 70°

An electrode angle of approximately 70° relative to the direction of travel is standard practice to ensure good arc control, weld penetration, and slag management.

14. Oxygen and ______ is used in gas welding on board

A. Acetylene
B. LPG
C. Argon
D. Nitrogen

Answer: A — Acetylene

Oxy-acetylene welding is the standard gas welding method used on ships. Acetylene provides the high-temperature flame necessary to melt steel effectively when mixed with oxygen.

15. Before starting arc welding you must:

A. Connect the welding cable to the earth clamp
B. Extend the welding cables
C. Connect the earth Clamp to the work piece
D. Connect the electrode holder to the earth clamp

Answer: C — Connect the earth Clamp to the work piece

For a safe arc, the earth clamp must be securely connected directly to the workpiece to ensure the electrical circuit is complete and to prevent stray current arcs.

16. Gases used in gas welding are

A. CO2 and LPG
B. Acetylene and LPG
C. Acetylene and oxygen
D. Oxygen and LPG

Answer: C — Acetylene and oxygen

Gas welding relies on the combustion of oxygen and acetylene, which produces a flame with a temperature high enough to weld steel parts effectively.

17. The welding arc length should be:

A. Equal to the diameter of the electrode
B. Less than the diameter of the electrode
C. 6-12mm
D. 20mm

Answer: A — Equal to the diameter of the electrode

For stable arc welding, the arc length should be maintained roughly equal to the diameter of the electrode core wire to prevent arc instability or poor fusion.

18. Too long an arc will cause

A. Low penetration coarse splatter & flat bead
B. Even bead & good penetration & good welding
C. This is bulb up the weld pool
D. Uncontrolled penetration slag globules electrode stuck to weld

Answer: A — Low penetration coarse splatter & flat bead

An excessively long arc results in increased voltage, leading to low penetration, unstable arc characteristics, and significant coarse splatter. The instability often produces a flat, uneven weld bead because the heat is not sufficiently concentrated to fuse the base metal effectively.

19. Too short an arc length will cause an uneven bead due to arc failure

A. None of the above
B. Flat bead
C. Low penetration coarse splatter
D. Good welding

Answer: A — None of the above

A short arc length is preferred for stability and control. The provided options for this specific question imply that none of the listed consequences (low penetration or flat bead) are inherent to a short arc, as a short arc generally provides better control and deeper penetration if maintained correctly.

20. Electrode should be kept at a distance of ________ above the spot where we wish to strike the arc

A. 20-30 mm
B. 30-40 mm
C. 35-45 mm
D. 40-50 mm

Answer: A — 20-30 mm

When preparing to strike an arc, the electrode tip should be positioned approximately 20-30 mm above the intended starting point. This distance allows the welder to stabilize their position and prepare for the initial strike while minimizing the risk of accidental arcing or sticking.

21. Welding gloves made from tanned leather can be following combinations

A. 1-finger and 2-finger type
B. 4-finger and 6-finger type
C. 2-finger and 4-finger type
D. 3-finger and 5-finger type

Answer: D — 3-finger and 5-finger type

Welding gloves used in manual metal arc welding are designed for dexterity and protection, commonly available in 3-finger and 5-finger configurations. These provide the necessary heat resistance and allow for the specific grip required for electrode holders.

22. The level measuring device, Gauge glass & can be used for

A. Oil can
B. Multi Purpose
C. Tanks of Small depths
D. Tanks of large depth

Answer: C — Tanks of Small depths

Gauge glasses utilize the principle of communicating vessels to indicate liquid levels. Due to their physical size and the potential for glass breakage under hydrostatic pressure, they are generally restricted to small, shallow tanks or auxiliary equipment.

23. The level measuring device, Level Indicator can be used for

A. Oil level in generator crankcase
B. Small to large tanks within the engine room
C. Sumps of purifiers, compressors, etc
D. Oil can

Answer: C — Sumps of purifiers, compressors, etc

Level indicators in this context are typically sight glasses or float-type local indicators used for small, localized machinery sumps. These allow for quick visual checks of oil levels in equipment like purifiers and compressors.

24. The level measuring device, Sounding tape can be used for

A. Oil can
B. Multi Purpose
C. Tanks of large depth
D. Oil level in generator crankcase

Answer: C — Tanks of large depth

A sounding tape is a flexible, calibrated steel tape with a weighted plummet. It is the industry standard for measuring liquid depths in large-capacity storage tanks, such as double-bottom or deep tanks, where accuracy over a long vertical distance is required.

25. The level measuring device, Remote level indicators can be used for

A. Multi Purpose
B. Oil can
C. Oil level in generator crankcase
D. Tanks of large depth

Answer: A — Multi Purpose

Remote level indicators utilize various technologies (ultrasonic, hydrostatic, or radar) to transmit data to a central control station. Their versatility allows them to be used across a multi-purpose range of tank types and depths throughout the ship.

26. A sounding tape is used for measuring level of a liquid in a:

A. Tank
B. Boiler
C. Crank case
D. Cylinder

Answer: A — Tank

A sounding tape is a specialized measuring tool consisting of a graduated tape and a heavy bob. It is used specifically to measure the liquid level or ullage in ships' tanks to ensure compliance with loading and stability requirements.

27. A gauge-glass for checking liquid level is fitted on which tanks

A. Lub Oil Storage Tank
B. FO Storage Double Bottom Tank
C. Fore Peak Ballast Tank
D. After Peak Ballast Tank

Answer: A — Lub Oil Storage Tank

Gauge glasses are frequently installed on lubricating oil storage tanks in the engine room for convenient visual monitoring. Ballast and fuel tanks typically use sounding pipes or remote sensors to avoid the risk of oil or water leakage associated with glass tubes.

28. A dip stick is used for checking level of oil in a

A. Filter
B. Tank
C. Crank case
D. Cylinder

Answer: C — Crank case

A dipstick is a simple rod used to check the oil level directly within a machinery crankcase. It works by showing the oil level against marked graduation lines, providing a quick and reliable reading for reciprocating machinery.

29. The level measuring device, Dip stick can be used for

A. Tanks of large depth
B. Oil level in generator crankcase
C. Oil can
D. Multi Purpose

Answer: B — Oil level in generator crankcase

Dipsticks are specifically designed for small volumes and enclosed spaces like machinery crankcases. They provide a direct, tactile method for checking oil levels to ensure proper lubrication before and during machinery operation.

30. The most common item provided for checking oil level in a small machine is

A. Sounding rod
B. Remote level indicator
C. Sight glass
D. Sounding tape

Answer: C — Sight glass

A sight glass is a transparent tube or window attached to the side of a small machine or reservoir. It allows the operator to see the oil level instantly without opening the system, making it the most common and convenient indicator for small equipment.

Set 5 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. What material is not a commonly used as insulation material?

A. Wood
B. Plastic
C. Fire Bricks
D. Glass Wool

Answer: B — Plastic

Plastic is a poor insulation material for high-temperature maritime applications and can melt or release toxic fumes if exposed to heat. Materials like glass wool and fire bricks are standard for their thermal resistance and safety properties.

2. What is used to prevent the transfer of heat from pipes or equipment?

A. Cooling system
B. Insulating material
C. Air circulation
D. Turbo charger

Answer: B — Insulating material

Insulating materials are substances with low thermal conductivity used to reduce the rate of heat transfer. They are essential on ships to keep heat within pipes and equipment, thereby improving thermal efficiency and preventing personnel burns.

3. What is the common name for item used for preventing the loss of heat from pipes or equipment?

A. Exhaust boiler
B. Air circulation
C. Lagging
D. Cooling system

Answer: C — Lagging

Lagging is the maritime term for the thermal insulation applied to pipes, boilers, and machinery. It serves the primary purpose of heat conservation and personnel protection by reducing surface temperatures to safe limits.

4. What materials are banned for use as insulation materials?

A. Thermocole
B. Asbestos
C. Fiberglass Wool
D. Fire Bricks

Answer: B — Asbestos

Asbestos is a hazardous material known to cause severe respiratory illnesses and cancer. It is strictly prohibited under SOLAS regulations in the construction and maintenance of modern ships; non-hazardous alternatives must be used.

5. Electrical Insulation prevent flow of ......

A. Electricity
B. Voltage
C. Resistance
D. Power

Answer: A — Electricity

Electrical insulation refers to materials used to wrap conductors to prevent the flow of electricity to unwanted paths. This prevents short circuits, equipment damage, and electrical shocks to personnel.

6. Chemicals should be stored in _______

A. on deck
B. in engine room
C. in separate well ventilated store
D. in accommodation

Answer: C — in separate well ventilated store

Chemicals must be stored in a dedicated, well-ventilated storeroom to prevent the accumulation of hazardous vapors and to ensure safety. Storing them in accommodation or the engine room poses significant health and fire risks.

7. If any chemical fall on the body, first action should be

A. thoroughly wash affected area
B. call for the doctor
C. apply medicine to affected area
D. wipe clean the affected area

Answer: A — thoroughly wash affected area

In the event of chemical contact, immediate flushing with large quantities of clean, fresh water is the universal first-aid procedure. This dilutes and removes the chemical agent, minimizing potential chemical burns.

8. Chemicals on-board are not to be used for

A. cleaning the cooking utensils
B. boiler water treatment
C. fuel oil treatment
D. cleaning the boiler

Answer: A — cleaning the cooking utensils

Chemicals used for industrial applications, such as boiler water treatment or fuel oil treatment, are often toxic and hazardous. They must never be used for any domestic purposes, such as cleaning cooking utensils, due to the risk of poisoning.

9. Disposal of used/expired chemical container should be done by

A. throwin into deep sea
B. burning in incinerator
C. disposal with ships garbage
D. disposal as per makers instruction

Answer: D — disposal as per makers instruction

Used or expired chemical containers must be disposed of strictly according to the manufacturer's Safety Data Sheet (SDS) and the ship's Garbage Management Plan. This ensures environmental compliance and avoids safety hazards.

10. Chemicals are mainly used for

A. All of the above
B. Testing quality of water
C. Boilers
D. Fuel treatment

Answer: A — All of the above

Chemicals on board are essential for maintaining the integrity of mechanical systems. This includes fuel oil treatment, boiler water quality monitoring, and cooling water maintenance, all of which are crucial for reliable ship operation.

11. Use of personal protective gear while handling chemicals...Mark the incorrect one

A. Sun protect Goggles
B. Face mask
C. Apron
D. Rubber gloves

Answer: A — Sun protect Goggles

Sun protection goggles are intended for outdoor UV protection and provide no defense against chemical splashes. Proper PPE for chemical handling includes chemical-resistant goggles, gloves, and aprons to prevent injury.

12. Steering gear is used to turn the

A. rudder
B. crane boom/jib
C. propeller
D. main engine

Answer: A — rudder

The steering gear is the machinery responsible for rotating the rudder to control the heading of the ship. It is a critical component for the safe navigation and maneuvering of the vessel.

13. Steering gear is located in the

A. in a separate compartment aft of engine room
B. forward of engine room
C. on the bridge
D. forecastle

Answer: A — in a separate compartment aft of engine room

Steering gear is located in the steering gear flat, which is situated at the extreme aft of the ship. This position allows for a direct, mechanical, or hydraulic connection to the rudder stock.

14. Rudder of the ship is turned by means of a

A. steering wheel
B. propeller
C. hydraulic pump
D. Cylinder and Ram arrangement only

Answer: D — Cylinder and Ram arrangement only

In most modern ships, the steering gear utilizes a hydraulic system where power units drive hydraulic rams. These rams act on the tiller to move the rudder, translating hydraulic force into mechanical steering motion.

15. Which of the following is a correct statement

A. Rudder is connected to the propeller
B. Steering gear is located at aft part of the ship
C. Rudder is located in the steering flat
D. Propeller is turned by the rudder

Answer: B — Steering gear is located at aft part of the ship

The steering gear flat is located at the aft-most part of the ship, directly above or near the rudder assembly. This allows the steering gear hydraulic rams to engage with the rudder stock efficiently.

16. Various components of Steering Gear ...Tick the incorrect one

A. Hydrophore Unit
B. Actuating Unit
C. Control Unit
D. Power Unit

Answer: A — Hydrophore Unit

A hydrophore unit is part of the ship's freshwater distribution system, not the steering gear. The steering gear consists of the power unit, control unit, and actuating (or tiller) unit.

17. While taking rounds in the Steering flat, following to be checked...Mark the incorrect

A. Abnormal noise or vibrations
B. Oil level of MDO in the steering gear system
C. Load of the pump in Ampere
D. Leakages from pumps, pipe joints, etc

Answer: B — Oil level of MDO in the steering gear system

Checking the oil level of MDO (Marine Diesel Oil) is irrelevant in the steering gear flat, as steering systems use specific hydraulic oil. Operators should check the hydraulic oil level, not fuel oil levels.

18. A quick closing valve is fitted on

A. main engine cooling system
B. boiler steam line
C. fuel tanks above double bottom tanks
D. compressed air line

Answer: C — fuel tanks above double bottom tanks

Quick closing valves are mandatory on fuel tanks located above double-bottom tanks. They provide an immediate, remote means to shut off fuel supply in the event of an engine room fire.

19. Man hole door on a tank is fitted for

A. preventing entry by unauthorized persons
B. strengthening the tank
C. preventing damage on tanks
D. allowing entry to the tank when needed

Answer: D — allowing entry to the tank when needed

A manhole door provides access to the interior of a tank for essential maintenance, such as cleaning, inspection, or repairs. These doors must be pressure-tight when closed to ensure tank integrity.

20. A quick closing valve

A. stops air supply to main engine
B. prevents fire from occuring
C. prevents oil spills in engine room
D. can be remotely closed in an emergency

Answer: D — can be remotely closed in an emergency

Quick closing valves are essential safety devices designed to be shut remotely from outside the engine room. They are triggered during fire emergencies to cut off fuel supply to machinery and prevent the escalation of a fire.

21. Air vent to tanks is provided for

A. preventing build up of pressure or vaccum
B. allowing liquid to come out when tank is full
C. preventing fire
D. for ventilation

Answer: A — preventing build up of pressure or vaccum

Air vent pipes are installed on tanks to allow air to escape when filling and to let air enter when emptying. This prevents dangerous pressure buildup or vacuum formation which could cause tank structural damage.

22. Sounding pipes on tanks are fitted for finding

A. pressure in the tank
B. level of liquid in the tank
C. abnormal sound in the tank
D. temperature in the tank

Answer: B — level of liquid in the tank

Sounding pipes provide a direct, reliable method for measuring the depth of liquid in a tank. By inserting a sounding tape into the pipe, the crew can determine the quantity of fuel or water present.

23. Quick closing valve operation is carried out from

A. steering flat
B. remote location outside engine room
C. navigation bridge
D. anywhere in the engine room

Answer: B — remote location outside engine room

For safety, quick closing valves must be operable from a location outside the machinery space. This ensures that in a fire scenario, the fuel supply can be shut down without endangering personnel.

24. Ballast tank on a ship are filled up with _____

A. water from other tanks
B. drinking water
C. sea water
D. cargo oil

Answer: C — sea water

Ballast tanks are filled with sea water to maintain the ship's stability, trim, and draft requirements. This allows the ship to operate safely even when not carrying a full cargo load.

25. Settling tanks on ship are provided for

A. storing oils before its use
B. filtering water from fuel oil
C. allowing water and sludge to separate before oil seperator
D. mixing oils before use

Answer: C — allowing water and sludge to separate before oil seperator

Settling tanks provide the residence time necessary for water and sludge to settle at the bottom of the fuel. This separation process ensures that the fuel oil purifier receives cleaner oil for final treatment.

26. While bunkering is going on, what will be the most important thing to monitor

A. Oil sounding in bunker barge
B. Temperature of oil being supplied
C. Oil sample is being taken
D. Oil sounding in the tank being filled

Answer: D — Oil sounding in the tank being filled

Monitoring the tank sounding is critical during bunkering to prevent overflows. Preventing spills is a high priority for MARPOL compliance and shipboard safety, requiring constant vigilance of tank levels.

27. Quick Closing Valves can be operated...

A. All of the above
B. Locally
C. Pneumatically
D. Remotely

Answer: A — All of the above

Quick closing valves are versatile safety devices designed for emergency operations. They can be closed locally by hand or remotely via pneumatic or hydraulic systems to ensure maximum safety in diverse fire scenarios.

28. Each tank is required to have at least the following

A. Sounding Pipe
B. All of the above
C. Outlet Line
D. Air Vent

Answer: B — All of the above

Each tank requires an outlet line for discharge, an air vent to prevent over-pressurization during filling, and a sounding pipe to manually check levels. As all these components are fundamental for safe tank operation, 'All of the above' is the correct answer.

29. Storage Tank in the engine room will be called as ______ if the tank capacity is in between 2-50 tonnes

A. Large Tank
B. Ballast Tank
C. Medium Tank
D. Small Tank

Answer: D — Small Tank

Under standard maritime nomenclature for engine room storage containers, tanks with a capacity ranging between 2 and 50 tonnes are classified as Small Tanks.

30. On finding an injured person in the engine room, your first action will be to

A. bring a stretcher
B. report to the duty officer on watch
C. look for the cause of injury
D. apply first aid

Answer: B — report to the duty officer on watch

Safety procedures prioritize immediate communication. Reporting to the duty officer ensures help is mobilized quickly and proper emergency procedures are activated without delay, which is the primary duty before attempting independent medical aid.

Set 6 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. A fire alarm in the engineroom is activated

A. due to fire in the engine room
B. due to a black out
C. from the bridge
D. automatically on machinery failure

Answer: A — due to fire in the engine room

A fire alarm in the engine room is specifically triggered by fire detection sensors (heat or smoke) identifying an active fire, requiring immediate emergency response protocols.

2. On hearing a CO2 alarm in the engine room, your first action will be

A. use large fire extinguisher on the fire
B. raise fire alarm
C. report to the duty officer on watch
D. use emergency exit to get out

Answer: D — use emergency exit to get out

A CO2 fire extinguishing system releases asphyxiating gas into the engine room space. Therefore, the immediate priority upon hearing the warning alarm is to evacuate via the emergency exit to avoid suffocation.

3. A machinery failure alarm in the engine room is activated

A. automatically on machinery failure
B. due to collision of the ship
C. due to fire in the engine room
D. from the bridge

Answer: A — automatically on machinery failure

Machinery failure alarms are designed to alert engineers to faults in running equipment (e.g., low lube oil pressure or high jacket water temperature). These are generated automatically by monitoring systems.

4. A general alarm is activated

A. from the bridge
B. automatically on machinery failure
C. due to black out
D. due to high bilge level

Answer: A — from the bridge

The General Alarm (GA) is the highest-level emergency signal on a ship. It is manually activated from the bridge by the master or duty officer to alert all personnel of an emergency situation requiring mustering.

5. UMS stands for

A. Under Machinery Space Operation
B. Uniform Machinery Space Operation
C. Unattended Machinery Space Operation
D. Undermanned Machinery Space Operation

Answer: C — Unattended Machinery Space Operation

UMS refers to Unattended Machinery Space operations, where the engine room is not manned by engineers on a watch-keeping basis, relying instead on comprehensive alarm and monitoring systems.

6. Which of the following is NOT an audio visual alram

A. Fire Alarm
B. Ship security alarm
C. Co2 Alarm
D. Machinery Alarm

Answer: B — Ship security alarm

The Ship Security Alarm (SSAS) is a covert, silent alarm system used to alert authorities of piracy or security threats, intentionally excluding audible or visual indicators to protect the crew.

7. Emergencies that can occur in the Engine room

A. Flooding of the engine room
B. All of the above
C. Crank case explosion
D. Stoppage of Main engine

Answer: B — All of the above

Crankcase explosions, main engine failure, and flooding are all critical operational emergencies requiring immediate intervention to maintain ship safety and environmental compliance.

8. Fixed fire fighting system for engine room

A. DCP
B. inert gas
C. nitrogen
D. CO2

Answer: D — CO2

Fixed CO2 systems are the industry standard for engine room fire suppression due to the gas’s ability to reach inaccessible areas and effectively smother Class B and C fires without leaving residues.

9. Not a part of a fire triangle

A. air
B. electricity
C. heat
D. fuel

Answer: B — electricity

The fire triangle consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. Electricity is an energy source that may ignite fuel but is not an element of the triangle itself.

10. Main fire pump is located

A. at the fire station
B. in the steering flat
C. in the engine room
D. on main deck

Answer: C — in the engine room

Under SOLAS regulations, the main fire pumps must be located within the machinery space to be readily available for engine room firefighting, distinct from the emergency fire pump.

11. To fight an electric fire you would use

A. steam jet
B. water spray
C. dry powder
D. special foam

Answer: C — dry powder

Dry powder is an electrical non-conductor and is the preferred medium for Class C electrical fires to suppress flames without damaging equipment or risking electrocution to the operator.

12. Means of forcing water out of a portable extinguisher

A. nitrogen cartridge
B. CO2 cartridge
C. air cartridge
D. chemical cartridge

Answer: B — CO2 cartridge

Most portable fire extinguishers on board use a pressurized gas cartridge, such as CO2, to expel the contents from the canister onto the fire source.

13. High expansion foam system is suitable for fighting fires in

A. cargo holds
B. engine room
C. accommodation
D. deck of ship

Answer: B — engine room

High expansion foam systems are specifically designed to fill large, confined volumes like engine rooms, effectively displacing oxygen and cooling surfaces to extinguish major fires.

14. Which of the following provided for connecting to shore water supply

A. fixed foam system
B. international shore connection
C. fire hydrant
D. foam tank

Answer: B — international shore connection

The International Shore Connection (ISC) is a standardized flange required by MARPOL/SOLAS regulations to allow port authorities to connect their shore water supply to the ship's fire main.

15. The emergency fire pump on a ship is located

A. at the boat deck
B. at the poop deck
C. inside the engine room
D. outside the engine room

Answer: D — outside the engine room

The emergency fire pump is specifically located outside the engine room to ensure that, in the event of a total engine room fire, a firefighting water supply remains available.

16. Fire hose on ship are made of

A. thick cloth
B. flexible teel
C. strong canvas
D. leather

Answer: C — strong canvas

Fire hoses used on ships must be flexible and durable; they are constructed from high-strength canvas or synthetic fabric to withstand high pressure and environmental wear.

17. What is used in case the fire in the engine room becomes out of control

A. portable fire extinguisher
B. fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
C. fire pumps and hoses
D. 45 liters foam fire extinguisher

Answer: B — fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system

Fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems are designed for total flooding of the engine room when a fire is beyond the capacity of portable equipment or localized firefighting systems.

18. Which one of the following will be used first on a small fire in the engine room

A. fire blancket
B. fire pumps and hoses
C. portable fire extinguisher
D. fixed fire extinguishing system

Answer: C — portable fire extinguisher

Portable fire extinguishers are the initial line of defense for small, localized fires, allowing for immediate action before a fire can propagate across the engine room.

19. Full form of PASS....Mark the correct one

A. Push, Automatic, Sweep, Squeeze
B. Pull, Aim, Smoke,
C. Pull, Aim, Sponge, Sweep
D. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

Answer: D — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS is the universal acronym for operating a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

20. Following is not a part of Fire detection system

A. Heat Detector
B. Body Detector
C. Smoke Detector
D. Flame Detector

Answer: B — Body Detector

Fire detection systems utilize sensors for heat, smoke, and flame. A 'body detector' is not a component of maritime fire detection equipment.

21. Which Instrument is used for testing Insulation

A. Jagger
B. Driver
C. Megger
D. Drager

Answer: C — Megger

A Megger (megohmmeter) is the standard electrical test instrument used to measure the insulation resistance of electrical cables and windings.

22. Before starting maintenance on any equipment, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one

A. Remove the safety guards
B. Put a warning notice on the Mains switch
C. Switch on the main supply
D. Switch off the machine

Answer: C — Switch on the main supply

Switching on the main supply during maintenance is dangerous and violates all LOTO (Lock-Out, Tag-Out) safety protocols, which strictly mandate isolation of power to prevent accidental energization.

23. Before re-starting a machine, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one

A. Replace the safety guard after starting the machine
B. Check that no tools have been left on or near the machine
C. Remove any warning notices
D. Restore the power supply

Answer: A — Replace the safety guard after starting the machine

Safety guards must be reinstalled and secured before starting any machine. Running machinery without guards exposes personnel to rotating parts and creates a severe safety hazard.

24. Dry full contact body resistance is about ______ ohms at 250V

A. 2000
B. 4000
C. 3000
D. 5000

Answer: A — 2000

The average electrical resistance of the human body when dry is approximately 2000 ohms. This value decreases significantly if the skin is wet, increasing the risk of fatal shock.

25. What is the minimum value of shock current (AC) which can be fatal

A. 35 mA
B. 20 mA
C. 15mA
D. 25 mA

Answer: C — 15mA

Current as low as 15mA can cause involuntary muscle contraction and interfere with cardiac function, making it a threshold for potentially fatal electric shock.

26. Under STCW standards for Marine Engineering Knowledge, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?

A. Every 10 years
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 5 years
D. Annually

Answer: C — Every 5 years

STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.

27. What primary safety objective is governed by the Marine Engineering Knowledge module on board ship?

A. Minimizing port dues
B. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
C. Automating engine control
D. Optimizing fuel consumption

Answer: B — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness

The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.

28. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to Marine Engineering Knowledge?

A. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
B. Verbal request to port authority
C. Bridge sign-off without briefing
D. Engine logbook entry only

Answer: A — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting

Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.

29. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during Marine Engineering Knowledge practical tasks?

A. Basic cotton coveralls only
B. Standard street clothes with safety boots
C. High-visibility vest only
D. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards

Answer: D — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards

Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.

30. Which international convention mandates compliance for Marine Engineering Knowledge operational procedures?

A. STCW Convention as amended
B. Tonnage Convention 1969
C. COLREGs 1972
D. Load Line Convention 1966

Answer: A — STCW Convention as amended

STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.

Set 7 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. In case of an emergency scenario during Marine Engineering Knowledge operations, what is the immediate first step?

A. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
B. Log the event in diary
C. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
D. Attempt to fix without informing others

Answer: A — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer

Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.

2. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding Marine Engineering Knowledge?

A. Cargo Manifest
B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
C. Oil Record Book Part I
D. Garbage Record Book

Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions

The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.

3. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in Marine Engineering Knowledge drills?

A. Observing without participating
B. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
C. Bypassing safety gear for speed
D. Signing attendance without attending

Answer: B — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols

Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.

4. What log entry is required following completion of Marine Engineering Knowledge drills on board?

A. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
B. No log entry required
C. Verbal update to port agent
D. Personal diary note

Answer: A — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration

SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.

5. What is your first action upon finding a fire?

A. Use a portable extinguisher
B. Attempt to locate the source of the fire alone
C. Raise the alarm
D. Switch off the electrical power supply

Answer: C — Raise the alarm

Raising the alarm immediately alerts the bridge and crew so that the fire party can muster and boundary cooling, ventilation shut-down and other measures begin. Attempting to fight the fire alone first delays the response and can leave the person trapped.

6. Which statement about falling objects in the engine room is correct?

A. Falling tools and objects are a common cause of injury, so safety helmets must be worn
B. Accidents from falling objects cannot happen in the engine room
C. Safety helmets are only required on deck
D. Tools may be left on gratings above working areas

Answer: A — Falling tools and objects are a common cause of injury, so safety helmets must be worn

Tools, parts and equipment dropped from gratings, ladders or lifting gear are a frequent cause of engine room injuries. Wearing safety helmets, securing tools and keeping gratings clear are basic precautions in the Code of Safe Working Practices.

7. How does the CO2 release alarm differ from the general emergency alarm?

A. It is a separate, distinct alarm in the protected space warning personnel to evacuate before CO2 is released
B. It is the same as the general alarm
C. It is sounded only after the CO2 has been released
D. It is a visual signal on the bridge only

Answer: A — It is a separate, distinct alarm in the protected space warning personnel to evacuate before CO2 is released

The FSS Code requires an automatic audible and visual alarm, distinct from all other alarms, warning of the release of fixed CO2 into a space so personnel can evacuate first. The general emergency alarm is seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast.

8. Woollen garments, blankets and quilts are examples of ____ materials.

A. Conducting
B. Insulating
C. Magnetic
D. Semiconducting

Answer: B — Insulating

Wool, blankets and quilts trap still air within their fibres, which greatly reduces the transfer of heat, so they act as thermal insulators. This is why woollen clothing and blankets are used to keep casualties and survivors warm.

9. When working with insulating material such as glass wool, you should:

A. Wear gloves, goggles, a dust mask and coveralls
B. Avoid gloves so as to handle the material better
C. Work without goggles as the fibres are harmless
D. Shake out the material to remove loose fibres

Answer: A — Wear gloves, goggles, a dust mask and coveralls

Glass wool fibres irritate the skin, eyes and respiratory tract. Personal protective equipment including gloves, goggles, a dust mask and long-sleeved coveralls should be worn, and the material handled gently to minimise airborne fibres.

10. Lagging is insulating material wrapped around pipes, boilers or tanks to:

A. Reduce loss of heat
B. Increase loss of heat
C. Increase the pipe's electrical conductivity
D. Allow corrosion inspection without removal

Answer: A — Reduce loss of heat

Lagging insulates hot surfaces such as steam pipes, boilers and tanks, reducing heat loss and improving efficiency. It also protects personnel from burns and keeps hot surfaces below the ignition temperature of oil that may leak onto them.

11. Insulating (lagging) material used in machinery and accommodation spaces should generally be:

A. Non-combustible (fire resistant)
B. Combustible and oil-absorbent
C. Electrically conductive
D. Water-soluble

Answer: A — Non-combustible (fire resistant)

SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires insulating materials to be non-combustible, except in certain cargo and refrigerated spaces. Lagging that is oil-soaked or damaged should be replaced, as oil-saturated insulation can ignite on hot surfaces.

12. Which statement about ship thrusters is correct?

A. A bow thruster is fitted at the forward end and a stern thruster at the aft end
B. A bow thruster is fitted at the aft end
C. A stern thruster is fitted at the forward end
D. Both thrusters are always fitted amidships

Answer: A — A bow thruster is fitted at the forward end and a stern thruster at the aft end

Transverse thrusters are named after their position: the bow thruster is fitted in a tunnel near the forward end and the stern thruster near the aft end. They push the bow or stern sideways for manoeuvring at low speed, such as when berthing.

13. Why should you not wash your hands with machine coolant (cutting fluid)?

A. It can cause skin irritation, dermatitis and infection
B. It is too expensive to waste
C. It makes the hands too slippery to hold tools
D. It removes the protective paint on machines

Answer: A — It can cause skin irritation, dermatitis and infection

Cutting fluids contain oils, additives and bacteria that irritate the skin and can cause dermatitis and infections. Hands should be washed with soap and water, and barrier creams or gloves used when handling coolants on lathes and other machines.

14. The function of an electrode dryer (oven) is to:

A. Keep electrodes dry by removing moisture absorbed from a humid atmosphere
B. Wet the electrodes before use
C. Cool the electrodes after welding
D. Sharpen the electrode tips

Answer: A — Keep electrodes dry by removing moisture absorbed from a humid atmosphere

Welding electrodes, especially low-hydrogen types, absorb moisture from humid air, which causes porosity and hydrogen cracking in welds. An electrode drying oven bakes and keeps them dry until use.

15. In welding, spats are worn to protect the:

A. Ankles and feet from molten metal and spatter
B. Eyes from ultraviolet radiation
C. Hands from electric shock
D. Lungs from welding fumes

Answer: A — Ankles and feet from molten metal and spatter

Spats are leather covers worn over the boot tops and ankles so that molten metal, sparks and spatter cannot fall into the boots and cause burns. Eyes are protected by filter lenses and lungs by ventilation or respirators.

16. Which type of engine has a piston rod between the piston and the connecting rod?

A. Crosshead type engine
B. Trunk piston type engine
C. Rotary engine
D. Gas turbine

Answer: A — Crosshead type engine

In a crosshead engine the piston is connected by a piston rod to the crosshead, which carries the side thrust, and the connecting rod links the crosshead to the crankshaft. Trunk piston engines have no piston rod; the connecting rod is attached directly to the piston by the gudgeon pin.

17. A turbo alternator on board ship is driven by:

A. Steam produced in an exhaust gas boiler using waste heat from the main engine exhaust
B. The main engine shaft through a gearbox
C. A separate auxiliary diesel engine
D. The ship's batteries through an inverter

Answer: A — Steam produced in an exhaust gas boiler using waste heat from the main engine exhaust

A turbo alternator (turbo generator) is a generator driven by a steam turbine, with steam raised in an exhaust gas economiser or boiler from main engine exhaust waste heat. A generator driven from the propeller shaft is a shaft generator.

18. A die is used to:

A. Cut external threads on a pipe or rod
B. Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole
C. Enlarge a drilled hole to an accurate size
D. Mark centres before drilling

Answer: A — Cut external threads on a pipe or rod

A die, held in a die stock, cuts external threads on round bar, bolts or pipe ends. Internal threads are cut with a tap, holes are finished to size with a reamer, and centres are marked with a centre punch.

19. A tap is used to:

A. Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole
B. Cut external threads on a pipe or rod
C. Remove burrs from the edge of a sheet
D. Measure the pitch of a thread

Answer: A — Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole

A tap, turned with a tap wrench, cuts internal threads in a hole drilled to the correct tapping size. Taps are used in sets (taper, intermediate and plug) to form full threads progressively; external threads are cut with a die.

20. The usual watchkeeping system adopted for engine ratings on a seagoing ship is:

A. Twelve hours on and twelve hours off
B. Six hours on and six hours off
C. Four hours on and eight hours off
D. Eight hours on and four hours off

Answer: C — Four hours on and eight hours off

The GP Rating syllabus (Appendix 1D, 4.1.6) states that the system of watches normally adopted on board is four hours on and eight hours off, giving three watches in 24 hours, while a 6-hour cycle may be used in port or on offshore vessels.

21. On offshore support vessels, the watch cycle normally adopted at all times is:

A. Four-hour watches
B. Two-hour watches
C. Eight-hour watches
D. Six-hour watches

Answer: D — Six-hour watches

According to the GP Rating syllabus on engine room watchkeeping, offshore support vessels normally follow a 6-hour watch cycle at all times, whereas ordinary seagoing ships use the four-on, eight-off system at sea.

22. A rating forming part of an engine-room watch works under the general direction of:

A. The officer of the navigational watch
B. The engineer officer in charge of the watch
C. The chief cook
D. The bosun

Answer: B — The engineer officer in charge of the watch

Under STCW A-III/4 and the syllabus, engine room ratings assist in the safe and efficient operation of propulsion and auxiliary machinery under the general direction of the engineer officer in charge of the watch (EOW), to whom they report.

23. At the start of an engine room watch, a rating should report to the engineer officer of the watch any machinery that is:

A. Fitted with a nameplate
B. Running normally within its parameters
C. Not functioning properly or expected to malfunction
D. Freshly painted

Answer: C — Not functioning properly or expected to malfunction

The syllabus summary of watchkeeping tasks requires that at the commencement of the watch the current operating parameters and condition of all machinery are checked, and any machinery not functioning properly, expected to malfunction or needing special service is reported to the EOW.

24. The fresh water generator on board produces fresh water by:

A. Melting ice from the refrigeration plant
B. Evaporating sea water under vacuum and condensing the vapour
C. Filtering sea water through sand beds
D. Chemically treating bilge water

Answer: B — Evaporating sea water under vacuum and condensing the vapour

A fresh water generator boils sea water at low temperature under vacuum, usually using heat from the main engine jacket cooling water, and the vapour is condensed to produce distilled fresh water for domestic and machinery use.

25. The purpose of a fresh water hydrophore unit is to:

A. Cool the main engine jacket water
B. Store sewage before discharge
C. Supply fresh water under pressure to the accommodation and other users
D. Generate fresh water from sea water

Answer: C — Supply fresh water under pressure to the accommodation and other users

A hydrophore unit consists of a pressure tank partly filled with air and pumps controlled by a pressure switch, so that fresh or sanitary water is delivered at a steady pressure to the accommodation and other consumers without the pump running continuously.

26. The shipboard incinerator is used for:

A. Heating heavy fuel oil
B. Cooling the exhaust gas
C. Producing steam for the turbo alternator
D. Burning oil sludge and combustible garbage

Answer: D — Burning oil sludge and combustible garbage

The incinerator is an auxiliary item in the engine room used to burn oily sludge from purifiers and permitted combustible garbage, reducing waste retained on board; it must be operated in accordance with MARPOL Annex VI restrictions.

27. Engine ratings must meet a minimum standard of Maritime English to understand orders and communicate on watchkeeping matters. The syllabus refers to which IMO model course for this?

A. IMO Model Course 1.13
B. IMO Model Course 3.17
C. IMO Model Course 7.04
D. IMO Model Course 1.20

Answer: B — IMO Model Course 3.17

Appendix 1D (4.1.1) of the GP Rating guidelines requires a minimum standard of Maritime English at the elementary level, with reference to IMO Model Course 3.17, so that a rating can understand orders and be understood in matters relevant to watchkeeping duties.

28. The hot well (cascade tank) in a steam plant is used to:

A. Store heavy fuel oil at high temperature
B. Collect sludge from the purifiers
C. Collect returning condensate and allow oil contamination to be detected before it is used as boiler feed
D. Cool the main engine lubricating oil

Answer: C — Collect returning condensate and allow oil contamination to be detected before it is used as boiler feed

Condensate returning from steam consumers drains into the hot well or cascade tank, where it is filtered and inspected through sight glasses for oil contamination before the feed pump returns it to the boiler as feed water.

29. A yellow triangular sign with a black lightning arrow seen on a switchboard panel indicates:

A. No smoking
B. Eye protection must be worn
C. Emergency escape route
D. Danger of electric shock

Answer: D — Danger of electric shock

Yellow triangles with black symbols are warning signs; the lightning arrow warns of electrical hazard and risk of electric shock. Ratings must recognise such signs, which the syllabus lists among engine room symbols along with no smoking, emergency escape and no entry signs.

30. When the machinery space is in the periodically unmanned (UMS) condition, the designated duty engineer must be:

A. On the bridge keeping a lookout
B. Immediately available and on call to attend the machinery space
C. Always physically present in the engine room
D. Asleep and not to be disturbed

Answer: B — Immediately available and on call to attend the machinery space

The syllabus states that in the periodically unmanned condition the designated duty engineer in charge of the watch shall be immediately available and on call to attend the machinery spaces, responding to alarms relayed to the cabins and public rooms.

Set 8 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. The auxiliary blower of a two-stroke main engine is used to:

A. Cool the stern tube bearing
B. Ventilate the accommodation
C. Blow soot from the boiler tubes
D. Supply scavenge air at low engine loads when the turbocharger output is insufficient

Answer: D — Supply scavenge air at low engine loads when the turbocharger output is insufficient

At starting and low load the exhaust energy is too low for the turbocharger to provide enough scavenge air, so electrically driven auxiliary blowers start automatically to supply air to the scavenge receiver; they stop when the scavenge pressure rises.

2. Which space in the engine room is used to centrally monitor and control machinery and usually houses the main switchboard?

A. Funnel trunk
B. Pipe tunnel
C. Engine control room
D. Steering flat

Answer: C — Engine control room

The engine control room is an enclosed, air-conditioned and sound-insulated space from which the main engine and auxiliaries are monitored and controlled, alarms are displayed and logged, and where the main switchboard is usually located.

3. A vernier caliper can be used to measure:

A. Only the weight of a component
B. Only the pressure in a pipeline
C. External, internal and depth dimensions
D. Only electrical resistance

Answer: C — External, internal and depth dimensions

A vernier caliper has outside jaws for external dimensions, inside jaws for bores and a depth rod at the end of the beam, so one instrument measures external, internal and depth dimensions accurately, typically to 0.02 mm in metric versions.

4. The least count of a standard metric outside micrometer is:

A. 0.1 mm
B. 0.5 mm
C. 1 mm
D. 0.01 mm

Answer: D — 0.01 mm

A standard metric micrometer has a spindle pitch of 0.5 mm and a thimble divided into 50 divisions, so each division represents 0.5/50 = 0.01 mm, which is its least count.

5. A feeler gauge is used to:

A. Measure small gaps and clearances such as valve tappet clearance
B. Measure the outside diameter of a shaft
C. Measure liquid level in a tank
D. Measure the hardness of metal

Answer: A — Measure small gaps and clearances such as valve tappet clearance

A feeler gauge is a set of thin steel blades of known thickness; selecting the blade that just slides into a gap gives the clearance, for example tappet clearance, bearing clearance or piston ring gaps.

6. Before drilling a hole in a metal plate, a centre punch is used to:

A. Make a small indentation that locates and guides the drill point
B. Measure the depth of the hole
C. Cut internal threads
D. Smooth the surface after filing

Answer: A — Make a small indentation that locates and guides the drill point

After marking out with a scriber, the hole position is centre-punched to create a conical dimple; this prevents the drill from wandering at the start and ensures the hole is drilled at the marked position.

7. A scriber is used in fitting work for:

A. Removing burrs from drilled holes
B. Marking fine lines on metal surfaces
C. Tightening bolts to a set torque
D. Cutting external threads

Answer: B — Marking fine lines on metal surfaces

A scriber is a hardened steel pointed tool used with a steel rule, square or surface gauge to scratch fine, accurate marking-out lines on metal, often after the surface has been coated with marking blue.

8. When fitting a blade in a hacksaw frame, the teeth should point:

A. In any direction, as it makes no difference
B. Away from the handle, so that it cuts on the forward stroke
C. Upwards, away from the work
D. Towards the handle, so that it cuts on the return stroke

Answer: B — Away from the handle, so that it cuts on the forward stroke

A hacksaw cuts on the forward (push) stroke, so the blade teeth must point away from the handle. The blade is tensioned firmly and pressure is relieved on the return stroke to avoid blunting the teeth.

9. While filing, cutting pressure should be applied:

A. Only when the file is stationary
B. On the return stroke only
C. Equally on both strokes
D. On the forward stroke only

Answer: D — On the forward stroke only

Files are designed to cut on the forward stroke; pressure is applied while pushing and lifted slightly on the return stroke, which avoids dulling the teeth and gives a better finish.

10. When cutting an internal thread by hand in a blind hole, the correct order of taps used is:

A. Taper tap, then intermediate (second) tap, then plug (bottoming) tap
B. Intermediate tap only
C. Plug tap, then taper tap, then intermediate tap
D. Plug tap, then intermediate tap, then taper tap

Answer: A — Taper tap, then intermediate (second) tap, then plug (bottoming) tap

A hand tap set has a taper tap with a long lead to start the thread straight, an intermediate tap to deepen it and a plug or bottoming tap to cut full threads to the bottom of a blind hole.

11. The hole drilled before tapping an internal thread (tap drill size) should be:

A. Exactly equal to the nominal diameter of the thread
B. Slightly smaller than the nominal (major) diameter of the thread
C. Twice the nominal diameter of the thread
D. Larger than the nominal diameter of the thread

Answer: B — Slightly smaller than the nominal (major) diameter of the thread

The tap drill is approximately equal to the root (core) diameter of the thread, which is smaller than the nominal major diameter, so that the tap has material left to form the thread profile.

12. A torque wrench is used when:

A. Rust must be removed from a surface
B. Pipes must be cut to length
C. Holes must be enlarged
D. Nuts or bolts must be tightened to a specified tightness

Answer: D — Nuts or bolts must be tightened to a specified tightness

Many engine fastenings such as cylinder head studs and bearing bolts must be tightened to a value given in the maker's manual; a torque wrench indicates or limits the applied torque to prevent under-tightening or over-stressing.

13. Fitting a length of pipe over a spanner to gain extra leverage is:

A. Required by the maker's instructions
B. Unsafe, as it can overload the spanner and cause it to slip or break
C. Acceptable when using adjustable spanners only
D. Recommended for all tight nuts

Answer: B — Unsafe, as it can overload the spanner and cause it to slip or break

Extending a spanner applies forces it was not designed for, which can damage the spanner or nut, cause it to slip and lead to hand or fall injuries. The correct-size tool, a ring spanner or approved tightening equipment should be used.

14. Soft jaws of copper or aluminium are fitted over the jaws of a bench vice to:

A. Insulate the work electrically
B. Protect finished surfaces of the work from damage
C. Increase the gripping force on rough castings
D. Heat the work piece

Answer: B — Protect finished surfaces of the work from damage

Hardened serrated vice jaws mark finished or soft components, so soft jaw covers of copper, aluminium or fibre are used to grip machined surfaces, threads or shafts without damage.

15. Before carrying out hot work in the engine room outside the workshop, which of the following is required?

A. Nothing, provided the work takes less than 10 minutes
B. Only a verbal message to the bridge
C. Only the welding machine to be earthed
D. A hot work permit with area cleaned, combustibles removed and a fire watch posted

Answer: D — A hot work permit with area cleaned, combustibles removed and a fire watch posted

Hot work outside the designated workshop is controlled under the ship's permit to work system: the area and adjacent spaces are checked and cleaned of oil and combustibles, fire-fighting equipment is ready and a fire watch is maintained during and after the work.

16. During and after hot work, the fire watch person is posted to:

A. Watch for sparks, smouldering material and fire and be ready with an extinguisher
B. Operate the welding machine
C. Keep other crew out of the workshop only
D. Record the welding current

Answer: A — Watch for sparks, smouldering material and fire and be ready with an extinguisher

Sparks and hot slag can travel through openings and ignite oil or insulation on the far side of bulkheads; the fire watch observes the work area and adjacent spaces with extinguishing equipment ready and continues to monitor for a period after the work stops.

17. Before welding or cutting on a pipe or tank that has contained oil, it must be:

A. Cleaned, drained and confirmed gas-free
B. Filled with compressed air
C. Painted with fire-resistant paint
D. Heated to remove moisture

Answer: A — Cleaned, drained and confirmed gas-free

Residual oil vapour in pipes and tanks can ignite or explode when heat is applied, so such items must be isolated, drained, cleaned and tested gas-free under a permit before any hot work is carried out.

18. The main purpose of a lock-out/tag-out procedure is to:

A. Lock the engine room door when unmanned
B. Record the running hours of machinery
C. Prevent theft of tools
D. Prevent machinery or circuits being energised or started while work is in progress

Answer: D — Prevent machinery or circuits being energised or started while work is in progress

Lock-out/tag-out isolates the energy source (such as the circuit breaker or valve), locks it and attaches a tag naming the person working, so that nobody can restart or energise the equipment until the work is completed and the lock removed.

19. Before touching the conductors of electrical equipment that has been isolated, you must:

A. Wet your hands to improve contact
B. Test that it is dead using an approved voltage tester
C. Assume it is dead because the switch is off
D. Touch it briefly with the back of the hand

Answer: B — Test that it is dead using an approved voltage tester

A switch may be faulty or another supply may exist, so after isolation and locking off, the circuit must be proved dead with an approved tester that is itself checked before and after use; only then may the conductors be touched.

20. During an enclosed space entry, the attendant stationed at the entrance should:

A. Stop the ventilation fans to reduce noise
B. Enter immediately to help if an entrant collapses
C. Leave the entrance to fetch tools
D. Maintain communication with the entrants and raise the alarm if needed without entering alone

Answer: D — Maintain communication with the entrants and raise the alarm if needed without entering alone

The attendant keeps continuous contact with those inside, monitors conditions and, in an emergency, raises the alarm and summons the rescue team; entering unprotected to help is a common cause of multiple fatalities in enclosed spaces.

21. Under SOLAS regulation III/19, enclosed space entry and rescue drills must be carried out at least:

A. Every two months
B. Every year
C. Every week
D. Every five years

Answer: A — Every two months

SOLAS III/19.3.6 requires enclosed space entry and rescue drills at least once every two months, with each crew member responsible for entry or rescue participating, to practise safe entry, testing, use of breathing apparatus and rescue procedures.

22. Which of the following must never be used to ventilate an enclosed space before entry?

A. Fresh air through open manholes
B. Portable fans
C. Pure oxygen
D. Mechanical blowers

Answer: C — Pure oxygen

Ventilating with oxygen creates an oxygen-enriched atmosphere in which materials ignite easily and burn fiercely; enclosed spaces must be ventilated only with fresh air using fans or blowers, and then tested before entry.

23. The instrument used to check the oxygen content of an enclosed space before entry is:

A. Hydrometer
B. Megger
C. Oxygen analyser or multi-gas detector
D. Pyrometer

Answer: C — Oxygen analyser or multi-gas detector

The atmosphere is tested with a calibrated oxygen analyser or multi-gas detector, which also measures flammable and toxic gases; readings are taken at different levels of the space before and during entry.

24. In heavy weather, which precaution is most important in the engine room?

A. Open all watertight doors for ventilation
B. Stop the bilge high level alarm
C. Secure all loose tools, spares and equipment and use handrails when moving
D. Remove the lagging from hot pipes

Answer: C — Secure all loose tools, spares and equipment and use handrails when moving

Heavy rolling and pitching can make unsecured tools, spares and drums move violently and cause injury or damage; all loose items must be lashed, oil spills cleaned to prevent slipping, and personnel should hold handrails and avoid working at height.

25. The SWL marked on a chain block or lifting sling indicates:

A. The minimum load needed to operate it
B. The breaking load of the hook
C. The maximum load it may safely lift
D. The weight of the chain block itself

Answer: C — The maximum load it may safely lift

Safe Working Load is the maximum load the lifting appliance or gear is certified to lift in normal service; it must never be exceeded, and gear without clear SWL marking or certification should not be used.

26. When a heavy load is being lifted with the engine room crane, personnel should:

A. Never stand or pass under the suspended load
B. Ride on the load to steady it
C. Stand under the load to guide it
D. Hold the load with their hands while it swings

Answer: A — Never stand or pass under the suspended load

A suspended load may fall if a sling, hook or brake fails, so no person should stand or pass beneath it; tag lines are used to guide it and the area beneath is kept clear.

27. The correct way to lift a heavy object manually is to:

A. Twist the body while lifting
B. Keep the legs straight and bend the back
C. Lift quickly with a jerk
D. Bend the knees, keep the back straight and lift with the leg muscles

Answer: D — Bend the knees, keep the back straight and lift with the leg muscles

Proper manual handling uses the strong leg muscles while keeping the back straight and the load close to the body, avoiding twisting; this reduces the risk of back injury, sprains and strains.

28. Why must no tank be filled, emptied or transferred while the ship is in dry dock without the dock master's approval?

A. It changes the weight distribution and may affect the ship's stability on the keel blocks
B. It reduces the speed of the dry dock pumps
C. It damages the painting of the hull
D. It increases the electrical load on shore power

Answer: A — It changes the weight distribution and may affect the ship's stability on the keel blocks

In dry dock the ship rests on keel and bilge blocks arranged for a declared weight distribution; shifting liquids alters the load on the blocks and stability, so tank changes require the dock master's permission and must be recorded.

29. Hearing protection must be worn in the engine room mainly because:

A. High noise levels can cause permanent hearing loss
B. It allows better hearing of alarms
C. It prevents oil from entering the ears
D. It keeps the ears warm

Answer: A — High noise levels can cause permanent hearing loss

Machinery spaces have continuous high noise levels from engines and generators; prolonged exposure without ear defenders causes noise-induced, permanent hearing damage, so the IMO Noise Code requires hearing protection in such areas.

30. When working near rotating machinery, which practice is correct?

A. Avoid loose clothing, rings and dangling items and keep guards in place
B. Remove guards to see the moving parts clearly
C. Wear a loose tie for identification
D. Wear gloves when operating a drill or lathe chuck

Answer: A — Avoid loose clothing, rings and dangling items and keep guards in place

Loose clothing, jewellery, long hair or gloves can be caught by rotating shafts, couplings and chucks, pulling the person into the machine; close-fitting boiler suits and fixed guards prevent such entanglement injuries.

Set 9 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. Oily rags and cotton waste in the engine room should be:

A. Thrown into the bilge
B. Stored in a cardboard box in the store
C. Kept in a closed metal container and disposed of regularly
D. Left on top of hot pipes to dry

Answer: C — Kept in a closed metal container and disposed of regularly

Oily rags can heat and ignite by spontaneous combustion and are a ready fuel source; they must be placed in covered metal bins and disposed of properly, as part of good housekeeping in the engine room.

2. When using cleaning solvents in the engine room, a key precaution is to:

A. Mix different solvents together for strength
B. Heat them to improve cleaning
C. Ensure good ventilation and keep away from naked flames
D. Use them in a closed space without ventilation

Answer: C — Ensure good ventilation and keep away from naked flames

Many solvents give off flammable or toxic vapours; they must be used in well-ventilated areas away from ignition sources, with gloves and goggles, following the safety data sheet for the product.

3. When working at height in the engine room, such as on the overhead crane rails, a person must:

A. Stand on stacked drums to reach the work
B. Work alone without informing anyone
C. Wear a safety harness attached to a secure strong point
D. Work only with bare hands for a better grip

Answer: C — Wear a safety harness attached to a secure strong point

Falls from height are a major cause of serious injury; work at height requires permission, a properly secured safety harness, sound staging or ladders and a second person in attendance, with tools secured against dropping.

4. Who is normally authorised to approve an enclosed space entry permit on board?

A. The master or a responsible officer designated by him
B. The shore agent
C. The cook
D. Any rating who will enter the space

Answer: A — The master or a responsible officer designated by him

Under the ship's safety management system and IMO Recommendations for entering enclosed spaces, entry is authorised by the master or a nominated responsible person after the space is ventilated, tested and precautions in the permit checklist are confirmed.

5. Oil leaks and spills on engine room floor plates should be:

A. Covered with a rag and ignored
B. Left until the end of the voyage
C. Washed into the bilge with hot water
D. Wiped up immediately and the source of the leak reported

Answer: D — Wiped up immediately and the source of the leak reported

Spilled oil makes floor plates slippery, causing falls, and is a fire hazard if it reaches hot surfaces; good housekeeping requires immediate cleaning with absorbent material and reporting the leak to the EOW for repair.

6. Under MARPOL Annex I, oily bilge water from machinery spaces may be discharged at sea only if the oil content of the effluent without dilution does not exceed:

A. 15 ppm
B. 100 ppm
C. 1000 ppm
D. 50 ppm

Answer: A — 15 ppm

MARPOL Annex I regulation 15 permits discharge of machinery space bilge water only when the ship is en route, the mixture is processed through approved oil filtering equipment and the oil content of the undiluted effluent does not exceed 15 parts per million.

7. Operations involving machinery space bilge water and oil residue (sludge) are recorded in the:

A. Bell book
B. Oil Record Book Part I
C. Official Log Book of the deck department only
D. Garbage Record Book

Answer: B — Oil Record Book Part I

MARPOL Annex I requires every ship of 400 GT and above to keep an Oil Record Book Part I (machinery space operations), in which transfer, discharge and disposal of bilge water and sludge and bunkering are entered and signed.

8. A mud box or strum box is fitted at the end of a bilge suction pipe to:

A. Prevent debris from entering and choking the bilge line and pump
B. Increase the suction pressure of the pump
C. Measure the level of bilge water
D. Separate oil from bilge water

Answer: A — Prevent debris from entering and choking the bilge line and pump

Engine room bilge suctions are fitted with mud boxes, and suctions in holds with strum boxes, which strain out rags, scale and debris that would otherwise block the pipes, valves and pump; they must be cleaned regularly.

9. Non-return valves are fitted in bilge suction lines mainly to:

A. Prevent water flowing back from the bilge main into compartments
B. Allow bilge water to be pumped directly overboard
C. Increase the flow rate of the bilge pump
D. Measure the quantity of bilge water

Answer: A — Prevent water flowing back from the bilge main into compartments

SOLAS requires bilge suction valves to be of the non-return type so that sea water or bilge water cannot flow back from the bilge main into a dry compartment, which could otherwise cause flooding between spaces.

10. In an emergency such as serious flooding of the engine room, bilge water can be pumped out directly using the:

A. Sewage treatment plant
B. Lubricating oil purifier
C. Fresh water hydrophore pump
D. Emergency bilge suction connected to the main sea water cooling pump

Answer: D — Emergency bilge suction connected to the main sea water cooling pump

An emergency bilge suction (bilge injection valve) connects the engine room bilge directly to the largest available pump, usually the main sea water circulating pump, so large quantities of water can be removed in a flooding emergency, discharging overboard.

11. During bunkering, the deck scuppers around the bunker manifold should be:

A. Kept open to drain any spillage overboard
B. Covered with cotton waste only
C. Painted to show their position
D. Plugged, with drip trays and spill equipment ready

Answer: D — Plugged, with drip trays and spill equipment ready

Plugging scuppers prevents any spilled oil going overboard and causing pollution; SOPEP equipment, sawdust and absorbents are kept ready and drip trays placed under connections before bunkering starts.

12. Fuel oil tanks are not filled to 100% of their capacity during bunkering mainly to:

A. Keep the ship on an even keel
B. Allow for thermal expansion and prevent overflow
C. Allow water to settle in the tank
D. Save fuel cost

Answer: B — Allow for thermal expansion and prevent overflow

Oil expands when heated and the final rate of filling is hard to control; tanks are filled only to a safe ullage agreed in the bunker plan so that overflow through vents, and resulting pollution, is avoided.

13. During bunkering, the signal displayed to show that the ship is handling oil is:

A. Yellow flag by day and blue light by night
B. No signal is required
C. Green flag by day and white light by night
D. Red flag (flag B) by day and an all-round red light by night

Answer: D — Red flag (flag B) by day and an all-round red light by night

Flag B, a red flag, is hoisted by day and an all-round red light shown by night during bunkering or handling of dangerous cargo, warning others nearby that flammable liquids are being transferred and naked lights are prohibited.

14. Under MARPOL Annex VI, the representative bunker sample (MARPOL sample) must be retained on board for at least:

A. 1 week
B. 3 months
C. 3 years
D. 12 months, or until the fuel is substantially consumed if later

Answer: D — 12 months, or until the fuel is substantially consumed if later

MARPOL Annex VI regulation 18 requires the sealed representative sample delivered with the bunker delivery note to be kept under the ship's control until the fuel is substantially consumed, but in any case for not less than 12 months; the BDN itself is kept for three years.

15. Sludge removed by the fuel and lubricating oil purifiers is collected in the:

A. Fuel oil service tank
B. Ballast tank
C. Fresh water tank
D. Sludge tank

Answer: D — Sludge tank

Purifier sludge and drains are led to the sludge tank, from where it is burnt in the incinerator or discharged to a shore reception facility; each operation is entered in the Oil Record Book Part I.

16. Ballast water operations such as uptake, exchange, treatment and discharge are recorded in the:

A. Garbage Record Book
B. Oil Record Book Part I
C. Engine room bell book
D. Ballast Water Record Book

Answer: D — Ballast Water Record Book

The Ballast Water Management Convention requires each ship to carry a Ballast Water Management Plan and to record every ballast water operation in the Ballast Water Record Book, which is subject to port State inspection.

17. Ships take ballast water mainly to:

A. Maintain stability, trim, draught and propeller immersion
B. Supply the boiler with feed water
C. Cool the main engine
D. Provide drinking water for the crew

Answer: A — Maintain stability, trim, draught and propeller immersion

When a ship is light or partly loaded, ballast water is taken into ballast tanks to keep adequate stability, correct trim and draught, immerse the propeller and rudder, and reduce hull stresses; it is discharged as cargo is loaded.

18. Before painting a steel surface in the engine room for preservation, it should be:

A. Cleaned of rust, scale, oil and dirt and allowed to dry
B. Coated with lubricating oil
C. Heated with a welding torch
D. Wetted with sea water

Answer: A — Cleaned of rust, scale, oil and dirt and allowed to dry

Paint adheres properly only to a clean, dry surface; rust and scale are removed by chipping and wire brushing, oil is degreased, and a primer is applied before topcoats to protect the steel from corrosion.

19. The bilge high level alarm in the engine room warns the watchkeeper of:

A. High temperature in the bilge pump motor
B. Low oil level in the purifier
C. Abnormal accumulation of water in the bilge wells
D. High pressure in the fire main

Answer: C — Abnormal accumulation of water in the bilge wells

Float switches in the bilge wells activate an alarm when the bilge level rises; frequent or rapid alarms may indicate a leak or flooding and must be investigated immediately, especially in UMS operation.

20. Which type of valve is most suitable for regulating (throttling) the flow in a pipeline?

A. Globe valve
B. Non-return valve
C. Gate valve
D. Quick closing valve

Answer: A — Globe valve

In a globe valve the flow changes direction and passes through a seat closed by a disc, allowing fine control of flow; a gate valve is intended to be fully open or fully closed and its gate may be damaged by throttling.

21. A screw-down non-return (SDNR) valve:

A. Allows flow in both directions when open
B. Can be closed by hand and also prevents reverse flow when open
C. Can only be operated remotely
D. Is used only for steam whistles

Answer: B — Can be closed by hand and also prevents reverse flow when open

In an SDNR valve the disc is not attached to the spindle; when the spindle is screwed up the disc lifts only under forward pressure and drops to prevent reverse flow, while screwing the spindle down holds the valve shut.

22. A butterfly valve is opened or closed by:

A. Melting a fusible plug
B. Spring pressure only
C. Rotating its disc through a quarter turn (90 degrees)
D. Lifting a gate vertically

Answer: C — Rotating its disc through a quarter turn (90 degrees)

A butterfly valve has a circular disc mounted on a spindle across the pipe bore; turning it through 90 degrees moves it from fully closed to fully open, making it compact and quick to operate in sea water and ballast lines.

23. A relief valve is fitted on the discharge side of a positive displacement pump such as a gear pump to:

A. Measure the flow rate
B. Protect the pump and pipeline from excessive pressure if the discharge is closed
C. Allow air to escape during priming
D. Increase the suction head

Answer: B — Protect the pump and pipeline from excessive pressure if the discharge is closed

A positive displacement pump delivers a fixed volume each revolution; if the discharge is restricted, pressure rises until something fails, so a relief valve opens and returns the liquid to the suction side or tank.

24. A centrifugal pump is normally started with its discharge valve:

A. Removed
B. Fully open, to avoid overpressure
C. Partly open and suction closed
D. Closed, to reduce the starting load on the motor

Answer: D — Closed, to reduce the starting load on the motor

A centrifugal pump draws minimum power at zero flow, so it is primed and started with the discharge valve closed, then the valve is opened gradually; this limits motor starting current and prevents water hammer.

25. Before starting a centrifugal pump that is not self-priming, the pump casing must be:

A. Heated with steam
B. Primed so that it is filled with liquid
C. Pressurised with compressed air
D. Drained completely of liquid

Answer: B — Primed so that it is filled with liquid

An ordinary centrifugal pump cannot create enough suction when its casing is full of air, so it is primed by filling with liquid or by an air-extraction (priming) device before starting, otherwise it will not deliver.

26. The gland packing of a centrifugal pump should be adjusted so that:

A. No leakage at all occurs, by tightening fully
B. A slight drip of liquid leaks to lubricate and cool the packing
C. The shaft cannot be turned by hand
D. A steady stream of liquid flows out

Answer: B — A slight drip of liquid leaks to lubricate and cool the packing

Overtightened packing runs dry, overheats and scores the shaft sleeve; the gland is tightened evenly so a slight drip escapes, which lubricates and cools the packing while keeping leakage acceptably small.

27. The main advantage of a duplex filter is that:

A. One side can be cleaned while the other remains in service without stopping the flow
B. It never needs cleaning
C. It removes water from the oil by heating
D. It increases the pressure of the oil

Answer: A — One side can be cleaned while the other remains in service without stopping the flow

A duplex filter has two filter elements with a changeover cock; when one becomes dirty the flow is switched to the clean side and the dirty element is cleaned, so lubricating or fuel oil supply to the engine is not interrupted.

28. A rising differential pressure across a fuel or lubricating oil filter indicates that:

A. The oil temperature is too low only
B. The filter element is becoming choked and needs cleaning
C. The pump has stopped
D. The filter is working with no dirt

Answer: B — The filter element is becoming choked and needs cleaning

As dirt accumulates the resistance to flow increases, raising the pressure drop between inlet and outlet; a high differential pressure alarm warns the watchkeeper to change over and clean the filter before flow is restricted.

29. In a centrifugal separator, a clarifier differs from a purifier in that a clarifier:

A. Removes water and solids with a separate water outlet
B. Removes mainly solid particles and has no separate water outlet
C. Is used only for sea water
D. Heats the oil to boiling point

Answer: B — Removes mainly solid particles and has no separate water outlet

A purifier separates oil, water and solids, discharging water continuously through a water outlet set by a gravity disc; a clarifier has no water outlet and removes solids and small amounts of water retained in the bowl.

30. In a fuel oil purifier, the gravity disc (dam ring) is selected according to the:

A. Speed of the main engine
B. Capacity of the sludge tank
C. Density of the oil being purified
D. Colour of the oil

Answer: C — Density of the oil being purified

The gravity disc positions the oil-water interface in the bowl; it is chosen from the maker's chart according to the oil's density at the separating temperature, as a wrong disc causes oil loss through the water outlet or poor separation.

Set 10 — 28 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. Heavy fuel oil is heated before it enters the purifier in order to:

A. Burn off the water
B. Prevent the purifier from rotating too fast
C. Reduce its viscosity and improve separation
D. Increase its density

Answer: C — Reduce its viscosity and improve separation

Heating lowers the viscosity and increases the density difference between oil and water, allowing water and solid particles to separate faster under centrifugal force; separating temperature for HFO is typically close to 98 degrees C.

2. A strainer is fitted on the suction side of a pump to:

A. Increase the pump delivery pressure
B. Prevent solid particles from entering and damaging the pump
C. Cool the liquid being pumped
D. Measure the suction pressure

Answer: B — Prevent solid particles from entering and damaging the pump

Suction strainers trap scale, rags and other debris that could damage impellers, gears or screws and block the pump; they must be cleaned regularly, as a choked strainer causes low suction pressure and cavitation.

3. The most dangerous condition for an auxiliary boiler during operation is:

A. Clean fire side tubes
B. High water level in the hot well
C. Slightly high feed water temperature
D. Low water level

Answer: D — Low water level

If the water level falls below the safe level, tubes and furnace surfaces are no longer cooled and can overheat, distort or rupture; low and low-low water level alarms and trips protect the boiler and the level is checked by gauge glasses every watch.

4. The function of a boiler safety valve is to:

A. Remove sludge from the boiler
B. Control the water level in the boiler
C. Prevent the steam pressure rising above the permitted working pressure
D. Supply fuel to the burner

Answer: C — Prevent the steam pressure rising above the permitted working pressure

Boiler safety valves are spring-loaded valves set at or below the maximum allowable working pressure; they lift and discharge steam to atmosphere if the pressure rises, preventing a boiler explosion, and must never be gagged or tampered with.

5. Blowing down a boiler is carried out to:

A. Remove sludge and reduce dissolved solids in the boiler water
B. Increase the steam pressure
C. Clean the burner nozzle
D. Fill the boiler with feed water

Answer: A — Remove sludge and reduce dissolved solids in the boiler water

Bottom blowdown removes sludge settled at the lowest part of the water drum, while surface blowdown removes scum and lowers total dissolved solids; this, with chemical treatment, prevents scale, foaming and corrosion.

6. On many ships, main starting air receivers are designed to store compressed air at a pressure of about:

A. 3 bar
B. 0.3 bar
C. 30 bar
D. 300 bar

Answer: C — 30 bar

Main air compressors on most merchant ships charge the starting air receivers to about 30 bar; this air starts the main and generator engines, and reduced-pressure air is supplied from it to control and service air systems.

7. Water and oil collected in compressed air receivers are removed by:

A. Running the compressor continuously
B. Heating the receiver
C. Adding chemicals to the air
D. Opening the drain valves regularly

Answer: D — Opening the drain valves regularly

Moisture in compressed air condenses in receivers with carried-over oil; this must be drained regularly because water causes corrosion and freezing in control lines while oil can lead to fires or explosions in the starting air system.

8. Control air for pneumatic instruments must be:

A. Taken directly from the scavenge air receiver
B. Clean and dry, normally supplied through an air dryer and filters
C. Supplied at main starting air pressure
D. Wet, to lubricate the instruments

Answer: B — Clean and dry, normally supplied through an air dryer and filters

Pneumatic controllers and valve actuators have small passages that are easily blocked by water, oil and dirt; control air is therefore reduced in pressure and passed through filters and a refrigerated or desiccant dryer.

9. A fusible plug fitted on an air receiver or compressor discharge line is designed to:

A. Drain water automatically
B. Melt and release pressure in the event of fire or excessive temperature
C. Measure air pressure
D. Silence the compressor

Answer: B — Melt and release pressure in the event of fire or excessive temperature

A fusible plug contains a low melting point alloy which melts at high temperature, for example in a fire, releasing the air before the vessel or line is weakened and bursts; it backs up the relief valve.

10. Service compressed air in the engine room must never be used to:

A. Blow dust off clothing or the body
B. Drive pneumatic tools
C. Clean machinery parts in a controlled manner
D. Operate air-driven pumps

Answer: A — Blow dust off clothing or the body

Compressed air directed at the body can enter the skin or body openings, causing embolism or serious internal injury, and flying particles can damage eyes; it must be used only for approved tools and cleaning tasks with eye protection.

11. The viscosity of a lubricating oil is a measure of its:

A. Colour
B. Flash point
C. Water content
D. Resistance to flow

Answer: D — Resistance to flow

Viscosity is the oil's internal resistance to flow; it decreases as temperature rises. Correct viscosity is essential to maintain a lubricating film between bearing surfaces, so oil grade and temperature are monitored during watchkeeping.

12. Grease is preferred to oil for lubricating:

A. High-speed turbocharger bearings
B. Slow-moving or hard-to-reach bearings where oil would drain away
C. Main engine crankshaft bearings with forced lubrication
D. Cylinder liners of a crosshead engine

Answer: B — Slow-moving or hard-to-reach bearings where oil would drain away

Grease is oil held in a thickener; it stays in place and seals out dirt and water, so it suits slow-moving, intermittently used or inaccessible bearings such as valve spindles, deck machinery and motor bearings fitted with grease nipples.

13. Cylinder oil used in two-stroke crosshead engines burning high-sulphur fuel is alkaline (high TBN) in order to:

A. Cool the exhaust gases
B. Increase the viscosity of fuel oil
C. Neutralise sulphuric acid formed during combustion
D. Separate water from the oil

Answer: C — Neutralise sulphuric acid formed during combustion

Sulphur in fuel forms sulphuric acid that causes cold corrosion of liners and rings; cylinder oil contains alkaline additives measured as Total Base Number, matched to the fuel sulphur content, to neutralise this acid.

14. A lubricating oil sample that appears milky or cloudy most likely indicates:

A. Overheating with no contamination
B. Correct viscosity
C. Water contamination
D. Fuel dilution only

Answer: C — Water contamination

Water mixed with oil forms an emulsion that looks milky or cloudy; water reduces film strength and causes corrosion and bearing damage, so the source such as a cooler leak must be found and the oil purified.

15. SOLAS requires that hot surfaces likely to be impinged by leaking oil, such as exhaust pipes, be insulated if their temperature exceeds:

A. 100 degrees C
B. 220 degrees C
C. 60 degrees C
D. 500 degrees C

Answer: B — 220 degrees C

SOLAS II-2 regulation 4.2.2.6.1 requires surfaces above 220 degrees C which may be impinged as a result of a fuel system failure to be properly insulated, because sprayed fuel or lubricating oil can ignite on contact and cause engine room fires.

16. When diluting a concentrated acid with water, the correct practice is to:

A. Heat the acid first
B. Mix them in a closed container
C. Add the acid slowly to the water
D. Add the water quickly to the acid

Answer: C — Add the acid slowly to the water

Mixing acid and water releases heat; adding water to concentrated acid can boil locally and splash acid violently, so acid is always added slowly to water while stirring, wearing goggles, gloves and an apron.

17. If a chemical splashes into a person's eyes, the first action is to:

A. Apply oil to the eyes
B. Rub the eyes to remove the chemical
C. Cover the eyes and wait for the doctor
D. Flush the eyes with plenty of clean running water, using the eyewash station

Answer: D — Flush the eyes with plenty of clean running water, using the eyewash station

Immediate and prolonged flushing with clean water dilutes and removes the chemical and limits damage; eyelids are held open during flushing, after which medical advice is obtained and the safety data sheet consulted.

18. Under SOLAS II-1/29, the main steering gear must be capable of putting the rudder from 35 degrees on one side to 30 degrees on the other side within:

A. 28 seconds
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 60 seconds

Answer: A — 28 seconds

SOLAS II-1 regulation 29 requires the main steering gear to put the rudder from 35 degrees on one side to 35 degrees on the other at maximum service speed, and from 35 degrees on either side to 30 degrees on the other in not more than 28 seconds.

19. Under SOLAS, the auxiliary steering gear must be capable of putting the rudder from 15 degrees on one side to 15 degrees on the other within:

A. 28 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 60 seconds
D. 10 seconds

Answer: C — 60 seconds

SOLAS II-1 regulation 29 requires the auxiliary steering gear to put the rudder from 15 degrees on one side to 15 degrees on the other in not more than 60 seconds at one half of maximum ahead service speed or 7 knots, whichever is greater.

20. Under SOLAS chapter V, emergency steering drills must be carried out at least once every:

A. Week
B. Year
C. Five years
D. Three months

Answer: D — Three months

SOLAS V/26 requires emergency steering drills at least once every three months, including direct control from within the steering gear compartment, communication with the bridge and operation of alternative power supplies; the drills are recorded in the log book.

21. SOLAS V/26 requires the ship's steering gear to be checked and tested before departure within:

A. 1 hour after departure
B. 12 hours before departure
C. 30 days before departure
D. 7 days before departure

Answer: B — 12 hours before departure

Within 12 hours before departure the steering gear is checked and tested, including full movement of the rudder, operation of each power unit, remote control systems, the rudder angle indicator and emergency power supply.

22. During emergency steering from the steering gear compartment, the helm orders from the bridge are received by:

A. Signals from the ship's whistle
B. Written notes sent by messenger
C. The fixed communication system such as the telephone between bridge and steering gear room
D. Shouting through the engine room skylight

Answer: C — The fixed communication system such as the telephone between bridge and steering gear room

SOLAS requires a means of communication between the bridge and the steering gear compartment, and the compartment has a rudder angle indicator and compass reading, so that the person steering locally can receive and carry out helm orders.

23. The main purpose of a bow thruster is to:

A. Act as the main steering gear in open sea
B. Improve manoeuvrability at low speed, especially when berthing
C. Pump ballast water forward
D. Increase the ship's speed at sea

Answer: B — Improve manoeuvrability at low speed, especially when berthing

A bow thruster is a transverse tunnel propeller in the forward part of the ship that pushes the bow sideways; it is effective at low speeds for berthing and unberthing, and becomes ineffective as ship speed increases.

24. Before a large electrically driven bow thruster is started, the engine room must ensure that:

A. Sufficient generators are running and on load to supply its power
B. The fire pump is running
C. The main engine is stopped
D. The steering gear is switched off

Answer: A — Sufficient generators are running and on load to supply its power

Bow thruster motors are among the largest electrical consumers; starting one without adequate generator capacity can overload the switchboard and cause a blackout, so additional generators are started and synchronised before the bridge is given permission.

25. Steering gears on most ships are provided with two power units (pumps) so that:

A. One can supply the bow thruster
B. One is used only in port
C. If one fails, the other can be started to maintain steering
D. The rudder can turn faster than permitted

Answer: C — If one fails, the other can be started to maintain steering

Two independent power units give redundancy; if one fails, the other can be started from the bridge or locally. Both are often run together in restricted waters for faster response and for safety.

26. A sound-powered telephone used between the bridge, engine control room and steering gear compartment is useful because it:

A. Works without any external electrical power supply
B. Needs the main switchboard to be live
C. Can only be used in port
D. Works only during UMS operation

Answer: A — Works without any external electrical power supply

A sound-powered telephone converts the speaker's voice into electrical signals in the handset itself, so it continues to work during a blackout; it therefore provides reliable emergency communication between key control stations.

27. The engine telegraph between the bridge and engine room is used to:

A. Transmit fire alarm signals
B. Transmit and acknowledge orders for engine speed and direction
C. Start the emergency generator
D. Measure the engine exhaust temperature

Answer: B — Transmit and acknowledge orders for engine speed and direction

The engine order telegraph transmits orders such as slow ahead or full astern from the bridge to the engine control position; the engine room acknowledges by moving its handle to match, and changes are recorded in the bell book.

28. In a refrigeration plant, the refrigerant absorbs heat from the cold room in the:

A. Compressor
B. Receiver
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator

Answer: D — Evaporator

In the vapour compression cycle the liquid refrigerant evaporates in the evaporator coils inside the cold room, absorbing heat; the compressor raises the vapour pressure and the condenser rejects the heat to cooling water.

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MEK exit exam questions and answers — Marine Engineering Knowledge

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