GSK exit exam questions and answers
All 447 questions from the General Ship Knowledge (GSK) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
Bank last rebuilt .
447 of 447 shown
Nothing in this key matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.
Set 1 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. K-S-A-V stands for
- A. Knowledge, Seamanship, Altitude, Values
- B. Knowledge, Style, Attitude, Values
- C. Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, Values
- D. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, Values
Answer: C — Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, Values
K-S-A-V stands for Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, and Values. These are fundamental components for professional development and effective performance in any role, particularly in the maritime industry.
2. Match the term "MODE OF COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Computer
- B. Speaker
- C. Noise
- D. Receiver
Answer: A — Computer
In the context of communication, a computer can act as a medium or channel through which information is sent and received, making it a mode of communication.
3. Being ethical is important for
- A. Avoiding conflict
- B. Both office and personal life
- C. Office life
- D. Personal life
Answer: B — Both office and personal life
Ethical conduct is crucial in both personal and professional life. It fosters trust, integrity, and positive relationships, contributing to a harmonious environment and professional reputation.
4. Select which is not the chapters of a Personal Computer
- A. Monitor
- B. Steering wheel
- C. Central Processing unit (CPU)
- D. Mouse
Answer: B — Steering wheel
A steering wheel is a component of a vehicle's control system and is not part of a personal computer's hardware. The monitor, CPU, and mouse are all essential parts of a PC.
5. Which is the duties of a Deck rating
- A. painting the engine room
- B. Steer ship under the direction of the officer on watch
- C. Lubricate moving chapters of engines, machinery and equipments
- D. Monitor engine, machinery and equipment indicators and report abnormalities to ship engineer officer on watch
Answer: B — Steer ship under the direction of the officer on watch
A key duty of a deck rating includes steering the ship under the direction of the officer on watch, as per the helm orders. Monitoring machinery and lubricating are typically engine department duties.
6. We communicate to
- A. Send and receive information
- B. Please others
- C. Send information
- D. Receive information
Answer: A — Send and receive information
Communication is a two-way process. We communicate to both send information to others and to receive information from them, ensuring understanding and interaction.
7. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "MOUSE" ?
- A. Used to point objects on the monitor
- B. Getting Music
- C. The brain of the computer
- D. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
Answer: A — Used to point objects on the monitor
The mouse is a computer input device used to control the cursor on the monitor, allowing users to point, select, and interact with graphical user interface elements.
8. Telephone is an example of
- A. Barrier in communication
- B. Sender
- C. Receiver
- D. Channel of communication
Answer: D — Channel of communication
A telephone is a device that facilitates spoken communication over a distance, acting as a channel through which the message travels between the sender and receiver.
9. Match the term "VERBAL COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Computer
- B. Speaking
- C. Facial Expression
- D. Noise
Answer: B — Speaking
Verbal communication primarily involves the use of spoken words. Therefore, speaking is the most direct and suitable answer representing this mode of communication.
10. Which of the following is required for success of a project?
- A. Personal gain
- B. Purpose and Goal
- C. Lots of money
- D. Politics
Answer: B — Purpose and Goal
A clear purpose and well-defined goals are essential for the success of any project. While resources like money are important, they are secondary to having a clear objective.
11. Skill is an ability gained by
- A. Responding well
- B. Practicing or learning
- C. Dominating others
- D. Cooperating with others
Answer: B — Practicing or learning
Skills are abilities that are developed and refined through consistent practice, training, and learning. They are not innate but acquired over time with effort.
12. Which of the following is NOT a communication skill?
- A. Reading
- B. Teaming
- C. Writing
- D. Speaking
Answer: B — Teaming
Teaming, or teamwork, is a collaborative skill related to working with others. Speaking, writing, and reading are fundamental components of communication.
13. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "SPELL GRAMMER" ?
- A. Opens an existing file
- B. Changes the color of the text
- C. Spelling and grammer check
- D. Writes numbered bullets
Answer: C — Spelling and grammer check
In word processing software, 'Spell Grammar' refers to the function that checks the document for errors in spelling and grammatical construction.
14. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "KEYBOARD" ?
- A. Peripheral to the computer
- B. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
- C. Used to point objects on the monitor
- D. Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer
Answer: D — Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer
The keyboard is a peripheral device that allows a user to input text and commands into a computer, functioning similarly to a typewriter.
15. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "ZOOM"?
- A. Opens a new word document
- B. Writes numbered bullets
- C. Zoom in and Zoom out
- D. Cuts files into the clip-board
Answer: C — Zoom in and Zoom out
The 'Zoom' function in computer applications allows users to enlarge or reduce the view of a document or image, making it appear closer or farther away.
16. Which of the following is a NOT a quality of a good leader:
- A. Forward looking
- B. Dedication
- C. Demanding
- D. Inspiring
Answer: C — Demanding
A 'demanding' leader might be perceived as overly strict or authoritarian, which is generally not considered a positive leadership quality. Inspiring, dedication, and forward-looking are key leadership attributes.
17. Learning becomes permanent only by
- A. Reading
- B. Asking questions
- C. Practice
- D. Use of Senses
Answer: C — Practice
Learning is most effectively retained and becomes permanent when it is reinforced through practical application and repetition. While reading and senses help, practice solidifies knowledge.
18. Showing anger through facial expressions is an example of
- A. Non – Verbal Communication
- B. Verbal Communication
- C. Receiving communication
- D. Mode of communication
Answer: A — Non – Verbal Communication
Expressing emotions like anger through facial expressions is a form of non-verbal communication, as it conveys a message without using spoken or written words.
19. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "UNDO"?
- A. Opens a new word document
- B. Redoes previous actions
- C. Undoes previous actions
- D. Shows a preview of files before they print
Answer: C — Undoes previous actions
The 'Undo' function in software allows users to reverse the last action performed, effectively cancelling changes made.
20. On the day of exam, one should reach the exam center______ before exam
- A. 15 minutes
- B. 30 minutes
- C. 5 minutes
- D. 1 hour
Answer: B — 30 minutes
It is advisable to arrive at the examination center at least 30 minutes prior to the scheduled start time. This allows ample time for registration, finding the venue, and settling in without unnecessary stress.
21. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "NEW" ?
- A. Opens an existing file
- B. Spelling and grammer check
- C. Open a new word document
- D. Writes numbered bullets
Answer: C — Open a new word document
In word processing, selecting 'New' typically initiates the creation of a blank document, ready for new content to be entered.
22. Printer is a
- A. CD-ROM Drive
- B. Memory
- C. Peripheral
- D. Monitor
Answer: C — Peripheral
A printer is an external device that connects to a computer to produce hard copies of digital information; it is classified as a peripheral.
23. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CPU"?
- A. The brain of the computer
- B. Peripheral to the computer
- C. Used to point objects on the monitor
- D. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
Answer: A — The brain of the computer
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer because it performs most of the processing and calculations required for the computer to operate.
24. While doing work, priority should be to
- A. Needs of others
- B. Most important and urgent work
- C. Most urgent work
- D. Most important work
Answer: B — Most important and urgent work
When undertaking tasks, the highest priority should be given to work that is both important and urgent, as these require immediate attention to avoid negative consequences.
25. One of the internal barriers to communication is
- A. Time
- B. Distraction
- C. Ego
- D. Noise
Answer: C — Ego
Ego can be a significant internal barrier to effective communication, as it may prevent individuals from listening openly or considering others' perspectives.
26. While studying for examination, one should
- A. Read very carefully
- B. Highlight the main points in the book
- C. Memorize everything
- D. Try to understand the matter
Answer: B — Highlight the main points in the book
While memorizing, highlighting, and reading carefully are useful study techniques, truly understanding the material is key for long-term retention and application, which is more effective than mere memorization.
27. CPU stands for
- A. Computer processing unit
- B. Central process unit
- C. Computer program unit
- D. Central processing unit
Answer: D — Central processing unit
CPU is an acronym that stands for Central Processing Unit, the primary component of a computer responsible for executing instructions.
28. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "NUMBERING"?
- A. Opens a new word document
- B. Writes numbered bullets
- C. Zoom in and Zoom out
- D. Undoes previous actions
Answer: B — Writes numbered bullets
The 'Numbering' function in word processing software is used to automatically create ordered lists with numerical or bulleted points.
29. Sending information is the opposite of
- A. Receiving information
- B. Encoding message
- C. Transmitting information
- D. Action
Answer: A — Receiving information
Sending information is the direct opposite of receiving information, representing the two fundamental directions of data flow in communication.
30. The weight of the hatch cover in the open position is taken by the
- A. Side rollers
- B. Cleats
- C. Wedges
- D. Eccentric rollers
Answer: A — Side rollers
When hatch covers are in the open position, their weight is supported by side rollers that run along the hatch coaming. These rollers facilitate the smooth movement of the covers and bear the load.
Set 2 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Bulk carrier discharge cargo with
- A. Hosepipes
- B. Buckets
- C. Grabs
- D. Shovels
Answer: C — Grabs
Bulk carriers primarily discharge granular or powdered cargo using grabs. These mechanical devices efficiently scoop and lift large quantities of bulk material from the holds.
2. Containers are lashed on a cellular container ship with
- A. Nylon ropes
- B. Twist locks and rod lashings
- C. Nylon lashings
- D. Chains and shackles
Answer: B — Twist locks and rod lashings
Containers on a cellular container ship are secured using twist locks that engage with the corner castings of the containers. Rod lashings may also be used in conjunction for additional stability.
3. The SWL of derrick
- A. Can be exceeded sometimes
- B. Can be exceeded
- C. Should never be exceeded
- D. May be exceeded once a voyage
Answer: C — Should never be exceeded
The Safe Working Load (SWL) of any derrick or lifting appliance should never be exceeded. This is a critical safety regulation to prevent catastrophic failure and ensure the safety of personnel and cargo.
4. When a ship goes from cold region to warmer region there is
- A. Cold sweat
- B. Warm sweat
- C. Ship sweat
- D. Cargo sweat
Answer: D — Cargo sweat
When a ship moves from a cold region to a warmer region, moisture from the warmer air condenses on the cold surfaces of the cargo and ship's structure, leading to 'cargo sweat'. This condensation can damage certain types of cargo.
5. When filling a ballast tank it is important to
- A. Press up the tank
- B. Take gas readings
- C. Make sure that the tank air vents are open
- D. Open the manhole cover
Answer: C — Make sure that the tank air vents are open
When filling a ballast tank, it is imperative that the tank's air vents are open. This allows air to escape as the tank fills, preventing pressure build-up and ensuring safe and efficient filling.
6. Rope slings are used for loading
- A. Locomotives
- B. Motor cars
- C. Bagged cargo
- D. Containers
Answer: C — Bagged cargo
Rope slings are versatile and are commonly used for loading bagged cargo. The ropes are looped around the bags to form a secure bundle for hoisting.
7. Hatch covers can be of the
- A. All of the above
- B. Lift on Lift off
- C. Folding type
- D. Side opening type
Answer: A — All of the above
Hatch covers come in various designs, including lift-on/lift-off, folding types, and side-opening types, depending on the ship's design and cargo. All these types are used to provide access to cargo holds.
8. The lower span block of the derrick is connected to the
- A. Heel of the derrick
- B. Middle of the derrick
- C. Mast
- D. Head of the derrick
Answer: D — Head of the derrick
The lower span block of a derrick is connected to the head of the derrick, which is the uppermost point. This block is part of the hoisting system used to lift the cargo.
9. The crane body is situated on
- A. Mast house
- B. Deck
- C. Corner post
- D. Crane post
Answer: D — Crane post
The crane body, which houses the main machinery and hoist mechanism, is typically situated on a robust structure called a crane post or pedestal. This provides a stable base for the rotating crane.
10. Cargo holds carrying dangerous cargo should
- A. Have portable CO2 extinguishers
- B. Not have a fixed fire fighting system
- C. Have portable foam extinguishers
- D. Have a fixed fire fighting system
Answer: D — Have a fixed fire fighting system
Cargo holds designated for dangerous cargo must be equipped with a fixed fire-fighting system, such as a CO2 or foam system, as per SOLAS regulations. This ensures prompt and effective fire suppression in a hazardous environment.
11. Canvas covers gives air pipes additional protection against
- A. Water ingress in rough weather
- B. Corrosion
- C. Pollution
- D. Rust
Answer: A — Water ingress in rough weather
Canvas covers placed over air pipe heads provide an additional layer of protection against water ingress during rough weather. This helps prevent seawater from entering the tank through the air pipe.
12. The ship can be penalized in port if there is
- A. An emergency alarm
- B. machinery breakdown
- C. power failure
- D. An oil spill in the harbour water
Answer: D — An oil spill in the harbour water
A ship can face severe penalties if there is an oil spill in harbour waters, as this constitutes a breach of environmental regulations (MARPOL). Such incidents have significant legal and financial consequences.
13. Before entering ballast tanks you must
- A. Wear hand gloves
- B. Open tank for ventilation to air out foul gases
- C. Keep fire extinguisher ready near the entrance
- D. Wear face mask
Answer: B — Open tank for ventilation to air out foul gases
Before entering any confined space, including ballast tanks, it is crucial to ventilate the space thoroughly to remove any dangerous or flammable gases. This is a fundamental safety procedure to prevent asphyxiation or explosion.
14. Eccentric rollers are lowered on steel hatch covers
- A. To make the hatch cover sit on the trackway
- B. To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway
- C. Grease the eccentric rollers
- D. When the hatch cover has to be repaired
Answer: A — To make the hatch cover sit on the trackway
Eccentric rollers on steel hatch covers are lowered to ensure the cover sits securely and seals properly onto the coaming or trackway when closed, providing watertight integrity.
15. Vehicles are loaded on to a Ro Ro ferry through the
- A. Tween deck
- B. Ramp
- C. Hatch cover
- D. Bulbous bow
Answer: B — Ramp
Ro Ro ferries are designed for the efficient loading and unloading of wheeled cargo. The ramp provides a direct, level access from the quay to the vehicle decks, allowing vehicles to drive on and off under their own power.
16. Grabs are used for loading
- A. General cargo
- B. Liquid cargo
- C. Chemical cargo
- D. Bulk cargo
Answer: D — Bulk cargo
Grabs are mechanical devices specifically designed for handling loose, granular, or fragmented materials. This type of cargo, such as coal, ore, or grain, is efficiently collected and transported by the jaws of a grab.
17. On a container ship containers have to be secure as per the
- A. Availability of the lashing material
- B. Approved lashing plan
- C. Convenience of the lashing gang
- D. Size of the container
Answer: B — Approved lashing plan
Securing containers on a cellular containership is a critical safety operation governed by strict regulations. An approved lashing plan, developed by naval architects and approved by classification societies, dictates the exact methods and materials to ensure stability and prevent shifting.
18. A wire snotter is a type of a
- A. Wire sling
- B. Net sling
- C. Cargo net
- D. Wooden tray
Answer: A — Wire sling
A wire snotter is a short loop of wire rope, typically with a thimble, used to form an eye or bight on a wire sling. It is an integral part of the sling assembly used for lifting cargo.
19. Hatches are battened down by
- A. Cross wedges
- B. Placing locking pins
- C. Lowering eccentric rollers
- D. Covering with tarpaulin
Answer: A — Cross wedges
On steel hatch covers, eccentric rollers are rotated to secure them. When the hatch is closed, turning the eccentric rollers wedges the cover in place, providing a watertight and secure seal.
20. The capacity of tank with depth is available in the
- A. Calibration tables
- B. Deck log book
- C. Oil record book
- D. ASTM tables
Answer: A — Calibration tables
Calibration tables, often called tank sounding or ullage tables, provide the volume of liquid in a tank corresponding to a given depth or ullage. These tables are essential for accurate cargo and ballast calculations.
21. Disposal of all cargo residue should be entered in the
- A. Oil record book
- B. Garbage record book
- C. Stevedores record book
- D. Official log book
Answer: B — Garbage record book
The Garbage Record Book (GRB) is a mandatory log for recording the disposal of all types of garbage generated onboard ship, as required by MARPOL Annex V. Cargo residue is considered garbage and its discharge must be documented.
22. Container are loaded on board a gearless cellular container ship by
- A. Floating cranes
- B. Derricks
- C. Grabs
- D. Shore gantry cranes
Answer: D — Shore gantry cranes
Gearless cellular container ships rely on shore-based equipment for loading and discharging. Shore gantry cranes are specifically designed to efficiently and safely lift containers to and from the ship's holds and deck.
23. In port loading and discharging on a cellular container ship is by
- A. Derricks
- B. Wire slings
- C. Grabs
- D. Shore gantry
Answer: D — Shore gantry
Cellular container ships in port are loaded and discharged using specialized shore-based equipment. Shore gantry cranes are designed for rapid, precise movement of containers to and from the vessel.
24. When the derrick is secured for sea the head will rest on the
- A. Mast house
- B. Crutch stand
- C. Hatch cover
- D. Deck
Answer: B — Crutch stand
When a derrick is secured for sea, its boom (head) rests on a crutch stand, which is a secure support designed to prevent movement and stress on the mast or deck.
25. Eccentric rollers are lifted on steel hatch covers
- A. Grease the eccentric rollers
- B. To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway
- C. When the hatch cover has to be repaired
- D. To batten down the hatch cover
Answer: B — To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway
Eccentric rollers are part of the mechanism that allows steel hatch covers to be opened and closed. Lifting or rotating them disengages the cover from its locking position, enabling it to roll smoothly on its trackway.
26. Ship sweat occurs when a vessel loads cargo in a
- A. Cold place to another cold place
- B. Cold and wet place and goes to a warm place
- C. Warm place to another warm place
- D. Warm and humid place and goes to a cooler place
Answer: D — Warm and humid place and goes to a cooler place
Ship sweat occurs when warm, moist air inside a cargo hold comes into contact with a colder surface (like the ship's structure or cargo). This temperature difference causes condensation to form, potentially damaging cargo.
27. Before entering enclosed spaces, the space must be
- A. Filled with inert gas
- B. Cleaned
- C. Painted
- D. Ventilated
Answer: D — Ventilated
Before entering any enclosed space, thorough ventilation is crucial. This process removes or dilutes any hazardous or flammable gases and replenishes oxygen levels to ensure a safe atmosphere.
28. Cellular container vessels have several lift on lift off hatch covers to
- A. Carry more containers on deck Reduce the weight of each hatch cover
- B. Minimize stress on the trackway
- C. Prevent water from entering into the cargo hold
- D. Reduce the weight of each hatch cover
Answer: A — Carry more containers on deck Reduce the weight of each hatch cover
Cellular container vessels utilize lift-on/lift-off hatch covers that are designed to be stowed on deck. This design allows for the carriage of additional containers on the hatch covers themselves, maximizing the vessel's carrying capacity.
29. Purpose of a handlead line is to measure the
- A. Draft
- B. Height
- C. Depth of water
- D. Length of a ship
Answer: C — Depth of water
A hand lead line is a traditional sounding device used to measure the depth of water. It consists of a weighted line marked with depths, manually lowered to the seabed.
30. Cargoes which give off gases requires
- A. Cooling
- B. Heating
- C. Drying
- D. Ventilation
Answer: D — Ventilation
Cargoes that release gases, such as certain organic materials, require adequate ventilation. This ensures that any accumulated gases are dispersed, preventing pressure build-up and maintaining a safe atmosphere within the hold.
Set 3 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Cargo hold washing are pumped out
- A. Into the engine bilges
- B. Through the hold bilges
- C. Into the side
- D. Through the double bottom tank
Answer: B — Through the hold bilges
After cargo hold washing, the resulting water is typically pumped out through the hold bilge system. This system collects and pumps liquids from the lowest part of the hold overboard or to a slop tank.
2. The flammable range of a gas is
- A. Between LFL and UFL in hydrogen
- B. Above UFL
- C. Below LFL
- D. Between the LFL and UFL in air
Answer: D — Between the LFL and UFL in air
The flammable range, or explosive limits, of a gas mixture in air is defined by the concentrations that can support combustion. It lies between the Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) and the Upper Flammable Limit (UFL).
3. Inert gas has a
- A. High content of sulphur
- B. Low content of nitrogen
- C. High content of oxygen
- D. Low content of oxygen
Answer: D — Low content of oxygen
Inert gas, commonly used for cargo tank protection, is characterized by a very low oxygen content. This lack of oxygen prevents combustion by displacing the flammable vapor and air mixture.
4. General cargo consists of
- A. Bulk grain
- B. LNG
- C. Bales
- D. Liquid cargo
Answer: A — Bulk grain
General cargo is a broad category that traditionally encompasses a wide variety of non-bulk, non-liquid commodities. While the options provided are varied, 'Bulk grain' is often considered a specific type of bulk cargo, but in a generalized context of cargo types, 'Bales' and similar packaged goods fall under general cargo.
5. The cargo hold of a cellular container Ship has the following fittings inside
- A. Hatch boards
- B. Pillars
- C. Cell guides
- D. Tween deck
Answer: C — Cell guides
Cellular container ships are equipped with cell guides within the cargo holds. These vertical structures precisely guide containers into their designated slots, ensuring stability and efficient stowage.
6. Cargo hold bilge strum boxes should be cleaned
- A. After every discharge of cargo
- B. Once a month
- C. Every year
- D. In dry-dock
Answer: A — After every discharge of cargo
Cargo hold bilge strum boxes are critical for preventing debris from entering the bilge pumping system. Cleaning them after every cargo discharge ensures the bilge system remains clear and effective.
7. All accesses to a cargo hold should be
- A. Corrosion resistant
- B. Held tight
- C. Water tight
- D. Weather tight
Answer: D — Weather tight
All accesses to a cargo hold, such as hatches and manholes, must be weather tight. This is essential to prevent the ingress of seawater, rain, and spray, protecting the cargo from damage.
8. The safe working load of the derrick or crane can be
- A. Exceeded if operating slowly
- B. Exceeded when required
- C. Exceeded
- D. Should not be exceeded
Answer: D — Should not be exceeded
The Safe Working Load (SWL) of any lifting appliance, including derricks and cranes, represents the maximum load they are certified to handle safely. Exceeding this limit poses a significant risk of equipment failure and accident.
9. The ships crane can rotate through
- A. 180 degrees
- B. 270 degrees
- C. 360 degrees
- D. 90 degrees
Answer: C — 360 degrees
Ships' cranes, particularly those designed for cargo handling, are typically capable of rotating a full 360 degrees. This allows for comprehensive coverage and efficient operation around the working area.
10. A Ro Ro ship can be used to carry
- A. All of the below
- B. Passengers
- C. Cars
- D. Trucks
Answer: A — All of the below
Ro Ro (Roll-on/Roll-off) vessels are specifically designed to carry wheeled cargo, including cars, trucks, trailers, and passengers who may be accompanying their vehicles. Therefore, they can accommodate all listed types of cargo.
11. Bilges should be cleaned, covered with burlap and cemented
- A. Prior to loading bulk cargo
- B. After loading bulk cargo
- C. Prior to cleaning the cargo hold
- D. After discharging bulk cargo
Answer: A — Prior to loading bulk cargo
Prior to loading bulk cargo, the bilges of the holds must be prepared. Cleaning them and covering with burlap then cementing prevents loose material from entering the bilge system during loading and transit.
12. At sea container lashings should be tightened
- A. Weekly
- B. Fortnightly
- C. Only after rough weather is encountered
- D. Daily
Answer: D — Daily
Container lashings on cellular container ships require regular inspection and tightening, especially at sea. Daily checks are often necessary to ensure the security of the containers against the dynamic forces of the marine environment.
13. A LNG tanker carries
- A. Liquefied natural gas
- B. Petroleum gases
- C. Crude oil
- D. Chemicals
Answer: A — Liquefied natural gas
LNG tankers are specialized vessels designed for the transportation of Liquefied Natural Gas. The cargo is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state for easier storage and transport.
14. A ballast tank must not be pressurized as it will
- A. Damage the tank
- B. Increase the draft
- C. Sink the ship
- D. Cause pollution
Answer: A — Damage the tank
Pressurizing a ballast tank beyond its design limits can cause structural damage. Ballast tanks are designed to withstand hydrostatic pressure and normal venting, not over-pressurization.
15. All cargo gear should have
- A. Colour codes
- B. Test certificates
- C. Name codes
- D. Maintenance certificates
Answer: B — Test certificates
All cargo gear, including cranes, derricks, and associated lifting equipment, must have valid test certificates. These certificates verify that the gear has been inspected, tested, and certified safe for its intended working load, as per international regulations.
16. Discharge of chemical cargo tank washing should comply with
- A. MARPOL
- B. STCW
- C. SOLAS
- D. ISM
Answer: A — MARPOL
The discharge of chemical cargo tank washings is strictly regulated by MARPOL. Annex II of MARPOL provides specific requirements for the handling and disposal of residues from chemical tankers to prevent marine pollution.
17. Gooseneck of a derrick is an arrangement
- A. To house the derrick when at sea
- B. Which supports a derrick block
- C. Which supports the derrick heel
- D. For rigging a Derrick
Answer: C — Which supports the derrick heel
The gooseneck is a component of a derrick rig that supports the derrick heel (the lower end of the mast or derrick spar). It allows the derrick to pivot and be secured in position.
18. Prior to loading bulk cargo the holds should be
- A. Cleaned and all the dunnage piled up in one section of the hold
- B. Cleaned with the bilge cover kept open
- C. Swept clean and all sweepings put in the bilges
- D. Cleaned in all respects for the next cargo
Answer: D — Cleaned in all respects for the next cargo
Before loading bulk cargo, cargo holds must be thoroughly cleaned and prepared to ensure the cargo's integrity and to prevent contamination. All residues must be removed, and the holds must be in a suitable condition for the specific cargo being loaded.
19. Containers are interlocked together with
- A. Bridge fittings
- B. All of the above
- C. Twist locks
- D. Linkage plate
Answer: B — All of the above
Containers on board a vessel are secured together using various fittings. Twist locks are inserted into the corner castings to lock adjacent containers, while bridge fittings and linkage plates can be used for further securing.
20. The knot used for making a back splice is a
- A. Overhand knot
- B. Figure of eight knot
- C. Reef knot
- D. Crown knot
Answer: D — Crown knot
A crown knot is used as the finishing knot in a back splice for wire ropes. It secures the ends of the spliced wires, preventing them from unraveling.
21. Block which has a hinged side is known as
- A. Snatch block
- B. Chain block
- C. Gin Block
- D. Heel block
Answer: A — Snatch block
A snatch block is a type of pulley block that has a hinged or opening side. This feature allows the rope to be easily inserted without having to be threaded through the entire block, simplifying rigging.
22. The advantage of using a purchase is that for a given size of wire rope
- A. The frictional forces are reduced
- B. greater weight can be lifted
- C. smaller weight can be lifted
- D. The same weight can be lifted
Answer: B — greater weight can be lifted
A purchase, which is a system of ropes and pulleys (blocks), provides mechanical advantage. This allows a greater weight to be lifted with less effort than would be required with a single rope, for the same size of rope.
23. The SWL of each block is punched on the
- A. Hook
- B. Swivel
- C. Cheek
- D. Binding straps
Answer: D — Binding straps
The Safe Working Load (SWL) of a block used in lifting tackle is typically stamped or punched onto the cheek plate, which is the side plate of the block. This marking ensures that the maximum safe load is clearly indicated.
24. A lead block is used in a derrick when rigging the
- A. Stay wire
- B. Heel block
- C. Preventer wire
- D. Purchase to advantage
Answer: D — Purchase to advantage
A lead block, often a single sheave block, is used in a derrick rig to change the direction of the running part of a rope, enabling the purchase to be rove to advantage. This means the direction of pull is adjusted for more efficient lifting.
25. To make temporary eye at one end the most useful knot is
- A. Reef knot
- B. Overhand knot
- C. Bowline
- D. Figure of eight knot
Answer: C — Bowline
The bowline is the most suitable knot for creating a temporary eye in a rope end. It forms a secure, non-slipping loop that is easy to untie even after being under load, essential for many rigging and rescue applications.
26. To increase the life of a steel wire rope in a crane it should be
- A. Changed end to end
- B. Greased regularly
- C. Kept slack on the drum
- D. Painted
Answer: B — Greased regularly
Regular greasing of the steel wire rope used in cranes is crucial to prevent corrosion and reduce friction between the wires and strands. This maintenance significantly extends the rope's service life and ensures its safe operation.
27. Proof Load of derrick / crane is
- A. More than safe working load
- B. Same as safe working Load
- C. Less than
- D. More than breaking strength
Answer: A — More than safe working load
The Proof Load of a derrick or crane is defined as the load that the equipment can withstand without permanent deformation or failure. It is always specified as being more than the Safe Working Load (SWL) to ensure a margin of safety.
28. A single sheave block is used to
- A. Prevent the wire from being damaged
- B. Eliminate friction
- C. Increase the power gained
- D. Act as a lead block
Answer: D — Act as a lead block
A single sheave block, when used in a derrick or lifting arrangement, primarily functions as a lead block. It redirects the line of pull, allowing the rope to run smoothly and efficiently, often in conjunction with other blocks.
29. A shackle is moused to:
- A. Increase the SWL of the shackle
- B. Strengthen the shackle
- C. Prevent the pin from slipping
- D. Prevent corrosion of the pin
Answer: C — Prevent the pin from slipping
Mousing a shackle, typically with wire or marline, is a safety measure to prevent the pin from accidentally working loose and falling out. This ensures the integrity of the connection, especially under dynamic loading conditions.
30. A purchase is roveto advantage when
- A. The pull is coming from the moving block
- B. The pull is coming from the standing block
- C. The wire thickness is reduced
- D. The purchase is hoisting more weight
Answer: A — The pull is coming from the moving block
A purchase is rove to advantage when the direction of the hauling part originates from the moving block. This configuration allows for mechanical advantage, meaning less force is required to lift a given weight.
Set 4 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Blocks are greased to
- A. Keep the check nut tight
- B. Maintain the SWL of the block
- C. Prevent Accidents
- D. Allow free rotation of sheaves
Answer: D — Allow free rotation of sheaves
Blocks are greased to ensure the free and smooth rotation of the sheaves. This reduces friction and wear on the sheave and the rope, which is vital for efficient operation and preventing damage.
2. The size of a manila rope is usually indicated by its
- A. Length
- B. Circumference
- C. Diameter
- D. Weight
Answer: C — Diameter
The size of a manila rope, and indeed most ropes, is traditionally indicated by its diameter. This measurement is critical for selecting the appropriate rope for a specific load or application based on its strength.
3. When rigging the bosun chair the gantline is secured to the chair with
- A. Double sheet bend
- B. Round turn and two half hitches
- C. Reef knot
- D. Clove hitch
Answer: A — Double sheet bend
When rigging a bosun chair, a double sheet bend is the most secure and appropriate knot to connect the gantline to the chair. It creates a strong, reliable attachment that is resistant to slipping under load.
4. To rig a threefold purchase what blocks are required
- A. One 2- sheave bock and a single sheave block
- B. Two 2- sheave blocks
- C. One 2 -sheave and one 3 sheave block
- D. Two 3 -sheave blocks
Answer: D — Two 3 -sheave blocks
A threefold purchase, which provides a mechanical advantage of 3:1, requires a block with three sheaves attached to the load (moving block) and a block with three sheaves at the fixed point (standing block). Thus, two 3-sheave blocks are needed.
5. Rope should be stored
- A. Close to chemicals and paints
- B. In a dry well ventilated space
- C. Close to hot bulkheads
- D. In a place which is exposed to hot sunlight
Answer: B — In a dry well ventilated space
Rope should always be stored in a dry, well-ventilated space, away from direct sunlight, heat, and chemicals. Proper storage preserves the rope's integrity and prevents degradation, ensuring its strength and longevity.
6. A gun tackle can be used
- A. Only to disadvantage
- B. Both to advantage and disadvantage
- C. Only to advantage
- D. Never to advantage
Answer: B — Both to advantage and disadvantage
A gun tackle, consisting of one single movable block and one single fixed block, can be rigged to provide a mechanical advantage (to advantage) or without advantage depending on which block is attached to the load. Therefore, it can be used in both ways.
7. The stage can be lowered over side for shipside painting when the vessel is
- A. Making way through water in good weather
- B. Underway
- C. Manoeuvring alongside
- D. At anchor in good weather
Answer: D — At anchor in good weather
When a vessel is at anchor in good weather, it provides a stable platform for shipside painting. Lowering a stage over the side while making way or manoeuvring would be extremely hazardous due to the vessel's movement.
8. Greasing is carried out on equipment to
- A. Increase friction
- B. Make it airtight
- C. Reduce friction
- D. Make it watertight
Answer: C — Reduce friction
Greasing mechanical equipment, such as block sheaves or winch gears, is fundamentally done to reduce friction. Lower friction allows for smoother operation, less wear, and requires less force to move components.
9. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during General Ship Knowledge tasks, what immediate action is required?
- A. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
- B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
- C. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
- D. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.
10. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for emergency procedures and alarm protocols be conducted for General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
- B. Once every 5 years during special survey
- C. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
- D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
Answer: C — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.
11. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to system maintenance, inspection, and testing in General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Verbal update to port agent without logging
- B. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
- C. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
- D. No written record is required
Answer: B — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.
12. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation under General Ship Knowledge guidelines?
- A. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
- B. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
- C. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
- D. High-visibility vest only
Answer: B — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.
13. The purpose of mousing a hook is to
- A. Reduce the swing of the object
- B. Prevent the sling from slipping out
- C. Prevent the hook from getting fouled
- D. Increase the SWL of the hook
Answer: B — Prevent the sling from slipping out
Mousing a hook, typically with wire or seizing, is a safety procedure to prevent the load or sling from accidentally slipping out of the hook's throat. This is particularly important when the load is not directly attached or under dynamic conditions.
14. When a purchase is rigged to disadvantage the pull is from the
- A. Moving block
- B. Standing block
- C. Running block
- D. Lifting block
Answer: B — Standing block
When a purchase is rigged to disadvantage, the hauling part originates from the standing block. This configuration provides no mechanical advantage; in fact, the effort required to lift the load is greater than the load itself.
15. The lay of a right hand lay rope is
- A. Left to left
- B. From right to left
- C. Midship to right
- D. Left to right
Answer: D — Left to right
A right-hand lay rope is constructed such that the strands spiral from left to right when viewed from the end. This is the most common type of rope lay, designed for general-purpose use.
16. If the sheave is cracked the sheave has to be
- A. Welded
- B. Renewed
- C. Soldered
- D. Greased
Answer: B — Renewed
If a sheave in a block is found to be cracked, it represents a significant structural weakness. It must be renewed immediately to maintain the integrity and safety of the lifting gear according to maritime safety regulations.
17. If the gap between the sheave and the cheek plate is excessive the wire
- A. Should be spliced
- B. Needs to be greased
- C. Will get fouled
- D. Needs to be changed
Answer: C — Will get fouled
An excessive gap between the sheave and the cheek plates of a block can allow the wire rope to become fouled or jammed. This situation increases the risk of damage to the wire and potential failure of the lifting operation.
18. Strongest rope for the same diameter is made of
- A. Nylon
- B. Manila
- C. Polypropylene
- D. Hemp
Answer: A — Nylon
For the same diameter, nylon ropes exhibit the highest tensile strength among the given options. This makes them suitable for applications requiring significant load-bearing capacity, such as towing or mooring lines.
19. Grease nipples are provided on blocks for
- A. Painting
- B. De-greasing
- C. Lubrication
- D. Applying anti-rust
Answer: C — Lubrication
Grease nipples, often called Zerk fittings, are specifically designed on blocks and other machinery for the purpose of applying lubricant. Regular lubrication via these nipples is essential for maintaining proper function and longevity.
20. The split pin on a shackle prevents the pin from
- A. Unlocking
- B. Getting corroded
- C. Getting jammed
- D. Getting stuck
Answer: A — Unlocking
A split pin (or cotter pin) inserted through a hole in the shackle pin and its head is used to secure the pin. It prevents the pin from backing out or unlocking due to vibration or movement, thus maintaining the shackle's connection.
21. The power gained in a threefold purchase is
- A. More than a twofold purchase when rove to advantage
- B. Less than a twofold purchase
- C. More than a gun-tackle
- D. Same as a twofold purchase
Answer: A — More than a twofold purchase when rove to advantage
A threefold purchase offers a mechanical advantage of 3:1 when rove to advantage, meaning it multiplies the applied force three times. This provides significantly more lifting power than a twofold purchase (2:1) or a gun-tackle (2:1).
22. The knot used at the end of a heaving line is a
- A. Monkey fist
- B. Carrick bend
- C. Crown knot
- D. Bowline on the bight
Answer: A — Monkey fist
A monkey fist is a type of knot often tied to the end of a heaving line. Its weight and shape help to carry the line accurately to the receiving end during line transfer operations between vessels or to shore.
23. When a wire rope is joined to a fiber rope it should be
- A. Spliced to fiber rope
- B. Connected with a shackle
- C. Tied with a knot to the fiber rope
- D. Fitted with a thimble
Answer: D — Fitted with a thimble
When joining a wire rope to a fibre rope, a thimble should be fitted into the eye of the wire rope splice. This protects the wire from crushing and abrasion where it forms the eye, and a suitable knot or fitting is then used to connect the fibre rope.
24. Breaking strength of a rope
- A. Less than safe working load
- B. Equal to safe working load
- C. Is more than the safe working load
- D. Is the amount it stretches on load
Answer: C — Is more than the safe working load
The breaking strength of a rope is the minimum load at which the rope is expected to fail. It is always considerably higher than the Safe Working Load (SWL), which incorporates a safety factor to account for wear, shock loading, and other operational stresses.
25. Kinks in the rope
- A. Cause a permanent reduction to the length of the rope
- B. Damage the warping drum
- C. Can cause permanent injury to the rope
- D. Damage the fairleads
Answer: C — Can cause permanent injury to the rope
Kinks in a rope are sharp bends or twists that can severely damage the rope's internal structure. This damage creates weak points, leading to a permanent reduction in the rope's strength and a significant risk of failure under load.
26. Eye splice is used
- A. To prevent the strands from unlaying
- B. to make a permenant eye at end of the rope
- C. For preventing the rope end from unlaying
- D. To join two ropes together
Answer: B — to make a permenant eye at end of the rope
An eye splice is a method used to create a permanent, strong loop at the end of a rope. It involves interlacing the strands of the rope's end back into the standing part, forming a secure eye for attachment.
27. Extra flexible steel wire rope has
- A. 6x24 wires per strand
- B. 6x12 wires per strand
- C. 6x48 wires per strand
- D. 6x37 wires per strand
Answer: D — 6x37 wires per strand
Extra flexible steel wire rope, designed for applications requiring high flexibility like cranes with extensive articulation, typically has a construction of 6x37. This means there are 6 main strands, each composed of 37 individual wires.
28. The lifeboat lifeline has the following knot on it at fixed intervals
- A. Bowline
- B. Figure of eight knot
- C. Reef knot
- D. Sheep-shank
Answer: B — Figure of eight knot
The figure of eight knot is commonly used at fixed intervals along lifeboat lifelines. It provides a secure grip for rescue and helps prevent accidental sliding off the line, complying with Life Saving Appliance (LSA) Code requirements.
29. Whipping is carried out
- A. Prevent the ends of a rope from unlaying
- B. Protect the ends from chafing damage
- C. Join two ropes of equal size
- D. To protect the rope from weather
Answer: A — Prevent the ends of a rope from unlaying
Whipping is the practice of tightly winding twine or cordage around the end of a rope. Its primary purpose is to prevent the strands of the rope from unlaying or unraveling, maintaining the rope's integrity.
30. If more than 10% in 8 diameters is broken the wire should be
- A. Renewed
- B. Welded
- C. Cut and spliced
- D. Turned end to end
Answer: A — Renewed
If a wire rope exhibits more than 10% of broken wires within a length of 8 diameters, it is considered significantly damaged and unsafe. According to inspection standards, such a rope must be immediately renewed.
Set 5 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Before working on the stage the seaman should inspect the stage to ensure that the
- A. Rope is of polypropylene
- B. Length of the stage is 2m
- C. Wood is intact and free from grease
- D. Mooring lines are kept tight
Answer: C — Wood is intact and free from grease
Before using a stage for tasks like shipside painting, a thorough inspection is crucial. The seaman must ensure the wood is sound, free from cracks or rot, and importantly, free from grease or oil, which could make it slippery and hazardous.
2. When lifting a spar vertically through a manhole the hitch to use is
- A. Draw hitch
- B. Midshipman hitch
- C. Timber hitch
- D. Clove hitch
Answer: C — Timber hitch
A timber hitch is the most suitable knot for lifting a spar or log vertically through a manhole. It securely grips the timber and tightens as the load is applied, while being relatively easy to release afterward.
3. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation related to General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
- B. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
- C. Temperature check only
- D. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Answer: D — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.
4. In freezing weather the mooring winches should be started at least 30 minutes before use to
- A. Warm up the system
- B. Check the oil level
- C. Remove the ropes from the store
- D. Lower the anchor
Answer: A — Warm up the system
In freezing conditions, starting mooring winches at least 30 minutes before use is essential to warm up the hydraulic or electrical systems. This prevents damage caused by cold, stiff components and ensures proper operation.
5. The full form of EEBD is
- A. Emergency exit below deck
- B. Emergency escape below deck
- C. Emergency escape breaking device
- D. Emergency escape breathing device
Answer: D — Emergency escape breathing device
EEBD stands for Emergency Escape Breathing Device. It provides a self-contained source of breathable air for personnel to safely escape from hazardous atmospheres, such as in a fire or toxic gas release situation.
6. Safety goggles are used to protect the eyes from
- A. Snow
- B. Wet weather
- C. Foreign bodies entering
- D. Heavy weather
Answer: C — Foreign bodies entering
Safety goggles are mandatory personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to protect the eyes from potential hazards. They prevent foreign bodies, such as flying debris, dust, or splashes, from entering the eyes during work.
7. After abandon ship, the survivors in a lifeboat must be given
- A. No water for the first twenty four hours
- B. One litre of water each
- C. Half a litre of water each
- D. Two litres of water each
Answer: A — No water for the first twenty four hours
As per SOLAS regulations and survival best practices, survivors in a lifeboat should not be given any water for the first 24 hours after abandoning ship. This conserves the limited supply for when dehydration becomes a critical concern.
8. When the ship is alongside a wharf the safe access to the ship is by the
- A. Coolie ladder
- B. Pilot ladder
- C. Combination ladder
- D. Gangway
Answer: D — Gangway
When a vessel is alongside a wharf or quay, the gangway is the standard and safest means of access to and from the ship. It provides a stable, fixed walkway that complies with safety regulations for personnel transfer.
9. Match the word "RESTRICTED IN HER ABILITY TO MANEUVER" with the most suitable word given below
- A. Altering course to Stateboard
- B. Five short blasts
- C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
- D. One prolonged blast every two minutes
Answer: C — One prolonged blast followed by two short
According to Rule 3(ii) of COLREGs, a vessel 'restricted in her ability to maneuver' is one that cannot take actions to avoid another ship due to her work. The defined sound signal for such a vessel when underway is one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts.
10. SOLAS deals with
- A. Tank cleaning
- B. Safety
- C. Crew welfare
- D. Pollution
Answer: B — Safety
SOLAS, the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, is a critical maritime treaty that sets minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships. It directly addresses numerous aspects of ship safety to protect lives at sea.
11. Disposal of all food waste should be entered in the
- A. Cargo record book
- B. Oil record book
- C. Garbage record book
- D. Bridge log book
Answer: C — Garbage record book
MARPOL Annex V governs the discharge of garbage from ships. All food waste, including that from galleys and living spaces, must be recorded in the Garbage Record Book, detailing quantities and disposal methods (e.g., incineration, discharge, or delivery to shore reception facilities).
12. While working near the funnel, check with the officer on the bridge that he has informed the
- A. Engine room to switch off power on deck
- B. Engine room to switch off air/steam to whistle
- C. Master
- D. Count number of seamen working
Answer: B — Engine room to switch off air/steam to whistle
When working near the funnel, especially if maintenance involves noise or potential steam release, it's crucial to coordinate with the bridge. The bridge must inform the engine room to temporarily stop the whistle (using steam or air) to prevent confusion or injury to personnel on deck.
13. What type of portable extinguisher should be used for oil fire
- A. CO2 type
- B. Water type
- C. Foam type
- D. Soda water
Answer: C — Foam type
Oil fires, often classified as Class B fires, involve flammable liquids. Foam extinguishers work by creating a blanket over the burning surface, separating the fuel from the air and cooling it. Water-based extinguishers are ineffective and can spread the fire.
14. Match the term "MAKING WAY THROUGH WATER" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Five short blasts
- B. Altering course to Stateboard
- C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
- D. One prolonged blast every two minutes
Answer: D — One prolonged blast every two minutes
The COLREGs define sound signals for vessels. 'Making way through water' means the vessel is underway and moving. The prescribed sound signal for a power-driven vessel making way through the water, when not otherwise required to be making sound signals, is one prolonged blast every two minutes.
15. Number of lifebuoys on a ship depends on its
- A. Length
- B. Moulded breadth
- C. Deadweight
- D. Draught
Answer: A — Length
The number of lifebuoys required on a ship is determined by its overall length, as specified by SOLAS Chapter III. Longer vessels require a proportionally greater number of lifebuoys to ensure adequate coverage around the ship's perimeter for immediate rescue in case of man overboard.
16. What immediate action will you take if you see a man falling overboard at sea
- A. Release lifebuoy and MOB
- B. Sound emergency station
- C. Jump into the sea
- D. Inform duty officer
Answer: A — Release lifebuoy and MOB
The immediate and crucial first action upon seeing a person fall overboard is to activate the rescue process. This involves releasing a lifebuoy with its attached light/smoke signal and immediately alerting the bridge by sounding the 'Man Overboard' alarm and the MOB button on the GMDSS.
17. When you smell something burning in your cabin your first action should be
- A. Wait for the fire alarm to ring
- B. Get a portable extinguisher to extinguish fire
- C. Telephone the next cabin to warn
- D. Vacate the cabin and raise alarm
Answer: D — Vacate the cabin and raise alarm
Upon smelling smoke in your cabin, the first and most critical action is to evacuate the immediate area and raise the alarm to alert others. This ensures personal safety and allows for a trained response by the ship's crew to assess and fight the fire.
18. Red parachute flares are called
- A. Light technics
- B. Pyrotechnics
- C. Flare technics
- D. Fire technics
Answer: B — Pyrotechnics
Red parachute flares are pyrotechnic distress signals used to indicate a vessel's position to rescuers, especially at night or in poor visibility. 'Pyrotechnics' is the general term encompassing all such signaling devices that involve a chemical reaction producing light or smoke.
19. For fighting an electrical fire, the action to be taken is to use a
- A. Soda Acid Extinguisher
- B. Portable CO2 extinguisher
- C. Water Hose
- D. Foam Extinguisher
Answer: B — Portable CO2 extinguisher
Electrical fires (Class C) are best fought with a non-conductive agent. A portable CO2 extinguisher is ideal as it displaces oxygen and cools the fire without leaving residue or conducting electricity, thus preventing further damage or risk to personnel.
20. The following task requires a hot work permit
- A. Welding on deck
- B. Painting on deck
- C. Lifeboat drill
- D. Opening hatch covers
Answer: A — Welding on deck
A hot work permit is mandatory for any activity that involves open flames, sparks, or high temperatures. Welding on deck generates sparks and heat, posing a significant fire risk, hence the requirement for a permit to ensure safety precautions are in place.
21. Ear muffs are used to protect the ears from
- A. Inflammable gases
- B. Heat radiation
- C. Bacterial infection
- D. High intensity sound
Answer: D — High intensity sound
Ear muffs are personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to attenuate sound. They are used to protect the wearer's hearing from potentially damaging high-intensity noise levels commonly found in engine rooms, workshops, or during cargo operations.
22. Rigging the "Emergency Towing Arrangement" fore and aft when alongside is mandatory for
- A. General cargo ships
- B. Bulk carriers
- C. Tankers
- D. Container ships
Answer: C — Tankers
The requirement to rig emergency towing arrangements when alongside is particularly emphasized for tankers due to the nature of their cargo. It ensures a rapid and safe means of towing in case of an emergency that might necessitate unberthing quickly, minimizing pollution risk.
23. Inspection of life saving appliances shall be carried out
- A. Monthly
- B. Weekly
- C. Half yearly
- D. Bimonthly
Answer: A — Monthly
SOLAS Chapter III requires regular inspections of life-saving appliances (LSA). These inspections are typically carried out monthly by the ship's crew to ensure all equipment is in good condition and ready for immediate use in an emergency.
24. Safety harness is used
- A. To store safety items
- B. When cleaning the wheelhouse
- C. To prevent backache
- D. When working aloft
Answer: D — When working aloft
A safety harness is a critical piece of PPE used to prevent falls when personnel are working at height. Its primary function is to secure the worker and arrest a fall, ensuring safety when working aloft or in other elevated positions.
25. During Bunkering
- A. Plug air pipes
- B. Plug sounding pipes
- C. Plug all deck scuppers
- D. Raise the gangway
Answer: C — Plug all deck scuppers
During bunkering operations, all deck scuppers must be plugged. This is a crucial safety measure to prevent any potential spill of fuel oil or other hazardous substances from escaping overboard and causing marine pollution.
26. The markings on a lifejacket include
- A. Ship owners name
- B. Ship masters name
- C. Ships port of registry
- D. Ships GRT
Answer: C — Ships port of registry
As per international regulations, lifejackets must be clearly marked with specific information. The ship's port of registry is a mandatory marking to identify the vessel to which the lifejacket belongs, aiding in inventory and accountability.
27. A self-contained breathing apparatus
- A. Is connected to the deck air line
- B. Is used for entry in enclosed spaces
- C. Is used for underwater surveys
- D. Contains oxygen
Answer: B — Is used for entry in enclosed spaces
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides a supply of clean breathing air and is essential for entering potentially hazardous atmospheres. Its primary use is for entry into confined spaces where the air may be deficient in oxygen or contaminated with toxic gases.
28. Match the term "TWO SHORT BLASTS" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Altering course to Starboard
- B. Altering course to port
- C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
- D. One prolonged blast every two minutes
Answer: B — Altering course to port
According to Rule 34 of COLREGs, two short blasts sounded in succession indicate that a vessel altering course to port is intended. This is a maneuvering signal used between vessels to indicate intentions in compliance with the Rules of the Road.
29. The familiarization of the joining crew is done by the
- A. Outgoing crew member
- B. Cadets
- C. Master
- D. Chief engineer
Answer: A — Outgoing crew member
Familiarization with a ship's layout, safety procedures, and equipment for joining crew members is typically provided by an outgoing crew member. This ensures a smooth transition and that new personnel are adequately informed about essential operational and safety aspects.
30. The distress signals, required to be kept in a lifeboat are
- A. Smoke signals + Line throwing apparatus
- B. Rocket parachutes + Hand flares
- C. Rocket parachutes + Hand flares+ Smoke signals
- D. Hand flares
Answer: C — Rocket parachutes + Hand flares+ Smoke signals
Lifeboats must carry a comprehensive set of distress signals as per SOLAS. This includes rocket-parachute signals, hand flares, and smoke signals, all designed to alert potential rescuers and indicate the lifeboat's position effectively in an emergency.
Set 6 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Best method for fighting a fire in the paint room is
- A. Use a water jet
- B. Use a fire blanket
- C. Use a foam type extinguisher
- D. Use a soda acid extinguisher
Answer: C — Use a foam type extinguisher
Paint rooms store flammable liquids, making fires (Class B) likely. Foam extinguishers are highly effective as they create a cooling, vapor-suppressing blanket over the burning liquid surface, preventing re-ignition and spread.
2. The international signal for "Man Overboard" is
- A. Seven or more short blasts followed by prolong blast
- B. Three prolonged blasts
- C. Continuous ringing of the ship’s alarm
- D. Five short and rapid blasts
Answer: B — Three prolonged blasts
The recognized international signal for 'Man Overboard' is three prolonged blasts on the ship's whistle or siren. This distinct signal alerts the entire crew to the emergency, initiating immediate response procedures.
3. Engine room bilges are pumped into the sea through the
- A. Bilge line
- B. Shore connection
- C. Overboard valve
- D. Oily water separator
Answer: D — Oily water separator
Engine room bilges collect oily water, which must be treated before discharge. The Oily Water Separator (OWS) is a mandatory piece of equipment designed to separate oil from water to meet MARPOL discharge limits before pumping overboard.
4. An emergency alarm is sounded when the ship
- A. Has had a collision
- B. Is overtaking another ship
- C. Navigating in heavy traffic
- D. Is altering course
Answer: A — Has had a collision
An emergency alarm, typically seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast, is sounded to signal a major ship emergency like a collision or grounding. This distinct signal alerts the entire crew to muster at their designated stations for evacuation or other emergency procedures.
5. Match the term "ONE PROLONGED BLAST FOLLOWED BY THREE BLASTS IN SUCCESSION" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Five short blasts
- B. Altering course to Starboard
- C. Six short blasts
- D. Vessel being towed
Answer: D — Vessel being towed
One prolonged blast followed by three short blasts in succession is the specific sound signal used by a power-driven vessel to indicate that it is directing its stern the vessel being towed. This is part of the COLREGs maneuvering and warning signals.
6. Safety hand gloves are used to protect the hands while
- A. Handling food stuff
- B. Steering the ship
- C. Cleaning crew’s mess room
- D. Handling wire ropes
Answer: D — Handling wire ropes
Safety hand gloves are essential PPE for handling materials that can cause abrasions or cuts. Wire ropes, due to their construction and tension, pose a significant risk of hand injury, making gloves crucial during their handling.
7. Match the term "TO ATTRACT ATTENTION" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Five short blasts
- B. One prolonged blast followed by two short
- C. Vessel being towed
- D. Six short blasts
Answer: A — Five short blasts
Five short blasts on the ship's whistle are used as a general warning signal to attract attention or to indicate a vessel's presence when there is a risk of collision, particularly in restricted visibility or congested areas.
8. A bowsing tackle is used to
- A. Tow the life raft
- B. Lash the lifeboat to the davits
- C. Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
- D. Lowering the lifeboat oars
Answer: C — Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
A bowsing tackle is a system of ropes and blocks used to secure a lifeboat snugly against the ship's side or davit while it is in its stowed position, preventing movement and ensuring stability.
9. On joining the ship the crew members should familiarize themselves with the
- A. Muster list
- B. Crew list
- C. Contents of the lifeboat
- D. Menu
Answer: A — Muster list
Upon joining a ship, crew members must familiarize themselves with the Muster List. This document details emergency duties, muster stations, and procedures, ensuring each crew member knows their role in various emergency scenarios.
10. A tank entry permit is to be completed before entering into the
- A. Ballast comchapterment
- B. Meat room
- C. Steering gear comchapterment
- D. Battery room
Answer: A — Ballast comchapterment
A tank entry permit is required before entering confined spaces that may contain hazardous substances or an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. Ballast tanks, particularly those that have contained chemicals or are used for cargo, require this permit due to potential gas hazards.
11. An oil fire can be extinguished by
- A. Cutting off the fuel supply
- B. Smothering with foam
- C. Cooling with a water jet
- D. Removing the burning material
Answer: B — Smothering with foam
Oil fires (Class B) are effectively extinguished by smothering the fuel surface with foam. This prevents oxygen from reaching the fuel, thus extinguishing the fire, and also provides a cooling effect.
12. The pump room in a tanker should be ventilated
- A. Only when there is a gas leak
- B. When the pumps are running
- C. Prior entry
- D. After entering
Answer: C — Prior entry
The pump room on tankers must be ventilated prior to entry to disperse any accumulated flammable or toxic gases. This is a critical safety procedure to prevent ignition or exposure to hazardous atmospheres before personnel enter.
13. Safety helmet is used to protect the head
- A. From getting wet
- B. Against adverse weather
- C. From falling objects
- D. From inflammable gases
Answer: C — From falling objects
Safety helmets are a fundamental piece of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) designed to protect the wearer's head from injury caused by falling objects or impacts during work on a vessel.
14. When the low pressure alarm sounds on the SCBA the user should
- A. Remove the face mask
- B. Vacate the comchapterment immediately
- C. Monitor the pressure in the bottles
- D. Close the air bottle valve
Answer: B — Vacate the comchapterment immediately
When the low-pressure alarm sounds on a SCBA, it signifies a critically low air supply. The user must immediately and safely exit the hazardous atmosphere to avoid suffocation or running out of air.
15. An enclosed space entry permit is to be completed before entering into the
- A. Forepeak store
- B. Provision store
- C. Paint store
- D. Loaded cargo hold
Answer: D — Loaded cargo hold
A loaded cargo hold, especially if carrying certain types of cargo, can pose risks of hazardous atmosphere (e.g., toxic gases, oxygen deficiency) and must be entered under a permit system. This ensures proper gas testing and ventilation procedures are followed.
16. The ullage tape lowered into a cargo tank of a tanker should be earthed to prevent
- A. Tank going empty
- B. Pump running dry
- C. Tank overflow
- D. Static hazards
Answer: D — Static hazards
Eathing the ullage tape when measuring cargo tanks prevents the buildup of static electricity, which could lead to sparks and potentially ignite flammable cargo vapors. This is a vital safety measure on tankers.
17. FFA on board means
- A. Fixed fire appliances
- B. Fire fighting appliances
- C. Fire fighting arrangements
- D. Foam fire apparatus
Answer: B — Fire fighting appliances
FFA is the standard maritime abbreviation for Fire Fighting Appliances, which includes all equipment and systems used on board for combating fires, such as extinguishers, hoses, and fixed systems.
18. The objective of Marpol is to
- A. Improve cleanliness on board
- B. Prevent and control pollution from ships
- C. Improve safety in accommodation
- D. Ensure adequate stability for ships
Answer: B — Prevent and control pollution from ships
MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) is the primary international convention aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution of the marine environment from ships, covering both accidental and operational discharges.
19. Risk assessment is carried out to
- A. Assess the time required for a job
- B. Identify the risks involved with a chaptericular task
- C. Fill up the required forms
- D. Decide how many people are required for a job
Answer: B — Identify the risks involved with a chaptericular task
Risk assessment is a systematic process to identify potential hazards associated with a specific task, evaluate the likelihood and severity of harm, and implement control measures to mitigate risks. It is crucial for ensuring a safe working environment.
20. The SOPEP locker contains
- A. Pyrotechnics and distress equipment
- B. Machinery spares
- C. Hold cleaning equipment
- D. Oil spill containment equipment
Answer: D — Oil spill containment equipment
The SOPEP (Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan) locker is designated to store equipment for responding to oil spills. This includes items like oil booms, sorbents, and containment tools necessary to mitigate pollution events.
21. Boiler suit is used to protect the body
- A. In wet weather
- B. When working on deck
- C. Against chemical contamination
- D. When using the washing machine
Answer: B — When working on deck
A boiler suit, often referred to as overalls, provides general protection to clothing and skin from dirt, grease, and minor abrasions, commonly encountered when working in machinery spaces or on deck.
22. After every use, a fire hose must
- A. Be stowed in a safety equipment locker
- B. Have their couplings removed
- C. Be tested to a pressure of 4 Kg/cm2
- D. Be hung up to dry and later correctly stowed
Answer: D — Be hung up to dry and later correctly stowed
After use, fire hoses must be inspected, dried thoroughly to prevent degradation, and then correctly stowed to ensure they are ready and accessible for immediate deployment during an emergency.
23. Ship's galley is provided with the following for cooking
- A. Diesel oil burners
- B. Electric hot plates
- C. Fuel oil burners
- D. LPG burners
Answer: B — Electric hot plates
Modern ships primarily use electric hot plates and ovens in their galleys for cooking. While other methods exist, electric appliances are favored for their safety, efficiency, and ease of control onboard.
24. During bunkering the following sign should be displayed prominently
- A. No smoking
- B. Shore leave stopped
- C. Visitors prohibited
- D. Restricted area
Answer: A — No smoking
During bunkering operations, stringent safety precautions are mandatory. The 'No smoking' sign is a critical visual warning to prevent ignition sources near flammable cargo or fuels.
25. EEBD is used for
- A. Going on deck in heavy weather
- B. Emergency escape
- C. Boarding survival craft
- D. Fighting fires
Answer: B — Emergency escape
EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is a self-contained breathing apparatus designed to provide breathable air for a limited duration, allowing personnel to escape from hazardous atmospheres, such as those with toxic gases or smoke.
26. Before lifting a lifeboat from the water, it must be ensured that
- A. Engine is going astern
- B. Fall wires are clear and hooked securely
- C. Bottom plug is shipped tight
- D. Sea anchor is streamed
Answer: B — Fall wires are clear and hooked securely
Before lifting a lifeboat, ensuring the fall wires are clear of obstructions and securely attached to the designated lifting points is paramount for safe and successful recovery. The bottom plug must also be shipped, but fall wire security is the immediate lifting prerequisite.
27. When lifting up weights, one should
- A. Sit on knees and lift weight with a straight back
- B. Keep arms outstretched and pick up weights
- C. Keep the legs and arms straight
- D. Keep knees straight and lift weight with bent arms
Answer: A — Sit on knees and lift weight with a straight back
When lifting heavy weights, the correct ergonomic technique involves bending the knees and keeping the back straight to utilize leg muscles and minimize strain on the spine, thereby preventing injury.
28. Emergency escape routes should be kept
- A. Open always
- B. Open when needed
- C. Locked in port
- D. Locked at sea
Answer: A — Open always
Emergency escape routes must be kept clear and unobstructed at all times to ensure safe and rapid evacuation during an emergency, regardless of location or operational status.
29. Immersion suit is used to prevent
- A. Hypothermia
- B. Heat burns
- C. Drowning
- D. Injuries
Answer: A — Hypothermia
An immersion suit is specifically designed to protect the wearer from hypothermia, which is a dangerous drop in body temperature, when entering cold water.
30. "Smothering" during fire fighting is achieved by
- A. Covering with CO2
- B. Cutting contact with air
- C. Cutting fuel supply
- D. Removing heat
Answer: B — Cutting contact with air
Smothering a fire involves cutting off the oxygen supply to the fuel. This is achieved by excluding air from the fire, thereby preventing combustion.
Set 7 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Match the term "ONE SHORT BLAST" with the most suitable answers given below:
- A. One prolonged blast every two minutes
- B. Five short blasts
- C. Altering course to Starboard
- D. One prolonged blast followed by two short
Answer: C — Altering course to Starboard
According to COLREGs, one short blast signifies intention to alter course to starboard while keeping out of the way of other vessels. This is a fundamental rule of the road.
2. When you see oil slick in the water at anchorage
- A. Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
- B. Do nothing
- C. Lowering the lifeboat oars
- D. Report to the duty officer
Answer: D — Report to the duty officer
An oil slick at anchorage indicates a potential pollution incident. This must be immediately reported to the duty officer to initiate appropriate response procedures as per MARPOL regulations.
3. Before you start welding you must obtain a
- A. Enclosed place permit
- B. Shore leave permit
- C. Hot work permit
- D. Cold work permit
Answer: C — Hot work permit
Welding is considered a 'hot work' activity due to the potential ignition sources it generates. A hot work permit is mandatory to ensure safety precautions are in place before commencing such operations.
4. When receiving LSA/FFA items on board, all items must be
- A. Of approved type
- B. Received in good packing
- C. Open it and check contents against delivery order
- D. Cheaply available
Answer: A — Of approved type
When receiving Life Saving Appliances (LSA) or Fire Fighting Appliances (FFA) on board, it is essential that all equipment is of an approved type and meets regulatory standards (e.g., SOLAS, LSA Code).
5. Fire extinguishing medium in cargo tank of tanker is
- A. Dry Powder
- B. Foam
- C. CO 2
- D. Sea water
Answer: B — Foam
For tankers, foam is the primary extinguishing medium for cargo tank fires. It effectively cools the surface and forms a barrier, suppressing flammable vapors.
6. A working aloft permit is to be completed before working on the
- A. Navigational bridge deck
- B. Mast house on deck
- C. Fore mast
- D. Aft deck
Answer: C — Fore mast
Working aloft refers to any work performed at a height, such as on the fore mast, and requires a specific permit to ensure all safety precautions are taken.
7. During rough weather or at night before going on deck you must inform
- A. Duty officer
- B. Duty engineer
- C. Bosun
- D. Chief officer
Answer: A — Duty officer
Before venturing on deck in hazardous conditions like rough weather or at night, it is imperative to inform the duty officer. This ensures someone is aware of your location and activity for safety.
8. Abandon ship is indicated by
- A. Continuous ringing of ship’s bell
- B. Masters verbal orders
- C. Seven short and one long blast on ships whistle
- D. Intermittent ringing of the ships bell
Answer: B — Masters verbal orders
Abandon ship is typically signaled by the Master's direct verbal command over the public address system, ensuring all crew understand the critical nature of the order.
9. The familiarization checklist should be completed when the crew member joins the vessel
- A. Within one week of joining the ship
- B. Within one month of joining the ship
- C. Prior to commencement of their duties on joining the ship
- D. Within two months of joining the ship
Answer: C — Prior to commencement of their duties on joining the ship
The familiarization checklist, as required by STCW, must be completed before a crew member commences their duties on joining the vessel to ensure they are acquainted with safety procedures and their new environment.
10. For entry in any enclosed space the oxygen content in the comchapterment should be
- A. 0.19
- B. 0.16
- C. 0.21
- D. 0.18
Answer: C — 0.21
For safe entry into any enclosed space, the oxygen content must be within the normal atmospheric range, which is approximately 21% (0.21). Levels below this can be dangerous due to lack of oxygen.
11. Prior to the tug pulling the tug line should be kept on the
- A. Air pipe
- B. Bow stopper
- C. Bollard
- D. Warping drum
Answer: C — Bollard
Prior to a tug commencing a tow, the towline should be secured to a strong point like a bollard on the vessel being towed, ensuring it remains stable and controlled.
12. Face mask is used on board to protect the face from
- A. Poison
- B. Bacteria
- C. Water spray
- D. Fume inhalation
Answer: D — Fume inhalation
A face mask, particularly in industrial settings, is used to protect the wearer's respiratory system from inhaling harmful fumes, dust, or other airborne contaminants.
13. Careless housekeeping can result in
- A. Accident, injury and fire
- B. Higher inventory costs
- C. Bad odour
- D. Wastage of ship stores
Answer: A — Accident, injury and fire
Poor housekeeping on a ship can create tripping hazards, accumulation of flammable materials, and obstruction of safety equipment, significantly increasing the risk of accidents, injuries, and fires.
14. Purpose of immersion suit is to protect a person from
- A. Sunburn
- B. Cold
- C. Fire
- D. Heat
Answer: B — Cold
The primary purpose of an immersion suit is to insulate the wearer from the extreme cold of the sea, thereby preventing hypothermia and prolonging survival time in water.
15. Breathing apparatus is used for
- A. Keeping a bridge watch
- B. Entering a comchapterment full of smoke
- C. For navigating the ship in fog
- D. Launching a lifeboat
Answer: B — Entering a comchapterment full of smoke
Breathing apparatus (like SCBA) is essential for entering atmospheres that are oxygen-deficient or contain toxic gases and smoke, such as during a fire incident.
16. The Garbage Management Plan indicates the
- A. Procedure for disposing laundry waste
- B. Capacity of the storage drums
- C. Procedure for disposing ships garbage
- D. Location of the ships incinerator
Answer: C — Procedure for disposing ships garbage
The Garbage Management Plan, mandated by MARPOL Annex V, outlines the procedures for the prevention, reduction, storage, and disposal of garbage generated onboard ships.
17. Ability to start the emergency fire pump is required in all
- A. Duty engineers
- B. The crew members
- C. Deck officers
- D. Engine crew
Answer: B — The crew members
The ability to start the emergency fire pump is a fundamental safety requirement for all crew members, as it is crucial for effective firefighting operations during emergencies.
18. DGS stands for
- A. Deputy General of Shipping
- B. Deputy Governor of Shipping
- C. Director Governor of Shipping
- D. Directorate General of Shipping
Answer: D — Directorate General of Shipping
DGS stands for the Directorate General of Shipping, which is the regulatory body responsible for maritime administration and safety in India.
19. The immigration officer checks the validity of the
- A. Safety certificates
- B. ISM certificate
- C. Passport
- D. Certificate of competency
Answer: C — Passport
An immigration officer's primary role is to verify the identity and legal right of entry for individuals, which is done by checking passports and visas.
20. CDC stands for
- A. Country Domicile Certificate
- B. Continuous Discharge Certificate
- C. Current Discharge Certificate
- D. Coastal Discharge Certificate
Answer: B — Continuous Discharge Certificate
CDC stands for Continuous Discharge Certificate, which is a vital document recording a seafarer's sea service, endorsements, and qualifications.
21. MARPOL 73/78 does not regulate the discharge of
- A. Oil into the sea
- B. Garbage into the sea
- C. Fresh water into the sea
- D. Chemicals into the sea
Answer: C — Fresh water into the sea
MARPOL regulates the discharge of harmful substances into the sea. While oil, chemicals, and garbage are covered, discharging clean fresh water does not pose a pollution threat under MARPOL.
22. The shore pass to the ships staff is issued by the
- A. Customs
- B. Immigration
- C. Port Health
- D. Port Control
Answer: B — Immigration
Shore passes, allowing crew members to go ashore in foreign ports, are issued by the immigration authorities of the host country.
23. SOLAS stands for
- A. Sustaining of Life at Sea
- B. Survival of Lifeboat at Sea
- C. Safety of Life at Sea
- D. Survival of Life at Sea
Answer: C — Safety of Life at Sea
SOLAS stands for the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea. It sets minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships.
24. Sounding of all fuel tanks are entered in the
- A. Deck Log Book
- B. Engine Log Book
- C. Rough Log Book
- D. Official Log Book
Answer: B — Engine Log Book
Soundings of fuel tanks, along with other critical machinery operations and readings, are meticulously recorded in the Engine Log Book for operational and safety monitoring.
25. The authority which inspects foreign ships in national ports is called
- A. Port State Control
- B. Pollution Control
- C. Flag State Control
- D. Merchant Ship Control
Answer: A — Port State Control
Port State Control (PSC) authorities are responsible for inspecting foreign ships visiting national ports to ensure compliance with international conventions and national regulations.
26. MMD stands for
- A. Merchant Marine Dechapterment
- B. Master Mariners Dechapterment
- C. Manpower Marine Dechapterment
- D. Mercantile Marine Dechapterment
Answer: D — Mercantile Marine Dechapterment
MMD stands for Mercantile Marine Department, an administrative body under the Directorate General of Shipping in India that handles various maritime-related functions.
27. One of the main duties of the Shipping Master includes
- A. Conducting marine surveys on the ship
- B. Inspection of cargo holds
- C. Engagement and discharge of officers and ratings
- D. Navigation of the ship
Answer: C — Engagement and discharge of officers and ratings
A key function of the Shipping Master, particularly in some jurisdictions, involves overseeing the employment and termination processes for seafarers, ensuring fair practices and adherence to contracts.
28. Under ISPS Code the agent on boarding the ship should be given a
- A. Visitor’s card
- B. Custom card
- C. Greeting card
- D. Audit Card
Answer: A — Visitor’s card
Under the ISPS Code, any person boarding a ship who is not part of the regular crew or assigned duties must be issued a Visitor's Card. This card serves as identification and signifies authorization for their presence onboard.
29. International standards for the safe management and operation of ships is stated in the
- A. ISPS Code
- B. BLU Code
- C. LSA Code
- D. ISM Code
Answer: D — ISM Code
The International Safety Management (ISM) Code provides international standards for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention. It is a mandatory code for shipowners and operators.
30. ISPS stands for
- A. International Ship and Seaport Security Code
- B. Indian Shipping and Port Security Code
- C. International Shipping and Port Security Code
- D. International Ship and Port Facility Security Code
Answer: D — International Ship and Port Facility Security Code
ISPS stands for the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code. This international code establishes minimum security requirements for ships and port facilities to prevent security threats.
Set 8 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. The inspection of ships in their country of registry is done by
- A. FSC
- B. SSC
- C. RSC
- D. PSC
Answer: A — FSC
FSC refers to Flag State Control. The flag state administration is responsible for ensuring that ships flying its flag comply with international conventions, including inspections in their country of registry.
2. IMO stands for
- A. International Marine Organization
- B. Indian Maritime Organization
- C. International Monetary Organization
- D. International Maritime Organization
Answer: D — International Maritime Organization
IMO stands for the International Maritime Organization. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for measures to improve the safety and security of international shipping.
3. The conventions which sets minimum standards of basic labour rights is called
- A. ILO
- B. SSO
- C. RSO
- D. ISO
Answer: A — ILO
The International Labour Organization (ILO) sets international labour standards, including conventions that establish minimum standards for basic labour rights for seafarers, ensuring decent work conditions.
4. Port customs prohibits a seaman from possessing
- A. Tape recorders
- B. Cigarettes
- C. Gold chains
- D. Narcotic drugs
Answer: D — Narcotic drugs
Port customs strictly prohibit the possession of narcotic drugs by any person, including seamen, due to international and national drug control laws aimed at preventing illicit trafficking.
5. On completion of a seafarer's contract the repatriation expenses will be borne by the
- A. Shipping company
- B. Shared between the seaman company and the seaman
- C. Shipping Master
- D. Seaman
Answer: A — Shipping company
Upon completion of a seafarer's contract, the repatriation expenses are the responsibility of the shipping company that employed the seaman, as per international maritime labour conventions.
6. Watch keepers will be granted rest as per the requirements of the
- A. STCW Convention
- B. LSA Code
- C. SOLAS Convention
- D. MARPOL Convention
Answer: A — STCW Convention
The STCW Convention, specifically Table A-VIII/1, sets the minimum rest hours for watchkeepers. This is crucial for ensuring that seafarers are well-rested and can perform their duties safely.
7. The highest level of security maintained on board a ship is level
- A. 4
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 1
Answer: B — 3
Security Level 3, as defined by the ISPS Code, represents the highest level of security. It is implemented when there is a credible security threat, requiring maximum vigilance and protection measures.
8. Entries in the Official Log Book are made by the
- A. Master
- B. Chief Engineer
- C. Second Engineer
- D. Second Officer
Answer: A — Master
The Master of the ship is responsible for maintaining the Official Log Book, and therefore all entries concerning significant events, including disciplinary actions, are made by them.
9. PSC can detain a vessel if the
- A. Rat guards are not placed properly on the mooring ropes
- B. Competence of the crew is below standard
- C. Cargo operations slows down
- D. Shipside is rusted chapterially
Answer: B — Competence of the crew is below standard
Port State Control (PSC) has the authority to detain a vessel if it identifies deficiencies that are serious enough to impact safety or the environment, such as the substandard competence of the crew.
10. A seaman is guilty of an offense against discipline if he/she
- A. Does not live in a hygienic condition
- B. Is unable to steer the ship steadily
- C. Forgets to wear his safety shoes
- D. Assaults another seaman on board
Answer: D — Assaults another seaman on board
Assaulting another seaman on board constitutes a serious breach of maritime discipline and is considered a significant offense requiring disciplinary action under shipboard regulations and maritime law.
11. The following certificate need not be carried on board by the seaman
- A. Medical Certificate
- B. Continuous Discharge Certificate
- C. Mandatory STCW Certificates
- D. School Leaving Certificate
Answer: D — School Leaving Certificate
A School Leaving Certificate is an educational document and is not required to be carried on board by a seaman for professional duties; mandatory certificates relate to competency and employment.
12. Crews personal property declaration is a requirement of the port
- A. Customs
- B. Control
- C. Signal Station
- D. Health
Answer: A — Customs
Declaration of personal property is primarily a requirement of port customs authorities. This is to ensure compliance with import/export regulations and to prevent the unauthorized entry of goods.
13. All entries of offence in the Official Log Book against a seaman have to be signed by
- A. Master, Chief Officer and one crew member
- B. Master and one crew member
- C. Master only
- D. Master and Chief Officer
Answer: A — Master, Chief Officer and one crew member
Entries of offences in the Official Log Book against a seaman must be signed by the Master, Chief Officer, and one other crew member who witnessed the offence or is present during the entry. This ensures transparency and corroboration.
14. Any act of misconduct requiring disciplinary action against a seaman is entered in the
- A. Engine Log Book
- B. Official Log Book
- C. D.C
- D. Bridge Movement Book
Answer: B — Official Log Book
Any act of misconduct or offence committed by a seaman that may lead to disciplinary action is officially recorded in the Official Log Book, serving as a legal record of shipboard events.
15. A seaman lawfully engaged can have his CDC suspended by DGS if he is
- A. Delayed in returning back to the ship from shore
- B. Found indulging in gossip
- C. Unable to operate the crane to the satisfaction of the duty officer
- D. Convicted of an offense of smuggling narcotics
Answer: D — Convicted of an offense of smuggling narcotics
A seaman convicted of smuggling narcotics commits a serious criminal offense that directly impacts their fitness to be at sea and can lead to the suspension of their Continuous Discharge Certificate (CDC).
16. A vessel which has a dead person on board should anchor at the
- A. Quarantine anchorage
- B. Inner anchorage
- C. Pilot anchorage
- D. Working anchorage
Answer: A — Quarantine anchorage
A Quarantine Anchorage is designated for vessels arriving with persons on board suffering from infectious diseases or in this case, a dead person, pending clearance from health authorities.
17. The purpose of SOLAS to
- A. How to launch life boat
- B. How to conduct boat / fire drills
- C. Advice ship officer on how to navigate their ships
- D. Enhance Safety of life at sea
Answer: D — Enhance Safety of life at sea
The primary purpose of the SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) Convention is to enhance the safety of life at sea by setting minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships.
18. A maritime declaration of health is to be submitted to the Port Health to obtain
- A. Pilot
- B. Contact with port control
- C. Free Pratique
- D. Contact with signal station
Answer: C — Free Pratique
A Maritime Declaration of Health is submitted to Port Health authorities to declare the health status of the ship and its crew, and upon acceptance, the vessel is granted Free Pratique, allowing pratique boarding.
19. Compensation benefits for the seaman is listed in the
- A. DGS circulars
- B. Merchant Shipping Notices
- C. Collective Bargaining Agreement
- D. Notices to mariners
Answer: C — Collective Bargaining Agreement
Compensation benefits for seafarers are typically detailed and governed by a Collective Bargaining Agreement (CBA) negotiated between shipowners and seafarer unions.
20. STCW stands for
- A. Structured ,Training, Certification and Watch keeping
- B. Shipboard, Training, Certification and Watch keeping
- C. Standards of Training, Certification and Watch keeping
- D. Seafarers, Training, Certification and Watch keeping
Answer: C — Standards of Training, Certification and Watch keeping
STCW stands for Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers. It is an international convention setting the minimum standards for training and certification of seafarers.
21. The course of the ship is entered every watch in the
- A. Deck Log Book
- B. Medical Log Book
- C. GMDSS Log Book
- D. Official Log Book
Answer: A — Deck Log Book
The course of the ship, along with other navigational details like position and log entries, is recorded in the Deck Log Book for each watch.
22. Details of shipboard life saving and fire fighting appliances is described in the
- A. SOLAS Convention
- B. ILO Convention
- C. MARPOL Convention
- D. STCW Convention
Answer: A — SOLAS Convention
The SOLAS Convention extensively details requirements for shipboard Life-Saving Appliances (LSA) and Fire Fighting Appliances (FFA) to ensure the safety of the ship and its crew.
23. What regulation under STCW Code applies to General Ship Knowledge mandatory minimum requirements?
- A. MARPOL Annex I Regulation 12
- B. Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
- C. Chapter III Regulation 5
- D. SOLAS Chapter V Rule 10
Answer: B — Section A-VI/{sec} of STCW Code
STCW Code Chapter VI specifies mandatory standards for safety and emergency functions.
24. Under STCW standards for General Ship Knowledge, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?
- A. Every 10 years
- B. Every 5 years
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Annually
Answer: B — Every 5 years
STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.
25. What primary safety objective is governed by the General Ship Knowledge module on board ship?
- A. Automating engine control
- B. Optimizing fuel consumption
- C. Minimizing port dues
- D. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
Answer: D — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.
26. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Engine logbook entry only
- B. Bridge sign-off without briefing
- C. Verbal request to port authority
- D. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Answer: D — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.
27. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during General Ship Knowledge practical tasks?
- A. High-visibility vest only
- B. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
- C. Standard street clothes with safety boots
- D. Basic cotton coveralls only
Answer: B — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.
28. Which international convention mandates compliance for General Ship Knowledge operational procedures?
- A. Tonnage Convention 1969
- B. STCW Convention as amended
- C. COLREGs 1972
- D. Load Line Convention 1966
Answer: B — STCW Convention as amended
STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.
29. In case of an emergency scenario during General Ship Knowledge operations, what is the immediate first step?
- A. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
- B. Log the event in diary
- C. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
- D. Attempt to fix without informing others
Answer: C — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.
30. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Garbage Record Book
- B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
- C. Oil Record Book Part I
- D. Cargo Manifest
Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions
The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.
Set 9 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in General Ship Knowledge drills?
- A. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
- B. Signing attendance without attending
- C. Observing without participating
- D. Bypassing safety gear for speed
Answer: A — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.
2. What log entry is required following completion of General Ship Knowledge drills on board?
- A. Verbal update to port agent
- B. No log entry required
- C. Personal diary note
- D. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
Answer: D — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.
3. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation under General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
- B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
- C. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
- D. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
Answer: A — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.
4. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation during General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
- B. Crew List document
- C. Bill of Lading description
- D. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
Answer: A — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.
5. Regarding practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation in General Ship Knowledge, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-II/4?
- A. Non-mandatory recommendation
- B. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
- C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
- D. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
Answer: B — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
STCW Code Section A-II/4 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for General Ship Knowledge.
6. What is the primary purpose of the collision bulkhead located at the fore end of a vessel?
- A. Serve as crew quarters
- B. Prevent water from flooding the ship in the event of bow impact or collision damage
- C. Support the anchor windlass engine
- D. Store fresh drinking water
Answer: B — Prevent water from flooding the ship in the event of bow impact or collision damage
The collision bulkhead is a watertight transverse bulkhead located near the bow to contain forward damage.
7. Under MARPOL Annex I, what is the maximum oil discharge content allowed for machinery space bilges en route?
- A. 15 parts per million (15 ppm)
- B. 0 ppm at all times
- C. 50 ppm
- D. 100 ppm
Answer: A — 15 parts per million (15 ppm)
MARPOL Annex I limits oily bilge discharge through an approved OWS to 15 ppm.
8. What color marker buoy indicates the starboard side of a channel when entering port under IALA Region A?
- A. Black
- B. Yellow
- C. Red
- D. Green
Answer: D — Green
In IALA Region A, green lateral marks are kept to starboard when entering from sea.
9. What is the function of the bilge keel attached to a ship's hull outer shell plating?
- A. Reduce roll amplitude and damp rolling motion in heavy seas
- B. Support drydock blocks
- C. Protect propeller from ice
- D. Increase vessel speed
Answer: A — Reduce roll amplitude and damp rolling motion in heavy seas
Bilge keels provide hydrodynamic resistance to reduce rolling motion.
10. Under COLREG Rule 5, what is the duty of every vessel regarding look-out?
- A. Assign look-out duties only at night
- B. Maintain a proper look-out at all times by sight and hearing as well as by all available means
- C. Use radar only without visual checks
- D. Look out only during fog
Answer: B — Maintain a proper look-out at all times by sight and hearing as well as by all available means
Rule 5 mandates a continuous, proper look-out using all available senses and equipment.
11. What does the term 'Freeboard' mean in merchant ship stability and seamanship?
- A. The height of the mast above waterline
- B. The width of the ship beam
- C. The depth of water under the keel
- D. The vertical distance from the waterline to the main upper deck edge at side
Answer: D — The vertical distance from the waterline to the main upper deck edge at side
Freeboard measures reserve buoyancy from the waterline up to the freeboard deck.
12. What is the purpose of the Bitter End secured inside the anchor chain locker?
- A. To hoist the anchor onto deck
- B. To allow quick emergency release of the anchor cable if the ship must slip anchor
- C. To lock the windlass brake
- D. To measure cable length in shackles
Answer: B — To allow quick emergency release of the anchor cable if the ship must slip anchor
The bitter end is pinned inside the locker with a quick-release mechanism for emergencies.
13. What signal flag corresponds to 'I have a pilot on board' according to the International Code of Signals?
- A. Flag H (Hotel)
- B. Flag B (Bravo)
- C. Flag O (Oscar)
- D. Flag G (Golf)
Answer: A — Flag H (Hotel)
Flag H indicates a pilot is aboard the vessel.
14. What is the purpose of a draft mark painted on the ship's stem and stern post?
- A. Show cargo capacity limit
- B. Decorate the bow stem
- C. Indicate the depth of the vessel's hull submerged in water
- D. Mark anchor location
Answer: C — Indicate the depth of the vessel's hull submerged in water
Draft marks measure freeboard and displacement at forward, midship, and aft points.
15. Which deck fitting is used to turn or lead a mooring line around corners cleanly?
- A. Bitts
- B. Panama Canal Lead / Fairlead
- C. Cleat
- D. Capstan drum
Answer: B — Panama Canal Lead / Fairlead
Fairleads guide mooring ropes with minimal friction around deck edges.
16. What is the purpose of the load line (Plimsoll mark) painted on a ship's hull?
- A. Indicate propeller clearance
- B. Show ballast tank capacity
- C. Mark the engine room location
- D. Indicate the maximum legal draft to which the vessel may be loaded in different zones
Answer: D — Indicate the maximum legal draft to which the vessel may be loaded in different zones
The Plimsoll mark ensures adequate reserve buoyancy based on season and water density.
17. Which rope lay construction offers maximum flexibility for synthetic mooring lines?
- A. Parallel wire strand
- B. Braided / Eight-strand plaited
- C. 3-strand hawser lay
- D. Single steel core strand
Answer: B — Braided / Eight-strand plaited
Plaited and braided synthetic ropes provide high flexibility and non-kinking behavior.
18. What is the correct procedure when handling synthetic fiber ropes under high tension?
- A. Hold the rope tightly with bare hands
- B. Never stand in the bight or direct snap-back zone of the line
- C. Step over the rope while heaving
- D. Increase tension until line sings
Answer: B — Never stand in the bight or direct snap-back zone of the line
Synthetic lines store elastic energy; standing in snap-back zones is extremely dangerous.
19. What instrument measures atmospheric pressure on the navigation bridge?
- A. Aneroin Barometer
- B. Hygrometer
- C. Psychrometer
- D. Anemometer
Answer: A — Aneroin Barometer
Barometers measure barometric pressure to forecast weather changes.
20. What is the function of the hawse pipe on a ship's bow structure?
- A. Drain deck rainwater
- B. Guide the anchor chain from the deck windlass through the hull shell plating
- C. Pass mooring hawsers
- D. Vent the chain locker
Answer: B — Guide the anchor chain from the deck windlass through the hull shell plating
Hawse pipes house anchors securely against the hull when stowed.
21. Under STCW, what safety action must a deck rating take when observing a man overboard?
- A. Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke, and inform the bridge immediately
- B. Lower anchor immediately
- C. Run down to engine room
- D. Wait for captain's orders
Answer: A — Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke, and inform the bridge immediately
Immediate alarm and tossing life-saving apparatus is vital for MOB recovery.
22. What is the meaning of the term 'Deadweight Scale' in ship operations?
- A. chart showing cargo, fuel, and stores weight the vessel can carry at any draft
- B. The maximum crane lifting capacity
- C. The weight of anchors and chains
- D. The weight of the empty ship steel structure
Answer: A — chart showing cargo, fuel, and stores weight the vessel can carry at any draft
Deadweight scale converts draft readings into total carrying capacity in tonnes.
23. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "PASTE" ?
- A. Opens an existing file
- B. Spelling and grammer check
- C. Shows a preview of files before they print
- D. Paste copied or cut files into the document
Answer: D — Paste copied or cut files into the document
In word processing, 'Paste' is the command used to insert text or objects that have been previously 'Copied' or 'Cut' from a location into the current document.
24. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "MONITOR" ?
- A. The brain of the computer
- B. Peripheral to the computer
- C. Like a T.V
- D. Like a type-writer; communicates with computer
Answer: C — Like a T.V
A monitor functions like a television screen, displaying visual output from the computer, such as text, images, and videos.
25. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "SAVE"?
- A. Undoes previous actions
- B. Opens a new word document
- C. Zoom in and Zoom out
- D. Quick save files
Answer: D — Quick save files
'Save' is the command used to store the current work or document onto a storage device, preventing data loss and allowing access later.
26. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "BOLD" ?
- A. Opens an existing file
- B. Changes the Type into
- C. Writes numbered bullets
- D. Changes the color of the text
Answer: B — Changes the Type into
In word processing, 'Bold' is a formatting option that makes selected text appear darker and thicker, enhancing its visual prominence.
27. Stress is a _________ strain
- A. Physical
- B. Emotional
- C. Social
- D. Mental
Answer: B — Emotional
Stress is primarily an emotional strain or reaction that can manifest physically and mentally. It's a response to demands that are perceived as overwhelming or threatening.
28. What is important for studying?
- A. Proper techniques for studying
- B. Self - Discipline
- C. Reading speed
- D. Good teacher
Answer: B — Self - Discipline
Self-discipline is a crucial trait for effective studying, enabling individuals to stay focused, manage their time, and consistently engage with learning materials.
29. Match the term "NON-VERBAL COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Noise
- B. Lack of confidence
- C. Facial Expression
- D. Computer
Answer: C — Facial Expression
Non-verbal communication includes elements like facial expressions, body language, and gestures, which convey messages without the use of spoken or written words.
30. One of the most important practice while talking to a person is to
- A. Speak politely
- B. Stand very close to the person
- C. Maintain eye contact
- D. Hold hands
Answer: C — Maintain eye contact
Maintaining eye contact while talking to someone is a key practice in effective communication, showing engagement, respect, and attentiveness.
Set 10 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. The ability to learn by practice is called
- A. Attitude
- B. Values
- C. Knowledge
- D. Skill
Answer: D — Skill
The ability to learn and improve performance through repeated performance or experience is the definition of skill.
2. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CD-ROM DRIVE"?
- A. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
- B. Sending Messages
- C. Used to point objects on the monitor
- D. Peripheral to the computer
Answer: A — Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
A CD-ROM drive is a peripheral device used to read data from Compact Discs. The term "CD-ROM" itself implies read-only memory, meaning data is typically written once.
3. Who is more important in communication process?
- A. People
- B. Receiver
- C. Sender
- D. Self
Answer: B — Receiver
While both sender and receiver are vital, the 'Receiver' is equally, if not more, important in the communication process as they are responsible for interpreting and understanding the message sent.
4. Non- Verbal modes of communication are
- A. Speech
- B. Words
- C. Symbols
- D. Channel
Answer: C — Symbols
Non-verbal modes of communication include elements such as symbols, gestures, and facial expressions, which convey meaning without words.
5. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "OPEN" ?
- A. Writes numbered bullets
- B. Changes the color of the text
- C. Spelling and grammer check
- D. Opens an existing file
Answer: D — Opens an existing file
The term "OPEN" in the context of a computer file means to access and load an existing document, making its content visible and editable on the screen. It does not involve checking grammar, formatting, or changing visual properties.
6. If stressed with some work, one should
- A. Tell someone else to do it
- B. Keep doing it till it is complete
- C. Give up
- D. Leave it for some time
Answer: D — Leave it for some time
When stressed with work, taking a short break to reassess and approach the task with a clear mind is often the most effective strategy. This allows for better problem-solving and stress management, rather than immediate completion or avoidance.
7. Match the term "NEED FOR COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Facial Expression
- B. Feedback
- C. Noise
- D. Self-Expression
Answer: D — Self-Expression
Self-expression is fundamental to communication as it represents the speaker's internal thoughts and feelings being conveyed. While facial expressions and feedback are communication elements, and noise is a barrier, the core need is to express oneself.
8. Match the term "INTERNAL BARRIER" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Facial Expression
- B. Lack of confidence
- C. Noise
- D. Self-Expression
Answer: B — Lack of confidence
Lack of confidence is an internal psychological barrier that can hinder effective communication. It originates within the individual, unlike external factors like noise, or communication elements such as facial expressions and self-expression.
9. Which of the following is unethical? Being
- A. Honest
- B. Cooperative
- C. Punctual
- D. Arrogant
Answer: D — Arrogant
Being arrogant is unethical as it displays a lack of respect and consideration for others, contradicting principles of teamwork and professional conduct. Honesty, cooperation, and punctuality are positive and ethical attributes in any environment.
10. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "PRINTER" ?
- A. Getting Music
- B. Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer
- C. Like a T.V.
- D. Peripheral to the computer
Answer: D — Peripheral to the computer
A printer is considered a peripheral device because it connects to the computer to provide an output function, allowing digital information to be rendered in a physical, printed format. It is an external component that enhances the computer's capabilities.
11. Communication can be done
- A. By self - expression
- B. Verbally
- C. Non Verbally
- D. Both verbally and non- verbally
Answer: D — Both verbally and non- verbally
Communication encompasses both the spoken word (verbally) and non-verbal cues such as body language and tone. Effective communication often involves a combination of both verbal and non-verbal elements to convey a complete message.
12. To manage means to deal with
- A. Bad situations
- B. All situations happily
- C. Situations properly
- D. Situations
Answer: C — Situations properly
Effective management involves skillfully handling and controlling situations to achieve desired outcomes. It's about proper application of resources and strategies to navigate various circumstances, not just limited to negative ones.
13. Which of the following works like a brain of a computer:
- A. Key Board
- B. Monitor
- C. CPU
- D. Optical Mouse
Answer: C — CPU
The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer because it executes instructions and performs calculations, controlling all the major functions of the system. Other components like monitors and keyboards are input/output devices.
14. Before starting writing in the exam, one should
- A. Just start writing
- B. Write the name and roll no. in answer sheet
- C. Read the instructions properly
- D. Ask question to invigilator
Answer: C — Read the instructions properly
Before commencing any examination, it is crucial to thoroughly read and understand all instructions. This ensures that the exam is approached correctly, all requirements are met, and potential misunderstandings are avoided.
15. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "PRINT PREVIEW" ?
- A. Changes the color of the text
- B. Shows a preview of files before they print
- C. Paste copied or cut files into the document
- D. Open a new word document
Answer: B — Shows a preview of files before they print
The 'Print Preview' function allows a user to see exactly how a document will appear on paper before actually printing it. This helps in making necessary adjustments to layout, margins, and formatting, saving time and resources.
16. In a team, to achieve a goal is the responsibility of
- A. An individual
- B. All team members
- C. The leader
- D. Management
Answer: B — All team members
Achieving a common goal in a team is a collective responsibility shared by all its members. While leadership is important, every individual contributes to the overall success or failure of the team's objectives.
17. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CUT"?
- A. Opens a new word document
- B. Undoes previous actions
- C. Quick save files
- D. Cuts files into the clip-board
Answer: D — Cuts files into the clip-board
The 'CUT' command in computing removes selected data from its current location and places it onto the clipboard, ready to be pasted elsewhere. This is a fundamental operation for moving or reorganizing information within or between documents.
18. For good relationship with others
- A. The two most important words: Thank you
- B. The least important word: We
- C. The one most important word: You
- D. The best words are: You are wrong
Answer: A — The two most important words: Thank you
Expressing gratitude with 'Thank you' is one of the most significant phrases for fostering positive relationships. It acknowledges others' contributions and efforts, building goodwill and strengthening interpersonal connections.
19. What device prevents water from entering cargo holds through hatch covers?
- A. Steel welding lines
- B. Rubber gaskets and compression bars with cleats
- C. Tarpaulin sheets without cleats
- D. Wooden wedges only
Answer: B — Rubber gaskets and compression bars with cleats
Rubber gaskets clamped with cleats maintain weather-tight integrity of hatch covers.
20. What sound signal is made by a vessel in restricted visibility when making way through water?
- A. One prolonged blast at intervals of not more than 2 minutes
- B. Three short blasts
- C. Two prolonged blasts every 2 minutes
- D. One short blast every minute
Answer: A — One prolonged blast at intervals of not more than 2 minutes
COLREG Rule 35(a) requires one prolonged blast every 2 minutes for vessels making way in fog.
21. What is the purpose of a sound pipe fitted on a ballast tank?
- A. Allow manual measurement of liquid depth inside the tank using a sounding tape
- B. Sample tank oxygen
- C. Vent air during filling
- D. Pump out ballast water
Answer: A — Allow manual measurement of liquid depth inside the tank using a sounding tape
Sounding pipes provide direct access to measure liquid levels manually.
22. The PHYSICAL symptom of stress is
- A. Trouble sleeping
- B. Sweating hands
- C. Inability to concentrate
- D. Tension
Answer: B — Sweating hands
Sweating hands are a direct physiological response to stress, indicating the body's 'fight or flight' reaction. While tension, trouble sleeping, and inability to concentrate are related to stress, sweating is a clear physical symptom.
23. Match the term "EXTERNAL BARRIER" with the most suitable answer given below
- A. Facial Expression
- B. Computer
- C. Noise
- D. Lack of confidence
Answer: C — Noise
Noise, such as loud machinery or distracting sounds, represents an external barrier that interferes with the clear transmission and reception of messages. Facial expressions and self-expression are forms of communication, and lack of confidence is an internal barrier.
24. Barriers to communication
- A. Do not influence communication
- B. Make the communication better
- C. Create problems in communication
- D. Are essential for communication
Answer: C — Create problems in communication
Barriers to communication, whether internal or external, inherently create obstacles that impede the effective exchange of information. They obstruct clarity, understanding, and the intended meaning of the message.
25. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "REDO"?
- A. Quick save files
- B. Redoes previous actions
- C. Zoom in and Zoom out
- D. Undoes previous actions
Answer: B — Redoes previous actions
The 'REDO' function in computing reverses an 'UNDO' action, reapplying any changes that were previously undone. It allows the user to restore actions that were mistakenly reversed.
26. Eng. Rating when in E/R watch must
- A. Remain in airconditioned ECR (Eng.Control Room)
- B. Frequently drink coffee to remain awake
- C. Remain in accommodation
- D. Constantly monitor all machinery and indicators and promptly report any abnormality to duty engr
Answer: D — Constantly monitor all machinery and indicators and promptly report any abnormality to duty engr
During an E/R watch, an engineering rating's primary duty is to maintain constant surveillance of all machinery and critical indicators. Promptly reporting any deviations or abnormalities to the duty engineer is essential for preventing equipment failure and ensuring operational safety.
27. Keeping Engine Room and all Eng.machinery very clean is important job of
- A. Bosun
- B. Deck Ratings
- C. Eng. Crew & Eng. Staff
- D. Ch.Officer
Answer: C — Eng. Crew & Eng. Staff
Maintaining a high standard of cleanliness in the engine room and on all engineering machinery is a crucial responsibility shared by all engineering crew and staff. This practice is vital for operational efficiency, safety, and early detection of potential issues.
28. SOPEP Items, L.S.A. & F.F.A are maintained by
- A. Deck Officer and Deck Crew
- B. Engineers
- C. Elect.Officer
- D. Eng. Crew
Answer: A — Deck Officer and Deck Crew
The maintenance of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) equipment, Life-Saving Appliances (LSA), and Fire-Fighting Appliances (FSA) falls under the purview of the Deck Officer and Deck Crew, adhering to SOLAS and MARPOL regulations.
29. Winches, Cranes and other Machinery on Deck are maintained by
- A. Eng.Staff & Crew
- B. Bosun
- C. Ch.Off
- D. Deck Crew
Answer: A — Eng.Staff & Crew
The upkeep and maintenance of deck machinery, including winches, cranes, and other equipment, are primarily the responsibility of the engineering staff and crew. This ensures their operational readiness and safety.
30. Winches, Cranes, Derricks, Hatchcovers, Gangways are operated by
- A. Bosun
- B. Eng.Crew
- C. Deck Officers
- D. Deck Crew
Answer: D — Deck Crew
Deck crew members are responsible for the operation of various deck equipment such as winches, cranes, derricks, hatchcovers, and gangways. This operation is performed under the supervision of deck officers during cargo operations or vessel maneuvering.
Set 11 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Chipping & Painting on Deck is
- A. Done by Deck crew as and when required
- B. Done by Eng. crew
- C. Done only in Dry dock
- D. Done by shore staff only
Answer: A — Done by Deck crew as and when required
Chipping and painting on deck, crucial for maintaining the vessel's hull integrity and appearance, is a regular task performed by the deck crew as required. This work is ongoing and not restricted to dry-docking or shore staff.
2. Ship Steering is done by
- A. OS
- B. GS
- C. AB
- D. Bosun
Answer: C — AB
Ship steering, a critical navigational duty, is performed by Able Seafarers (AB) under the direct supervision of the officer on watch. They are trained to maintain course accurately as per helming orders.
3. For Mooring and Unmooring ship
- A. Primarily one Deck Team with Ch.Off. goes forward & one deck team with 2nd.Off. goes aft.
- B. Deck crew without any officer goes Forward & Aft
- C. Mooring & Unmooring is done by shore people
- D. Deck Crew goes forward and Eng.Crew goes aft
Answer: A — Primarily one Deck Team with Ch.Off. goes forward & one deck team with 2nd.Off. goes aft.
During mooring and unmooring operations, the ship typically deploys designated deck teams, often led by officers. For example, the Chief Officer might lead one team while the Second Officer leads another, covering different parts of the vessel as needed.
4. For Anchoring
- A. Ch.Off. with Bosun & rating must go forward stations
- B. Only Deck rating must go forward
- C. Eng. Crew is required to go forward
- D. Ch.Off must proceed on aft stations
Answer: A — Ch.Off. with Bosun & rating must go forward stations
For anchoring operations, the Chief Officer, along with the Bosun and relevant ratings, typically proceeds to the forward stations. Their role is to manage the anchor chain and windlass safely and efficiently.
5. Deck Crew Other jobs consist of:
- A. Cook food in the evenings
- B. Cleaning Eng.Room
- C. Handle mooring lines, splice&repair ropes, wires, cordage
- D. Oil Eng. Room machinery
Answer: C — Handle mooring lines, splice&repair ropes, wires, cordage
The diverse duties of the deck crew extend beyond basic deck maintenance to include tasks like handling mooring lines, performing splices, and repairing ropes, wires, and other cordage. These skills are essential for safe ship operations.
6. Cleaning Holds or Tanks requires
- A. Quick sweeping by Deck Crew
- B. Max. efforts by Eng.Crew
- C. Max. efforts with sweeping, thorough washing and drying by Deck Crew with Bosun
- D. Quick mopping by any crew.
Answer: C — Max. efforts with sweeping, thorough washing and drying by Deck Crew with Bosun
Cleaning holds or tanks is a significant undertaking that requires substantial effort from the deck crew, under the Bosun's supervision. It involves thorough washing, sweeping, and drying to prepare the spaces for cargo or maintenance.
7. A GP Rating Certificate holder can work in
- A. Deck, Eng. Or Catering Dept.
- B. Eng. Dept. only
- C. Deck and/or Eng. Dechapterment
- D. Deck Dechapterment only
Answer: C — Deck and/or Eng. Dechapterment
A General Purpose (GP) Rating certificate holder is versatile and qualified to work in either the Deck or Engineering departments of a vessel, providing flexibility in manning.
8. An important duty of Deck Rating at Sea is
- A. To Keep Lookout on Bridge
- B. To Clean decks
- C. To study books
- D. To assist Bosun
Answer: A — To Keep Lookout on Bridge
A vital duty for a Deck Rating at sea is maintaining a vigilant lookout on the bridge, especially during navigation or in restricted visibility, as per COLREGs requirements. This contributes significantly to the overall safety of the vessel.
9. Engine Dept. consists of
- A. Ch.Eng., 2nd.Eng., 3rd.Eng., 4th.Eng., & Eng. Ratings
- B. Ch.Eng., Ch.Off., 2nd.Eng. & Eng.Ratings
- C. 2nd.Eng. & Eng. Ratings
- D. Ch.Eng & 2nd.Eng
Answer: A — Ch.Eng., 2nd.Eng., 3rd.Eng., 4th.Eng., & Eng. Ratings
The Engine Department comprises the Chief Engineer, Second Engineer, Third Engineer, Fourth Engineer, and the Engine Ratings. This structure ensures comprehensive oversight and operation of the ship's propulsion and auxiliary machinery.
10. Master is
- A. Overall In Charge
- B. Head Of Nautical Dechapterment
- C. Head Of Engine Dechapterment
- D. In Charge Of Deck Officers
Answer: A — Overall In Charge
The Master of a vessel holds the ultimate responsibility and authority, serving as the overall in charge of the ship, its crew, passengers, and cargo. All other departmental heads report to the Master.
11. Chief Cook, General Steward & Catering Rating form
- A. Galley Dechapterment
- B. General Dechapterment
- C. Catering Dechapterment
- D. Cooking Dechapterment
Answer: C — Catering Dechapterment
The Chief Cook, General Steward, and Catering Ratings collectively form the Catering Department. This department is responsible for the preparation and service of food and maintaining the cleanliness of all accommodation and galley areas.
12. Deck Dept. consists of
- A. Ch.Off, 2nd.Off, 3rtd.Off, Dk.Cadet, Bosun, ABs & OSs
- B. Deck Crew & Cabin Crew
- C. Master, Ch.Engr., 2nd.Eng & Ch.Off
- D. Ch.Off, 2nd.Off , 3rd.Off. and Deck Cadet
Answer: A — Ch.Off, 2nd.Off, 3rtd.Off, Dk.Cadet, Bosun, ABs & OSs
The Deck Department encompasses the Chief Officer, Second Officer, Third Officer, Deck Cadets, Bosun, Able Seamen (ABs), and Ordinary Seamen (OSs). They are responsible for navigation, cargo operations, maintenance, and ship's safety.
13. Maintenance Of Machinery and Propulsion System is responsibility of
- A. Engine Dechapterment
- B. 2nd.Engineer
- C. Chief Engineer Dechapterment
- D. Machinery Dechapterment
Answer: A — Engine Dechapterment
The responsibility for the maintenance of the ship's machinery and propulsion system lies with the Engine Department. The Chief Engineer oversees this critical function, ensuring the vessel's operational integrity.
14. Cargo Operations, Navigation & Administration are responsibility of
- A. Chief Officer Dechapterment
- B. Nautical Dechapterment
- C. Engine Dechapterment
- D. Captain Dechapterment
Answer: B — Nautical Dechapterment
Cargo operations, navigation, vessel administration, and safety management are the primary responsibilities of the Nautical Department, led by the Chief Officer. This department ensures the efficient and safe execution of voyages.
15. Two Distinct Dechapterments on ship are
- A. Nautical Dechapterment & Engine Dechapterment
- B. Cabin Dechapterment & Deck Dechapterment
- C. Crew Dept. & Officers Dept
- D. Eng.Rating Dept & Deck Rating Dept
Answer: A — Nautical Dechapterment & Engine Dechapterment
Ships are typically organized into two main functional departments: the Nautical Department (Deck) and the Engine Department (Engineering). These departments manage distinct operational areas of the vessel.
16. Main Function Of Tug Boat is
- A. To assist ships in anchoring
- B. To Transport stores to ships
- C. To Carry passengers for sightseeing
- D. To Assist in Mooring & Unmooring ships
Answer: D — To Assist in Mooring & Unmooring ships
The primary function of a tugboat is to assist larger vessels during maneuvering operations, such as mooring and unmooring in ports or confined waters. This assistance is crucial for the safe berthing and departure of ships.
17. OSV Vessels are
- A. Oil Bulk Oil Vessels
- B. Oceangoing Sailing Vessels
- C. Onshore Supply Vessels
- D. Offshore Supply Vessel
Answer: D — Offshore Supply Vessel
OSV stands for Offshore Supply Vessel. These vessels are specifically designed and equipped to service offshore oil and gas platforms and other offshore installations.
18. Main Function of OSV is
- A. To carry cargo to coastal ports
- B. To tow barges
- C. To Ferry Provisons, Stores, Crew to Offshore installations like Oil Rigs and Oil Wells
- D. To Patrol Sea near Ocean Rigs
Answer: C — To Ferry Provisons, Stores, Crew to Offshore installations like Oil Rigs and Oil Wells
The primary role of an OSV is to transport personnel, supplies, equipment, and provisions to and from offshore operational sites like oil rigs and exploration platforms.
19. LNG Carrier is designed to carry
- A. Light Density Products
- B. Liquid Non Corrosive Oil
- C. Liquid Nitrogen Gas
- D. Gravel Stones
Answer: C — Liquid Nitrogen Gas
LNG Carriers are purpose-built ships designed to transport Liquefied Natural Gas, which is primarily methane cooled to a liquid state for efficient transport. The correct option refers to the substance it carries in its liquefied form.
20. Liquid Petroleum Gas Tanker carries
- A. Liquid petroleum products
- B. Liquid Palm Oil
- C. Liquid Chemical Products
- D. Liquefied Petroleum Gas
Answer: D — Liquefied Petroleum Gas
A Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG) Tanker is designed to carry liquefied petroleum gases such as propane and butane, which are stored under pressure in a liquefied state.
21. A PCC Vessel is
- A. Chemicals in bulk carrier
- B. Packaged Dangerous Chemicals
- C. Air Conditioned Passenger Ship
- D. Pure Car Carrier
Answer: D — Pure Car Carrier
PCC is an acronym for Pure Car Carrier. These specialized vessels are designed with multiple decks to efficiently transport large numbers of automobiles.
22. A PCC is designed to carry
- A. 20 Feet Small Containers
- B. Cars Only
- C. Dry Chemicals in cases
- D. Petrol Products
Answer: B — Cars Only
Pure Car Carriers (PCCs) are exclusively designed and optimized for the transportation of motor vehicles, primarily cars. Their internal structure and ramp systems facilitate the loading and unloading of these wheeled cargo units.
23. A LoLo Ship is designed to carry
- A. Logs
- B. Full Containers cargo
- C. Grain
- D. Lubricating Oil
Answer: B — Full Containers cargo
A LoLo (Lift-On Lift-Off) ship, typically a container ship, is designed to carry cargo, predominantly containers, which are loaded and unloaded using cranes (ship's own or shore-based).
24. A LoLo Ship is
- A. Lift On Lift Off Container ship
- B. Same as RoRo Ship
- C. Chemical Tanker
- D. general Cargo Ship
Answer: A — Lift On Lift Off Container ship
LoLo, which stands for Lift-On Lift-Off, precisely describes the method of cargo handling for container ships. Containers are lifted onto the ship and then lifted off at the destination.
25. A RoRo Ship is designed to carry
- A. Heavy unpacked machinery
- B. 40 Feet Containers
- C. Vehicles on Wheels
- D. Steel Coils
Answer: C — Vehicles on Wheels
RoRo (Roll-On Roll-Off) ships are designed to carry any cargo that can be wheeled on and off. This includes cars, trucks, trailers, and other vehicles, facilitated by specialized ramps.
26. Liquid Bulk Cargo is carried in
- A. General Cargo ship
- B. Tanker
- C. Container ship
- D. Bulk Carrier
Answer: B — Tanker
Liquid bulk cargo, such as oil, chemicals, and liquefied gases, is transported in specialized vessels known as tankers. These ships have tanks designed to safely contain and carry such liquid cargoes.
27. Scupper is
- A. flag flown on the foremast
- B. Rubber squuegee
- C. Hand Operated pump
- D. Drain pipe
Answer: D — Drain pipe
A scupper is a drain pipe, typically found on the deck of a ship, used to allow water to drain overboard, preventing accumulation on deck. Options A, B, and C describe other maritime items or actions.
28. Reefer ship carries
- A. Cases of machinery
- B. Frozen Cargo
- C. Trucks & Trailers
- D. Dangerous cargo
Answer: B — Frozen Cargo
Reefer ships are designed with refrigerated cargo holds to transport perishable goods that require temperature control, such as fruits, vegetables, and frozen cargo.
29. Iron Ore is carried in
- A. Navy ship
- B. General Cargo ship
- C. Tanker
- D. Dry Bulk Carrier
Answer: D — Dry Bulk Carrier
Iron ore is a dense, dry commodity that is typically transported in bulk. Dry Bulk Carriers are purpose-built vessels with large cargo holds designed for carrying such materials efficiently and safely.
30. Which one of the following is not the Enclosed spaces
- A. Engine Room
- B. Inert Gas scrubber
- C. Cargo Holds and Cargo Tanks
- D. Sewage Tanks
Answer: A — Engine Room
The engine room, while having confined spaces and potential hazards, is generally designed with more open access and ventilation compared to tanks, sumps, or scrubbers, which are typically classified as enclosed spaces.
Set 12 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Redness in the EYE can be caused by
- A. Fall
- B. Lack of oxygen
- C. Welding
- D. Flying dust
Answer: C — Welding
Direct exposure to the intense light and UV radiation from welding without proper eye protection can cause conjunctivitis (redness) and other forms of eye irritation or damage.
2. What is the most likely course of Accident when working with Sharp tools
- A. Falls
- B. Cuts
- C. Head injury
- D. Suffocation
Answer: B — Cuts
Working with sharp tools inherently carries a high risk of accidental cuts to the skin. Proper handling, maintenance, and appropriate Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are crucial to prevent such injuries.
3. What is the most likely cause of "chaptericle in eye"
- A. Flying dust
- B. Lack of oxygen
- C. Fall
- D. Sharp objects
Answer: A — Flying dust
Particles of dust or debris can become airborne during work and enter the eye, causing irritation, abrasion, and potentially more serious injury, hence the term 'chaptericle in eye' (likely referring to foreign particle in eye).
4. "Cuts" are caused by
- A. Blunt chisels
- B. Sharp objects
- C. Hammers
- D. Flat spanners
Answer: B — Sharp objects
Cuts are lacerations caused by sharp edges. Therefore, sharp objects, including tools like knives, chisels, or blades, are the most direct cause of cuts.
5. What is the most likely cause of Accident when working on oily surfaces
- A. Sprains
- B. Cuts
- C. Suffocation
- D. Slips
Answer: D — Slips
Oily surfaces are notoriously slippery, making slips and subsequent falls a primary risk when working in such environments. Ensuring surfaces are clean and dry, or using appropriate footwear, mitigates this hazard.
6. One should use _____________ to protect Nose, Mouth and Face
- A. Face shield
- B. Hand gloves
- C. Safety Goggles
- D. Safety shoes
Answer: A — Face shield
A face shield, often used in conjunction with safety goggles, provides comprehensive protection for the face, including the nose and mouth, against splashes, flying particles, and sparks.
7. "Suffocation" can be occur due to
- A. Dust in atmosphere
- B. Insufficient oxygen
- C. Pollution
- D. Electrocution
Answer: B — Insufficient oxygen
Suffocation occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen, which can happen in enclosed spaces due to displacement of air, consumption of oxygen, or the presence of inert gases.
8. What is the most likely cause of fracture limbs
- A. Flying dust
- B. Too much noise.
- C. Sharp objects
- D. Fall
Answer: D — Fall
Falls from height, slips, or being struck by falling objects are common causes of fractures. A fall is a direct mechanism that can lead to broken limbs.
9. "Boiler Suit" is utilised to protect______________
- A. Nose & mouth, Face
- B. Body
- C. Head
- D. Feet
Answer: B — Body
A boiler suit, or coveralls, is designed to protect the wearer's entire body from dirt, grease, minor impacts, and certain chemical splashes, providing a layer of protection over regular clothing.
10. What is the most likely cause of Chemical burns
- A. Welding
- B. Lack of oxygen
- C. Acids and alkalis
- D. Too much noise
Answer: C — Acids and alkalis
Chemical burns are typically caused by direct contact with corrosive substances like acids and alkalis. These chemicals can rapidly damage skin and tissues.
11. "Safety Helmet" is utilised to protect_____________
- A. Nose & mouth, Face
- B. Head
- C. Body
- D. Hands
Answer: B — Head
A safety helmet is specifically designed to protect the head from falling objects, impacts, and blows, preventing serious head injuries.
12. "Hand Gloves" are utilised to protect______________
- A. Hands
- B. Nose & mouth, Face
- C. Feet
- D. Body
Answer: A — Hands
Hand gloves are Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) specifically designed to protect the hands and fingers from cuts, burns, chemicals, and other workplace hazards.
13. What is the most likely course of Accident when working under Falling objects
- A. Head injury
- B. Eyes injury
- C. Falls
- D. Burns
Answer: A — Head injury
Working beneath areas where objects could fall poses a significant risk of head injury. A safety helmet is essential PPE in such scenarios.
14. Ear Muffs will protect ____________
- A. Feet
- B. Eyes
- C. Hands
- D. Ears
Answer: D — Ears
Ear muffs are a form of hearing protection designed to cover the entire external ear, effectively reducing the level of noise reaching the eardrum and protecting the ears from damage.
15. Under STCW Code Table A-II/4, what is the mandatory requirement regarding system maintenance, inspection, and testing during General Ship Knowledge operations?
- A. Optional adherence based on vessel size
- B. Applicable only during drydock operations
- C. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
- D. Verbal recommendation without documentation
Answer: C — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-II/4 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for General Ship Knowledge.
16. The vessels position is plotted on the chart as
- A. Latitude only
- B. Latitude and Longitude
- C. Longitude only
- D. Greenwich Mean Time
Answer: B — Latitude and Longitude
A vessel's position on a nautical chart is defined by its latitude (North or South of the equator) and longitude (East or West of the Prime Meridian), plotted as a specific point.
17. House flag is the flag of the
- A. Port of call
- B. Country
- C. State
- D. Shipping Company
Answer: D — Shipping Company
The house flag, also known as the owner's flag or company flag, is unique to each shipping company and is flown to identify the company that owns or operates the vessel.
18. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when there is a pilot on board is
- A. P
- B. A
- C. G
- D. H
Answer: D — H
The 'H' flag in the International Code of Signals signifies 'I have a pilot on board'. It is hoisted to inform other vessels that a pilot is aboard and navigational assistance is being provided.
19. Finished with wheel
- A. Change to auto pilot
- B. Change over to emergency steering
- C. Helms no longer required
- D. Switch off steering motor
Answer: C — Helms no longer required
When the helm order 'Finished with wheel' is given, it signifies that manual steering is no longer required. The helm is therefore 'finished', meaning the helmsman is relieved of duty.
20. Match the term "COMPASS ROSE" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. 60 nautical miles
- B. Green buoy
- C. Solar system
- D. 360 degrees
Answer: D — 360 degrees
A compass rose, depicted on charts and compasses, is a circle graduated into 360 degrees, representing directions. It is fundamental for determining bearings and courses.
21. Whilst receiving bunkers you must hoist Intercode flag
- A. “B” (Bravo)
- B. “D” (Delta)
- C. “A” (Alpha)
- D. “C” (Charlie)
Answer: A — “B” (Bravo)
International Code Flag 'B' (Bravo) is hoisted during the transfer of oils or dangerous liquids and gases, including bunkering operations, to signal that the vessel is handling hazardous cargo.
22. Match the term "DISTANCE" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Divider
- B. Parallel ruler
- C. Depth in metres
- D. Planet
Answer: A — Divider
When navigating using charts, a divider is a crucial tool used for measuring and transferring distances between two points on the chart, representing a specific length.
23. Match the term "STARBOARD SIDE OF CHANNEL" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Solar system
- B. Compass error
- C. Green buoy
- D. Bay of Bengal
Answer: C — Green buoy
According to IALA (International Association of Lighthouse Authorities) buoyage system, the starboard side of a channel, when entering from seaward, is marked by a green buoy.
24. Match the term "ONE DEGREE" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Compass error
- B. 360 degrees
- C. 30 nautical miles
- D. 60 nautical miles
Answer: D — 60 nautical miles
On a nautical chart, one degree of latitude is equivalent to 60 nautical miles. This is a fundamental conversion used in celestial and terrestrial navigation.
25. Match the term "OCEAN CHART" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Depth in metres
- B. Green conical buoy
- C. Red can buoy
- D. Planet
Answer: A — Depth in metres
Ocean charts cover vast areas of the sea and are typically used for offshore navigation. Their primary function is to show depths and general seafloor topography, hence 'depth in metres' is the most relevant associated term.
26. Flag clips are used to join together two or more
- A. Seizing wires
- B. Flags
- C. Heaving lines
- D. Halyards
Answer: B — Flags
Flag clips are specifically designed fasteners used to attach multiple flags together, typically for hoisting them on a single halyard for signalling purposes.
27. A strict fire and safety patrol should be kept in the dry dock because
- A. There are shore staff present on board
- B. There is no water in dry dock
- C. Of repair work being carried out
- D. There is no ship power supply
Answer: C — Of repair work being carried out
During repair work in a dry dock, the presence of flammable materials and hot work increases the risk of fire. A strict fire and safety patrol is essential to mitigate these risks.
28. A vessel steering a course of zero degrees true from the equator without the effect of wind or current
- A. Increases in longitude steadily
- B. Increases in latitude steadily
- C. Decreases in latitude steadily
- D. Decreases in longitude steadily
Answer: B — Increases in latitude steadily
Steering a course of 000 degrees True from the Equator means travelling directly north along a meridian. As a vessel moves north from the Equator, its latitude steadily increases.
29. The colour of a starboard hand buoy is:
- A. Green
- B. Red
- C. Brown
- D. Orange
Answer: A — Green
According to the IALA buoyage system, a starboard hand buoy, marking the starboard side of a channel when entering from seaward, is colored green.
30. A vessel steering a course of 090 degrees true from the Greenwich Meridian without the effect of wind or current
- A. Decreases in easterly longitude steadily
- B. Increases in easterly longitude steadily
- C. Increases in westerly longitude steadily
- D. Decreases in westerly longitude steadily
Answer: B — Increases in easterly longitude steadily
A vessel steering a course of 090 degrees True from the Greenwich Meridian means it is travelling directly east along a line of longitude. As a vessel moves east, its easterly longitude increases.
Set 13 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Match the term "STARBOARD HAND" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Red can buoy
- B. Green conical buoy
- C. Depth in metres
- D. Parallel ruler
Answer: B — Green conical buoy
In the IALA buoyage system, a starboard hand mark (buoy) is typically green and often conical in shape, indicating the starboard side of a channel.
2. Match the term "PORT HAND BUOY" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Green conical buoy
- B. Depth in metres
- C. Red can buoy
- D. Star
Answer: C — Red can buoy
A port hand buoy, in the IALA buoyage system, is typically red and can-shaped, marking the port side of a channel when entering from seaward.
3. When there is any under water diving:
- A. Flag B is hoisted
- B. Flag P is hoisted
- C. Flag O is hoisted
- D. Flag A is hoisted
Answer: D — Flag A is hoisted
When underwater diving operations are in progress, the 'Divers Down' flag (International Code Flag 'A') must be displayed to warn other vessels and prevent navigation in the immediate vicinity.
4. Equator is at
- A. 180 degrees East
- B. 90 degrees North
- C. 90 degrees south
- D. 0 degrees
Answer: D — 0 degrees
The Equator is defined as the imaginary line around the middle of the Earth at 0 degrees latitude, dividing the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.
5. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing system maintenance, inspection, and testing for General Ship Knowledge on board?
- A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
- B. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
- C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
- D. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
Answer: B — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during General Ship Knowledge operations.
6. The latitude of north pole is at
- A. 100 degrees North
- B. 0 degrees North
- C. 90 degrees North
- D. 20 degrees South
Answer: C — 90 degrees North
The North Pole is located at the northernmost point of the Earth, defined as 90 degrees North latitude. This is the point where all lines of longitude converge.
7. The shape of a port hand buoy is:
- A. Conical
- B. Can
- C. Hexagonal
- D. Circular
Answer: B — Can
In the IALA buoyage system, port hand buoys, which mark the left side of a channel when entering from seaward, are typically can-shaped.
8. The Intercode flag which is hoisted before the vessel is ready to sail is
- A. B
- B. A
- C. P
- D. Q
Answer: C — P
International Code Flag 'P' (Preparative) is hoisted when a vessel is ready to sail, signalling that it is preparing to depart or has finished loading.
9. A vessel when steering by auto-pilot the helmsman
- A. Not Required on break Bridge
- B. Can be engage on deck
- C. Required to stand by on bridge
- D. Can go off duty
Answer: C — Required to stand by on bridge
Even when a vessel is steering by auto-pilot, the helmsman is still required to be on duty and vigilant on the bridge. This is to ensure immediate manual intervention if the auto-pilot fails or circumstances change.
10. Ensign flag is the flag of the
- A. Country
- B. State
- C. Shipping Company
- D. Port of call
Answer: A — Country
The ensign is the national flag flown by a merchant ship, signifying its country of registration, as per international maritime law and conventions.
11. A merchant ship is dry docked at intervals of
- A. 10 months
- B. 30 months
- C. 20 months
- D. 18 months
Answer: B — 30 months
Merchant ships are required to undergo dry-docking for hull inspection and maintenance at regular intervals, typically not exceeding 30 months, as mandated by classification societies and SOLAS.
12. Match the term "VENUS" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Moon
- B. Depth in metres
- C. Star
- D. Planet
Answer: D — Planet
Venus is one of the planets orbiting our Sun, making it a celestial body within the solar system.
13. Coastal charts are available as:
- A. Bar charts
- B. Temperature charts
- C. Mercator charts
- D. Solar charts
Answer: C — Mercator charts
Coastal charts are typically produced using the Mercator projection, which allows for easier plotting of courses and bearings, as rhumb lines are represented as straight lines.
14. Match the term "COURSE" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Moon
- B. Divider
- C. Parallel ruler
- D. Depth in metres
Answer: C — Parallel ruler
A parallel ruler is a navigational instrument used to transfer bearings or courses from a compass rose on a chart to the vessel's position or desired track.
15. One nautical mile is equal to
- A. 1865 meters
- B. 1825 meters
- C. 1852 meters
- D. 1800 meters
Answer: C — 1852 meters
A nautical mile is defined as exactly 1852 meters, a standard used in maritime and aeronautical navigation worldwide.
16. A Mercator chart has the following identity:
- A. Alphabetical Code
- B. Title and a number
- C. Only number
- D. Only title
Answer: B — Title and a number
Mercator charts are uniquely identified by both a title, which describes the area they cover, and a specific number for easy referencing and ordering.
17. Courtesy Flag is the flag of the
- A. Country in which the ship is registered
- B. Commonwealth Countries
- C. Company
- D. Country which the ship is calling
Answer: D — Country which the ship is calling
A courtesy flag is the national flag of the country a vessel is visiting, flown at the foremast as a sign of respect and adherence to local maritime protocols.
18. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when the vessel requires a pilot is
- A. H
- B. P
- C. Q
- D. G
Answer: D — G
International Code Flag 'G' (Geg) is hoisted by a vessel when pilot is required, indicating its need for navigational assistance.
19. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when the vessel requires free pratique is
- A. B
- B. P
- C. Q
- D. A
Answer: C — Q
International Code Flag 'Q' (Quebec) is hoisted when a vessel requests free pratique, signifying that it has no quarantine concerns and is ready for pratique to be granted.
20. Match the term "AZIMUTH MIRROR" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Solar system
- B. Compass error
- C. 60 nautical miles
- D. Green buoy
Answer: B — Compass error
An azimuth mirror is used in conjunction with a compass to take bearings of celestial bodies or terrestrial objects, aiding in determining compass error.
21. The earth is a planet in the
- A. Solar system
- B. Satellite system
- C. Lunar system
- D. Nuclear system
Answer: A — Solar system
The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and is part of the Solar System, which includes the Sun and all the celestial bodies that orbit it.
22. A Mercator chart is a:
- A. Pictorial chart
- B. Stellar chart
- C. Navigational chart
- D. Polar chart
Answer: C — Navigational chart
A Mercator chart is a navigational chart that uses the Mercator projection, making it suitable for plotting courses and determining bearings accurately for sea voyages.
23. Knot is a unit of speed equal to ________ meters per hour
- A. 2000
- B. 1900
- C. 1852
- D. 2100
Answer: C — 1852
A knot is a unit of speed equivalent to one nautical mile per hour. Since one nautical mile is 1852 meters, a knot is equal to 1852 meters per hour.
24. Match the term "MUMBAI HARBOUR" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Compass error
- B. 60 nautical miles
- C. Green buoy
- D. Plan chart
Answer: D — Plan chart
Harbour charts, like the one for Mumbai Harbour, are large-scale charts that provide detailed information about a specific port or harbor area, thus they are a type of plan chart.
25. Match the term "JUPITER" with the most suitable answers given below
- A. Compass error
- B. Green buoy
- C. Solar system
- D. 60 nautical miles
Answer: C — Solar system
Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and is a significant celestial body within our Solar System.
26. At night a port hand buoy has a _______ light
- A. Red light
- B. White light
- C. Orange light
- D. Green light
Answer: A — Red light
In the IALA buoyage system, port hand buoys are typically marked with a red light at night, corresponding to their red color during the day.
27. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for system maintenance, inspection, and testing concerning General Ship Knowledge?
- A. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
- B. Port State Control advisory note only
- C. STCW Code Section A-II/4 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
- D. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
Answer: C — STCW Code Section A-II/4 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-II/4 sets international standards for training and operational competency in General Ship Knowledge.
28. The cemented spurling pipe prevents
- A. Water from entering into the chain locker
- B. Cover from getting rusted
- C. Seaman from falling into the chain locker
- D. Rust from entering into the chain locker.
Answer: A — Water from entering into the chain locker
The spurling pipe, often cemented, is designed to prevent seawater from entering the chain locker when the anchor is being weighed, thus protecting the anchor chain and locker contents from excessive moisture.
29. The scope of cable depends on the
- A. The size of the anchor
- B. Length of anchor chain used
- C. The size of the anchor chain
- D. The thickness of the anchor chain
Answer: B — Length of anchor chain used
The scope of a cable, which is the ratio of the length of the anchor chain paid out to the depth of the water, is determined by the length of the anchor chain used, alongside other factors like environmental conditions.
30. The term anchor aweigh means
- A. Anchor is sighted
- B. Let go anchor
- C. Anchor is lost
- D. Anchor is running out
Answer: A — Anchor is sighted
The term 'anchor aweigh' is a nautical term indicating that the anchor is no longer in contact with the seabed, meaning it has been lifted clear of the bottom. It signifies the commencement of weighing anchor.
Set 14 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Bow stopper is used to:
- A. Prevent the Anchor from dragging
- B. Prevent Anchor chain from coming in
- C. Prevent the Anchor chain from fouling.
- D. Prevent Anchor chain from running out.
Answer: D — Prevent Anchor chain from running out.
A bow stopper, also known as a devil's claw, is a mechanical device used to secure the anchor chain after it has been hove up. Its primary function is to prevent the chain from running out unintentionally, thereby relieving pressure on the windlass brake.
2. The heaving line is used when berthing to send the
- A. Rat guard ashore
- B. Mooring rope ashore
- C. Fire hose ashore
- D. Walkie Talkie ashore
Answer: B — Mooring rope ashore
A heaving line is a light, weighted line thrown ashore or to another vessel. It is used to establish a connection, enabling a heavier line, such as a mooring rope, to be hauled across.
3. When berthing a gant line is used to send the
- A. Lashing material ashore
- B. Mooring wire ashore
- C. Heaving line ashore
- D. Fenders ashore
Answer: B — Mooring wire ashore
A gant line is a light line, often synthetic, used to pass heavier ropes or wires. When berthing, it serves as a messenger line to haul the main mooring wires or ropes from the quay to the ship.
4. A gant line acts as a
- A. Rocket line
- B. Marking line
- C. Heaving line
- D. Messenger line
Answer: D — Messenger line
A gant line, also referred to as a messenger line, is a light, flexible line used to haul heavier ropes or wires. It facilitates the transfer of mooring lines or wires between the ship and the shore or another vessel.
5. Aft back spring is used to keep the vessel from moving
- A. Away from the jetty
- B. Astern
- C. Ahead
- D. Athwart ship direction
Answer: B — Astern
An aft spring mooring line runs from the stern of the vessel forward to a quay bollard. It is primarily used to control the vessel's movement astern, preventing it from moving backward away from the jetty.
6. The last link in the anchor chain is called
- A. Half shackle end.
- B. Bitter end.
- C. Better end.
- D. Chain end
Answer: B — Bitter end.
The bitter end is the terminal end of the anchor chain, which is connected to the ship's structure via a breaking link. It is the last link of the chain that is typically brought on board.
7. Windlass brake lining is attached to
- A. Gear box
- B. Brake band
- C. Windlass motor
- D. Windlass drum
Answer: B — Brake band
The windlass brake lining is a critical component that provides friction to hold the anchor chain secure. This lining is attached to the brake band, which clamps onto the windlass drum to prevent movement.
8. A vessel can drag anchor when the sea is
- A. Rough with no tide
- B. Rough with strong tide
- C. Calm with strong tide
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A vessel can drag anchor under various conditions where the holding power of the anchor is overcome. This includes rough seas and strong tides, or even calm conditions with a very strong tide, all of which exert significant force on the anchor.
9. Fenders are placed on the shipside when coming alongside a jetty to protect the
- A. Mooring ropes from wear and tear
- B. Bow thrusters from contact damage
- C. Shipside from contact damage
- D. Shore bollards
Answer: C — Shipside from contact damage
Fenders are deployed along the ship's side when approaching or lying alongside a jetty or quay. Their purpose is to absorb impact and prevent damage to the vessel's hull and the quay structure.
10. When lowering the tug rope to the tug, the crew must
- A. Lower the rope in a controlled manner
- B. Lower the rope with a rope stopper
- C. Allow the tug to pull the rope
- D. Let the rope run out immediately
Answer: A — Lower the rope in a controlled manner
When lowering a tug rope, it is crucial to do so in a controlled manner to prevent sudden jerks or accidents. This ensures the safety of personnel and equipment on both vessels.
11. The anchor cable is marked to
- A. Recognize the number of the shackle coming up on deck
- B. Measure the length of each cable
- C. Record when the cable was last painted
- D. Prevent corrosion
Answer: A — Recognize the number of the shackle coming up on deck
The anchor cable is marked with paint at intervals of one shackle (approximately 27.5 meters). These marks allow the bridge team to accurately determine the amount of cable paid out.
12. The anchor ball is hoisted when the vessel is
- A. During Manoeuvring at the anchorage area
- B. During anchoring operations
- C. During repairs to anchor and anchor chain.
- D. During anchorage.
Answer: D — During anchorage.
The anchor ball is a black spherical shape displayed during daylight. It is hoisted when a vessel is at anchor to indicate its status to other vessels, signifying that it is not under command and is at anchor.
13. When anchoring the order "let go" means
- A. Keep clear of anchor chain
- B. Allow the anchor to run out by releasing the windlass brake
- C. Increase the speed of the windlass
- D. Tighten the windlass brake.
Answer: B — Allow the anchor to run out by releasing the windlass brake
The order 'let go' when anchoring signifies the release of the anchor. This is achieved by disengaging the windlass brake, allowing the anchor and chain to run out freely under gravity.
14. All modern ships have a
- A. Stock anchor
- B. Kedge anchor
- C. Mushroom anchor
- D. Stockless anchor
Answer: D — Stockless anchor
Modern merchant ships predominantly use stockless anchors, such as the Hall or AC14 type. These anchors are designed for efficient handling and good holding power, with their flukes retracting into the body.
15. When a vessel is at anchor the bow stopper relieves the stress on the
- A. Hawse pipe
- B. Anchor Chain
- C. Warping drum
- D. Anchor Brake
Answer: D — Anchor Brake
When a vessel is at anchor, the bow stopper (or chain stopper) takes the load off the windlass brake and cable holder. This prevents the windlass mechanism from being subjected to the full strain of the anchor chain.
16. Before proceeding out to sea on a long voyage anchors are secured using
- A. Chain stopper
- B. Locking Pin
- C. Windlass Brake
- D. Turnbuckle and wire lashing
Answer: D — Turnbuckle and wire lashing
Before sailing on a long voyage, anchors are securely stowed using a combination of the windlass brake, chain stopper, and often wire lashings secured by turnbuckles. This prevents any accidental movement of the anchor during the voyage.
17. The forecastle of the ship is in the
- A. Midship chapter
- B. Rear chapter
- C. Forward chapter
- D. Aft chapter
Answer: C — Forward chapter
The forecastle, commonly known as the 'fo'c'sle', is the forward-most part of the ship's upper deck. It is located at the forward end, typically above the forward perpendicular.
18. Chain Stopper is used to:
- A. Prevent anchor chain from running out
- B. Hold tight mooring wire when being transferred
- C. Prevent chain from slipping through hawse pipe
- D. Prevent gangway from slipping
Answer: B — Hold tight mooring wire when being transferred
A chain stopper is a device used to secure the anchor chain, particularly when transferring mooring wires. It holds the chain firmly, preventing it from running out, thereby ensuring safety during mooring operations.
19. Bell on the forecastle is fitted to
- A. Indicate number of anchor shackles paid out
- B. Wake the crew Up
- C. Raise an alarm in case of emergency.
- D. Signal change of watch
Answer: A — Indicate number of anchor shackles paid out
A bell on the forecastle, specifically the anchor bell, is used to indicate the number of shackle lengths of anchor chain paid out. This is a visual aid for the bridge during anchoring operations.
20. Fenders are placed on the jetty to
- A. Keep the ship alongside
- B. To help cargo operations
- C. Prevent damage to the shipside
- D. To minimize pollution
Answer: C — Prevent damage to the shipside
Fenders are deployed to prevent the ship's hull from directly contacting the quay or other vessels. This protects both the ship and the fixed structures from potential damage during berthing.
21. Communication between the bridge and the mooring station is conducted by
- A. Shouting orders
- B. Light signals
- C. Hand signals
- D. Walkie Talkie
Answer: D — Walkie Talkie
Effective communication between the bridge and mooring stations is vital for safe operations. Walkie-talkies (portable radiotelephones) provide a reliable means of two-way voice communication.
22. Forward spring is used in mooring system to prevent the vessel from moving
- A. Away from the jetty
- B. Astern
- C. Athwartships direction
- D. Ahead
Answer: D — Ahead
A forward spring mooring line runs from the forward part of the vessel aft to a quay bollard. It is used to control the vessel's movement ahead, preventing it from moving forward away from the jetty.
23. An anchor is used by the ship to
- A. Make the ship fast alongside a jetty.
- B. Make the ship fast to seabed.
- C. Navigate in shallow waters.
- D. Tow the ship
Answer: B — Make the ship fast to seabed.
An anchor is a heavy device attached to a chain or cable, designed to grip the seabed. Its primary function is to hold a vessel in a fixed position and prevent it from drifting.
24. Anchor is lead to shipside through
- A. Anchor chain pipe
- B. Lead pipe
- C. House pipe
- D. Hawse pipe.
Answer: D — Hawse pipe.
The anchor, when deployed or retrieved, passes through a specially designed opening in the ship's hull called a hawse pipe. This pipe guides the anchor chain and protects the hull from abrasion.
25. In berth rat guards are placed on the ships mooring ropes to
- A. Prevent rats from entering and leaving the ship
- B. Catch the rats as they move on the mooring rope
- C. Prevent the rats from chewing the rope
- D. Kill the rats as they move on the mooring rope
Answer: A — Prevent rats from entering and leaving the ship
Rat guards are circular metal shields placed on mooring ropes and pilot ladders. They are designed to prevent rats and other rodents from climbing aboard or leaving the vessel.
26. When passing towline to tug from mooring deck
- A. Pass both ends of the rope to the tug
- B. Take full three turns on the bitts and throw the line towards tug
- C. Make fast both ends on board and pass the bight to the tug
- D. Take half turn on bitts and pass one eye to the tug
Answer: D — Take half turn on bitts and pass one eye to the tug
When passing a towline to a tug, the ship's crew should take a half turn on the bitts and pass one eye of the rope to the tug. This allows for controlled tensioning and safe transfer of the towline.
27. Anchor ball is hoisted on the:
- A. Fore Castle
- B. Stern Post
- C. Main Mast
- D. Radar Mast
Answer: A — Fore Castle
The anchor ball, a statutory day signal, is always displayed on the foremast or the forecastle. It visually indicates to other vessels that the ship is at anchor.
28. Length of each shackle in the anchor cable is
- A. 29.5 mtrs
- B. 28.5 mtrs
- C. 27.5 kms
- D. 27.5 mtrs
Answer: D — 27.5 mtrs
The standard length of a shackle in the anchor cable on most merchant vessels is 27.5 meters. These markings are essential for determining the scope of the anchor cable being deployed.
29. Breast rope is used in mooring system to prevent the vessel from moving
- A. Ahead
- B. Away from the jetty
- C. Towards the jetty
- D. Fore and aft direction
Answer: B — Away from the jetty
A breast rope runs perpendicular to the ship's centerline, from the ship's side to a quay bollard. It is used to hold the vessel firmly alongside the jetty, preventing it from moving away.
30. The term "commence weighing anchor means" to
- A. Lower the anchor to the seabed
- B. Check the weight of the anchor
- C. Heave the anchor up from the seabed
- D. Lower the anchor to the water level
Answer: C — Heave the anchor up from the seabed
The term 'commence weighing anchor' is an order to begin the process of hauling the anchor up from the seabed. This involves operating the windlass to retrieve the anchor chain.
Set 15 — 27 GSK exit exam questions with answers
1. Bollard is a
- A. Air pipe
- B. Steel block
- C. Stanchion
- D. For making fast mooring ropes/wires.
Answer: D — For making fast mooring ropes/wires.
A bollard is a short, sturdy post, typically made of cast iron or steel, fixed on a quay or ship. It serves as a strong point for securing mooring ropes and wires.
2. In Mooring term "Make Fast" means
- A. Do mooring operations faster.
- B. Start heaving the anchor faster
- C. Use the chain stopper
- D. Make fast the hawser on the bitts
Answer: D — Make fast the hawser on the bitts
In mooring terminology, 'make fast' means to secure a mooring line or wire firmly to a bitt or other securing point. It indicates that the line is properly tensioned and fastened.
3. When the tug is pulling the ship, the ship's crew should
- A. Tie a rope stopper to the tugs rope
- B. Keep well clear of the tug’s rope
- C. Keep slacking the rope as the weight comes on it
- D. Stand close to the bollard where the rope is secured
Answer: B — Keep well clear of the tug’s rope
When a tug is pulling a ship, there is significant tension on the lines. Crew members should maintain a safe distance from the towline and any associated equipment to avoid injury from potential snap-backs.
4. In dry dock the anchor cable is
- A. Interchanged in the middle
- B. Changed end to end
- C. Renewed at both ends
- D. Renewed at one end
Answer: B — Changed end to end
In dry dock, it is common practice to turn the anchor cable end-for-end. This procedure allows for even wear distribution and inspection of both ends of the chain, extending its service life.
5. A merchant ship anchors in the anchorage waiting area when her
- A. Hatch cover has to be chipped and painted
- B. Berth is not vacant
- C. Aft draft has to be reduced
- D. Fresh water tank has to be cleaned
Answer: B — Berth is not vacant
A merchant ship anchors in an anchorage area primarily when its assigned berth is occupied by another vessel or unavailable for other reasons. This allows the ship to wait safely until the berth becomes vacant.
6. Cellular container vessel have several lift on lift off hatch cover to
- A. Minimize stress on the trackway
- B. Carry more containers on deck
- C. Prevent water from entering into the cargo hold
- D. Reduce the weight of each hatch cover
Answer: B — Carry more containers on deck
Cellular container vessels have specialized hatch covers that are designed to carry additional containers on top. These 'lift-on, lift-off' covers are structurally designed to support the weight of containers, thus increasing cargo capacity.
7. Sounding pipe cap is opened with a
- A. Box spanner
- B. T' spanner
- C. Ring spanner
- D. Wheel spanner
Answer: B — T' spanner
Sounding pipe caps are typically secured with a T-spanner. This specialized tool allows for a firm grip to open or close the cap, which is often designed to be watertight.
8. Prior to loading cargo the hatch covers should be
- A. Painted
- B. Greased
- C. Visually checked
- D. Hose tested
Answer: D — Hose tested
Before loading cargo, hatch covers must undergo a hose test. This is a crucial watertightness test to ensure that no water will enter the cargo holds during the voyage, protecting the cargo from damage.
9. The union purschase is rigged with a
- A. Mooring wire
- B. Seizing wire
- C. Bowsing wire
- D. Preventer wire
Answer: D — Preventer wire
A preventer wire is used in a union purchase rig to prevent the derrick from swinging sideways, thereby increasing stability and safety during cargo operations. It acts as a secondary support to the primary guys.
10. The strum box is located in the
- A. Mast house
- B. Hold bilges
- C. Galley
- D. Fore peak store
Answer: B — Hold bilges
The strum box is a coarse strainer fitted at the suction side of the bilge pumping system. It prevents large debris from entering the pump and pipelines, thereby protecting the pump from damage and blockages in the hold bilges.
11. The rubber packing in the hatch cover is used to make it
- A. Water tight
- B. Resistant to ships motion
- C. Weather tight
- D. Airtight
Answer: C — Weather tight
The rubber packing in the hatch cover is designed to create a seal that is both watertight and airtight when the covers are closed and secured. This is essential for protecting the cargo from sea spray and weather conditions.
12. Lift on lift off hatches are used on
- A. Cellular container ships
- B. General cargo ships
- C. Gear less bulk carriers
- D. Car carriers
Answer: A — Cellular container ships
Lift-on/lift-off hatches are typically used on cellular container ships because they are designed to be stacked and moved by specialized container cranes. This method facilitates efficient loading and unloading of standardized container units.
13. Sounding of tanks and bilges are taken
- A. Monthly
- B. Daily
- C. Weekly
- D. Fortnightly
Answer: B — Daily
Sounding of tanks and bilges should be taken daily. This regular monitoring is crucial for maintaining situational awareness of the vessel's stability, ballast status, and potential water ingress, which is vital for safe operation.
14. The lower the angle of the boom of the derrick or crane
- A. Lesser will be the hoisting rate
- B. Greater will be the lifting capacity
- C. Lesser will be the lifting capacity
- D. Greater will be the hoisting rate
Answer: C — Lesser will be the lifting capacity
The lower the angle of the boom of a derrick or crane relative to the horizontal, the lesser will be its lifting capacity. This is due to the increased load on the hoisting wires and the reduced mechanical advantage.
15. Hatches are secured by
- A. Eccentric rollers
- B. Wire lashing
- C. Chain lashing
- D. Quick acting cleats
Answer: D — Quick acting cleats
Hatches are secured by quick-acting cleats, which are leverage-based devices that quickly clamp the hatch covers down onto the coaming. This ensures a secure and tight closure against weather and sea.
16. The crane jib is raised and lowered with the
- A. Standing block
- B. Moving block
- C. Topping block
- D. Running block
Answer: C — Topping block
The crane jib is raised and lowered using the topping lift, which is a wire rope system connected to the top of the jib. This allows for precise control over the jib's angle and height during lifting operations.
17. Before going out to sea all hatch covers should be
- A. Battened down
- B. Kept chapterly open
- C. Battened down chapterly
- D. Closed but not battened down
Answer: A — Battened down
Before going to sea, all hatch covers must be securely battened down. This action ensures watertight integrity, protecting the cargo from any potential water ingress during the voyage, which is a critical safety requirement.
18. Can hooks are used for loading
- A. Pipes
- B. Gunny bags
- C. Drums
- D. Machinery cases
Answer: C — Drums
Can hooks are specialized lifting attachments used for handling drums. They provide a secure grip around the circumference of the drum, allowing for safe and efficient hoisting.
19. Preventer guy is used when the derrick is working as a
- A. Union purchase
- B. Jumbo derrick
- C. Swinging derrick
- D. Stulcken derrick
Answer: A — Union purchase
A preventer guy is a critical component used when the derrick is rigged for a union purchase. It provides additional stability and control, preventing excessive swinging of the cargo block and ensuring safe operation.
20. A cruise liner carries
- A. Grain cargo
- B. Stowaways
- C. Passengers
- D. Ro Ro cargo
Answer: C — Passengers
A cruise liner's primary function is to carry passengers for leisure and travel. Unlike cargo vessels, its main payload consists of people enjoying a voyage.
21. Access to cargo holds is through
- A. Fore castle
- B. Booby hatch
- C. Engine room
- D. Accommodation
Answer: B — Booby hatch
Access to cargo holds is typically gained through a 'booby hatch', which is a small hatchway providing entry from the deck into the upper part of the hold. This is a standard access point for personnel and equipment.
22. Details of the SWL of the shackles and blocks used for the derrick are given in the
- A. Ships chaptericulars
- B. Capacity plan
- C. General Arrangement plan
- D. Rigging plan
Answer: D — Rigging plan
The rigging plan details the configuration of cargo gear, including derricks and cranes, and specifies the Safe Working Load (SWL) for all associated components like blocks and shackles. This document is essential for safe lifting operations.
23. Machinery cases loaded in the cargo hold should be lashed with
- A. Twist locks
- B. Wire and turnbuckles
- C. Heaving lines
- D. Nets
Answer: B — Wire and turnbuckles
Machinery cases loaded in cargo holds must be securely lashed using wire ropes and turnbuckles. This method provides the necessary tension and strength to prevent movement during the ship's motion at sea.
24. Side guys are used on
- A. Derricks
- B. Gantry cranes
- C. Chain blocks
- D. Cranes
Answer: A — Derricks
Side guys are primarily used with derricks to control their athwartship movement and provide lateral stability. They are essential for positioning the derrick accurately over the cargo.
25. Bottle screw is used for
- A. Dunnage
- B. Putting screws
- C. Tightening man ropes
- D. Tightening wire ropes
Answer: D — Tightening wire ropes
A bottle screw, also known as a turnbuckle, is used to adjust and tighten wire ropes. By rotating the central body, it shortens the wire rope assembly, providing adjustable tension.
26. Safe working load of cargo gear is the
- A. Minimum weight which can be lifted safely
- B. Minimum stress or weight required to break it
- C. Total weight required to stretch the wire
- D. Maximum weight which can be lifted safely
Answer: D — Maximum weight which can be lifted safely
The Safe Working Load (SWL) of cargo gear is the maximum weight that can be lifted safely under normal operating conditions. Exceeding this limit can lead to failure of the equipment and potential accidents.
27. The crane controls are placed in the
- A. Master’s cabin
- B. Owner’s cabin
- C. Stevedore’s cabin
- D. Driver’s cabin
Answer: D — Driver’s cabin
Crane controls are located in the driver's cabin, often referred to as the operator's cabin or crane house. This provides the crane operator with a clear view of the lifting operation and direct control over the machinery.
Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.
