GSK exit exam questions and answers — General Ship Knowledge

All 585 questions from the General Ship Knowledge (GSK) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Practise these GSK questions GSK mock exit exam, 30 marks GSK exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. K-S-A-V stands for

A. Knowledge, Seamanship, Altitude, Values
B. Knowledge, Style, Attitude, Values
C. Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, Values
D. Knowledge, Skills, Aptitude, Values

Answer: C — Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, Values

K-S-A-V stands for Knowledge, Skills, Attitude, and Values. These are fundamental components for professional development and effective performance in any role, particularly in the maritime industry.

2. Match the term "MODE OF COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Computer
B. Speaker
C. Noise
D. Receiver

Answer: A — Computer

In the context of communication, a computer can act as a medium or channel through which information is sent and received, making it a mode of communication.

3. Being ethical is important for

A. Avoiding conflict
B. Both office and personal life
C. Office life
D. Personal life

Answer: B — Both office and personal life

Ethical conduct is crucial in both personal and professional life. It fosters trust, integrity, and positive relationships, contributing to a harmonious environment and professional reputation.

4. Select which is not the chapters of a Personal Computer

A. Monitor
B. Steering wheel
C. Central Processing unit (CPU)
D. Mouse

Answer: B — Steering wheel

A steering wheel is a component of a vehicle's control system and is not part of a personal computer's hardware. The monitor, CPU, and mouse are all essential parts of a PC.

5. Which is the duties of a Deck rating

A. painting the engine room
B. Steer ship under the direction of the officer on watch
C. Lubricate moving chapters of engines, machinery and equipments
D. Monitor engine, machinery and equipment indicators and report abnormalities to ship engineer officer on watch

Answer: B — Steer ship under the direction of the officer on watch

A key duty of a deck rating includes steering the ship under the direction of the officer on watch, as per the helm orders. Monitoring machinery and lubricating are typically engine department duties.

6. We communicate to

A. Send and receive information
B. Please others
C. Send information
D. Receive information

Answer: A — Send and receive information

Communication is a two-way process. We communicate to both send information to others and to receive information from them, ensuring understanding and interaction.

7. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "MOUSE" ?

A. Used to point objects on the monitor
B. Getting Music
C. The brain of the computer
D. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD

Answer: A — Used to point objects on the monitor

The mouse is a computer input device used to control the cursor on the monitor, allowing users to point, select, and interact with graphical user interface elements.

8. Telephone is an example of

A. Barrier in communication
B. Sender
C. Receiver
D. Channel of communication

Answer: D — Channel of communication

A telephone is a device that facilitates spoken communication over a distance, acting as a channel through which the message travels between the sender and receiver.

9. Match the term "VERBAL COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Computer
B. Speaking
C. Facial Expression
D. Noise

Answer: B — Speaking

Verbal communication primarily involves the use of spoken words. Therefore, speaking is the most direct and suitable answer representing this mode of communication.

10. Which of the following is required for success of a project?

A. Personal gain
B. Purpose and Goal
C. Lots of money
D. Politics

Answer: B — Purpose and Goal

A clear purpose and well-defined goals are essential for the success of any project. While resources like money are important, they are secondary to having a clear objective.

11. Skill is an ability gained by

A. Responding well
B. Practicing or learning
C. Dominating others
D. Cooperating with others

Answer: B — Practicing or learning

Skills are abilities that are developed and refined through consistent practice, training, and learning. They are not innate but acquired over time with effort.

12. Which of the following is NOT a communication skill?

A. Reading
B. Teaming
C. Writing
D. Speaking

Answer: B — Teaming

Teaming, or teamwork, is a collaborative skill related to working with others. Speaking, writing, and reading are fundamental components of communication.

13. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "SPELL GRAMMER" ?

A. Opens an existing file
B. Changes the color of the text
C. Spelling and grammer check
D. Writes numbered bullets

Answer: C — Spelling and grammer check

In word processing software, 'Spell Grammar' refers to the function that checks the document for errors in spelling and grammatical construction.

14. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "KEYBOARD" ?

A. Peripheral to the computer
B. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
C. Used to point objects on the monitor
D. Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer

Answer: D — Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer

The keyboard is a peripheral device that allows a user to input text and commands into a computer, functioning similarly to a typewriter.

15. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "ZOOM"?

A. Opens a new word document
B. Writes numbered bullets
C. Zoom in and Zoom out
D. Cuts files into the clip-board

Answer: C — Zoom in and Zoom out

The 'Zoom' function in computer applications allows users to enlarge or reduce the view of a document or image, making it appear closer or farther away.

16. Which of the following is a NOT a quality of a good leader:

A. Forward looking
B. Dedication
C. Demanding
D. Inspiring

Answer: C — Demanding

A 'demanding' leader might be perceived as overly strict or authoritarian, which is generally not considered a positive leadership quality. Inspiring, dedication, and forward-looking are key leadership attributes.

17. Learning becomes permanent only by

A. Reading
B. Asking questions
C. Practice
D. Use of Senses

Answer: C — Practice

Learning is most effectively retained and becomes permanent when it is reinforced through practical application and repetition. While reading and senses help, practice solidifies knowledge.

18. Showing anger through facial expressions is an example of

A. Non – Verbal Communication
B. Verbal Communication
C. Receiving communication
D. Mode of communication

Answer: A — Non – Verbal Communication

Expressing emotions like anger through facial expressions is a form of non-verbal communication, as it conveys a message without using spoken or written words.

19. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "UNDO"?

A. Opens a new word document
B. Redoes previous actions
C. Undoes previous actions
D. Shows a preview of files before they print

Answer: C — Undoes previous actions

The 'Undo' function in software allows users to reverse the last action performed, effectively cancelling changes made.

20. On the day of exam, one should reach the exam center______ before exam

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 1 hour

Answer: B — 30 minutes

It is advisable to arrive at the examination center at least 30 minutes prior to the scheduled start time. This allows ample time for registration, finding the venue, and settling in without unnecessary stress.

21. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "NEW" ?

A. Opens an existing file
B. Spelling and grammer check
C. Open a new word document
D. Writes numbered bullets

Answer: C — Open a new word document

In word processing, selecting 'New' typically initiates the creation of a blank document, ready for new content to be entered.

22. Printer is a

A. CD-ROM Drive
B. Memory
C. Peripheral
D. Monitor

Answer: C — Peripheral

A printer is an external device that connects to a computer to produce hard copies of digital information; it is classified as a peripheral.

23. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CPU"?

A. The brain of the computer
B. Peripheral to the computer
C. Used to point objects on the monitor
D. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD

Answer: A — The brain of the computer

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer because it performs most of the processing and calculations required for the computer to operate.

24. While doing work, priority should be to

A. Needs of others
B. Most important and urgent work
C. Most urgent work
D. Most important work

Answer: B — Most important and urgent work

When undertaking tasks, the highest priority should be given to work that is both important and urgent, as these require immediate attention to avoid negative consequences.

25. One of the internal barriers to communication is

A. Time
B. Distraction
C. Ego
D. Noise

Answer: C — Ego

Ego can be a significant internal barrier to effective communication, as it may prevent individuals from listening openly or considering others' perspectives.

26. While studying for examination, one should

A. Read very carefully
B. Highlight the main points in the book
C. Memorize everything
D. Try to understand the matter

Answer: D — Try to understand the matter

Effective study means understanding the matter rather than rote memorising or highlighting.

27. CPU stands for

A. Computer processing unit
B. Central process unit
C. Computer program unit
D. Central processing unit

Answer: D — Central processing unit

CPU is an acronym that stands for Central Processing Unit, the primary component of a computer responsible for executing instructions.

28. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "NUMBERING"?

A. Opens a new word document
B. Writes numbered bullets
C. Zoom in and Zoom out
D. Undoes previous actions

Answer: B — Writes numbered bullets

The 'Numbering' function in word processing software is used to automatically create ordered lists with numerical or bulleted points.

29. Sending information is the opposite of

A. Receiving information
B. Encoding message
C. Transmitting information
D. Action

Answer: A — Receiving information

Sending information is the direct opposite of receiving information, representing the two fundamental directions of data flow in communication.

30. The weight of the hatch cover in the open position is taken by the

A. Side rollers
B. Cleats
C. Wedges
D. Eccentric rollers

Answer: A — Side rollers

When hatch covers are in the open position, their weight is supported by side rollers that run along the hatch coaming. These rollers facilitate the smooth movement of the covers and bear the load.

Set 2 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Bulk carrier discharge cargo with

A. Hosepipes
B. Buckets
C. Grabs
D. Shovels

Answer: C — Grabs

Bulk carriers primarily discharge granular or powdered cargo using grabs. These mechanical devices efficiently scoop and lift large quantities of bulk material from the holds.

2. Containers are lashed on a cellular container ship with

A. Nylon ropes
B. Twist locks and rod lashings
C. Nylon lashings
D. Chains and shackles

Answer: B — Twist locks and rod lashings

Containers on a cellular container ship are secured using twist locks that engage with the corner castings of the containers. Rod lashings may also be used in conjunction for additional stability.

3. The SWL of derrick

A. Can be exceeded sometimes
B. Can be exceeded
C. Should never be exceeded
D. May be exceeded once a voyage

Answer: C — Should never be exceeded

The Safe Working Load (SWL) of any derrick or lifting appliance should never be exceeded. This is a critical safety regulation to prevent catastrophic failure and ensure the safety of personnel and cargo.

4. When a ship goes from cold region to warmer region there is

A. Cold sweat
B. Warm sweat
C. Ship sweat
D. Cargo sweat

Answer: D — Cargo sweat

When a ship moves from a cold region to a warmer region, moisture from the warmer air condenses on the cold surfaces of the cargo and ship's structure, leading to 'cargo sweat'. This condensation can damage certain types of cargo.

5. When filling a ballast tank it is important to

A. Press up the tank
B. Take gas readings
C. Make sure that the tank air vents are open
D. Open the manhole cover

Answer: C — Make sure that the tank air vents are open

When filling a ballast tank, it is imperative that the tank's air vents are open. This allows air to escape as the tank fills, preventing pressure build-up and ensuring safe and efficient filling.

6. Rope slings are used for loading

A. Locomotives
B. Motor cars
C. Bagged cargo
D. Containers

Answer: C — Bagged cargo

Rope slings are versatile and are commonly used for loading bagged cargo. The ropes are looped around the bags to form a secure bundle for hoisting.

7. Hatch covers can be of the

A. All of the above
B. Lift on Lift off
C. Folding type
D. Side opening type

Answer: A — All of the above

Hatch covers come in various designs, including lift-on/lift-off, folding types, and side-opening types, depending on the ship's design and cargo. All these types are used to provide access to cargo holds.

8. The lower span block of the derrick is connected to the

A. Heel of the derrick
B. Middle of the derrick
C. Mast
D. Head of the derrick

Answer: D — Head of the derrick

The lower span block of a derrick is connected to the head of the derrick, which is the uppermost point. This block is part of the hoisting system used to lift the cargo.

9. The crane body is situated on

A. Mast house
B. Deck
C. Corner post
D. Crane post

Answer: D — Crane post

The crane body, which houses the main machinery and hoist mechanism, is typically situated on a robust structure called a crane post or pedestal. This provides a stable base for the rotating crane.

10. Cargo holds carrying dangerous cargo should

A. Have portable CO2 extinguishers
B. Not have a fixed fire fighting system
C. Have portable foam extinguishers
D. Have a fixed fire fighting system

Answer: D — Have a fixed fire fighting system

Cargo holds designated for dangerous cargo must be equipped with a fixed fire-fighting system, such as a CO2 or foam system, as per SOLAS regulations. This ensures prompt and effective fire suppression in a hazardous environment.

11. Canvas covers gives air pipes additional protection against

A. Water ingress in rough weather
B. Corrosion
C. Pollution
D. Rust

Answer: A — Water ingress in rough weather

Canvas covers placed over air pipe heads provide an additional layer of protection against water ingress during rough weather. This helps prevent seawater from entering the tank through the air pipe.

12. The ship can be penalized in port if there is

A. An emergency alarm
B. machinery breakdown
C. power failure
D. An oil spill in the harbour water

Answer: D — An oil spill in the harbour water

A ship can face severe penalties if there is an oil spill in harbour waters, as this constitutes a breach of environmental regulations (MARPOL). Such incidents have significant legal and financial consequences.

13. Before entering ballast tanks you must

A. Wear hand gloves
B. Open tank for ventilation to air out foul gases
C. Keep fire extinguisher ready near the entrance
D. Wear face mask

Answer: B — Open tank for ventilation to air out foul gases

Before entering any confined space, including ballast tanks, it is crucial to ventilate the space thoroughly to remove any dangerous or flammable gases. This is a fundamental safety procedure to prevent asphyxiation or explosion.

14. Eccentric rollers are lowered on steel hatch covers

A. To make the hatch cover sit on the trackway
B. To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway
C. Grease the eccentric rollers
D. When the hatch cover has to be repaired

Answer: A — To make the hatch cover sit on the trackway

Eccentric rollers on steel hatch covers are lowered to ensure the cover sits securely and seals properly onto the coaming or trackway when closed, providing watertight integrity.

15. Vehicles are loaded on to a Ro Ro ferry through the

A. Tween deck
B. Ramp
C. Hatch cover
D. Bulbous bow

Answer: B — Ramp

Ro Ro ferries are designed for the efficient loading and unloading of wheeled cargo. The ramp provides a direct, level access from the quay to the vehicle decks, allowing vehicles to drive on and off under their own power.

16. Grabs are used for loading

A. General cargo
B. Liquid cargo
C. Chemical cargo
D. Bulk cargo

Answer: D — Bulk cargo

Grabs are mechanical devices specifically designed for handling loose, granular, or fragmented materials. This type of cargo, such as coal, ore, or grain, is efficiently collected and transported by the jaws of a grab.

17. On a container ship containers have to be secure as per the

A. Availability of the lashing material
B. Approved lashing plan
C. Convenience of the lashing gang
D. Size of the container

Answer: B — Approved lashing plan

Securing containers on a cellular containership is a critical safety operation governed by strict regulations. An approved lashing plan, developed by naval architects and approved by classification societies, dictates the exact methods and materials to ensure stability and prevent shifting.

18. A wire snotter is a type of a

A. Wire sling
B. Net sling
C. Cargo net
D. Wooden tray

Answer: A — Wire sling

A wire snotter is a short loop of wire rope, typically with a thimble, used to form an eye or bight on a wire sling. It is an integral part of the sling assembly used for lifting cargo.

19. Hatches are battened down by

A. Cross wedges
B. Placing locking pins
C. Lowering eccentric rollers
D. Covering with tarpaulin

Answer: A — Cross wedges

Traditional hatches are battened down by covering them with tarpaulins held by battens secured with wedges driven into cleats (cross wedges); modern steel covers are cleated instead.

20. The capacity of tank with depth is available in the

A. Calibration tables
B. Deck log book
C. Oil record book
D. ASTM tables

Answer: A — Calibration tables

Calibration tables, often called tank sounding or ullage tables, provide the volume of liquid in a tank corresponding to a given depth or ullage. These tables are essential for accurate cargo and ballast calculations.

21. Disposal of all cargo residue should be entered in the

A. Oil record book
B. Garbage record book
C. Stevedores record book
D. Official log book

Answer: B — Garbage record book

The Garbage Record Book (GRB) is a mandatory log for recording the disposal of all types of garbage generated onboard ship, as required by MARPOL Annex V. Cargo residue is considered garbage and its discharge must be documented.

22. Container are loaded on board a gearless cellular container ship by

A. Floating cranes
B. Derricks
C. Grabs
D. Shore gantry cranes

Answer: D — Shore gantry cranes

Gearless cellular container ships rely on shore-based equipment for loading and discharging. Shore gantry cranes are specifically designed to efficiently and safely lift containers to and from the ship's holds and deck.

23. In port loading and discharging on a cellular container ship is by

A. Derricks
B. Wire slings
C. Grabs
D. Shore gantry

Answer: D — Shore gantry

Cellular container ships in port are loaded and discharged using specialized shore-based equipment. Shore gantry cranes are designed for rapid, precise movement of containers to and from the vessel.

24. When the derrick is secured for sea the head will rest on the

A. Mast house
B. Crutch stand
C. Hatch cover
D. Deck

Answer: B — Crutch stand

When a derrick is secured for sea, its boom (head) rests on a crutch stand, which is a secure support designed to prevent movement and stress on the mast or deck.

25. Eccentric rollers are lifted on steel hatch covers

A. Grease the eccentric rollers
B. To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway
C. When the hatch cover has to be repaired
D. To batten down the hatch cover

Answer: B — To make the hatch cover roll on the trackway

Eccentric rollers are part of the mechanism that allows steel hatch covers to be opened and closed. Lifting or rotating them disengages the cover from its locking position, enabling it to roll smoothly on its trackway.

26. Ship sweat occurs when a vessel loads cargo in a

A. Cold place to another cold place
B. Cold and wet place and goes to a warm place
C. Warm place to another warm place
D. Warm and humid place and goes to a cooler place

Answer: D — Warm and humid place and goes to a cooler place

Ship sweat occurs when warm, moist air inside a cargo hold comes into contact with a colder surface (like the ship's structure or cargo). This temperature difference causes condensation to form, potentially damaging cargo.

27. Before entering enclosed spaces, the space must be

A. Filled with inert gas
B. Cleaned
C. Painted
D. Ventilated

Answer: D — Ventilated

Before entering any enclosed space, thorough ventilation is crucial. This process removes or dilutes any hazardous or flammable gases and replenishes oxygen levels to ensure a safe atmosphere.

28. Cellular container vessels have several lift on lift off hatch covers to

A. Carry more containers on deck
B. Minimize stress on the trackway
C. Prevent water from entering into the cargo hold
D. Reduce the weight of each hatch cover

Answer: D — Reduce the weight of each hatch cover

Splitting the hatch into several lift-on/lift-off pontoon covers keeps the weight of each cover within the capacity of the shore crane or gantry.

29. Purpose of a handlead line is to measure the

A. Draft
B. Height
C. Depth of water
D. Length of a ship

Answer: C — Depth of water

A hand lead line is a traditional sounding device used to measure the depth of water. It consists of a weighted line marked with depths, manually lowered to the seabed.

30. Cargoes which give off gases requires

A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Drying
D. Ventilation

Answer: D — Ventilation

Cargoes that release gases, such as certain organic materials, require adequate ventilation. This ensures that any accumulated gases are dispersed, preventing pressure build-up and maintaining a safe atmosphere within the hold.

Set 3 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Cargo hold washing are pumped out

A. Into the engine bilges
B. Through the hold bilges
C. Into the side
D. Through the double bottom tank

Answer: B — Through the hold bilges

After cargo hold washing, the resulting water is typically pumped out through the hold bilge system. This system collects and pumps liquids from the lowest part of the hold overboard or to a slop tank.

2. The flammable range of a gas is

A. Between LFL and UFL in hydrogen
B. Above UFL
C. Below LFL
D. Between the LFL and UFL in air

Answer: D — Between the LFL and UFL in air

The flammable range, or explosive limits, of a gas mixture in air is defined by the concentrations that can support combustion. It lies between the Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) and the Upper Flammable Limit (UFL).

3. Inert gas has a

A. High content of sulphur
B. Low content of nitrogen
C. High content of oxygen
D. Low content of oxygen

Answer: D — Low content of oxygen

Inert gas, commonly used for cargo tank protection, is characterized by a very low oxygen content. This lack of oxygen prevents combustion by displacing the flammable vapor and air mixture.

4. General cargo consists of

A. Bulk grain
B. LNG
C. Bales
D. Liquid cargo

Answer: C — Bales

General (break-bulk) cargo is packaged cargo such as bales, cases and drums, unlike bulk grain or liquids.

5. The cargo hold of a cellular container Ship has the following fittings inside

A. Hatch boards
B. Pillars
C. Cell guides
D. Tween deck

Answer: C — Cell guides

Cellular container ships are equipped with cell guides within the cargo holds. These vertical structures precisely guide containers into their designated slots, ensuring stability and efficient stowage.

6. Cargo hold bilge strum boxes should be cleaned

A. After every discharge of cargo
B. Once a month
C. Every year
D. In dry-dock

Answer: A — After every discharge of cargo

Cargo hold bilge strum boxes are critical for preventing debris from entering the bilge pumping system. Cleaning them after every cargo discharge ensures the bilge system remains clear and effective.

7. All accesses to a cargo hold should be

A. Corrosion resistant
B. Held tight
C. Water tight
D. Weather tight

Answer: D — Weather tight

All accesses to a cargo hold, such as hatches and manholes, must be weather tight. This is essential to prevent the ingress of seawater, rain, and spray, protecting the cargo from damage.

8. The safe working load of the derrick or crane can be

A. Exceeded if operating slowly
B. Exceeded when required
C. Exceeded
D. Should not be exceeded

Answer: D — Should not be exceeded

The Safe Working Load (SWL) of any lifting appliance, including derricks and cranes, represents the maximum load they are certified to handle safely. Exceeding this limit poses a significant risk of equipment failure and accident.

9. The ships crane can rotate through

A. 180 degrees
B. 270 degrees
C. 360 degrees
D. 90 degrees

Answer: C — 360 degrees

Ships' cranes, particularly those designed for cargo handling, are typically capable of rotating a full 360 degrees. This allows for comprehensive coverage and efficient operation around the working area.

10. A Ro Ro ship can be used to carry

A. All of the below
B. Passengers
C. Cars
D. Trucks

Answer: A — All of the below

Ro Ro (Roll-on/Roll-off) vessels are specifically designed to carry wheeled cargo, including cars, trucks, trailers, and passengers who may be accompanying their vehicles. Therefore, they can accommodate all listed types of cargo.

11. Bilges should be cleaned, covered with burlap and cemented

A. Prior to loading bulk cargo
B. After loading bulk cargo
C. Prior to cleaning the cargo hold
D. After discharging bulk cargo

Answer: A — Prior to loading bulk cargo

Prior to loading bulk cargo, the bilges of the holds must be prepared. Cleaning them and covering with burlap then cementing prevents loose material from entering the bilge system during loading and transit.

12. At sea container lashings should be tightened

A. Weekly
B. Fortnightly
C. Only after rough weather is encountered
D. Daily

Answer: D — Daily

Container lashings on cellular container ships require regular inspection and tightening, especially at sea. Daily checks are often necessary to ensure the security of the containers against the dynamic forces of the marine environment.

13. A LNG tanker carries

A. Liquefied natural gas
B. Petroleum gases
C. Crude oil
D. Chemicals

Answer: A — Liquefied natural gas

LNG tankers are specialized vessels designed for the transportation of Liquefied Natural Gas. The cargo is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state for easier storage and transport.

14. A ballast tank must not be pressurized as it will

A. Damage the tank
B. Increase the draft
C. Sink the ship
D. Cause pollution

Answer: A — Damage the tank

Pressurizing a ballast tank beyond its design limits can cause structural damage. Ballast tanks are designed to withstand hydrostatic pressure and normal venting, not over-pressurization.

15. All cargo gear should have

A. Colour codes
B. Test certificates
C. Name codes
D. Maintenance certificates

Answer: B — Test certificates

All cargo gear, including cranes, derricks, and associated lifting equipment, must have valid test certificates. These certificates verify that the gear has been inspected, tested, and certified safe for its intended working load, as per international regulations.

16. Discharge of chemical cargo tank washing should comply with

A. MARPOL
B. STCW
C. SOLAS
D. ISM

Answer: A — MARPOL

The discharge of chemical cargo tank washings is strictly regulated by MARPOL. Annex II of MARPOL provides specific requirements for the handling and disposal of residues from chemical tankers to prevent marine pollution.

17. Gooseneck of a derrick is an arrangement

A. To house the derrick when at sea
B. Which supports a derrick block
C. Which supports the derrick heel
D. For rigging a Derrick

Answer: C — Which supports the derrick heel

The gooseneck is a component of a derrick rig that supports the derrick heel (the lower end of the mast or derrick spar). It allows the derrick to pivot and be secured in position.

18. Prior to loading bulk cargo the holds should be

A. Cleaned and all the dunnage piled up in one section of the hold
B. Cleaned with the bilge cover kept open
C. Swept clean and all sweepings put in the bilges
D. Cleaned in all respects for the next cargo

Answer: D — Cleaned in all respects for the next cargo

Before loading bulk cargo, cargo holds must be thoroughly cleaned and prepared to ensure the cargo's integrity and to prevent contamination. All residues must be removed, and the holds must be in a suitable condition for the specific cargo being loaded.

19. Containers are interlocked together with

A. Bridge fittings
B. All of the above
C. Twist locks
D. Linkage plate

Answer: B — All of the above

Containers on board a vessel are secured together using various fittings. Twist locks are inserted into the corner castings to lock adjacent containers, while bridge fittings and linkage plates can be used for further securing.

20. The knot used for making a back splice is a

A. Overhand knot
B. Figure of eight knot
C. Reef knot
D. Crown knot

Answer: D — Crown knot

A crown knot is used as the finishing knot in a back splice for wire ropes. It secures the ends of the spliced wires, preventing them from unraveling.

21. Block which has a hinged side is known as

A. Snatch block
B. Chain block
C. Gin Block
D. Heel block

Answer: A — Snatch block

A snatch block is a type of pulley block that has a hinged or opening side. This feature allows the rope to be easily inserted without having to be threaded through the entire block, simplifying rigging.

22. The advantage of using a purchase is that for a given size of wire rope

A. The frictional forces are reduced
B. greater weight can be lifted
C. smaller weight can be lifted
D. The same weight can be lifted

Answer: B — greater weight can be lifted

A purchase, which is a system of ropes and pulleys (blocks), provides mechanical advantage. This allows a greater weight to be lifted with less effort than would be required with a single rope, for the same size of rope.

23. A lead block is used in a derrick when rigging the

A. Stay wire
B. Heel block
C. Preventer wire
D. Purchase to advantage

Answer: D — Purchase to advantage

A lead block, often a single sheave block, is used in a derrick rig to change the direction of the running part of a rope, enabling the purchase to be rove to advantage. This means the direction of pull is adjusted for more efficient lifting.

24. To make temporary eye at one end the most useful knot is

A. Reef knot
B. Overhand knot
C. Bowline
D. Figure of eight knot

Answer: C — Bowline

The bowline is the most suitable knot for creating a temporary eye in a rope end. It forms a secure, non-slipping loop that is easy to untie even after being under load, essential for many rigging and rescue applications.

25. To increase the life of a steel wire rope in a crane it should be

A. Changed end to end
B. Greased regularly
C. Kept slack on the drum
D. Painted

Answer: B — Greased regularly

Regular greasing of the steel wire rope used in cranes is crucial to prevent corrosion and reduce friction between the wires and strands. This maintenance significantly extends the rope's service life and ensures its safe operation.

26. Proof Load of derrick / crane is

A. More than safe working load
B. Same as safe working Load
C. Less than
D. More than breaking strength

Answer: A — More than safe working load

The Proof Load of a derrick or crane is defined as the load that the equipment can withstand without permanent deformation or failure. It is always specified as being more than the Safe Working Load (SWL) to ensure a margin of safety.

27. A single sheave block is used to

A. Prevent the wire from being damaged
B. Eliminate friction
C. Increase the power gained
D. Act as a lead block

Answer: D — Act as a lead block

A single sheave block, when used in a derrick or lifting arrangement, primarily functions as a lead block. It redirects the line of pull, allowing the rope to run smoothly and efficiently, often in conjunction with other blocks.

28. A shackle is moused to:

A. Increase the SWL of the shackle
B. Strengthen the shackle
C. Prevent the pin from slipping
D. Prevent corrosion of the pin

Answer: C — Prevent the pin from slipping

Mousing a shackle, typically with wire or marline, is a safety measure to prevent the pin from accidentally working loose and falling out. This ensures the integrity of the connection, especially under dynamic loading conditions.

29. A purchase is roveto advantage when

A. The pull is coming from the moving block
B. The pull is coming from the standing block
C. The wire thickness is reduced
D. The purchase is hoisting more weight

Answer: A — The pull is coming from the moving block

A purchase is rove to advantage when the direction of the hauling part originates from the moving block. This configuration allows for mechanical advantage, meaning less force is required to lift a given weight.

30. Blocks are greased to

A. Keep the check nut tight
B. Maintain the SWL of the block
C. Prevent Accidents
D. Allow free rotation of sheaves

Answer: D — Allow free rotation of sheaves

Blocks are greased to ensure the free and smooth rotation of the sheaves. This reduces friction and wear on the sheave and the rope, which is vital for efficient operation and preventing damage.

Set 4 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. The size of a manila rope is usually indicated by its

A. Length
B. Circumference
C. Diameter
D. Weight

Answer: C — Diameter

The size of a manila rope, and indeed most ropes, is traditionally indicated by its diameter. This measurement is critical for selecting the appropriate rope for a specific load or application based on its strength.

2. When rigging the bosun chair the gantline is secured to the chair with

A. Double sheet bend
B. Round turn and two half hitches
C. Reef knot
D. Clove hitch

Answer: A — Double sheet bend

When rigging a bosun chair, a double sheet bend is the most secure and appropriate knot to connect the gantline to the chair. It creates a strong, reliable attachment that is resistant to slipping under load.

3. To rig a threefold purchase what blocks are required

A. One 2- sheave bock and a single sheave block
B. Two 2- sheave blocks
C. One 2 -sheave and one 3 sheave block
D. Two 3 -sheave blocks

Answer: D — Two 3 -sheave blocks

A threefold purchase is rove through two treble-sheave (3-sheave) blocks.

4. Rope should be stored

A. Close to chemicals and paints
B. In a dry well ventilated space
C. Close to hot bulkheads
D. In a place which is exposed to hot sunlight

Answer: B — In a dry well ventilated space

Rope should always be stored in a dry, well-ventilated space, away from direct sunlight, heat, and chemicals. Proper storage preserves the rope's integrity and prevents degradation, ensuring its strength and longevity.

5. A gun tackle can be used

A. Only to disadvantage
B. Both to advantage and disadvantage
C. Only to advantage
D. Never to advantage

Answer: B — Both to advantage and disadvantage

A gun tackle, consisting of one single movable block and one single fixed block, can be rigged to provide a mechanical advantage (to advantage) or without advantage depending on which block is attached to the load. Therefore, it can be used in both ways.

6. The stage can be lowered over side for shipside painting when the vessel is

A. Making way through water in good weather
B. Underway
C. Manoeuvring alongside
D. At anchor in good weather

Answer: D — At anchor in good weather

When a vessel is at anchor in good weather, it provides a stable platform for shipside painting. Lowering a stage over the side while making way or manoeuvring would be extremely hazardous due to the vessel's movement.

7. Greasing is carried out on equipment to

A. Increase friction
B. Make it airtight
C. Reduce friction
D. Make it watertight

Answer: C — Reduce friction

Greasing mechanical equipment, such as block sheaves or winch gears, is fundamentally done to reduce friction. Lower friction allows for smoother operation, less wear, and requires less force to move components.

8. The purpose of mousing a hook is to

A. Reduce the swing of the object
B. Prevent the sling from slipping out
C. Prevent the hook from getting fouled
D. Increase the SWL of the hook

Answer: B — Prevent the sling from slipping out

Mousing a hook, typically with wire or seizing, is a safety procedure to prevent the load or sling from accidentally slipping out of the hook's throat. This is particularly important when the load is not directly attached or under dynamic conditions.

9. When a purchase is rigged to disadvantage the pull is from the

A. Moving block
B. Standing block
C. Running block
D. Lifting block

Answer: B — Standing block

A purchase is rove to disadvantage when the hauling part comes from the standing (fixed) block, which gives a lower mechanical advantage.

10. The lay of a right hand lay rope is

A. Left to left
B. From right to left
C. Midship to right
D. Left to right

Answer: D — Left to right

A right-hand lay rope is constructed such that the strands spiral from left to right when viewed from the end. This is the most common type of rope lay, designed for general-purpose use.

11. If the sheave is cracked the sheave has to be

A. Welded
B. Renewed
C. Soldered
D. Greased

Answer: B — Renewed

If a sheave in a block is found to be cracked, it represents a significant structural weakness. It must be renewed immediately to maintain the integrity and safety of the lifting gear according to maritime safety regulations.

12. If the gap between the sheave and the cheek plate is excessive the wire

A. Should be spliced
B. Needs to be greased
C. Will get fouled
D. Needs to be changed

Answer: C — Will get fouled

An excessive gap between the sheave and the cheek plates of a block can allow the wire rope to become fouled or jammed. This situation increases the risk of damage to the wire and potential failure of the lifting operation.

13. Strongest rope for the same diameter is made of

A. Nylon
B. Manila
C. Polypropylene
D. Hemp

Answer: A — Nylon

For the same diameter, nylon ropes exhibit the highest tensile strength among the given options. This makes them suitable for applications requiring significant load-bearing capacity, such as towing or mooring lines.

14. Grease nipples are provided on blocks for

A. Painting
B. De-greasing
C. Lubrication
D. Applying anti-rust

Answer: C — Lubrication

Grease nipples, often called Zerk fittings, are specifically designed on blocks and other machinery for the purpose of applying lubricant. Regular lubrication via these nipples is essential for maintaining proper function and longevity.

15. The split pin on a shackle prevents the pin from

A. Unlocking
B. Getting corroded
C. Getting jammed
D. Getting stuck

Answer: A — Unlocking

A split pin (or cotter pin) inserted through a hole in the shackle pin and its head is used to secure the pin. It prevents the pin from backing out or unlocking due to vibration or movement, thus maintaining the shackle's connection.

16. The knot used at the end of a heaving line is a

A. Monkey fist
B. Carrick bend
C. Crown knot
D. Bowline on the bight

Answer: A — Monkey fist

A monkey fist is a type of knot often tied to the end of a heaving line. Its weight and shape help to carry the line accurately to the receiving end during line transfer operations between vessels or to shore.

17. When a wire rope is joined to a fiber rope it should be

A. Spliced to fiber rope
B. Connected with a shackle
C. Tied with a knot to the fiber rope
D. Fitted with a thimble

Answer: D — Fitted with a thimble

When joining a wire rope to a fibre rope, a thimble should be fitted into the eye of the wire rope splice. This protects the wire from crushing and abrasion where it forms the eye, and a suitable knot or fitting is then used to connect the fibre rope.

18. Breaking strength of a rope

A. Less than safe working load
B. Equal to safe working load
C. Is more than the safe working load
D. Is the amount it stretches on load

Answer: C — Is more than the safe working load

The breaking strength of a rope is the minimum load at which the rope is expected to fail. It is always considerably higher than the Safe Working Load (SWL), which incorporates a safety factor to account for wear, shock loading, and other operational stresses.

19. Kinks in the rope

A. Cause a permanent reduction to the length of the rope
B. Damage the warping drum
C. Can cause permanent injury to the rope
D. Damage the fairleads

Answer: C — Can cause permanent injury to the rope

Kinks in a rope are sharp bends or twists that can severely damage the rope's internal structure. This damage creates weak points, leading to a permanent reduction in the rope's strength and a significant risk of failure under load.

20. Eye splice is used

A. To prevent the strands from unlaying
B. to make a permenant eye at end of the rope
C. For preventing the rope end from unlaying
D. To join two ropes together

Answer: B — to make a permenant eye at end of the rope

An eye splice is a method used to create a permanent, strong loop at the end of a rope. It involves interlacing the strands of the rope's end back into the standing part, forming a secure eye for attachment.

21. Extra flexible steel wire rope has

A. 6x24 wires per strand
B. 6x12 wires per strand
C. 6x48 wires per strand
D. 6x37 wires per strand

Answer: D — 6x37 wires per strand

Extra flexible steel wire rope, designed for applications requiring high flexibility like cranes with extensive articulation, typically has a construction of 6x37. This means there are 6 main strands, each composed of 37 individual wires.

22. The lifeboat lifeline has the following knot on it at fixed intervals

A. Bowline
B. Figure of eight knot
C. Reef knot
D. Sheep-shank

Answer: B — Figure of eight knot

The figure of eight knot is commonly used at fixed intervals along lifeboat lifelines. It provides a secure grip for rescue and helps prevent accidental sliding off the line, complying with Life Saving Appliance (LSA) Code requirements.

23. Whipping is carried out

A. Prevent the ends of a rope from unlaying
B. Protect the ends from chafing damage
C. Join two ropes of equal size
D. To protect the rope from weather

Answer: A — Prevent the ends of a rope from unlaying

Whipping is the practice of tightly winding twine or cordage around the end of a rope. Its primary purpose is to prevent the strands of the rope from unlaying or unraveling, maintaining the rope's integrity.

24. If more than 10% in 8 diameters is broken the wire should be

A. Renewed
B. Welded
C. Cut and spliced
D. Turned end to end

Answer: A — Renewed

If a wire rope exhibits more than 10% of broken wires within a length of 8 diameters, it is considered significantly damaged and unsafe. According to inspection standards, such a rope must be immediately renewed.

25. Before working on the stage the seaman should inspect the stage to ensure that the

A. Rope is of polypropylene
B. Length of the stage is 2m
C. Wood is intact and free from grease
D. Mooring lines are kept tight

Answer: C — Wood is intact and free from grease

Before using a stage for tasks like shipside painting, a thorough inspection is crucial. The seaman must ensure the wood is sound, free from cracks or rot, and importantly, free from grease or oil, which could make it slippery and hazardous.

26. When lifting a spar vertically through a manhole the hitch to use is

A. Draw hitch
B. Midshipman hitch
C. Timber hitch
D. Clove hitch

Answer: C — Timber hitch

A timber hitch is the most suitable knot for lifting a spar or log vertically through a manhole. It securely grips the timber and tightens as the load is applied, while being relatively easy to release afterward.

27. In freezing weather the mooring winches should be started at least 30 minutes before use to

A. Warm up the system
B. Check the oil level
C. Remove the ropes from the store
D. Lower the anchor

Answer: A — Warm up the system

In freezing conditions, starting mooring winches at least 30 minutes before use is essential to warm up the hydraulic or electrical systems. This prevents damage caused by cold, stiff components and ensures proper operation.

28. The full form of EEBD is

A. Emergency exit below deck
B. Emergency escape below deck
C. Emergency escape breaking device
D. Emergency escape breathing device

Answer: D — Emergency escape breathing device

EEBD stands for Emergency Escape Breathing Device. It provides a self-contained source of breathable air for personnel to safely escape from hazardous atmospheres, such as in a fire or toxic gas release situation.

29. Safety goggles are used to protect the eyes from

A. Snow
B. Wet weather
C. Foreign bodies entering
D. Heavy weather

Answer: C — Foreign bodies entering

Safety goggles are mandatory personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to protect the eyes from potential hazards. They prevent foreign bodies, such as flying debris, dust, or splashes, from entering the eyes during work.

30. After abandon ship, the survivors in a lifeboat must be given

A. No water for the first twenty four hours
B. One litre of water each
C. Half a litre of water each
D. Two litres of water each

Answer: A — No water for the first twenty four hours

As per SOLAS regulations and survival best practices, survivors in a lifeboat should not be given any water for the first 24 hours after abandoning ship. This conserves the limited supply for when dehydration becomes a critical concern.

Set 5 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. When the ship is alongside a wharf the safe access to the ship is by the

A. Coolie ladder
B. Pilot ladder
C. Combination ladder
D. Gangway

Answer: D — Gangway

When a vessel is alongside a wharf or quay, the gangway is the standard and safest means of access to and from the ship. It provides a stable, fixed walkway that complies with safety regulations for personnel transfer.

2. Match the word "RESTRICTED IN HER ABILITY TO MANEUVER" with the most suitable word given below

A. Altering course to Stateboard
B. Five short blasts
C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
D. One prolonged blast every two minutes

Answer: C — One prolonged blast followed by two short

According to Rule 3(ii) of COLREGs, a vessel 'restricted in her ability to maneuver' is one that cannot take actions to avoid another ship due to her work. The defined sound signal for such a vessel when underway is one prolonged blast followed by two short blasts.

3. SOLAS deals with

A. Tank cleaning
B. Safety
C. Crew welfare
D. Pollution

Answer: B — Safety

SOLAS, the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, is a critical maritime treaty that sets minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships. It directly addresses numerous aspects of ship safety to protect lives at sea.

4. Disposal of all food waste should be entered in the

A. Cargo record book
B. Oil record book
C. Garbage record book
D. Bridge log book

Answer: C — Garbage record book

MARPOL Annex V governs the discharge of garbage from ships. All food waste, including that from galleys and living spaces, must be recorded in the Garbage Record Book, detailing quantities and disposal methods (e.g., incineration, discharge, or delivery to shore reception facilities).

5. While working near the funnel, check with the officer on the bridge that he has informed the

A. Engine room to switch off power on deck
B. Engine room to switch off air/steam to whistle
C. Master
D. Count number of seamen working

Answer: B — Engine room to switch off air/steam to whistle

When working near the funnel, especially if maintenance involves noise or potential steam release, it's crucial to coordinate with the bridge. The bridge must inform the engine room to temporarily stop the whistle (using steam or air) to prevent confusion or injury to personnel on deck.

6. What type of portable extinguisher should be used for oil fire

A. CO2 type
B. Water type
C. Foam type
D. Soda water

Answer: C — Foam type

Oil fires, often classified as Class B fires, involve flammable liquids. Foam extinguishers work by creating a blanket over the burning surface, separating the fuel from the air and cooling it. Water-based extinguishers are ineffective and can spread the fire.

7. Match the term "MAKING WAY THROUGH WATER" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Five short blasts
B. Altering course to Stateboard
C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
D. One prolonged blast every two minutes

Answer: D — One prolonged blast every two minutes

The COLREGs define sound signals for vessels. 'Making way through water' means the vessel is underway and moving. The prescribed sound signal for a power-driven vessel making way through the water, when not otherwise required to be making sound signals, is one prolonged blast every two minutes.

8. Number of lifebuoys on a ship depends on its

A. Length
B. Moulded breadth
C. Deadweight
D. Draught

Answer: A — Length

The number of lifebuoys required on a ship is determined by its overall length, as specified by SOLAS Chapter III. Longer vessels require a proportionally greater number of lifebuoys to ensure adequate coverage around the ship's perimeter for immediate rescue in case of man overboard.

9. What immediate action will you take if you see a man falling overboard at sea

A. Release lifebuoy and MOB
B. Sound emergency station
C. Jump into the sea
D. Inform duty officer

Answer: A — Release lifebuoy and MOB

The immediate and crucial first action upon seeing a person fall overboard is to activate the rescue process. This involves releasing a lifebuoy with its attached light/smoke signal and immediately alerting the bridge by sounding the 'Man Overboard' alarm and the MOB button on the GMDSS.

10. When you smell something burning in your cabin your first action should be

A. Wait for the fire alarm to ring
B. Get a portable extinguisher to extinguish fire
C. Telephone the next cabin to warn
D. Vacate the cabin and raise alarm

Answer: D — Vacate the cabin and raise alarm

Upon smelling smoke in your cabin, the first and most critical action is to evacuate the immediate area and raise the alarm to alert others. This ensures personal safety and allows for a trained response by the ship's crew to assess and fight the fire.

11. Red parachute flares are called

A. Light technics
B. Pyrotechnics
C. Flare technics
D. Fire technics

Answer: B — Pyrotechnics

Red parachute flares are pyrotechnic distress signals used to indicate a vessel's position to rescuers, especially at night or in poor visibility. 'Pyrotechnics' is the general term encompassing all such signaling devices that involve a chemical reaction producing light or smoke.

12. For fighting an electrical fire, the action to be taken is to use a

A. Soda Acid Extinguisher
B. Portable CO2 extinguisher
C. Water Hose
D. Foam Extinguisher

Answer: B — Portable CO2 extinguisher

Electrical fires (Class C) are best fought with a non-conductive agent. A portable CO2 extinguisher is ideal as it displaces oxygen and cools the fire without leaving residue or conducting electricity, thus preventing further damage or risk to personnel.

13. The following task requires a hot work permit

A. Welding on deck
B. Painting on deck
C. Lifeboat drill
D. Opening hatch covers

Answer: A — Welding on deck

A hot work permit is mandatory for any activity that involves open flames, sparks, or high temperatures. Welding on deck generates sparks and heat, posing a significant fire risk, hence the requirement for a permit to ensure safety precautions are in place.

14. Ear muffs are used to protect the ears from

A. Inflammable gases
B. Heat radiation
C. Bacterial infection
D. High intensity sound

Answer: D — High intensity sound

Ear muffs are personal protective equipment (PPE) designed to attenuate sound. They are used to protect the wearer's hearing from potentially damaging high-intensity noise levels commonly found in engine rooms, workshops, or during cargo operations.

15. Rigging the "Emergency Towing Arrangement" fore and aft when alongside is mandatory for

A. General cargo ships
B. Bulk carriers
C. Tankers
D. Container ships

Answer: C — Tankers

The requirement to rig emergency towing arrangements when alongside is particularly emphasized for tankers due to the nature of their cargo. It ensures a rapid and safe means of towing in case of an emergency that might necessitate unberthing quickly, minimizing pollution risk.

16. Inspection of life saving appliances shall be carried out

A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Half yearly
D. Bimonthly

Answer: A — Monthly

SOLAS Chapter III requires regular inspections of life-saving appliances (LSA). These inspections are typically carried out monthly by the ship's crew to ensure all equipment is in good condition and ready for immediate use in an emergency.

17. Safety harness is used

A. To store safety items
B. When cleaning the wheelhouse
C. To prevent backache
D. When working aloft

Answer: D — When working aloft

A safety harness is a critical piece of PPE used to prevent falls when personnel are working at height. Its primary function is to secure the worker and arrest a fall, ensuring safety when working aloft or in other elevated positions.

18. During Bunkering

A. Plug air pipes
B. Plug sounding pipes
C. Plug all deck scuppers
D. Raise the gangway

Answer: C — Plug all deck scuppers

During bunkering operations, all deck scuppers must be plugged. This is a crucial safety measure to prevent any potential spill of fuel oil or other hazardous substances from escaping overboard and causing marine pollution.

19. The markings on a lifejacket include

A. Ship owners name
B. Ship masters name
C. Ships port of registry
D. Ships GRT

Answer: C — Ships port of registry

As per international regulations, lifejackets must be clearly marked with specific information. The ship's port of registry is a mandatory marking to identify the vessel to which the lifejacket belongs, aiding in inventory and accountability.

20. A self-contained breathing apparatus

A. Is connected to the deck air line
B. Is used for entry in enclosed spaces
C. Is used for underwater surveys
D. Contains oxygen

Answer: B — Is used for entry in enclosed spaces

A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides a supply of clean breathing air and is essential for entering potentially hazardous atmospheres. Its primary use is for entry into confined spaces where the air may be deficient in oxygen or contaminated with toxic gases.

21. Match the term "TWO SHORT BLASTS" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Altering course to Starboard
B. Altering course to port
C. One prolonged blast followed by two short
D. One prolonged blast every two minutes

Answer: B — Altering course to port

According to Rule 34 of COLREGs, two short blasts sounded in succession indicate that a vessel altering course to port is intended. This is a maneuvering signal used between vessels to indicate intentions in compliance with the Rules of the Road.

22. The familiarization of the joining crew is done by the

A. Outgoing crew member
B. Cadets
C. Master
D. Chief engineer

Answer: A — Outgoing crew member

Familiarization with a ship's layout, safety procedures, and equipment for joining crew members is typically provided by an outgoing crew member. This ensures a smooth transition and that new personnel are adequately informed about essential operational and safety aspects.

23. The distress signals, required to be kept in a lifeboat are

A. Smoke signals + Line throwing apparatus
B. Rocket parachutes + Hand flares
C. Rocket parachutes + Hand flares+ Smoke signals
D. Hand flares

Answer: C — Rocket parachutes + Hand flares+ Smoke signals

Lifeboats must carry a comprehensive set of distress signals as per SOLAS. This includes rocket-parachute signals, hand flares, and smoke signals, all designed to alert potential rescuers and indicate the lifeboat's position effectively in an emergency.

24. Best method for fighting a fire in the paint room is

A. Use a water jet
B. Use a fire blanket
C. Use a foam type extinguisher
D. Use a soda acid extinguisher

Answer: C — Use a foam type extinguisher

Paint rooms store flammable liquids, making fires (Class B) likely. Foam extinguishers are highly effective as they create a cooling, vapor-suppressing blanket over the burning liquid surface, preventing re-ignition and spread.

25. The international signal for "Man Overboard" is

A. Seven or more short blasts followed by prolong blast
B. Three prolonged blasts
C. Continuous ringing of the ship’s alarm
D. Five short and rapid blasts

Answer: B — Three prolonged blasts

The recognized international signal for 'Man Overboard' is three prolonged blasts on the ship's whistle or siren. This distinct signal alerts the entire crew to the emergency, initiating immediate response procedures.

26. Engine room bilges are pumped into the sea through the

A. Bilge line
B. Shore connection
C. Overboard valve
D. Oily water separator

Answer: D — Oily water separator

Engine room bilges collect oily water, which must be treated before discharge. The Oily Water Separator (OWS) is a mandatory piece of equipment designed to separate oil from water to meet MARPOL discharge limits before pumping overboard.

27. An emergency alarm is sounded when the ship

A. Has had a collision
B. Is overtaking another ship
C. Navigating in heavy traffic
D. Is altering course

Answer: A — Has had a collision

An emergency alarm, typically seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast, is sounded to signal a major ship emergency like a collision or grounding. This distinct signal alerts the entire crew to muster at their designated stations for evacuation or other emergency procedures.

28. Match the term "ONE PROLONGED BLAST FOLLOWED BY THREE BLASTS IN SUCCESSION" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Five short blasts
B. Altering course to Starboard
C. Six short blasts
D. Vessel being towed

Answer: D — Vessel being towed

COLREG Rule 35(e): one prolonged followed by three short blasts is sounded by the (last) manned vessel being towed in restricted visibility.

29. Safety hand gloves are used to protect the hands while

A. Handling food stuff
B. Steering the ship
C. Cleaning crew’s mess room
D. Handling wire ropes

Answer: D — Handling wire ropes

Safety hand gloves are essential PPE for handling materials that can cause abrasions or cuts. Wire ropes, due to their construction and tension, pose a significant risk of hand injury, making gloves crucial during their handling.

30. Match the term "TO ATTRACT ATTENTION" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Five short blasts
B. One prolonged blast followed by two short
C. Vessel being towed
D. Six short blasts

Answer: A — Five short blasts

Five short blasts on the ship's whistle are used as a general warning signal to attract attention or to indicate a vessel's presence when there is a risk of collision, particularly in restricted visibility or congested areas.

Set 6 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. A bowsing tackle is used to

A. Tow the life raft
B. Lash the lifeboat to the davits
C. Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
D. Lowering the lifeboat oars

Answer: C — Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck

A bowsing tackle is a system of ropes and blocks used to secure a lifeboat snugly against the ship's side or davit while it is in its stowed position, preventing movement and ensuring stability.

2. On joining the ship the crew members should familiarize themselves with the

A. Muster list
B. Crew list
C. Contents of the lifeboat
D. Menu

Answer: A — Muster list

Upon joining a ship, crew members must familiarize themselves with the Muster List. This document details emergency duties, muster stations, and procedures, ensuring each crew member knows their role in various emergency scenarios.

3. A tank entry permit is to be completed before entering into the

A. Ballast comchapterment
B. Meat room
C. Steering gear comchapterment
D. Battery room

Answer: A — Ballast comchapterment

A tank entry permit is required before entering confined spaces that may contain hazardous substances or an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. Ballast tanks, particularly those that have contained chemicals or are used for cargo, require this permit due to potential gas hazards.

4. An oil fire can be extinguished by

A. Cutting off the fuel supply
B. Smothering with foam
C. Cooling with a water jet
D. Removing the burning material

Answer: B — Smothering with foam

Oil fires (Class B) are effectively extinguished by smothering the fuel surface with foam. This prevents oxygen from reaching the fuel, thus extinguishing the fire, and also provides a cooling effect.

5. The pump room in a tanker should be ventilated

A. Only when there is a gas leak
B. When the pumps are running
C. Prior entry
D. After entering

Answer: C — Prior entry

The pump room on tankers must be ventilated prior to entry to disperse any accumulated flammable or toxic gases. This is a critical safety procedure to prevent ignition or exposure to hazardous atmospheres before personnel enter.

6. Safety helmet is used to protect the head

A. From getting wet
B. Against adverse weather
C. From falling objects
D. From inflammable gases

Answer: C — From falling objects

Safety helmets are a fundamental piece of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) designed to protect the wearer's head from injury caused by falling objects or impacts during work on a vessel.

7. When the low pressure alarm sounds on the SCBA the user should

A. Remove the face mask
B. Vacate the comchapterment immediately
C. Monitor the pressure in the bottles
D. Close the air bottle valve

Answer: B — Vacate the comchapterment immediately

When the low-pressure alarm sounds on a SCBA, it signifies a critically low air supply. The user must immediately and safely exit the hazardous atmosphere to avoid suffocation or running out of air.

8. An enclosed space entry permit is to be completed before entering into the

A. Forepeak store
B. Provision store
C. Paint store
D. Loaded cargo hold

Answer: D — Loaded cargo hold

A loaded cargo hold, especially if carrying certain types of cargo, can pose risks of hazardous atmosphere (e.g., toxic gases, oxygen deficiency) and must be entered under a permit system. This ensures proper gas testing and ventilation procedures are followed.

9. The ullage tape lowered into a cargo tank of a tanker should be earthed to prevent

A. Tank going empty
B. Pump running dry
C. Tank overflow
D. Static hazards

Answer: D — Static hazards

Eathing the ullage tape when measuring cargo tanks prevents the buildup of static electricity, which could lead to sparks and potentially ignite flammable cargo vapors. This is a vital safety measure on tankers.

10. FFA on board means

A. Fixed fire appliances
B. Fire fighting appliances
C. Fire fighting arrangements
D. Foam fire apparatus

Answer: B — Fire fighting appliances

FFA is the standard maritime abbreviation for Fire Fighting Appliances, which includes all equipment and systems used on board for combating fires, such as extinguishers, hoses, and fixed systems.

11. The objective of Marpol is to

A. Improve cleanliness on board
B. Prevent and control pollution from ships
C. Improve safety in accommodation
D. Ensure adequate stability for ships

Answer: B — Prevent and control pollution from ships

MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) is the primary international convention aimed at preventing and minimizing pollution of the marine environment from ships, covering both accidental and operational discharges.

12. Risk assessment is carried out to

A. Assess the time required for a job
B. Identify the risks involved with a chaptericular task
C. Fill up the required forms
D. Decide how many people are required for a job

Answer: B — Identify the risks involved with a chaptericular task

Risk assessment is a systematic process to identify potential hazards associated with a specific task, evaluate the likelihood and severity of harm, and implement control measures to mitigate risks. It is crucial for ensuring a safe working environment.

13. The SOPEP locker contains

A. Pyrotechnics and distress equipment
B. Machinery spares
C. Hold cleaning equipment
D. Oil spill containment equipment

Answer: D — Oil spill containment equipment

The SOPEP (Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan) locker is designated to store equipment for responding to oil spills. This includes items like oil booms, sorbents, and containment tools necessary to mitigate pollution events.

14. Boiler suit is used to protect the body

A. In wet weather
B. When working on deck
C. Against chemical contamination
D. When using the washing machine

Answer: B — When working on deck

A boiler suit, often referred to as overalls, provides general protection to clothing and skin from dirt, grease, and minor abrasions, commonly encountered when working in machinery spaces or on deck.

15. After every use, a fire hose must

A. Be stowed in a safety equipment locker
B. Have their couplings removed
C. Be tested to a pressure of 4 Kg/cm2
D. Be hung up to dry and later correctly stowed

Answer: D — Be hung up to dry and later correctly stowed

After use, fire hoses must be inspected, dried thoroughly to prevent degradation, and then correctly stowed to ensure they are ready and accessible for immediate deployment during an emergency.

16. Ship's galley is provided with the following for cooking

A. Diesel oil burners
B. Electric hot plates
C. Fuel oil burners
D. LPG burners

Answer: B — Electric hot plates

Modern ships primarily use electric hot plates and ovens in their galleys for cooking. While other methods exist, electric appliances are favored for their safety, efficiency, and ease of control onboard.

17. During bunkering the following sign should be displayed prominently

A. No smoking
B. Shore leave stopped
C. Visitors prohibited
D. Restricted area

Answer: A — No smoking

During bunkering operations, stringent safety precautions are mandatory. The 'No smoking' sign is a critical visual warning to prevent ignition sources near flammable cargo or fuels.

18. EEBD is used for

A. Going on deck in heavy weather
B. Emergency escape
C. Boarding survival craft
D. Fighting fires

Answer: B — Emergency escape

EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is a self-contained breathing apparatus designed to provide breathable air for a limited duration, allowing personnel to escape from hazardous atmospheres, such as those with toxic gases or smoke.

19. Before lifting a lifeboat from the water, it must be ensured that

A. Engine is going astern
B. Fall wires are clear and hooked securely
C. Bottom plug is shipped tight
D. Sea anchor is streamed

Answer: B — Fall wires are clear and hooked securely

Before lifting a lifeboat, ensuring the fall wires are clear of obstructions and securely attached to the designated lifting points is paramount for safe and successful recovery. The bottom plug must also be shipped, but fall wire security is the immediate lifting prerequisite.

20. When lifting up weights, one should

A. Sit on knees and lift weight with a straight back
B. Keep arms outstretched and pick up weights
C. Keep the legs and arms straight
D. Keep knees straight and lift weight with bent arms

Answer: A — Sit on knees and lift weight with a straight back

When lifting heavy weights, the correct ergonomic technique involves bending the knees and keeping the back straight to utilize leg muscles and minimize strain on the spine, thereby preventing injury.

21. Emergency escape routes should be kept

A. Open always
B. Open when needed
C. Locked in port
D. Locked at sea

Answer: A — Open always

Emergency escape routes must be kept clear and unobstructed at all times to ensure safe and rapid evacuation during an emergency, regardless of location or operational status.

22. Immersion suit is used to prevent

A. Hypothermia
B. Heat burns
C. Drowning
D. Injuries

Answer: A — Hypothermia

An immersion suit is specifically designed to protect the wearer from hypothermia, which is a dangerous drop in body temperature, when entering cold water.

23. "Smothering" during fire fighting is achieved by

A. Covering with CO2
B. Cutting contact with air
C. Cutting fuel supply
D. Removing heat

Answer: B — Cutting contact with air

Smothering a fire involves cutting off the oxygen supply to the fuel. This is achieved by excluding air from the fire, thereby preventing combustion.

24. Match the term "ONE SHORT BLAST" with the most suitable answers given below:

A. One prolonged blast every two minutes
B. Five short blasts
C. Altering course to Starboard
D. One prolonged blast followed by two short

Answer: C — Altering course to Starboard

According to COLREGs, one short blast signifies intention to alter course to starboard while keeping out of the way of other vessels. This is a fundamental rule of the road.

25. When you see oil slick in the water at anchorage

A. Keep the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
B. Do nothing
C. Lowering the lifeboat oars
D. Report to the duty officer

Answer: D — Report to the duty officer

An oil slick at anchorage indicates a potential pollution incident. This must be immediately reported to the duty officer to initiate appropriate response procedures as per MARPOL regulations.

26. Before you start welding you must obtain a

A. Enclosed place permit
B. Shore leave permit
C. Hot work permit
D. Cold work permit

Answer: C — Hot work permit

Welding is considered a 'hot work' activity due to the potential ignition sources it generates. A hot work permit is mandatory to ensure safety precautions are in place before commencing such operations.

27. When receiving LSA/FFA items on board, all items must be

A. Of approved type
B. Received in good packing
C. Open it and check contents against delivery order
D. Cheaply available

Answer: A — Of approved type

When receiving Life Saving Appliances (LSA) or Fire Fighting Appliances (FFA) on board, it is essential that all equipment is of an approved type and meets regulatory standards (e.g., SOLAS, LSA Code).

28. Fire extinguishing medium in cargo tank of tanker is

A. Dry Powder
B. Foam
C. CO 2
D. Sea water

Answer: B — Foam

For tankers, foam is the primary extinguishing medium for cargo tank fires. It effectively cools the surface and forms a barrier, suppressing flammable vapors.

29. A working aloft permit is to be completed before working on the

A. Navigational bridge deck
B. Mast house on deck
C. Fore mast
D. Aft deck

Answer: C — Fore mast

Working aloft refers to any work performed at a height, such as on the fore mast, and requires a specific permit to ensure all safety precautions are taken.

30. During rough weather or at night before going on deck you must inform

A. Duty officer
B. Duty engineer
C. Bosun
D. Chief officer

Answer: A — Duty officer

Before venturing on deck in hazardous conditions like rough weather or at night, it is imperative to inform the duty officer. This ensures someone is aware of your location and activity for safety.

Set 7 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Abandon ship is indicated by

A. Continuous ringing of ship’s bell
B. Masters verbal orders
C. Seven short and one long blast on ships whistle
D. Intermittent ringing of the ships bell

Answer: B — Masters verbal orders

Abandon ship is typically signaled by the Master's direct verbal command over the public address system, ensuring all crew understand the critical nature of the order.

2. The familiarization checklist should be completed when the crew member joins the vessel

A. Within one week of joining the ship
B. Within one month of joining the ship
C. Prior to commencement of their duties on joining the ship
D. Within two months of joining the ship

Answer: C — Prior to commencement of their duties on joining the ship

The familiarization checklist, as required by STCW, must be completed before a crew member commences their duties on joining the vessel to ensure they are acquainted with safety procedures and their new environment.

3. For entry in any enclosed space the oxygen content in the comchapterment should be

A. 0.19
B. 0.16
C. 0.21
D. 0.18

Answer: C — 0.21

For safe entry into any enclosed space, the oxygen content must be within the normal atmospheric range, which is approximately 21% (0.21). Levels below this can be dangerous due to lack of oxygen.

4. Prior to the tug pulling the tug line should be kept on the

A. Air pipe
B. Bow stopper
C. Bollard
D. Warping drum

Answer: C — Bollard

Prior to a tug commencing a tow, the towline should be secured to a strong point like a bollard on the vessel being towed, ensuring it remains stable and controlled.

5. Face mask is used on board to protect the face from

A. Poison
B. Bacteria
C. Water spray
D. Fume inhalation

Answer: D — Fume inhalation

A face mask, particularly in industrial settings, is used to protect the wearer's respiratory system from inhaling harmful fumes, dust, or other airborne contaminants.

6. Careless housekeeping can result in

A. Accident, injury and fire
B. Higher inventory costs
C. Bad odour
D. Wastage of ship stores

Answer: A — Accident, injury and fire

Poor housekeeping on a ship can create tripping hazards, accumulation of flammable materials, and obstruction of safety equipment, significantly increasing the risk of accidents, injuries, and fires.

7. Purpose of immersion suit is to protect a person from

A. Sunburn
B. Cold
C. Fire
D. Heat

Answer: B — Cold

The primary purpose of an immersion suit is to insulate the wearer from the extreme cold of the sea, thereby preventing hypothermia and prolonging survival time in water.

8. Breathing apparatus is used for

A. Keeping a bridge watch
B. Entering a comchapterment full of smoke
C. For navigating the ship in fog
D. Launching a lifeboat

Answer: B — Entering a comchapterment full of smoke

Breathing apparatus (like SCBA) is essential for entering atmospheres that are oxygen-deficient or contain toxic gases and smoke, such as during a fire incident.

9. The Garbage Management Plan indicates the

A. Procedure for disposing laundry waste
B. Capacity of the storage drums
C. Procedure for disposing ships garbage
D. Location of the ships incinerator

Answer: C — Procedure for disposing ships garbage

The Garbage Management Plan, mandated by MARPOL Annex V, outlines the procedures for the prevention, reduction, storage, and disposal of garbage generated onboard ships.

10. Ability to start the emergency fire pump is required in all

A. Duty engineers
B. The crew members
C. Deck officers
D. Engine crew

Answer: B — The crew members

The ability to start the emergency fire pump is a fundamental safety requirement for all crew members, as it is crucial for effective firefighting operations during emergencies.

11. DGS stands for

A. Deputy General of Shipping
B. Deputy Governor of Shipping
C. Director Governor of Shipping
D. Directorate General of Shipping

Answer: D — Directorate General of Shipping

DGS stands for the Directorate General of Shipping, which is the regulatory body responsible for maritime administration and safety in India.

12. The immigration officer checks the validity of the

A. Safety certificates
B. ISM certificate
C. Passport
D. Certificate of competency

Answer: C — Passport

An immigration officer's primary role is to verify the identity and legal right of entry for individuals, which is done by checking passports and visas.

13. CDC stands for

A. Country Domicile Certificate
B. Continuous Discharge Certificate
C. Current Discharge Certificate
D. Coastal Discharge Certificate

Answer: B — Continuous Discharge Certificate

CDC stands for Continuous Discharge Certificate, which is a vital document recording a seafarer's sea service, endorsements, and qualifications.

14. MARPOL 73/78 does not regulate the discharge of

A. Oil into the sea
B. Garbage into the sea
C. Fresh water into the sea
D. Chemicals into the sea

Answer: C — Fresh water into the sea

MARPOL regulates the discharge of harmful substances into the sea. While oil, chemicals, and garbage are covered, discharging clean fresh water does not pose a pollution threat under MARPOL.

15. The shore pass to the ships staff is issued by the

A. Customs
B. Immigration
C. Port Health
D. Port Control

Answer: B — Immigration

Shore passes, allowing crew members to go ashore in foreign ports, are issued by the immigration authorities of the host country.

16. SOLAS stands for

A. Sustaining of Life at Sea
B. Survival of Lifeboat at Sea
C. Safety of Life at Sea
D. Survival of Life at Sea

Answer: C — Safety of Life at Sea

SOLAS stands for the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea. It sets minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships.

17. Sounding of all fuel tanks are entered in the

A. Deck Log Book
B. Engine Log Book
C. Rough Log Book
D. Official Log Book

Answer: B — Engine Log Book

Soundings of fuel tanks, along with other critical machinery operations and readings, are meticulously recorded in the Engine Log Book for operational and safety monitoring.

18. The authority which inspects foreign ships in national ports is called

A. Port State Control
B. Pollution Control
C. Flag State Control
D. Merchant Ship Control

Answer: A — Port State Control

Port State Control (PSC) authorities are responsible for inspecting foreign ships visiting national ports to ensure compliance with international conventions and national regulations.

19. MMD stands for

A. Merchant Marine Dechapterment
B. Master Mariners Dechapterment
C. Manpower Marine Dechapterment
D. Mercantile Marine Dechapterment

Answer: D — Mercantile Marine Dechapterment

MMD stands for Mercantile Marine Department, an administrative body under the Directorate General of Shipping in India that handles various maritime-related functions.

20. One of the main duties of the Shipping Master includes

A. Conducting marine surveys on the ship
B. Inspection of cargo holds
C. Engagement and discharge of officers and ratings
D. Navigation of the ship

Answer: C — Engagement and discharge of officers and ratings

A key function of the Shipping Master, particularly in some jurisdictions, involves overseeing the employment and termination processes for seafarers, ensuring fair practices and adherence to contracts.

21. Under ISPS Code the agent on boarding the ship should be given a

A. Visitor’s card
B. Custom card
C. Greeting card
D. Audit Card

Answer: A — Visitor’s card

Under the ISPS Code, any person boarding a ship who is not part of the regular crew or assigned duties must be issued a Visitor's Card. This card serves as identification and signifies authorization for their presence onboard.

22. International standards for the safe management and operation of ships is stated in the

A. ISPS Code
B. BLU Code
C. LSA Code
D. ISM Code

Answer: D — ISM Code

The International Safety Management (ISM) Code provides international standards for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention. It is a mandatory code for shipowners and operators.

23. ISPS stands for

A. International Ship and Seaport Security Code
B. Indian Shipping and Port Security Code
C. International Shipping and Port Security Code
D. International Ship and Port Facility Security Code

Answer: D — International Ship and Port Facility Security Code

ISPS stands for the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code. This international code establishes minimum security requirements for ships and port facilities to prevent security threats.

24. The inspection of ships in their country of registry is done by

A. FSC
B. SSC
C. RSC
D. PSC

Answer: A — FSC

FSC refers to Flag State Control. The flag state administration is responsible for ensuring that ships flying its flag comply with international conventions, including inspections in their country of registry.

25. IMO stands for

A. International Marine Organization
B. Indian Maritime Organization
C. International Monetary Organization
D. International Maritime Organization

Answer: D — International Maritime Organization

IMO stands for the International Maritime Organization. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for measures to improve the safety and security of international shipping.

26. The conventions which sets minimum standards of basic labour rights is called

A. ILO
B. SSO
C. RSO
D. ISO

Answer: A — ILO

The International Labour Organization (ILO) sets international labour standards, including conventions that establish minimum standards for basic labour rights for seafarers, ensuring decent work conditions.

27. Port customs prohibits a seaman from possessing

A. Tape recorders
B. Cigarettes
C. Gold chains
D. Narcotic drugs

Answer: D — Narcotic drugs

Port customs strictly prohibit the possession of narcotic drugs by any person, including seamen, due to international and national drug control laws aimed at preventing illicit trafficking.

28. On completion of a seafarer's contract the repatriation expenses will be borne by the

A. Shipping company
B. Shared between the seaman company and the seaman
C. Shipping Master
D. Seaman

Answer: A — Shipping company

Upon completion of a seafarer's contract, the repatriation expenses are the responsibility of the shipping company that employed the seaman, as per international maritime labour conventions.

29. Watch keepers will be granted rest as per the requirements of the

A. STCW Convention
B. LSA Code
C. SOLAS Convention
D. MARPOL Convention

Answer: A — STCW Convention

The STCW Convention, specifically Table A-VIII/1, sets the minimum rest hours for watchkeepers. This is crucial for ensuring that seafarers are well-rested and can perform their duties safely.

30. The highest level of security maintained on board a ship is level

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

Answer: B — 3

Security Level 3, as defined by the ISPS Code, represents the highest level of security. It is implemented when there is a credible security threat, requiring maximum vigilance and protection measures.

Set 8 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Entries in the Official Log Book are made by the

A. Master
B. Chief Engineer
C. Second Engineer
D. Second Officer

Answer: A — Master

The Master of the ship is responsible for maintaining the Official Log Book, and therefore all entries concerning significant events, including disciplinary actions, are made by them.

2. PSC can detain a vessel if the

A. Rat guards are not placed properly on the mooring ropes
B. Competence of the crew is below standard
C. Cargo operations slows down
D. Shipside is rusted chapterially

Answer: B — Competence of the crew is below standard

Port State Control (PSC) has the authority to detain a vessel if it identifies deficiencies that are serious enough to impact safety or the environment, such as the substandard competence of the crew.

3. A seaman is guilty of an offense against discipline if he/she

A. Does not live in a hygienic condition
B. Is unable to steer the ship steadily
C. Forgets to wear his safety shoes
D. Assaults another seaman on board

Answer: D — Assaults another seaman on board

Assaulting another seaman on board constitutes a serious breach of maritime discipline and is considered a significant offense requiring disciplinary action under shipboard regulations and maritime law.

4. The following certificate need not be carried on board by the seaman

A. Medical Certificate
B. Continuous Discharge Certificate
C. Mandatory STCW Certificates
D. School Leaving Certificate

Answer: D — School Leaving Certificate

A School Leaving Certificate is an educational document and is not required to be carried on board by a seaman for professional duties; mandatory certificates relate to competency and employment.

5. Crews personal property declaration is a requirement of the port

A. Customs
B. Control
C. Signal Station
D. Health

Answer: A — Customs

Declaration of personal property is primarily a requirement of port customs authorities. This is to ensure compliance with import/export regulations and to prevent the unauthorized entry of goods.

6. All entries of offence in the Official Log Book against a seaman have to be signed by

A. Master, Chief Officer and one crew member
B. Master and one crew member
C. Master only
D. Master and Chief Officer

Answer: A — Master, Chief Officer and one crew member

Entries of offences in the Official Log Book against a seaman must be signed by the Master, Chief Officer, and one other crew member who witnessed the offence or is present during the entry. This ensures transparency and corroboration.

7. Any act of misconduct requiring disciplinary action against a seaman is entered in the

A. Engine Log Book
B. Official Log Book
C. D.C
D. Bridge Movement Book

Answer: B — Official Log Book

Any act of misconduct or offence committed by a seaman that may lead to disciplinary action is officially recorded in the Official Log Book, serving as a legal record of shipboard events.

8. A seaman lawfully engaged can have his CDC suspended by DGS if he is

A. Delayed in returning back to the ship from shore
B. Found indulging in gossip
C. Unable to operate the crane to the satisfaction of the duty officer
D. Convicted of an offense of smuggling narcotics

Answer: D — Convicted of an offense of smuggling narcotics

A seaman convicted of smuggling narcotics commits a serious criminal offense that directly impacts their fitness to be at sea and can lead to the suspension of their Continuous Discharge Certificate (CDC).

9. A vessel which has a dead person on board should anchor at the

A. Quarantine anchorage
B. Inner anchorage
C. Pilot anchorage
D. Working anchorage

Answer: A — Quarantine anchorage

A Quarantine Anchorage is designated for vessels arriving with persons on board suffering from infectious diseases or in this case, a dead person, pending clearance from health authorities.

10. The purpose of SOLAS to

A. How to launch life boat
B. How to conduct boat / fire drills
C. Advice ship officer on how to navigate their ships
D. Enhance Safety of life at sea

Answer: D — Enhance Safety of life at sea

The primary purpose of the SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) Convention is to enhance the safety of life at sea by setting minimum safety standards for the construction, equipment, and operation of merchant ships.

11. A maritime declaration of health is to be submitted to the Port Health to obtain

A. Pilot
B. Contact with port control
C. Free Pratique
D. Contact with signal station

Answer: C — Free Pratique

A Maritime Declaration of Health is submitted to Port Health authorities to declare the health status of the ship and its crew, and upon acceptance, the vessel is granted Free Pratique, allowing pratique boarding.

12. Compensation benefits for the seaman is listed in the

A. DGS circulars
B. Merchant Shipping Notices
C. Collective Bargaining Agreement
D. Notices to mariners

Answer: C — Collective Bargaining Agreement

Compensation benefits for seafarers are typically detailed and governed by a Collective Bargaining Agreement (CBA) negotiated between shipowners and seafarer unions.

13. STCW stands for

A. Structured ,Training, Certification and Watch keeping
B. Shipboard, Training, Certification and Watch keeping
C. Standards of Training, Certification and Watch keeping
D. Seafarers, Training, Certification and Watch keeping

Answer: C — Standards of Training, Certification and Watch keeping

STCW stands for Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers. It is an international convention setting the minimum standards for training and certification of seafarers.

14. The course of the ship is entered every watch in the

A. Deck Log Book
B. Medical Log Book
C. GMDSS Log Book
D. Official Log Book

Answer: A — Deck Log Book

The course of the ship, along with other navigational details like position and log entries, is recorded in the Deck Log Book for each watch.

15. Details of shipboard life saving and fire fighting appliances is described in the

A. SOLAS Convention
B. ILO Convention
C. MARPOL Convention
D. STCW Convention

Answer: A — SOLAS Convention

The SOLAS Convention extensively details requirements for shipboard Life-Saving Appliances (LSA) and Fire Fighting Appliances (FFA) to ensure the safety of the ship and its crew.

16. Under STCW standards for General Ship Knowledge, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?

A. Every 10 years
B. Every 5 years
C. Every 2 years
D. Annually

Answer: B — Every 5 years

STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.

17. What primary safety objective is governed by the General Ship Knowledge module on board ship?

A. Automating engine control
B. Optimizing fuel consumption
C. Minimizing port dues
D. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness

Answer: D — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness

The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.

18. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to General Ship Knowledge?

A. Engine logbook entry only
B. Bridge sign-off without briefing
C. Verbal request to port authority
D. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting

Answer: D — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting

Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.

19. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during General Ship Knowledge practical tasks?

A. High-visibility vest only
B. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
C. Standard street clothes with safety boots
D. Basic cotton coveralls only

Answer: B — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards

Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.

20. Which international convention mandates compliance for General Ship Knowledge operational procedures?

A. Tonnage Convention 1969
B. STCW Convention as amended
C. COLREGs 1972
D. Load Line Convention 1966

Answer: B — STCW Convention as amended

STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.

21. In case of an emergency scenario during General Ship Knowledge operations, what is the immediate first step?

A. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
B. Log the event in diary
C. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
D. Attempt to fix without informing others

Answer: C — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer

Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.

22. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding General Ship Knowledge?

A. Garbage Record Book
B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
C. Oil Record Book Part I
D. Cargo Manifest

Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions

The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.

23. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in General Ship Knowledge drills?

A. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
B. Signing attendance without attending
C. Observing without participating
D. Bypassing safety gear for speed

Answer: A — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols

Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.

24. What log entry is required following completion of General Ship Knowledge drills on board?

A. Verbal update to port agent
B. No log entry required
C. Personal diary note
D. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration

Answer: D — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration

SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.

25. Regarding practical watchkeeping and logbook documentation in General Ship Knowledge, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-II/4?

A. Non-mandatory recommendation
B. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
D. Optional compliance based on crew discretion

Answer: B — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

STCW Code Section A-II/4 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for General Ship Knowledge.

26. What is the primary purpose of the collision bulkhead located at the fore end of a vessel?

A. Serve as crew quarters
B. Prevent water from flooding the ship in the event of bow impact or collision damage
C. Support the anchor windlass engine
D. Store fresh drinking water

Answer: B — Prevent water from flooding the ship in the event of bow impact or collision damage

The collision bulkhead is a watertight transverse bulkhead located near the bow to contain forward damage.

27. Under MARPOL Annex I, what is the maximum oil discharge content allowed for machinery space bilges en route?

A. 15 parts per million (15 ppm)
B. 0 ppm at all times
C. 50 ppm
D. 100 ppm

Answer: A — 15 parts per million (15 ppm)

MARPOL Annex I limits oily bilge discharge through an approved OWS to 15 ppm.

28. What color marker buoy indicates the starboard side of a channel when entering port under IALA Region A?

A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Green

Answer: D — Green

In IALA Region A, green lateral marks are kept to starboard when entering from sea.

29. What is the function of the bilge keel attached to a ship's hull outer shell plating?

A. Reduce roll amplitude and damp rolling motion in heavy seas
B. Support drydock blocks
C. Protect propeller from ice
D. Increase vessel speed

Answer: A — Reduce roll amplitude and damp rolling motion in heavy seas

Bilge keels provide hydrodynamic resistance to reduce rolling motion.

30. Under COLREG Rule 5, what is the duty of every vessel regarding look-out?

A. Assign look-out duties only at night
B. Maintain a proper look-out at all times by sight and hearing as well as by all available means
C. Use radar only without visual checks
D. Look out only during fog

Answer: B — Maintain a proper look-out at all times by sight and hearing as well as by all available means

Rule 5 mandates a continuous, proper look-out using all available senses and equipment.

Set 9 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. What does the term 'Freeboard' mean in merchant ship stability and seamanship?

A. The height of the mast above waterline
B. The width of the ship beam
C. The depth of water under the keel
D. The vertical distance from the waterline to the main upper deck edge at side

Answer: D — The vertical distance from the waterline to the main upper deck edge at side

Freeboard measures reserve buoyancy from the waterline up to the freeboard deck.

2. What is the purpose of the Bitter End secured inside the anchor chain locker?

A. To hoist the anchor onto deck
B. To allow quick emergency release of the anchor cable if the ship must slip anchor
C. To lock the windlass brake
D. To measure cable length in shackles

Answer: B — To allow quick emergency release of the anchor cable if the ship must slip anchor

The bitter end is pinned inside the locker with a quick-release mechanism for emergencies.

3. What signal flag corresponds to 'I have a pilot on board' according to the International Code of Signals?

A. Flag H (Hotel)
B. Flag B (Bravo)
C. Flag O (Oscar)
D. Flag G (Golf)

Answer: A — Flag H (Hotel)

Flag H indicates a pilot is aboard the vessel.

4. What is the purpose of a draft mark painted on the ship's stem and stern post?

A. Show cargo capacity limit
B. Decorate the bow stem
C. Indicate the depth of the vessel's hull submerged in water
D. Mark anchor location

Answer: C — Indicate the depth of the vessel's hull submerged in water

Draft marks at stem and stern show the depth of the hull below the waterline (draught), used for trim, loading and UKC.

5. Which deck fitting is used to turn or lead a mooring line around corners cleanly?

A. Bitts
B. Panama Canal Lead / Fairlead
C. Cleat
D. Capstan drum

Answer: B — Panama Canal Lead / Fairlead

Fairleads guide mooring ropes with minimal friction around deck edges.

6. What is the purpose of the load line (Plimsoll mark) painted on a ship's hull?

A. Indicate propeller clearance
B. Show ballast tank capacity
C. Mark the engine room location
D. Indicate the maximum legal draft to which the vessel may be loaded in different zones

Answer: D — Indicate the maximum legal draft to which the vessel may be loaded in different zones

The Plimsoll mark ensures adequate reserve buoyancy based on season and water density.

7. Which rope lay construction offers maximum flexibility for synthetic mooring lines?

A. Parallel wire strand
B. Braided / Eight-strand plaited
C. 3-strand hawser lay
D. Single steel core strand

Answer: B — Braided / Eight-strand plaited

Plaited and braided synthetic ropes provide high flexibility and non-kinking behavior.

8. What is the correct procedure when handling synthetic fiber ropes under high tension?

A. Hold the rope tightly with bare hands
B. Never stand in the bight or direct snap-back zone of the line
C. Step over the rope while heaving
D. Increase tension until line sings

Answer: B — Never stand in the bight or direct snap-back zone of the line

Synthetic lines store elastic energy; standing in snap-back zones is extremely dangerous.

9. What instrument measures atmospheric pressure on the navigation bridge?

A. Aneroin Barometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Psychrometer
D. Anemometer

Answer: A — Aneroin Barometer

Barometers measure barometric pressure to forecast weather changes.

10. What is the function of the hawse pipe on a ship's bow structure?

A. Drain deck rainwater
B. Guide the anchor chain from the deck windlass through the hull shell plating
C. Pass mooring hawsers
D. Vent the chain locker

Answer: B — Guide the anchor chain from the deck windlass through the hull shell plating

Hawse pipes house anchors securely against the hull when stowed.

11. Under STCW, what safety action must a deck rating take when observing a man overboard?

A. Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke, and inform the bridge immediately
B. Lower anchor immediately
C. Run down to engine room
D. Wait for captain's orders

Answer: A — Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke, and inform the bridge immediately

Immediate alarm and tossing life-saving apparatus is vital for MOB recovery.

12. What is the meaning of the term 'Deadweight Scale' in ship operations?

A. chart showing cargo, fuel, and stores weight the vessel can carry at any draft
B. The maximum crane lifting capacity
C. The weight of anchors and chains
D. The weight of the empty ship steel structure

Answer: A — chart showing cargo, fuel, and stores weight the vessel can carry at any draft

Deadweight scale converts draft readings into total carrying capacity in tonnes.

13. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "PASTE" ?

A. Opens an existing file
B. Spelling and grammer check
C. Shows a preview of files before they print
D. Paste copied or cut files into the document

Answer: D — Paste copied or cut files into the document

In word processing, 'Paste' is the command used to insert text or objects that have been previously 'Copied' or 'Cut' from a location into the current document.

14. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "MONITOR" ?

A. The brain of the computer
B. Peripheral to the computer
C. Like a T.V
D. Like a type-writer; communicates with computer

Answer: C — Like a T.V

A monitor functions like a television screen, displaying visual output from the computer, such as text, images, and videos.

15. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "SAVE"?

A. Undoes previous actions
B. Opens a new word document
C. Zoom in and Zoom out
D. Quick save files

Answer: D — Quick save files

'Save' is the command used to store the current work or document onto a storage device, preventing data loss and allowing access later.

16. Stress is a _________ strain

A. Physical
B. Emotional
C. Social
D. Mental

Answer: B — Emotional

Stress is primarily an emotional strain or reaction that can manifest physically and mentally. It's a response to demands that are perceived as overwhelming or threatening.

17. What is important for studying?

A. Proper techniques for studying
B. Self - Discipline
C. Reading speed
D. Good teacher

Answer: B — Self - Discipline

Self-discipline is a crucial trait for effective studying, enabling individuals to stay focused, manage their time, and consistently engage with learning materials.

18. Match the term "NON-VERBAL COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Noise
B. Lack of confidence
C. Facial Expression
D. Computer

Answer: C — Facial Expression

Non-verbal communication includes elements like facial expressions, body language, and gestures, which convey messages without the use of spoken or written words.

19. One of the most important practice while talking to a person is to

A. Speak politely
B. Stand very close to the person
C. Maintain eye contact
D. Hold hands

Answer: C — Maintain eye contact

Maintaining eye contact while talking to someone is a key practice in effective communication, showing engagement, respect, and attentiveness.

20. The ability to learn by practice is called

A. Attitude
B. Values
C. Knowledge
D. Skill

Answer: D — Skill

The ability to learn and improve performance through repeated performance or experience is the definition of skill.

21. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CD-ROM DRIVE"?

A. Data can be written and rewritten on the CD
B. Sending Messages
C. Used to point objects on the monitor
D. Peripheral to the computer

Answer: D — Peripheral to the computer

A CD-ROM drive is a read-only peripheral device. It cannot rewrite data, and it is not a pointing device.

22. Who is more important in communication process?

A. People
B. Receiver
C. Sender
D. Self

Answer: B — Receiver

While both sender and receiver are vital, the 'Receiver' is equally, if not more, important in the communication process as they are responsible for interpreting and understanding the message sent.

23. Non- Verbal modes of communication are

A. Speech
B. Words
C. Symbols
D. Channel

Answer: C — Symbols

Non-verbal modes of communication include elements such as symbols, gestures, and facial expressions, which convey meaning without words.

24. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "OPEN" ?

A. Writes numbered bullets
B. Changes the color of the text
C. Spelling and grammer check
D. Opens an existing file

Answer: D — Opens an existing file

The term "OPEN" in the context of a computer file means to access and load an existing document, making its content visible and editable on the screen. It does not involve checking grammar, formatting, or changing visual properties.

25. If stressed with some work, one should

A. Tell someone else to do it
B. Keep doing it till it is complete
C. Give up
D. Leave it for some time

Answer: D — Leave it for some time

When stressed with work, taking a short break to reassess and approach the task with a clear mind is often the most effective strategy. This allows for better problem-solving and stress management, rather than immediate completion or avoidance.

26. Match the term "NEED FOR COMMUNICATION" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Facial Expression
B. Feedback
C. Noise
D. Self-Expression

Answer: D — Self-Expression

Self-expression is fundamental to communication as it represents the speaker's internal thoughts and feelings being conveyed. While facial expressions and feedback are communication elements, and noise is a barrier, the core need is to express oneself.

27. Match the term "INTERNAL BARRIER" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Facial Expression
B. Lack of confidence
C. Noise
D. Self-Expression

Answer: B — Lack of confidence

Lack of confidence is an internal psychological barrier that can hinder effective communication. It originates within the individual, unlike external factors like noise, or communication elements such as facial expressions and self-expression.

28. Which of the following is unethical? Being

A. Honest
B. Cooperative
C. Punctual
D. Arrogant

Answer: D — Arrogant

Being arrogant is unethical as it displays a lack of respect and consideration for others, contradicting principles of teamwork and professional conduct. Honesty, cooperation, and punctuality are positive and ethical attributes in any environment.

29. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "PRINTER" ?

A. Getting Music
B. Like a type-writer ;communicates with computer
C. Like a T.V.
D. Peripheral to the computer

Answer: D — Peripheral to the computer

A printer is considered a peripheral device because it connects to the computer to provide an output function, allowing digital information to be rendered in a physical, printed format. It is an external component that enhances the computer's capabilities.

30. Communication can be done

A. By self - expression
B. Verbally
C. Non Verbally
D. Both verbally and non- verbally

Answer: D — Both verbally and non- verbally

Communication encompasses both the spoken word (verbally) and non-verbal cues such as body language and tone. Effective communication often involves a combination of both verbal and non-verbal elements to convey a complete message.

Set 10 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. To manage means to deal with

A. Bad situations
B. All situations happily
C. Situations properly
D. Situations

Answer: C — Situations properly

Effective management involves skillfully handling and controlling situations to achieve desired outcomes. It's about proper application of resources and strategies to navigate various circumstances, not just limited to negative ones.

2. Which of the following works like a brain of a computer:

A. Key Board
B. Monitor
C. CPU
D. Optical Mouse

Answer: C — CPU

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is often referred to as the 'brain' of the computer because it executes instructions and performs calculations, controlling all the major functions of the system. Other components like monitors and keyboards are input/output devices.

3. Before starting writing in the exam, one should

A. Just start writing
B. Write the name and roll no. in answer sheet
C. Read the instructions properly
D. Ask question to invigilator

Answer: C — Read the instructions properly

Before commencing any examination, it is crucial to thoroughly read and understand all instructions. This ensures that the exam is approached correctly, all requirements are met, and potential misunderstandings are avoided.

4. When you use a word file in a computer What do you mean by the term "PRINT PREVIEW" ?

A. Changes the color of the text
B. Shows a preview of files before they print
C. Paste copied or cut files into the document
D. Open a new word document

Answer: B — Shows a preview of files before they print

The 'Print Preview' function allows a user to see exactly how a document will appear on paper before actually printing it. This helps in making necessary adjustments to layout, margins, and formatting, saving time and resources.

5. In a team, to achieve a goal is the responsibility of

A. An individual
B. All team members
C. The leader
D. Management

Answer: B — All team members

Achieving a common goal in a team is a collective responsibility shared by all its members. While leadership is important, every individual contributes to the overall success or failure of the team's objectives.

6. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "CUT"?

A. Opens a new word document
B. Undoes previous actions
C. Quick save files
D. Cuts files into the clip-board

Answer: D — Cuts files into the clip-board

The 'CUT' command in computing removes selected data from its current location and places it onto the clipboard, ready to be pasted elsewhere. This is a fundamental operation for moving or reorganizing information within or between documents.

7. For good relationship with others

A. The two most important words: Thank you
B. The least important word: We
C. The one most important word: You
D. The best words are: You are wrong

Answer: A — The two most important words: Thank you

Expressing gratitude with 'Thank you' is one of the most significant phrases for fostering positive relationships. It acknowledges others' contributions and efforts, building goodwill and strengthening interpersonal connections.

8. What device prevents water from entering cargo holds through hatch covers?

A. Steel welding lines
B. Rubber gaskets and compression bars with cleats
C. Tarpaulin sheets without cleats
D. Wooden wedges only

Answer: B — Rubber gaskets and compression bars with cleats

Rubber gaskets clamped with cleats maintain weather-tight integrity of hatch covers.

9. What sound signal is made by a vessel in restricted visibility when making way through water?

A. One prolonged blast at intervals of not more than 2 minutes
B. Three short blasts
C. Two prolonged blasts every 2 minutes
D. One short blast every minute

Answer: A — One prolonged blast at intervals of not more than 2 minutes

COLREG Rule 35(a) requires one prolonged blast every 2 minutes for vessels making way in fog.

10. What is the purpose of a sound pipe fitted on a ballast tank?

A. Allow manual measurement of liquid depth inside the tank using a sounding tape
B. Sample tank oxygen
C. Vent air during filling
D. Pump out ballast water

Answer: A — Allow manual measurement of liquid depth inside the tank using a sounding tape

Sounding pipes provide direct access to measure liquid levels manually.

11. The PHYSICAL symptom of stress is

A. Trouble sleeping
B. Sweating hands
C. Inability to concentrate
D. Tension

Answer: B — Sweating hands

Sweating hands are a direct physiological response to stress, indicating the body's 'fight or flight' reaction. While tension, trouble sleeping, and inability to concentrate are related to stress, sweating is a clear physical symptom.

12. Match the term "EXTERNAL BARRIER" with the most suitable answer given below

A. Facial Expression
B. Computer
C. Noise
D. Lack of confidence

Answer: C — Noise

Noise, such as loud machinery or distracting sounds, represents an external barrier that interferes with the clear transmission and reception of messages. Facial expressions and self-expression are forms of communication, and lack of confidence is an internal barrier.

13. Barriers to communication

A. Do not influence communication
B. Make the communication better
C. Create problems in communication
D. Are essential for communication

Answer: C — Create problems in communication

Barriers to communication, whether internal or external, inherently create obstacles that impede the effective exchange of information. They obstruct clarity, understanding, and the intended meaning of the message.

14. When you use a computer, What do you mean by the term "REDO"?

A. Quick save files
B. Redoes previous actions
C. Zoom in and Zoom out
D. Undoes previous actions

Answer: B — Redoes previous actions

The 'REDO' function in computing reverses an 'UNDO' action, reapplying any changes that were previously undone. It allows the user to restore actions that were mistakenly reversed.

15. Eng. Rating when in E/R watch must

A. Remain in airconditioned ECR (Eng.Control Room)
B. Frequently drink coffee to remain awake
C. Remain in accommodation
D. Constantly monitor all machinery and indicators and promptly report any abnormality to duty engr

Answer: D — Constantly monitor all machinery and indicators and promptly report any abnormality to duty engr

During an E/R watch, an engineering rating's primary duty is to maintain constant surveillance of all machinery and critical indicators. Promptly reporting any deviations or abnormalities to the duty engineer is essential for preventing equipment failure and ensuring operational safety.

16. Keeping Engine Room and all Eng.machinery very clean is important job of

A. Bosun
B. Deck Ratings
C. Eng. Crew & Eng. Staff
D. Ch.Officer

Answer: C — Eng. Crew & Eng. Staff

Maintaining a high standard of cleanliness in the engine room and on all engineering machinery is a crucial responsibility shared by all engineering crew and staff. This practice is vital for operational efficiency, safety, and early detection of potential issues.

17. SOPEP Items, L.S.A. & F.F.A are maintained by

A. Deck Officer and Deck Crew
B. Engineers
C. Elect.Officer
D. Eng. Crew

Answer: A — Deck Officer and Deck Crew

The maintenance of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) equipment, Life-Saving Appliances (LSA), and Fire-Fighting Appliances (FSA) falls under the purview of the Deck Officer and Deck Crew, adhering to SOLAS and MARPOL regulations.

18. Winches, Cranes and other Machinery on Deck are maintained by

A. Eng.Staff & Crew
B. Bosun
C. Ch.Off
D. Deck Crew

Answer: A — Eng.Staff & Crew

The upkeep and maintenance of deck machinery, including winches, cranes, and other equipment, are primarily the responsibility of the engineering staff and crew. This ensures their operational readiness and safety.

19. Winches, Cranes, Derricks, Hatchcovers, Gangways are operated by

A. Bosun
B. Eng.Crew
C. Deck Officers
D. Deck Crew

Answer: D — Deck Crew

Deck crew members are responsible for the operation of various deck equipment such as winches, cranes, derricks, hatchcovers, and gangways. This operation is performed under the supervision of deck officers during cargo operations or vessel maneuvering.

20. Chipping & Painting on Deck is

A. Done by Deck crew as and when required
B. Done by Eng. crew
C. Done only in Dry dock
D. Done by shore staff only

Answer: A — Done by Deck crew as and when required

Chipping and painting on deck, crucial for maintaining the vessel's hull integrity and appearance, is a regular task performed by the deck crew as required. This work is ongoing and not restricted to dry-docking or shore staff.

21. Ship Steering is done by

A. OS
B. GS
C. AB
D. Bosun

Answer: C — AB

Ship steering, a critical navigational duty, is performed by Able Seafarers (AB) under the direct supervision of the officer on watch. They are trained to maintain course accurately as per helming orders.

22. For Mooring and Unmooring ship

A. Primarily one Deck Team with Ch.Off. goes forward & one deck team with 2nd.Off. goes aft.
B. Deck crew without any officer goes Forward & Aft
C. Mooring & Unmooring is done by shore people
D. Deck Crew goes forward and Eng.Crew goes aft

Answer: A — Primarily one Deck Team with Ch.Off. goes forward & one deck team with 2nd.Off. goes aft.

During mooring and unmooring operations, the ship typically deploys designated deck teams, often led by officers. For example, the Chief Officer might lead one team while the Second Officer leads another, covering different parts of the vessel as needed.

23. For Anchoring

A. Ch.Off. with Bosun & rating must go forward stations
B. Only Deck rating must go forward
C. Eng. Crew is required to go forward
D. Ch.Off must proceed on aft stations

Answer: A — Ch.Off. with Bosun & rating must go forward stations

For anchoring operations, the Chief Officer, along with the Bosun and relevant ratings, typically proceeds to the forward stations. Their role is to manage the anchor chain and windlass safely and efficiently.

24. Deck Crew Other jobs consist of:

A. Cook food in the evenings
B. Cleaning Eng.Room
C. Handle mooring lines, splice&repair ropes, wires, cordage
D. Oil Eng. Room machinery

Answer: C — Handle mooring lines, splice&repair ropes, wires, cordage

The diverse duties of the deck crew extend beyond basic deck maintenance to include tasks like handling mooring lines, performing splices, and repairing ropes, wires, and other cordage. These skills are essential for safe ship operations.

25. Cleaning Holds or Tanks requires

A. Quick sweeping by Deck Crew
B. Max. efforts by Eng.Crew
C. Max. efforts with sweeping, thorough washing and drying by Deck Crew with Bosun
D. Quick mopping by any crew.

Answer: C — Max. efforts with sweeping, thorough washing and drying by Deck Crew with Bosun

Cleaning holds or tanks is a significant undertaking that requires substantial effort from the deck crew, under the Bosun's supervision. It involves thorough washing, sweeping, and drying to prepare the spaces for cargo or maintenance.

26. A GP Rating Certificate holder can work in

A. Deck, Eng. Or Catering Dept.
B. Eng. Dept. only
C. Deck and/or Eng. Dechapterment
D. Deck Dechapterment only

Answer: C — Deck and/or Eng. Dechapterment

A General Purpose (GP) Rating certificate holder is versatile and qualified to work in either the Deck or Engineering departments of a vessel, providing flexibility in manning.

27. An important duty of Deck Rating at Sea is

A. To Keep Lookout on Bridge
B. To Clean decks
C. To study books
D. To assist Bosun

Answer: A — To Keep Lookout on Bridge

A vital duty for a Deck Rating at sea is maintaining a vigilant lookout on the bridge, especially during navigation or in restricted visibility, as per COLREGs requirements. This contributes significantly to the overall safety of the vessel.

28. Engine Dept. consists of

A. Ch.Eng., 2nd.Eng., 3rd.Eng., 4th.Eng., & Eng. Ratings
B. Ch.Eng., Ch.Off., 2nd.Eng. & Eng.Ratings
C. 2nd.Eng. & Eng. Ratings
D. Ch.Eng & 2nd.Eng

Answer: A — Ch.Eng., 2nd.Eng., 3rd.Eng., 4th.Eng., & Eng. Ratings

The Engine Department comprises the Chief Engineer, Second Engineer, Third Engineer, Fourth Engineer, and the Engine Ratings. This structure ensures comprehensive oversight and operation of the ship's propulsion and auxiliary machinery.

29. Master is

A. Overall In Charge
B. Head Of Nautical Dechapterment
C. Head Of Engine Dechapterment
D. In Charge Of Deck Officers

Answer: A — Overall In Charge

The Master of a vessel holds the ultimate responsibility and authority, serving as the overall in charge of the ship, its crew, passengers, and cargo. All other departmental heads report to the Master.

30. Chief Cook, General Steward & Catering Rating form

A. Galley Dechapterment
B. General Dechapterment
C. Catering Dechapterment
D. Cooking Dechapterment

Answer: C — Catering Dechapterment

The Chief Cook, General Steward, and Catering Ratings collectively form the Catering Department. This department is responsible for the preparation and service of food and maintaining the cleanliness of all accommodation and galley areas.

Set 11 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Deck Dept. consists of

A. Ch.Off, 2nd.Off, 3rtd.Off, Dk.Cadet, Bosun, ABs & OSs
B. Deck Crew & Cabin Crew
C. Master, Ch.Engr., 2nd.Eng & Ch.Off
D. Ch.Off, 2nd.Off , 3rd.Off. and Deck Cadet

Answer: A — Ch.Off, 2nd.Off, 3rtd.Off, Dk.Cadet, Bosun, ABs & OSs

The Deck Department encompasses the Chief Officer, Second Officer, Third Officer, Deck Cadets, Bosun, Able Seamen (ABs), and Ordinary Seamen (OSs). They are responsible for navigation, cargo operations, maintenance, and ship's safety.

2. Maintenance Of Machinery and Propulsion System is responsibility of

A. Engine Dechapterment
B. 2nd.Engineer
C. Chief Engineer Dechapterment
D. Machinery Dechapterment

Answer: A — Engine Dechapterment

The responsibility for the maintenance of the ship's machinery and propulsion system lies with the Engine Department. The Chief Engineer oversees this critical function, ensuring the vessel's operational integrity.

3. Cargo Operations, Navigation & Administration are responsibility of

A. Chief Officer Dechapterment
B. Nautical Dechapterment
C. Engine Dechapterment
D. Captain Dechapterment

Answer: B — Nautical Dechapterment

Cargo operations, navigation, vessel administration, and safety management are the primary responsibilities of the Nautical Department, led by the Chief Officer. This department ensures the efficient and safe execution of voyages.

4. Two Distinct Dechapterments on ship are

A. Nautical Dechapterment & Engine Dechapterment
B. Cabin Dechapterment & Deck Dechapterment
C. Crew Dept. & Officers Dept
D. Eng.Rating Dept & Deck Rating Dept

Answer: A — Nautical Dechapterment & Engine Dechapterment

Ships are typically organized into two main functional departments: the Nautical Department (Deck) and the Engine Department (Engineering). These departments manage distinct operational areas of the vessel.

5. Main Function Of Tug Boat is

A. To assist ships in anchoring
B. To Transport stores to ships
C. To Carry passengers for sightseeing
D. To Assist in Mooring & Unmooring ships

Answer: D — To Assist in Mooring & Unmooring ships

The primary function of a tugboat is to assist larger vessels during maneuvering operations, such as mooring and unmooring in ports or confined waters. This assistance is crucial for the safe berthing and departure of ships.

6. OSV Vessels are

A. Oil Bulk Oil Vessels
B. Oceangoing Sailing Vessels
C. Onshore Supply Vessels
D. Offshore Supply Vessel

Answer: D — Offshore Supply Vessel

OSV stands for Offshore Supply Vessel. These vessels are specifically designed and equipped to service offshore oil and gas platforms and other offshore installations.

7. Main Function of OSV is

A. To carry cargo to coastal ports
B. To tow barges
C. To Ferry Provisons, Stores, Crew to Offshore installations like Oil Rigs and Oil Wells
D. To Patrol Sea near Ocean Rigs

Answer: C — To Ferry Provisons, Stores, Crew to Offshore installations like Oil Rigs and Oil Wells

The primary role of an OSV is to transport personnel, supplies, equipment, and provisions to and from offshore operational sites like oil rigs and exploration platforms.

8. Liquid Petroleum Gas Tanker carries

A. Liquid petroleum products
B. Liquid Palm Oil
C. Liquid Chemical Products
D. Liquefied Petroleum Gas

Answer: D — Liquefied Petroleum Gas

A Liquid Petroleum Gas (LPG) Tanker is designed to carry liquefied petroleum gases such as propane and butane, which are stored under pressure in a liquefied state.

9. A PCC Vessel is

A. Chemicals in bulk carrier
B. Packaged Dangerous Chemicals
C. Air Conditioned Passenger Ship
D. Pure Car Carrier

Answer: D — Pure Car Carrier

PCC is an acronym for Pure Car Carrier. These specialized vessels are designed with multiple decks to efficiently transport large numbers of automobiles.

10. A PCC is designed to carry

A. 20 Feet Small Containers
B. Cars Only
C. Dry Chemicals in cases
D. Petrol Products

Answer: B — Cars Only

Pure Car Carriers (PCCs) are exclusively designed and optimized for the transportation of motor vehicles, primarily cars. Their internal structure and ramp systems facilitate the loading and unloading of these wheeled cargo units.

11. A LoLo Ship is designed to carry

A. Logs
B. Full Containers cargo
C. Grain
D. Lubricating Oil

Answer: B — Full Containers cargo

A LoLo (Lift-On Lift-Off) ship, typically a container ship, is designed to carry cargo, predominantly containers, which are loaded and unloaded using cranes (ship's own or shore-based).

12. A LoLo Ship is

A. Lift On Lift Off Container ship
B. Same as RoRo Ship
C. Chemical Tanker
D. general Cargo Ship

Answer: A — Lift On Lift Off Container ship

LoLo, which stands for Lift-On Lift-Off, precisely describes the method of cargo handling for container ships. Containers are lifted onto the ship and then lifted off at the destination.

13. A RoRo Ship is designed to carry

A. Heavy unpacked machinery
B. 40 Feet Containers
C. Vehicles on Wheels
D. Steel Coils

Answer: C — Vehicles on Wheels

RoRo (Roll-On Roll-Off) ships are designed to carry any cargo that can be wheeled on and off. This includes cars, trucks, trailers, and other vehicles, facilitated by specialized ramps.

14. Liquid Bulk Cargo is carried in

A. General Cargo ship
B. Tanker
C. Container ship
D. Bulk Carrier

Answer: B — Tanker

Liquid bulk cargo, such as oil, chemicals, and liquefied gases, is transported in specialized vessels known as tankers. These ships have tanks designed to safely contain and carry such liquid cargoes.

15. Scupper is

A. flag flown on the foremast
B. Rubber squuegee
C. Hand Operated pump
D. Drain pipe

Answer: D — Drain pipe

A scupper is a drain pipe, typically found on the deck of a ship, used to allow water to drain overboard, preventing accumulation on deck. Options A, B, and C describe other maritime items or actions.

16. Reefer ship carries

A. Cases of machinery
B. Frozen Cargo
C. Trucks & Trailers
D. Dangerous cargo

Answer: B — Frozen Cargo

Reefer ships are designed with refrigerated cargo holds to transport perishable goods that require temperature control, such as fruits, vegetables, and frozen cargo.

17. Iron Ore is carried in

A. Navy ship
B. General Cargo ship
C. Tanker
D. Dry Bulk Carrier

Answer: D — Dry Bulk Carrier

Iron ore is a dense, dry commodity that is typically transported in bulk. Dry Bulk Carriers are purpose-built vessels with large cargo holds designed for carrying such materials efficiently and safely.

18. Which one of the following is not the Enclosed spaces

A. Engine Room
B. Inert Gas scrubber
C. Cargo Holds and Cargo Tanks
D. Sewage Tanks

Answer: A — Engine Room

The engine room, while having confined spaces and potential hazards, is generally designed with more open access and ventilation compared to tanks, sumps, or scrubbers, which are typically classified as enclosed spaces.

19. Redness in the EYE can be caused by

A. Fall
B. Lack of oxygen
C. Welding
D. Flying dust

Answer: C — Welding

Direct exposure to the intense light and UV radiation from welding without proper eye protection can cause conjunctivitis (redness) and other forms of eye irritation or damage.

20. What is the most likely course of Accident when working with Sharp tools

A. Falls
B. Cuts
C. Head injury
D. Suffocation

Answer: B — Cuts

Working with sharp tools inherently carries a high risk of accidental cuts to the skin. Proper handling, maintenance, and appropriate Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) are crucial to prevent such injuries.

21. What is the most likely cause of "chaptericle in eye"

A. Flying dust
B. Lack of oxygen
C. Fall
D. Sharp objects

Answer: A — Flying dust

Particles of dust or debris can become airborne during work and enter the eye, causing irritation, abrasion, and potentially more serious injury, hence the term 'chaptericle in eye' (likely referring to foreign particle in eye).

22. "Cuts" are caused by

A. Blunt chisels
B. Sharp objects
C. Hammers
D. Flat spanners

Answer: B — Sharp objects

Cuts are lacerations caused by sharp edges. Therefore, sharp objects, including tools like knives, chisels, or blades, are the most direct cause of cuts.

23. What is the most likely cause of Accident when working on oily surfaces

A. Sprains
B. Cuts
C. Suffocation
D. Slips

Answer: D — Slips

Oily surfaces are notoriously slippery, making slips and subsequent falls a primary risk when working in such environments. Ensuring surfaces are clean and dry, or using appropriate footwear, mitigates this hazard.

24. One should use _____________ to protect Nose, Mouth and Face

A. Face shield
B. Hand gloves
C. Safety Goggles
D. Safety shoes

Answer: A — Face shield

A face shield, often used in conjunction with safety goggles, provides comprehensive protection for the face, including the nose and mouth, against splashes, flying particles, and sparks.

25. "Suffocation" can be occur due to

A. Dust in atmosphere
B. Insufficient oxygen
C. Pollution
D. Electrocution

Answer: B — Insufficient oxygen

Suffocation occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen, which can happen in enclosed spaces due to displacement of air, consumption of oxygen, or the presence of inert gases.

26. What is the most likely cause of fracture limbs

A. Flying dust
B. Too much noise.
C. Sharp objects
D. Fall

Answer: D — Fall

Falls from height, slips, or being struck by falling objects are common causes of fractures. A fall is a direct mechanism that can lead to broken limbs.

27. "Boiler Suit" is utilised to protect______________

A. Nose & mouth, Face
B. Body
C. Head
D. Feet

Answer: B — Body

A boiler suit, or coveralls, is designed to protect the wearer's entire body from dirt, grease, minor impacts, and certain chemical splashes, providing a layer of protection over regular clothing.

28. What is the most likely cause of Chemical burns

A. Welding
B. Lack of oxygen
C. Acids and alkalis
D. Too much noise

Answer: C — Acids and alkalis

Chemical burns are typically caused by direct contact with corrosive substances like acids and alkalis. These chemicals can rapidly damage skin and tissues.

29. "Safety Helmet" is utilised to protect_____________

A. Nose & mouth, Face
B. Head
C. Body
D. Hands

Answer: B — Head

A safety helmet is specifically designed to protect the head from falling objects, impacts, and blows, preventing serious head injuries.

30. "Hand Gloves" are utilised to protect______________

A. Hands
B. Nose & mouth, Face
C. Feet
D. Body

Answer: A — Hands

Hand gloves are Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) specifically designed to protect the hands and fingers from cuts, burns, chemicals, and other workplace hazards.

Set 12 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the most likely course of Accident when working under Falling objects

A. Head injury
B. Eyes injury
C. Falls
D. Burns

Answer: A — Head injury

Working beneath areas where objects could fall poses a significant risk of head injury. A safety helmet is essential PPE in such scenarios.

2. Ear Muffs will protect ____________

A. Feet
B. Eyes
C. Hands
D. Ears

Answer: D — Ears

Ear muffs are a form of hearing protection designed to cover the entire external ear, effectively reducing the level of noise reaching the eardrum and protecting the ears from damage.

3. The vessels position is plotted on the chart as

A. Latitude only
B. Latitude and Longitude
C. Longitude only
D. Greenwich Mean Time

Answer: B — Latitude and Longitude

A vessel's position on a nautical chart is defined by its latitude (North or South of the equator) and longitude (East or West of the Prime Meridian), plotted as a specific point.

4. House flag is the flag of the

A. Port of call
B. Country
C. State
D. Shipping Company

Answer: D — Shipping Company

The house flag, also known as the owner's flag or company flag, is unique to each shipping company and is flown to identify the company that owns or operates the vessel.

5. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when there is a pilot on board is

A. P
B. A
C. G
D. H

Answer: D — H

The 'H' flag in the International Code of Signals signifies 'I have a pilot on board'. It is hoisted to inform other vessels that a pilot is aboard and navigational assistance is being provided.

6. Finished with wheel

A. Change to auto pilot
B. Change over to emergency steering
C. Helms no longer required
D. Switch off steering motor

Answer: C — Helms no longer required

When the helm order 'Finished with wheel' is given, it signifies that manual steering is no longer required. The helm is therefore 'finished', meaning the helmsman is relieved of duty.

7. Match the term "COMPASS ROSE" with the most suitable answers given below

A. 60 nautical miles
B. Green buoy
C. Solar system
D. 360 degrees

Answer: D — 360 degrees

A compass rose, depicted on charts and compasses, is a circle graduated into 360 degrees, representing directions. It is fundamental for determining bearings and courses.

8. Whilst receiving bunkers you must hoist Intercode flag

A. “B” (Bravo)
B. “D” (Delta)
C. “A” (Alpha)
D. “C” (Charlie)

Answer: A — “B” (Bravo)

International Code Flag 'B' (Bravo) is hoisted during the transfer of oils or dangerous liquids and gases, including bunkering operations, to signal that the vessel is handling hazardous cargo.

9. Match the term "DISTANCE" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Divider
B. Parallel ruler
C. Depth in metres
D. Planet

Answer: A — Divider

When navigating using charts, a divider is a crucial tool used for measuring and transferring distances between two points on the chart, representing a specific length.

10. Match the term "STARBOARD SIDE OF CHANNEL" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Solar system
B. Compass error
C. Green buoy
D. Bay of Bengal

Answer: C — Green buoy

According to IALA (International Association of Lighthouse Authorities) buoyage system, the starboard side of a channel, when entering from seaward, is marked by a green buoy.

11. Match the term "ONE DEGREE" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Compass error
B. 360 degrees
C. 30 nautical miles
D. 60 nautical miles

Answer: D — 60 nautical miles

On a nautical chart, one degree of latitude is equivalent to 60 nautical miles. This is a fundamental conversion used in celestial and terrestrial navigation.

12. Match the term "OCEAN CHART" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Depth in metres
B. Green conical buoy
C. Red can buoy
D. Planet

Answer: A — Depth in metres

Ocean charts cover vast areas of the sea and are typically used for offshore navigation. Their primary function is to show depths and general seafloor topography, hence 'depth in metres' is the most relevant associated term.

13. Flag clips are used to join together two or more

A. Seizing wires
B. Flags
C. Heaving lines
D. Halyards

Answer: B — Flags

Flag clips are specifically designed fasteners used to attach multiple flags together, typically for hoisting them on a single halyard for signalling purposes.

14. A strict fire and safety patrol should be kept in the dry dock because

A. There are shore staff present on board
B. There is no water in dry dock
C. Of repair work being carried out
D. There is no ship power supply

Answer: C — Of repair work being carried out

During repair work in a dry dock, the presence of flammable materials and hot work increases the risk of fire. A strict fire and safety patrol is essential to mitigate these risks.

15. A vessel steering a course of zero degrees true from the equator without the effect of wind or current

A. Increases in longitude steadily
B. Increases in latitude steadily
C. Decreases in latitude steadily
D. Decreases in longitude steadily

Answer: B — Increases in latitude steadily

Steering a course of 000 degrees True from the Equator means travelling directly north along a meridian. As a vessel moves north from the Equator, its latitude steadily increases.

16. The colour of a starboard hand buoy is:

A. Green
B. Red
C. Brown
D. Orange

Answer: A — Green

According to the IALA buoyage system, a starboard hand buoy, marking the starboard side of a channel when entering from seaward, is colored green.

17. A vessel steering a course of 090 degrees true from the Greenwich Meridian without the effect of wind or current

A. Decreases in easterly longitude steadily
B. Increases in easterly longitude steadily
C. Increases in westerly longitude steadily
D. Decreases in westerly longitude steadily

Answer: B — Increases in easterly longitude steadily

Steering 090°T from the Greenwich meridian moves the ship east, so its east longitude increases steadily.

18. Match the term "STARBOARD HAND" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Red can buoy
B. Green conical buoy
C. Depth in metres
D. Parallel ruler

Answer: B — Green conical buoy

In the IALA buoyage system, a starboard hand mark (buoy) is typically green and often conical in shape, indicating the starboard side of a channel.

19. Match the term "PORT HAND BUOY" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Green conical buoy
B. Depth in metres
C. Red can buoy
D. Star

Answer: C — Red can buoy

A port hand buoy, in the IALA buoyage system, is typically red and can-shaped, marking the port side of a channel when entering from seaward.

20. When there is any under water diving:

A. Flag B is hoisted
B. Flag P is hoisted
C. Flag O is hoisted
D. Flag A is hoisted

Answer: D — Flag A is hoisted

When underwater diving operations are in progress, the 'Divers Down' flag (International Code Flag 'A') must be displayed to warn other vessels and prevent navigation in the immediate vicinity.

21. Equator is at

A. 180 degrees East
B. 90 degrees North
C. 90 degrees south
D. 0 degrees

Answer: D — 0 degrees

The Equator is defined as the imaginary line around the middle of the Earth at 0 degrees latitude, dividing the Earth into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres.

22. The latitude of north pole is at

A. 100 degrees North
B. 0 degrees North
C. 90 degrees North
D. 20 degrees South

Answer: C — 90 degrees North

The North Pole is located at the northernmost point of the Earth, defined as 90 degrees North latitude. This is the point where all lines of longitude converge.

23. The shape of a port hand buoy is:

A. Conical
B. Can
C. Hexagonal
D. Circular

Answer: B — Can

In the IALA buoyage system, port hand buoys, which mark the left side of a channel when entering from seaward, are typically can-shaped.

24. The Intercode flag which is hoisted before the vessel is ready to sail is

A. B
B. A
C. P
D. Q

Answer: C — P

International Code Flag 'P' (Preparative) is hoisted when a vessel is ready to sail, signalling that it is preparing to depart or has finished loading.

25. A vessel when steering by auto-pilot the helmsman

A. Not Required on break Bridge
B. Can be engage on deck
C. Required to stand by on bridge
D. Can go off duty

Answer: C — Required to stand by on bridge

Even when a vessel is steering by auto-pilot, the helmsman is still required to be on duty and vigilant on the bridge. This is to ensure immediate manual intervention if the auto-pilot fails or circumstances change.

26. Ensign flag is the flag of the

A. Country
B. State
C. Shipping Company
D. Port of call

Answer: A — Country

The ensign is the national flag flown by a merchant ship, signifying its country of registration, as per international maritime law and conventions.

27. A merchant ship is dry docked at intervals of

A. 10 months
B. 30 months
C. 20 months
D. 18 months

Answer: B — 30 months

Merchant ships are required to undergo dry-docking for hull inspection and maintenance at regular intervals, typically not exceeding 30 months, as mandated by classification societies and SOLAS.

28. Match the term "VENUS" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Moon
B. Depth in metres
C. Star
D. Planet

Answer: D — Planet

Venus is one of the planets orbiting our Sun, making it a celestial body within the solar system.

29. Coastal charts are available as:

A. Bar charts
B. Temperature charts
C. Mercator charts
D. Solar charts

Answer: C — Mercator charts

Coastal charts are typically produced using the Mercator projection, which allows for easier plotting of courses and bearings, as rhumb lines are represented as straight lines.

30. Match the term "COURSE" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Moon
B. Divider
C. Parallel ruler
D. Depth in metres

Answer: C — Parallel ruler

A parallel ruler is a navigational instrument used to transfer bearings or courses from a compass rose on a chart to the vessel's position or desired track.

Set 13 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. One nautical mile is equal to

A. 1865 meters
B. 1825 meters
C. 1852 meters
D. 1800 meters

Answer: C — 1852 meters

A nautical mile is defined as exactly 1852 meters, a standard used in maritime and aeronautical navigation worldwide.

2. A Mercator chart has the following identity:

A. Alphabetical Code
B. Title and a number
C. Only number
D. Only title

Answer: B — Title and a number

Mercator charts are uniquely identified by both a title, which describes the area they cover, and a specific number for easy referencing and ordering.

3. Courtesy Flag is the flag of the

A. Country in which the ship is registered
B. Commonwealth Countries
C. Company
D. Country which the ship is calling

Answer: D — Country which the ship is calling

A courtesy flag is the national flag of the country a vessel is visiting, flown at the foremast as a sign of respect and adherence to local maritime protocols.

4. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when the vessel requires a pilot is

A. H
B. P
C. Q
D. G

Answer: D — G

International Code Flag 'G' (Geg) is hoisted by a vessel when pilot is required, indicating its need for navigational assistance.

5. The Intercode flag which is hoisted when the vessel requires free pratique is

A. B
B. P
C. Q
D. A

Answer: C — Q

International Code Flag 'Q' (Quebec) is hoisted when a vessel requests free pratique, signifying that it has no quarantine concerns and is ready for pratique to be granted.

6. Match the term "AZIMUTH MIRROR" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Solar system
B. Compass error
C. 60 nautical miles
D. Green buoy

Answer: B — Compass error

An azimuth mirror is used in conjunction with a compass to take bearings of celestial bodies or terrestrial objects, aiding in determining compass error.

7. The earth is a planet in the

A. Solar system
B. Satellite system
C. Lunar system
D. Nuclear system

Answer: A — Solar system

The Earth is the third planet from the Sun and is part of the Solar System, which includes the Sun and all the celestial bodies that orbit it.

8. A Mercator chart is a:

A. Pictorial chart
B. Stellar chart
C. Navigational chart
D. Polar chart

Answer: C — Navigational chart

A Mercator chart is a navigational chart that uses the Mercator projection, making it suitable for plotting courses and determining bearings accurately for sea voyages.

9. Knot is a unit of speed equal to ________ meters per hour

A. 2000
B. 1900
C. 1852
D. 2100

Answer: C — 1852

A knot is a unit of speed equivalent to one nautical mile per hour. Since one nautical mile is 1852 meters, a knot is equal to 1852 meters per hour.

10. Match the term "MUMBAI HARBOUR" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Compass error
B. 60 nautical miles
C. Green buoy
D. Plan chart

Answer: D — Plan chart

Harbour charts, like the one for Mumbai Harbour, are large-scale charts that provide detailed information about a specific port or harbor area, thus they are a type of plan chart.

11. Match the term "JUPITER" with the most suitable answers given below

A. Compass error
B. Green buoy
C. Solar system
D. 60 nautical miles

Answer: C — Solar system

Jupiter is the fifth planet from the Sun and is a significant celestial body within our Solar System.

12. At night a port hand buoy has a _______ light

A. Red light
B. White light
C. Orange light
D. Green light

Answer: A — Red light

In the IALA buoyage system, port hand buoys are typically marked with a red light at night, corresponding to their red color during the day.

13. The cemented spurling pipe prevents

A. Water from entering into the chain locker
B. Cover from getting rusted
C. Seaman from falling into the chain locker
D. Rust from entering into the chain locker.

Answer: A — Water from entering into the chain locker

The spurling pipe, often cemented, is designed to prevent seawater from entering the chain locker when the anchor is being weighed, thus protecting the anchor chain and locker contents from excessive moisture.

14. The scope of cable depends on the

A. The size of the anchor
B. Length of anchor chain used
C. The size of the anchor chain
D. The thickness of the anchor chain

Answer: B — Length of anchor chain used

The scope of a cable, which is the ratio of the length of the anchor chain paid out to the depth of the water, is determined by the length of the anchor chain used, alongside other factors like environmental conditions.

15. Bow stopper is used to:

A. Prevent the Anchor from dragging
B. Prevent Anchor chain from coming in
C. Prevent the Anchor chain from fouling.
D. Prevent Anchor chain from running out.

Answer: D — Prevent Anchor chain from running out.

A bow stopper, also known as a devil's claw, is a mechanical device used to secure the anchor chain after it has been hove up. Its primary function is to prevent the chain from running out unintentionally, thereby relieving pressure on the windlass brake.

16. The heaving line is used when berthing to send the

A. Rat guard ashore
B. Mooring rope ashore
C. Fire hose ashore
D. Walkie Talkie ashore

Answer: B — Mooring rope ashore

A heaving line is a light, weighted line thrown ashore or to another vessel. It is used to establish a connection, enabling a heavier line, such as a mooring rope, to be hauled across.

17. When berthing a gant line is used to send the

A. Lashing material ashore
B. Mooring wire ashore
C. Heaving line ashore
D. Fenders ashore

Answer: B — Mooring wire ashore

A gant line is a light line, often synthetic, used to pass heavier ropes or wires. When berthing, it serves as a messenger line to haul the main mooring wires or ropes from the quay to the ship.

18. A gant line acts as a

A. Rocket line
B. Marking line
C. Heaving line
D. Messenger line

Answer: D — Messenger line

A gant line, also referred to as a messenger line, is a light, flexible line used to haul heavier ropes or wires. It facilitates the transfer of mooring lines or wires between the ship and the shore or another vessel.

19. Aft back spring is used to keep the vessel from moving

A. Away from the jetty
B. Astern
C. Ahead
D. Athwart ship direction

Answer: B — Astern

An aft spring mooring line runs from the stern of the vessel forward to a quay bollard. It is primarily used to control the vessel's movement astern, preventing it from moving backward away from the jetty.

20. The last link in the anchor chain is called

A. Half shackle end.
B. Bitter end.
C. Better end.
D. Chain end

Answer: B — Bitter end.

The bitter end is the terminal end of the anchor chain, which is connected to the ship's structure via a breaking link. It is the last link of the chain that is typically brought on board.

21. Windlass brake lining is attached to

A. Gear box
B. Brake band
C. Windlass motor
D. Windlass drum

Answer: B — Brake band

The windlass brake lining is a critical component that provides friction to hold the anchor chain secure. This lining is attached to the brake band, which clamps onto the windlass drum to prevent movement.

22. A vessel can drag anchor when the sea is

A. Rough with no tide
B. Rough with strong tide
C. Calm with strong tide
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

A vessel can drag anchor under various conditions where the holding power of the anchor is overcome. This includes rough seas and strong tides, or even calm conditions with a very strong tide, all of which exert significant force on the anchor.

23. Fenders are placed on the shipside when coming alongside a jetty to protect the

A. Mooring ropes from wear and tear
B. Bow thrusters from contact damage
C. Shipside from contact damage
D. Shore bollards

Answer: C — Shipside from contact damage

Fenders are deployed along the ship's side when approaching or lying alongside a jetty or quay. Their purpose is to absorb impact and prevent damage to the vessel's hull and the quay structure.

24. When lowering the tug rope to the tug, the crew must

A. Lower the rope in a controlled manner
B. Lower the rope with a rope stopper
C. Allow the tug to pull the rope
D. Let the rope run out immediately

Answer: A — Lower the rope in a controlled manner

When lowering a tug rope, it is crucial to do so in a controlled manner to prevent sudden jerks or accidents. This ensures the safety of personnel and equipment on both vessels.

25. The anchor cable is marked to

A. Recognize the number of the shackle coming up on deck
B. Measure the length of each cable
C. Record when the cable was last painted
D. Prevent corrosion

Answer: A — Recognize the number of the shackle coming up on deck

The anchor cable is marked with paint at intervals of one shackle (approximately 27.5 meters). These marks allow the bridge team to accurately determine the amount of cable paid out.

26. The anchor ball is hoisted when the vessel is

A. During Manoeuvring at the anchorage area
B. During anchoring operations
C. During repairs to anchor and anchor chain.
D. During anchorage.

Answer: D — During anchorage.

COLREG Rule 30 requires a vessel at anchor to show one ball forward.

27. When anchoring the order "let go" means

A. Keep clear of anchor chain
B. Allow the anchor to run out by releasing the windlass brake
C. Increase the speed of the windlass
D. Tighten the windlass brake.

Answer: B — Allow the anchor to run out by releasing the windlass brake

The order 'let go' when anchoring signifies the release of the anchor. This is achieved by disengaging the windlass brake, allowing the anchor and chain to run out freely under gravity.

28. All modern ships have a

A. Stock anchor
B. Kedge anchor
C. Mushroom anchor
D. Stockless anchor

Answer: D — Stockless anchor

Modern merchant ships predominantly use stockless anchors, such as the Hall or AC14 type. These anchors are designed for efficient handling and good holding power, with their flukes retracting into the body.

29. When a vessel is at anchor the bow stopper relieves the stress on the

A. Hawse pipe
B. Anchor Chain
C. Warping drum
D. Anchor Brake

Answer: D — Anchor Brake

When a vessel is at anchor, the bow stopper (or chain stopper) takes the load off the windlass brake and cable holder. This prevents the windlass mechanism from being subjected to the full strain of the anchor chain.

30. Before proceeding out to sea on a long voyage anchors are secured using

A. Chain stopper
B. Locking Pin
C. Windlass Brake
D. Turnbuckle and wire lashing

Answer: D — Turnbuckle and wire lashing

Before sailing on a long voyage, anchors are securely stowed using a combination of the windlass brake, chain stopper, and often wire lashings secured by turnbuckles. This prevents any accidental movement of the anchor during the voyage.

Set 14 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. The forecastle of the ship is in the

A. Midship chapter
B. Rear chapter
C. Forward chapter
D. Aft chapter

Answer: C — Forward chapter

The forecastle, commonly known as the 'fo'c'sle', is the forward-most part of the ship's upper deck. It is located at the forward end, typically above the forward perpendicular.

2. Bell on the forecastle is fitted to

A. Indicate number of anchor shackles paid out
B. Wake the crew Up
C. Raise an alarm in case of emergency.
D. Signal change of watch

Answer: A — Indicate number of anchor shackles paid out

A bell on the forecastle, specifically the anchor bell, is used to indicate the number of shackle lengths of anchor chain paid out. This is a visual aid for the bridge during anchoring operations.

3. Fenders are placed on the jetty to

A. Keep the ship alongside
B. To help cargo operations
C. Prevent damage to the shipside
D. To minimize pollution

Answer: C — Prevent damage to the shipside

Fenders are deployed to prevent the ship's hull from directly contacting the quay or other vessels. This protects both the ship and the fixed structures from potential damage during berthing.

4. Communication between the bridge and the mooring station is conducted by

A. Shouting orders
B. Light signals
C. Hand signals
D. Walkie Talkie

Answer: D — Walkie Talkie

Effective communication between the bridge and mooring stations is vital for safe operations. Walkie-talkies (portable radiotelephones) provide a reliable means of two-way voice communication.

5. Forward spring is used in mooring system to prevent the vessel from moving

A. Away from the jetty
B. Astern
C. Athwartships direction
D. Ahead

Answer: D — Ahead

A forward spring mooring line runs from the forward part of the vessel aft to a quay bollard. It is used to control the vessel's movement ahead, preventing it from moving forward away from the jetty.

6. An anchor is used by the ship to

A. Make the ship fast alongside a jetty.
B. Make the ship fast to seabed.
C. Navigate in shallow waters.
D. Tow the ship

Answer: B — Make the ship fast to seabed.

An anchor is a heavy device attached to a chain or cable, designed to grip the seabed. Its primary function is to hold a vessel in a fixed position and prevent it from drifting.

7. Anchor is lead to shipside through

A. Anchor chain pipe
B. Lead pipe
C. House pipe
D. Hawse pipe.

Answer: D — Hawse pipe.

The anchor, when deployed or retrieved, passes through a specially designed opening in the ship's hull called a hawse pipe. This pipe guides the anchor chain and protects the hull from abrasion.

8. In berth rat guards are placed on the ships mooring ropes to

A. Prevent rats from entering and leaving the ship
B. Catch the rats as they move on the mooring rope
C. Prevent the rats from chewing the rope
D. Kill the rats as they move on the mooring rope

Answer: A — Prevent rats from entering and leaving the ship

Rat guards are circular metal shields placed on mooring ropes and pilot ladders. They are designed to prevent rats and other rodents from climbing aboard or leaving the vessel.

9. When passing towline to tug from mooring deck

A. Pass both ends of the rope to the tug
B. Take full three turns on the bitts and throw the line towards tug
C. Make fast both ends on board and pass the bight to the tug
D. Take half turn on bitts and pass one eye to the tug

Answer: D — Take half turn on bitts and pass one eye to the tug

When passing a towline to a tug, the ship's crew should take a half turn on the bitts and pass one eye of the rope to the tug. This allows for controlled tensioning and safe transfer of the towline.

10. Anchor ball is hoisted on the:

A. Fore Castle
B. Stern Post
C. Main Mast
D. Radar Mast

Answer: A — Fore Castle

The anchor ball, a statutory day signal, is always displayed on the foremast or the forecastle. It visually indicates to other vessels that the ship is at anchor.

11. Length of each shackle in the anchor cable is

A. 29.5 mtrs
B. 28.5 mtrs
C. 27.5 kms
D. 27.5 mtrs

Answer: D — 27.5 mtrs

The standard length of a shackle in the anchor cable on most merchant vessels is 27.5 meters. These markings are essential for determining the scope of the anchor cable being deployed.

12. Breast rope is used in mooring system to prevent the vessel from moving

A. Ahead
B. Away from the jetty
C. Towards the jetty
D. Fore and aft direction

Answer: B — Away from the jetty

A breast rope runs perpendicular to the ship's centerline, from the ship's side to a quay bollard. It is used to hold the vessel firmly alongside the jetty, preventing it from moving away.

13. The term "commence weighing anchor means" to

A. Lower the anchor to the seabed
B. Check the weight of the anchor
C. Heave the anchor up from the seabed
D. Lower the anchor to the water level

Answer: C — Heave the anchor up from the seabed

The term 'commence weighing anchor' is an order to begin the process of hauling the anchor up from the seabed. This involves operating the windlass to retrieve the anchor chain.

14. Bollard is a

A. Air pipe
B. Steel block
C. Stanchion
D. For making fast mooring ropes/wires.

Answer: D — For making fast mooring ropes/wires.

A bollard is a short, sturdy post, typically made of cast iron or steel, fixed on a quay or ship. It serves as a strong point for securing mooring ropes and wires.

15. In Mooring term "Make Fast" means

A. Do mooring operations faster.
B. Start heaving the anchor faster
C. Use the chain stopper
D. Make fast the hawser on the bitts

Answer: D — Make fast the hawser on the bitts

In mooring terminology, 'make fast' means to secure a mooring line or wire firmly to a bitt or other securing point. It indicates that the line is properly tensioned and fastened.

16. When the tug is pulling the ship, the ship's crew should

A. Tie a rope stopper to the tugs rope
B. Keep well clear of the tug’s rope
C. Keep slacking the rope as the weight comes on it
D. Stand close to the bollard where the rope is secured

Answer: B — Keep well clear of the tug’s rope

When a tug is pulling a ship, there is significant tension on the lines. Crew members should maintain a safe distance from the towline and any associated equipment to avoid injury from potential snap-backs.

17. In dry dock the anchor cable is

A. Interchanged in the middle
B. Changed end to end
C. Renewed at both ends
D. Renewed at one end

Answer: B — Changed end to end

In dry dock, it is common practice to turn the anchor cable end-for-end. This procedure allows for even wear distribution and inspection of both ends of the chain, extending its service life.

18. A merchant ship anchors in the anchorage waiting area when her

A. Hatch cover has to be chipped and painted
B. Berth is not vacant
C. Aft draft has to be reduced
D. Fresh water tank has to be cleaned

Answer: B — Berth is not vacant

A merchant ship anchors in an anchorage area primarily when its assigned berth is occupied by another vessel or unavailable for other reasons. This allows the ship to wait safely until the berth becomes vacant.

19. Cellular container vessel have several lift on lift off hatch cover to

A. Minimize stress on the trackway
B. Carry more containers on deck
C. Prevent water from entering into the cargo hold
D. Reduce the weight of each hatch cover

Answer: B — Carry more containers on deck

Cellular container vessels have specialized hatch covers that are designed to carry additional containers on top. These 'lift-on, lift-off' covers are structurally designed to support the weight of containers, thus increasing cargo capacity.

20. Sounding pipe cap is opened with a

A. Box spanner
B. T' spanner
C. Ring spanner
D. Wheel spanner

Answer: B — T' spanner

Sounding pipe caps are typically secured with a T-spanner. This specialized tool allows for a firm grip to open or close the cap, which is often designed to be watertight.

21. Prior to loading cargo the hatch covers should be

A. Painted
B. Greased
C. Visually checked
D. Hose tested

Answer: D — Hose tested

Before loading cargo, hatch covers must undergo a hose test. This is a crucial watertightness test to ensure that no water will enter the cargo holds during the voyage, protecting the cargo from damage.

22. The union purschase is rigged with a

A. Mooring wire
B. Seizing wire
C. Bowsing wire
D. Preventer wire

Answer: D — Preventer wire

A preventer wire is used in a union purchase rig to prevent the derrick from swinging sideways, thereby increasing stability and safety during cargo operations. It acts as a secondary support to the primary guys.

23. The strum box is located in the

A. Mast house
B. Hold bilges
C. Galley
D. Fore peak store

Answer: B — Hold bilges

The strum box is a coarse strainer fitted at the suction side of the bilge pumping system. It prevents large debris from entering the pump and pipelines, thereby protecting the pump from damage and blockages in the hold bilges.

24. The rubber packing in the hatch cover is used to make it

A. Water tight
B. Resistant to ships motion
C. Weather tight
D. Airtight

Answer: C — Weather tight

Under the Load Line Convention, hatch-cover rubber gaskets compressed by cleats make the covers weathertight.

25. Lift on lift off hatches are used on

A. Cellular container ships
B. General cargo ships
C. Gear less bulk carriers
D. Car carriers

Answer: A — Cellular container ships

Lift-on/lift-off hatches are typically used on cellular container ships because they are designed to be stacked and moved by specialized container cranes. This method facilitates efficient loading and unloading of standardized container units.

26. Sounding of tanks and bilges are taken

A. Monthly
B. Daily
C. Weekly
D. Fortnightly

Answer: B — Daily

Sounding of tanks and bilges should be taken daily. This regular monitoring is crucial for maintaining situational awareness of the vessel's stability, ballast status, and potential water ingress, which is vital for safe operation.

27. The lower the angle of the boom of the derrick or crane

A. Lesser will be the hoisting rate
B. Greater will be the lifting capacity
C. Lesser will be the lifting capacity
D. Greater will be the hoisting rate

Answer: C — Lesser will be the lifting capacity

The lower the angle of the boom of a derrick or crane relative to the horizontal, the lesser will be its lifting capacity. This is due to the increased load on the hoisting wires and the reduced mechanical advantage.

28. Hatches are secured by

A. Eccentric rollers
B. Wire lashing
C. Chain lashing
D. Quick acting cleats

Answer: D — Quick acting cleats

Hatches are secured by quick-acting cleats, which are leverage-based devices that quickly clamp the hatch covers down onto the coaming. This ensures a secure and tight closure against weather and sea.

29. The crane jib is raised and lowered with the

A. Standing block
B. Moving block
C. Topping block
D. Running block

Answer: C — Topping block

The crane jib is raised and lowered using the topping lift, which is a wire rope system connected to the top of the jib. This allows for precise control over the jib's angle and height during lifting operations.

30. Before going out to sea all hatch covers should be

A. Battened down
B. Kept chapterly open
C. Battened down chapterly
D. Closed but not battened down

Answer: A — Battened down

Before going to sea, all hatch covers must be securely battened down. This action ensures watertight integrity, protecting the cargo from any potential water ingress during the voyage, which is a critical safety requirement.

Set 15 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Can hooks are used for loading

A. Pipes
B. Gunny bags
C. Drums
D. Machinery cases

Answer: C — Drums

Can hooks are specialized lifting attachments used for handling drums. They provide a secure grip around the circumference of the drum, allowing for safe and efficient hoisting.

2. Preventer guy is used when the derrick is working as a

A. Union purchase
B. Jumbo derrick
C. Swinging derrick
D. Stulcken derrick

Answer: A — Union purchase

A preventer guy is a critical component used when the derrick is rigged for a union purchase. It provides additional stability and control, preventing excessive swinging of the cargo block and ensuring safe operation.

3. A cruise liner carries

A. Grain cargo
B. Stowaways
C. Passengers
D. Ro Ro cargo

Answer: C — Passengers

A cruise liner's primary function is to carry passengers for leisure and travel. Unlike cargo vessels, its main payload consists of people enjoying a voyage.

4. Access to cargo holds is through

A. Fore castle
B. Booby hatch
C. Engine room
D. Accommodation

Answer: B — Booby hatch

Access to cargo holds is typically gained through a 'booby hatch', which is a small hatchway providing entry from the deck into the upper part of the hold. This is a standard access point for personnel and equipment.

5. Details of the SWL of the shackles and blocks used for the derrick are given in the

A. Ships chaptericulars
B. Capacity plan
C. General Arrangement plan
D. Rigging plan

Answer: D — Rigging plan

The rigging plan details the configuration of cargo gear, including derricks and cranes, and specifies the Safe Working Load (SWL) for all associated components like blocks and shackles. This document is essential for safe lifting operations.

6. Machinery cases loaded in the cargo hold should be lashed with

A. Twist locks
B. Wire and turnbuckles
C. Heaving lines
D. Nets

Answer: B — Wire and turnbuckles

Machinery cases loaded in cargo holds must be securely lashed using wire ropes and turnbuckles. This method provides the necessary tension and strength to prevent movement during the ship's motion at sea.

7. Side guys are used on

A. Derricks
B. Gantry cranes
C. Chain blocks
D. Cranes

Answer: A — Derricks

Side guys are primarily used with derricks to control their athwartship movement and provide lateral stability. They are essential for positioning the derrick accurately over the cargo.

8. Bottle screw is used for

A. Dunnage
B. Putting screws
C. Tightening man ropes
D. Tightening wire ropes

Answer: D — Tightening wire ropes

A bottle screw, also known as a turnbuckle, is used to adjust and tighten wire ropes. By rotating the central body, it shortens the wire rope assembly, providing adjustable tension.

9. Safe working load of cargo gear is the

A. Minimum weight which can be lifted safely
B. Minimum stress or weight required to break it
C. Total weight required to stretch the wire
D. Maximum weight which can be lifted safely

Answer: D — Maximum weight which can be lifted safely

The Safe Working Load (SWL) of cargo gear is the maximum weight that can be lifted safely under normal operating conditions. Exceeding this limit can lead to failure of the equipment and potential accidents.

10. The crane controls are placed in the

A. Master’s cabin
B. Owner’s cabin
C. Stevedore’s cabin
D. Driver’s cabin

Answer: D — Driver’s cabin

Crane controls are located in the driver's cabin, often referred to as the operator's cabin or crane house. This provides the crane operator with a clear view of the lifting operation and direct control over the machinery.

11. A wire rope should be condemned if more than:

A. 10% of the wires are broken in a length of eight diameters
B. 12% of the wires are broken in a length of eight diameters
C. 20% of the wires are broken in a length of eight diameters
D. 9% of the wires are broken in a length of eight diameters

Answer: A — 10% of the wires are broken in a length of eight diameters

Standard seamanship practice and cargo gear rules require a wire rope to be discarded when more than 10% of its total wires are broken in any length of eight rope diameters, since strength is then seriously reduced.

12. In IALA Region A, the starboard side of a channel, when approaching from seaward, is marked by a ____.

A. green buoy
B. red buoy
C. yellow buoy
D. black and yellow buoy

Answer: A — green buoy

In IALA Region A, which includes Indian waters, starboard-hand lateral marks are green with a conical topmark and are kept on the starboard side when entering from seaward. Port-hand marks are red with a can topmark.

13. Which International Code flag is hoisted when a vessel is handling dangerous cargo?

A. Flag B
B. Flag C
C. Flag A
D. Flag D

Answer: A — Flag B

Flag B means 'I am taking in, discharging or carrying dangerous goods'. It is flown by day, with an all-round red light at night, when tankers and ships handle dangerous cargo in port.

14. What is the most likely cause of a particle in the eye?

A. Sharp objects
B. Fall
C. Flying dust
D. Lack of oxygen

Answer: C — Flying dust

Foreign bodies in the eye usually come from airborne dust, rust or paint flakes, especially during chipping, grinding or in windy conditions on deck. Wearing safety goggles is the main preventive measure.

15. The two distinct departments on a ship are:

A. Crew department and officers department
B. Engine rating department and deck rating department
C. Nautical (deck) department and engine department
D. Cabin department and deck department

Answer: C — Nautical (deck) department and engine department

Shipboard organisation is broadly divided into the deck (nautical) department, responsible for navigation, cargo and seamanship, and the engine department, responsible for propulsion and machinery. The catering staff usually work under the deck department.

16. Welding without proper eye protection can cause ____.

A. damage to eyesight (arc eye)
B. improved night vision
C. no harm if done quickly
D. only a skin rash on the hands

Answer: A — damage to eyesight (arc eye)

Welding arcs emit intense ultraviolet and infrared radiation. Without a welding shield of the correct filter shade, even brief exposure can cause arc eye (photokeratitis), and repeated exposure can permanently damage eyesight.

17. Who is responsible for your safety on board?

A. Only the Master
B. Only the safety officer
C. You yourself, along with the company and ship's officers
D. Nobody, as accidents cannot be prevented

Answer: C — You yourself, along with the company and ship's officers

Under the ISM Code the company and officers provide safe procedures and equipment, but every seafarer is also responsible for working safely, using PPE and following procedures. Safety on board is therefore partly your own responsibility.

18. Before doing hot work outside a designated workshop, you must ____.

A. obtain a hot work permit
B. only inform the cook
C. just keep a bucket of water nearby
D. do nothing further, as no permit is needed

Answer: A — obtain a hot work permit

Hot work such as welding, burning or grinding can ignite flammable vapours or materials. The Safety Management System requires a hot work permit, with risk assessment, gas testing and fire precautions, before any hot work outside the workshop.

19. Entering an enclosed space without following safe working procedures can kill you by ____.

A. suffocation due to oxygen deficiency or toxic gases
B. sunburn
C. seasickness
D. dehydration

Answer: A — suffocation due to oxygen deficiency or toxic gases

Enclosed spaces may be deficient in oxygen or contain toxic or flammable gases. Without ventilation, atmosphere testing and an entry permit as required by IMO Resolution A.1050(27), entrants can be overcome quickly and suffocate.

20. If a senior officer asks you to perform a dangerous task without proper safety measures, you should ____.

A. refuse and point out the missing safety measures
B. do it quickly to get it over with
C. do it and report the matter later
D. ask another rating to do it instead

Answer: A — refuse and point out the missing safety measures

Every crew member has the right and duty to stop work that is unsafe. The task should only proceed once the required safety measures, such as permits, PPE and risk assessment, are in place, as encouraged by the ISM Code safety culture.

21. Safety shoes are mainly used to protect the ____.

A. feet and toes
B. hands and fingers
C. eyes
D. ears

Answer: A — feet and toes

Safety shoes have steel or composite toe caps and slip-resistant, oil-resistant soles that protect the feet and toes from falling objects, crushing and slipping. Hands and fingers are protected by safety gloves.

22. Which PPE must be worn while using a chipping hammer?

A. Safety gloves and safety goggles
B. Only a cap
C. Only a life jacket
D. No PPE is needed

Answer: A — Safety gloves and safety goggles

Chipping throws off sharp flakes of rust and paint that can injure the eyes and hands. Safety goggles protect the eyes, gloves protect the hands, and ear protection is also advisable with pneumatic hammers.

23. A boiler suit is worn on board to ____.

A. protect the body from hazards such as hot surfaces, oil and dirt
B. replace the life jacket
C. replace the safety harness
D. keep the body warm only in winter

Answer: A — protect the body from hazards such as hot surfaces, oil and dirt

The boiler suit is basic PPE that covers the whole body, giving protection against hot surfaces, oil, grease, chemicals splashes and dirt. It does not replace specific equipment such as life jackets or harnesses.

24. Working in high-noise areas without proper ear protection can cause ____.

A. permanent hearing damage
B. improved hearing
C. damage to the eyes only
D. no harm at all

Answer: A — permanent hearing damage

Prolonged exposure to high noise levels, such as in engine rooms, can cause permanent noise-induced hearing loss. The IMO Code on Noise Levels on Board Ships requires ear protection where noise exceeds 85 dB(A).

25. Lack of confidence is an example of which type of barrier to communication?

A. Internal (personal) barrier
B. Physical barrier
C. Mechanical barrier
D. Environmental noise barrier

Answer: A — Internal (personal) barrier

Internal or personal barriers arise within the individual, such as lack of confidence, fear, emotions or attitudes. External barriers include physical noise, distance and faulty equipment.

26. Which of the following is a basic need for communication?

A. Self-expression
B. Avoiding all contact with others
C. Keeping information secret
D. Ignoring instructions

Answer: A — Self-expression

People communicate to share information, give instructions, build relationships and express themselves. Self-expression, conveying one's thoughts and feelings, is recognised as one of the basic needs that communication fulfils.

27. Non-verbal communication refers to ____.

A. body language, gestures and facial expressions
B. speaking out aloud
C. talking on the telephone
D. making announcements on the public address system

Answer: A — body language, gestures and facial expressions

Non-verbal communication conveys messages without words, through gestures, posture, facial expressions, eye contact and hand signals. On board, hand signals to a crane operator are an important example.

28. Verbal communication mainly involves ____.

A. the use of spoken words
B. hand gestures only
C. facial expressions only
D. body posture only

Answer: A — the use of spoken words

Verbal communication uses words to convey a message, most commonly by speaking, for example face-to-face, by radio or telephone. Gestures, expressions and posture are forms of non-verbal communication.

29. What is the most important personal hygiene practice for a catering rating to prevent food-borne illness on board?

A. Cleaning the galley floor once a week
B. Wearing a clean cap only while serving meals
C. Washing hands thoroughly with soap and water before handling food and after using the toilet
D. Tasting each dish before it is served

Answer: C — Washing hands thoroughly with soap and water before handling food and after using the toilet

Hand washing with soap and water before handling food and after visiting the toilet is the single most effective way of preventing transfer of germs to food. The GP rating syllabus stresses personal hygiene of galley, pantry and mess-room staff.

30. In the ship's provision cold room, raw meat should be stored

A. On the top shelf above cooked food
B. Mixed with vegetables to save space
C. At room temperature until it is cooked
D. Separately from cooked food, and below it, to avoid cross-contamination

Answer: D — Separately from cooked food, and below it, to avoid cross-contamination

Raw meat can drip juices containing bacteria, so it is kept separate from and below cooked or ready-to-eat food. This prevents cross-contamination, a basic rule of hygiene in provision stores.

Set 16 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. Frozen provisions on board should be kept in the freezer room at a temperature of

A. 0 °C to +5 °C
B. -18 °C or colder
C. Ambient temperature
D. +8 °C to +10 °C

Answer: B — -18 °C or colder

Frozen food is normally maintained at -18 °C or below so that bacterial growth is stopped and food quality is preserved. Higher temperatures are used only for chilled stores such as vegetables and dairy.

2. Under MLC 2006, frequent documented inspections of food and drinking water supplies and of catering spaces are to be carried out by

A. The ship's agent at each port
B. The port health officer only
C. The master or an officer designated by the master
D. The chief cook alone, without records

Answer: C — The master or an officer designated by the master

MLC 2006 Standard A3.2 requires frequent documented inspections of food and drinking water supplies, storage and handling spaces and galley equipment by, or under the authority of, the master, with the results recorded.

3. If a rating witnesses sexual harassment of a crew member on board, the correct action is to

A. Discuss it with other crew members in the mess room
B. Report it to the master or the designated person as per the company's anti-harassment policy
C. Ignore it as a private matter between the two persons
D. Wait until the ship reaches the next port and tell the agent

Answer: B — Report it to the master or the designated person as per the company's anti-harassment policy

Gender sensitization training teaches that harassment must never be ignored. It should be reported through the company's complaint and anti-harassment procedure, normally to the master or designated person, so that the victim is protected and action taken.

4. Which of the following is correct mess-room etiquette on board?

A. Keeping safety shoes on the dining table
B. Leaving used plates on the table for others to clear
C. Changing out of dirty working clothes before entering the mess room for meals
D. Entering the mess room in an oily boiler suit to save time

Answer: C — Changing out of dirty working clothes before entering the mess room for meals

Good discipline and etiquette require that crew come to meals in clean clothes, keep the mess room tidy and clear their own utensils. Oily boiler suits carry dirt and chemicals into a space where food is served.

5. A seafarer calling at tropical ports can best protect himself against malaria by

A. Drinking only bottled water
B. Washing hands frequently
C. Avoiding contact with stray dogs
D. Taking prescribed anti-malarial medicine and avoiding mosquito bites with nets, repellents and covering clothing

Answer: D — Taking prescribed anti-malarial medicine and avoiding mosquito bites with nets, repellents and covering clothing

Malaria is spread by the bite of infected mosquitoes. Prevention consists of prescribed anti-malarial prophylaxis together with measures that prevent bites, such as mosquito nets, screens, repellents and clothing covering arms and legs.

6. When working for long periods in a hot engine room or on deck in the tropics, a rating should prevent heat exhaustion by

A. Avoiding drinking water until the work is finished
B. Drinking water regularly and taking rest breaks in a cool place
C. Working faster to finish the job quickly
D. Drinking alcohol after the work to cool down

Answer: B — Drinking water regularly and taking rest breaks in a cool place

In hot conditions the body loses large amounts of water and salt through sweat. Regular drinking of water and breaks in a cool area prevent dehydration and heat exhaustion; alcohol increases dehydration.

7. To prevent fungal infection of the feet (athlete's foot), a seafarer should

A. Wear the same socks for several days
B. Walk barefoot in shower rooms
C. Keep the feet clean and dry and change socks daily
D. Keep wet safety shoes on after work

Answer: C — Keep the feet clean and dry and change socks daily

Fungal infections grow in warm, damp conditions. Washing and drying the feet well, especially between the toes, and wearing clean dry socks every day are basic personal hygiene habits that prevent it.

8. Under STCW, the maximum blood alcohol content permitted for a seafarer performing designated safety, security and marine environmental duties is

A. 0.08%
B. 0.50%
C. 0.10%
D. 0.05%

Answer: D — 0.05%

STCW Section A-VIII/1 requires Administrations to set a limit of not greater than 0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC) or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in breath for masters, officers and other seafarers performing safety, security and marine environmental duties.

9. In the IMO SMCP, which message marker is used to inform others about the immediate navigational action that the sender is going to take?

A. QUESTION
B. INTENTION
C. ADVICE
D. REQUEST

Answer: B — INTENTION

The SMCP message marker INTENTION is used to inform others about immediate navigational actions intended to be taken by the sender, for example 'INTENTION. I will reduce my speed.'

10. Which SMCP message marker is used to inform others about a danger?

A. INTENTION
B. INFORMATION
C. ANSWER
D. WARNING

Answer: D — WARNING

The marker WARNING indicates that the message informs other traffic participants about dangers, for example 'WARNING. Obstruction in the fairway.' It tells the listener that the information concerns safety.

11. In the SMCP, the message marker INFORMATION is used for messages that are

A. Questions about the intentions of another ship
B. Requests for assistance
C. Restricted to observed facts, situations and the like
D. Orders the receiver must obey

Answer: C — Restricted to observed facts, situations and the like

According to the IMO SMCP, INFORMATION indicates that the following message is restricted to observed facts, situations etc., for example 'INFORMATION. MV Noname is overtaking you on your starboard side.'

12. Which SMCP message marker indicates that the sender wishes to persuade the recipient to take an action, but the decision remains with the recipient?

A. INSTRUCTION
B. ANSWER
C. ADVICE
D. WARNING

Answer: C — ADVICE

ADVICE implies the intention of the sender to influence the recipient by a recommendation; the recipient need not follow it. INSTRUCTION, in contrast, is used when the sender, such as a VTS station, has the authority to require the action.

13. An SMCP message preceded by the marker INSTRUCTION, for example from a VTS station, means that

A. The recipient may ignore the message
B. The message is for information only
C. The sender is only asking a question
D. The sender has the authority to make the recipient carry out the action

Answer: D — The sender has the authority to make the recipient carry out the action

The SMCP marker INSTRUCTION indicates that the sender, for example a VTS station or naval vessel, intends to make the recipient do something based on regulations or authority. It is therefore stronger than ADVICE.

14. The spoken signal used on VHF to indicate an urgency message, such as a man overboard or medical assistance, is

A. PAN-PAN, spoken three times
B. MAYDAY, spoken three times
C. SECURITE, spoken three times
D. SEELONCE, spoken three times

Answer: A — PAN-PAN, spoken three times

PAN-PAN repeated three times is the urgency signal, used when the safety of a ship or person is at risk but there is no grave and imminent danger. MAYDAY is for distress and SECURITE for safety messages.

15. The spoken signal SECURITE, repeated three times at the beginning of a VHF message, indicates

A. A safety message, such as a navigational or weather warning
B. The end of a communication
C. A distress message
D. An urgency message

Answer: A — A safety message, such as a navigational or weather warning

SECURITE (pronounced say-cure-e-tay) announces a safety message, for example an important navigational or meteorological warning. Distress uses MAYDAY and urgency uses PAN-PAN.

16. If a mistake is made while transmitting a message, the SMCP procedure is to say

A. "Out" and repeat the whole call later
B. "Mistake" followed by "Correction" and then the correct version
C. "Sorry" and start a new message on another channel
D. "Over" and wait for the other station

Answer: B — "Mistake" followed by "Correction" and then the correct version

The SMCP procedure for errors is to say 'Mistake', followed by the word 'Correction' plus the corrected part of the message, for example 'My present speed is 14 knots - mistake. Correction, my present speed is 12 knots.'

17. When radio procedure and the SMCP are used, the figure 9 is spoken as

A. NAINE
B. NINER
C. NOVEM
D. NINE

Answer: B — NINER

In the radiotelephone spelling of numbers used with the SMCP, 9 is pronounced NINER to avoid confusion with the German 'nein'. Similarly 3 is spoken TREE and 5 is spoken FIFE.

18. According to the SMCP, courses and bearings are always expressed

A. As 'left' and 'right' of the ship's head
B. In compass points only
C. In the 180 degree notation east or west
D. In the 360 degree notation, spoken as three separate figures

Answer: D — In the 360 degree notation, spoken as three separate figures

SMCP requires courses and bearings in the 360 degree notation from north, spoken digit by digit as three figures, for example 'zero-four-five degrees'. This avoids misunderstanding between ships of different nationalities.

19. In the SMCP, times are expressed

A. In the 24-hour notation, stating whether UTC, zone time or local time is used
B. Only in ship's time without any indication
C. In the 12-hour notation with a.m. and p.m.
D. In minutes after midnight

Answer: A — In the 24-hour notation, stating whether UTC, zone time or local time is used

SMCP standard phrases require times in the 24-hour notation, indicating whether UTC, zone time or local shore time is being used. This avoids the ambiguity of a.m. and p.m. in radio communication.

20. On VHF radiotelephone, the phrase used to ask the other station to repeat its last message is

A. Roger
B. Say again
C. Wilco
D. Over

Answer: B — Say again

'Say again' is the standard phrase to request repetition of a message or part of it. 'Over' ends a transmission when a reply is expected, and 'Roger' only confirms that the message was received.

21. In radio communication, the procedure word 'OUT' means

A. Change to another channel
B. Please reply now
C. Repeat your last message
D. The communication is ended and no reply is expected

Answer: D — The communication is ended and no reply is expected

'OUT' is used at the end of an exchange to show that the communication is finished and no reply is expected. 'OVER' is used at the end of a transmission when a response is expected; the two are never used together.

22. The IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) were adopted by IMO Assembly resolution

A. MSC.1/Circ.1182
B. A.918(22)
C. A.893(21)
D. A.1047(27)

Answer: B — A.918(22)

The IMO SMCP were adopted in 2001 by Assembly resolution A.918(22). They replaced the earlier Standard Marine Navigational Vocabulary and are the basis of Maritime English training referred to in IMO Model Course 3.17.

23. A blue circular safety sign on board, such as one showing a person wearing goggles, means

A. Warning of a hazard
B. A mandatory action that must be carried out
C. A prohibited action
D. Location of an escape route

Answer: B — A mandatory action that must be carried out

Under the safety sign colour system (ISO 7010) blue circular signs are mandatory signs, for example 'wear eye protection'. Red circles with a bar are prohibitions, yellow triangles warnings and green signs safe conditions.

24. A green rectangular safety sign showing a running man and an arrow indicates

A. A first aid prohibition
B. A fire extinguisher location
C. A no-entry area
D. An emergency escape route or exit

Answer: D — An emergency escape route or exit

Green rectangular or square signs are safe condition signs, such as escape routes, emergency exits and first aid. Reading and understanding such safety instructions is part of the Maritime English syllabus.

25. A yellow triangular sign with a black border on a door or equipment means

A. Warning of a hazard such as high voltage or a hot surface
B. An instruction that must be obeyed
C. Safe condition or emergency exit
D. Location of fire-fighting equipment

Answer: A — Warning of a hazard such as high voltage or a hot surface

Yellow triangular signs with black border and symbol are warning signs indicating a hazard, for example electricity, hot surfaces or toxic material. They advise caution rather than prohibit or command an action.

26. The 'monkey island' on a merchant ship is

A. The open deck above the wheelhouse, where the standard magnetic compass is usually fitted
B. The small platform at the top of the foremast
C. The store room under the forecastle
D. The deck at the stern used for mooring

Answer: A — The open deck above the wheelhouse, where the standard magnetic compass is usually fitted

The monkey island is the uppermost deck on top of the wheelhouse. It normally carries the standard magnetic compass, radar scanners, flag mast and halyards, and sometimes the whistle, as listed in the GP rating syllabus 1.7.7.

27. The bulwark of a ship is

A. The plating forming the bottom of the ship
B. The watertight wall between two cargo holds
C. A raised platform at the bow for the anchor windlass
D. The steel plating along the ship's side above the weather deck that protects persons and deck cargo from the sea

Answer: D — The steel plating along the ship's side above the weather deck that protects persons and deck cargo from the sea

Bulwarks are the steel plating fitted along the side of the ship above the weather deck edge. They protect crew and deck fittings from the sea and prevent persons and objects falling overboard.

28. Freeing ports are fitted in the bulwarks to

A. Allow mooring ropes to pass through
B. Allow water shipped on deck to drain quickly overboard
C. Provide ventilation to cargo holds
D. Allow the anchor cable to run out

Answer: B — Allow water shipped on deck to drain quickly overboard

Freeing ports are openings at the bottom of bulwarks that let large quantities of water shipped on deck in heavy weather run overboard quickly. Trapped water on deck is dangerous because it adds weight high up and reduces stability.

29. The bulbous bow symbol painted on the hull near the stem is meant to

A. Mark the location of the forepeak tank air pipe
B. Show the maximum permitted draft forward
C. Indicate the position of the collision bulkhead
D. Warn tugs and small craft of the underwater bulbous bow projecting forward

Answer: D — Warn tugs and small craft of the underwater bulbous bow projecting forward

The bulbous bow mark warns tugs, pilot boats and other craft that a bulb projects forward below the waterline and could damage them if they approach too close. It is one of the hull markings listed in syllabus 1.7.1.

30. The bow thruster mark painted on the ship's side shows

A. The position of the bow thruster tunnel, which tugs and boats must keep clear of
B. The position of the anchor when stowed
C. The point where the pilot ladder must be rigged
D. The highest point of the load line

Answer: A — The position of the bow thruster tunnel, which tugs and boats must keep clear of

The bow thruster symbol warns tugs and small boats of the thruster tunnel below the waterline. Strong water currents from a running thruster can draw in or push away a boat, so craft must keep clear.

Set 17 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. The 'tank top' in a cargo ship is

A. The highest deck of the accommodation
B. The top of the cargo hatch coaming
C. The plating that forms the top of the double bottom tanks and the floor of the cargo hold
D. The cover of a tanker's cargo tank dome

Answer: C — The plating that forms the top of the double bottom tanks and the floor of the cargo hold

The tank top is the inner bottom plating that forms the roof of the double bottom tanks; it is also the floor of the cargo hold on which cargo is stowed. It is listed with tween decks and hold bilges in syllabus 1.7.8.

2. A 'tween deck' in a general cargo ship is

A. The deck between two masts
B. A deck used only for lifeboats
C. An intermediate deck below the main deck that divides a cargo hold into upper and lower spaces
D. The space between the double bottom and the keel

Answer: C — An intermediate deck below the main deck that divides a cargo hold into upper and lower spaces

A tween deck is a deck between the main (upper) deck and the tank top. It divides the hold into upper and lower compartments so that different cargoes can be stowed without crushing each other.

3. The forepeak tank is located

A. Directly below the engine room
B. At the stern, below the steering flat
C. Forward of the collision bulkhead, at the extreme fore end of the ship
D. Between No. 1 and No. 2 cargo holds

Answer: C — Forward of the collision bulkhead, at the extreme fore end of the ship

The forepeak is the compartment at the extreme fore end of the ship forward of the collision bulkhead. It is normally used as a ballast tank, which helps adjust the trim of the vessel.

4. The steering flat of a ship is

A. The platform on the bridge where the helmsman stands
B. The engine control room
C. The compartment at the after end, above the rudder, that houses the steering gear
D. The flat deck area on the forecastle

Answer: C — The compartment at the after end, above the rudder, that houses the steering gear

The steering flat is the compartment right aft, above the rudder stock, where the steering gear is located. Emergency steering from the steering flat is practised in drills, as required by SOLAS.

5. On a ship's load line mark, the letters 'TF' indicate the load line for

A. Tropical Fresh water
B. Total Freeboard
C. Timber Freeboard
D. Temperate Fresh water

Answer: A — Tropical Fresh water

The load line mark includes lines marked S (Summer), W (Winter), T (Tropical), F (Fresh water) and TF (Tropical Fresh water), plus WNA for some ships. TF is the deepest permitted line because fresh water gives less buoyancy and tropical weather is favourable.

6. In metric draft marks painted on the hull, each figure is 10 cm high and the draft is read

A. At the middle of the figure
B. At the top edge of the figure
C. Only from the draft gauge in the cargo control room
D. At the lower edge of the figure when the water touches it

Answer: D — At the lower edge of the figure when the water touches it

Metric draft figures are 10 cm high and spaced 10 cm apart, and the draft indicated by a figure is at its lower edge. Readings between figures are estimated from the water level against the marks.

7. The clear-view screen fitted in a bridge window is

A. A rapidly rotating glass disc that throws off rain and spray to give a clear view ahead
B. A screen that displays the radar picture
C. A curtain used to darken the bridge at night
D. A protective plate fitted in heavy weather

Answer: A — A rapidly rotating glass disc that throws off rain and spray to give a clear view ahead

A clear-view screen is a circular glass panel in a bridge window that spins at high speed, throwing off rain, spray and snow by centrifugal force so that the lookout and OOW can see clearly ahead.

8. In the usual sea watch system, the Chief Officer keeps the bridge watch from

A. 0400 to 0800 and 1600 to 2000
B. 0800 to 1200 and 2000 to 2400
C. 0600 to 1200 and 1800 to 2400
D. 0000 to 0400 and 1200 to 1600

Answer: A — 0400 to 0800 and 1600 to 2000

In the traditional four-hour watch system the Chief Officer keeps the 4-to-8 watches (0400-0800 and 1600-2000), the Second Officer the 12-to-4 and the Third Officer the 8-to-12, as described in syllabus 2.1.2.

9. In the usual sea watch system, the Second Officer keeps the bridge watch from

A. 0000 to 0400 and 1200 to 1600
B. 0800 to 1200 and 2000 to 2400
C. 0400 to 0800 and 1600 to 2000
D. 0200 to 0600 and 1400 to 1800

Answer: A — 0000 to 0400 and 1200 to 1600

The Second Officer keeps the 12-to-4 watches, that is 0000-0400 and 1200-1600. A deck rating assigned to that watch keeps lookout and steers during the same hours.

10. Before taking over the lookout at night, the relieving lookout must

A. Take over immediately on reaching the bridge
B. Look at the radar screen for some time
C. Allow his eyes to fully adjust to the darkness
D. Switch on the bridge lights to read the log

Answer: C — Allow his eyes to fully adjust to the darkness

At night the relieving lookout must get his 'night eyes' by allowing time for his eyes to adapt to darkness before taking over. Until then he cannot see dim lights properly and would not be an effective lookout.

11. If the ship is altering course or taking action to avoid a collision at the time of change of watch, the watch should

A. Be handed over to the helmsman
B. Be handed over by telephone
C. Not be handed over until the action has been completed
D. Be handed over immediately

Answer: C — Not be handed over until the action has been completed

As stated in the syllabus and STCW watchkeeping principles, the watch is never handed over while the ship is altering course or taking avoiding action. The relieved person continues until the manoeuvre is complete.

12. A lookout reporting a ship 'on the port beam' means that the ship is

A. Right astern
B. Four points on the port bow
C. At right angles (90 degrees) to the ship's head on the port side
D. Right ahead

Answer: C — At right angles (90 degrees) to the ship's head on the port side

The beam is the direction at right angles to the fore-and-aft line, so 'on the port beam' means 90 degrees from the bow on the port side. Lookouts report sightings relative to the ship's head in points or degrees.

13. At night, when the lookout sights a light, he should report to the OOW

A. Its colour and its relative direction from the ship's head
B. The name of the ship showing the light
C. The distance in nautical miles exactly
D. Only that a light is seen

Answer: A — Its colour and its relative direction from the ship's head

The syllabus states that by night the lookout reports all lights with their colour and relative direction, for example 'A red light two points on the port bow, Sir'. Colour helps the OOW judge the other vessel's aspect.

14. Under a bridge watch Level 3 condition, such as restricted visibility with heavy traffic, the bridge team normally consists of

A. One OOW alone
B. One OOW and one deck rating on auto pilot
C. The Chief Engineer and one deck rating
D. The Master in command, the OOW and two deck ratings, with hand steering

Answer: D — The Master in command, the OOW and two deck ratings, with hand steering

Syllabus 2.1.2 describes Level 3 (restricted visibility, high traffic density or restricted area) as Master commanding on the bridge with one or two OOWs and two deck ratings, one assisting with lookout, and the ship on hand steering.

15. Under a bridge watch Level 1 condition, such as open sea in good visibility with little traffic, the watch normally consists of

A. One OOW and one deck rating, with the ship on auto pilot
B. The Master, two OOWs and two deck ratings
C. One OOW and two ratings with hand steering
D. Only the helmsman

Answer: A — One OOW and one deck rating, with the ship on auto pilot

Level 1 is good visibility, ocean or coastal navigation with low traffic density. The watch then consists of one OOW and one deck rating forming part of the watch, and the ship is usually on auto pilot.

16. Under STCW, a helmsman while steering

A. Can leave the wheel to keep lookout on the bridge wing
B. Shall not be considered to be the lookout, except in small ships with an unobstructed all-round view
C. Can act as lookout only at night
D. Is always the lookout

Answer: B — Shall not be considered to be the lookout, except in small ships with an unobstructed all-round view

STCW Section A-VIII/2 states that the duties of lookout and helmsperson are separate, and the helmsperson shall not be considered the lookout while steering, except in small ships where an unobstructed all-round view is available and night vision is not impaired.

17. Under STCW, a watchkeeping seafarer must be given a minimum rest of

A. 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period
B. 8 hours in any 24-hour period and 56 hours in any 7-day period
C. 6 hours in any 24-hour period and 70 hours in any 7-day period
D. 12 hours in any 24-hour period and 84 hours in any 7-day period

Answer: A — 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period

STCW Section A-VIII/1, consistent with MLC 2006, requires a minimum of 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any 7-day period for watchkeepers and those with safety, security and pollution-prevention duties.

18. Under STCW rest-hour rules, the hours of rest in any 24-hour period may be divided into no more than two periods, one of which shall be at least

A. 6 hours long
B. 8 hours long
C. 4 hours long
D. 2 hours long

Answer: A — 6 hours long

STCW Section A-VIII/1 allows rest to be divided into no more than two periods, one of which must be at least 6 hours, and the interval between consecutive periods of rest shall not exceed 14 hours.

19. A rating keeping gangway watch in port must

A. Keep the gangway raised at all times
B. Leave the gangway whenever cargo work stops
C. Allow anyone in uniform to board without checks
D. Check the identity and purpose of every visitor and record their boarding and leaving in the gangway log

Answer: D — Check the identity and purpose of every visitor and record their boarding and leaving in the gangway log

Under the ISPS Code and the ship security plan, the gangway watch controls access to the ship: verifying identification and reason for visit, issuing visitor passes and logging boarding and departure. Syllabus 6.3.17 covers these duties.

20. A north cardinal mark in the IALA system has a topmark of

A. Two black cones pointing downward
B. Two black spheres
C. A single yellow X
D. Two black cones, one above the other, both pointing upward

Answer: D — Two black cones, one above the other, both pointing upward

A north cardinal mark has two black cones pointing upward (points up), is black over yellow, and indicates that the safest navigable water lies to the north of the mark.

21. An IALA isolated danger mark is

A. Yellow with a yellow X topmark
B. Black with one or more broad red horizontal bands, with a topmark of two black spheres
C. Green with a green cone topmark
D. Red and white vertical stripes with a single red sphere

Answer: B — Black with one or more broad red horizontal bands, with a topmark of two black spheres

An isolated danger mark is erected on a danger of limited extent with navigable water all around. It is black with red horizontal bands and carries two black spheres; its light is white, flashing in groups of two.

22. An IALA safe water mark is coloured

A. Black with red horizontal bands
B. Yellow all over
C. Black and yellow horizontal bands
D. Red and white vertical stripes, with a single red sphere topmark

Answer: D — Red and white vertical stripes, with a single red sphere topmark

A safe water mark has red and white vertical stripes and a single red sphere topmark. It shows that there is navigable water all round, and is often used as a landfall or mid-channel mark.

23. An IALA special mark, used for example to mark a spoil ground or cable area, is

A. Red, with a red can topmark
B. Green, with a green cone topmark
C. Black and yellow, with two cones
D. Yellow, with a yellow X-shaped topmark

Answer: D — Yellow, with a yellow X-shaped topmark

Special marks are yellow and, if a topmark is fitted, it is a single yellow X. They are not mainly aids to navigation but indicate special areas such as spoil grounds, cables, pipelines or exercise areas.

24. In IALA Region B (for example the Americas, Japan and the Philippines), a vessel entering harbour from seaward will see the port hand lateral marks coloured

A. Yellow
B. Black
C. Red
D. Green

Answer: D — Green

In IALA Region B the lateral colours are reversed compared with Region A: port hand marks are green and starboard hand marks are red when following the conventional direction of buoyage from seaward.

25. A vessel not under command (NUC), when not making way, shows at night

A. Red over white all-round lights
B. Three all-round red lights in a vertical line
C. Two all-round green lights in a vertical line
D. Two all-round red lights in a vertical line

Answer: D — Two all-round red lights in a vertical line

COLREG Rule 27 requires a vessel not under command to exhibit two all-round red lights in a vertical line where best seen; when making way she also shows sidelights and a sternlight. By day she shows two black balls.

26. By day, a vessel aground exhibits

A. Three balls in a vertical line
B. A cylinder
C. Two balls in a vertical line
D. One ball forward

Answer: A — Three balls in a vertical line

COLREG Rule 30 requires a vessel aground to show, by day, three balls in a vertical line; at night she shows the anchor lights plus two all-round red lights in a vertical line.

27. Under COLREG Rule 13, a vessel is deemed to be overtaking when coming up with another vessel from a direction more than

A. 22.5 degrees abaft her beam
B. 45 degrees abaft her beam
C. 90 degrees abaft her beam
D. 10 degrees forward of her beam

Answer: A — 22.5 degrees abaft her beam

Rule 13 defines an overtaking vessel as one coming up from more than 22.5 degrees abaft the other vessel's beam, so that at night she would see only the sternlight and neither sidelight. The overtaking vessel must keep out of the way.

28. How many points are there on a mariner's compass card?

A. 16
B. 64
C. 32
D. 360

Answer: C — 32

The compass card is divided into 32 points: 4 cardinal, 4 intercardinal, 8 three-letter points and 16 by-points. Naming them in order is called boxing the compass, as listed in the GP rating syllabus 2.3.1.

29. One point of the compass is equal to

A. 11.25 degrees
B. 22.5 degrees
C. 10 degrees
D. 15 degrees

Answer: A — 11.25 degrees

Since 360 degrees are divided into 32 points, one point equals 11.25 degrees. Lookouts report objects in points on the bow or quarter, so ratings must convert points to degrees and vice versa.

30. The intercardinal point South-West (SW) corresponds to a direction of

A. 315 degrees
B. 225 degrees
C. 135 degrees
D. 202.5 degrees

Answer: B — 225 degrees

South is 180 degrees and West is 270 degrees; South-West lies midway between them at 225 degrees in the 360-degree notation used for courses and bearings.

Set 18 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. The three-letter point NNE lies at

A. 011.25 degrees
B. 067.5 degrees
C. 022.5 degrees
D. 045 degrees

Answer: C — 022.5 degrees

North-North-East lies midway between North (000) and North-East (045), that is 22.5 degrees. Three-letter points lie halfway between a cardinal and an intercardinal point.

2. 'Boxing the compass' means

A. Covering the compass when not in use
B. Naming all 32 points of the compass in order
C. Fitting the compass into its binnacle
D. Correcting the compass for deviation

Answer: B — Naming all 32 points of the compass in order

Boxing the compass is reciting the 32 points in correct order, clockwise from North. It is a required skill for steering ratings under syllabus 2.3.1 so they can understand and report directions.

3. The gyro compass reads 120 degrees and the gyro error is 2 degrees low. The true heading is

A. 120 degrees
B. 118 degrees
C. 124 degrees
D. 122 degrees

Answer: D — 122 degrees

When the gyro error is low the gyro reads less than the true value, so the error is added: 120 + 2 = 122 degrees true. Applying gyro error is listed in the syllabus under 2.3.1.

4. In case of total electrical power failure on the bridge, the compass that continues to show the ship's heading is the

A. Gyro repeater on the bridge wing
B. Magnetic compass
C. Gyro repeater at the steering position
D. Gyro compass

Answer: B — Magnetic compass

The gyro compass and its repeaters need electrical power, whereas the magnetic compass is directed by the earth's magnetism and needs no electricity. That is why every ship also carries a magnetic compass.

5. Gyro repeaters are normally fitted at the

A. Forecastle and poop deck
B. Steering position and on the bridge wings
C. Chart table only
D. Engine control room only

Answer: B — Steering position and on the bridge wings

Repeaters show the master gyro heading at places where it is needed: at the steering position for the helmsman and on the bridge wings for taking bearings, as stated in the syllabus 2.3.1.

6. The helm order 'Midships' means

A. Put the rudder to the fore-and-aft position, zero rudder angle
B. Steer the ship towards the middle of the channel
C. Reduce the rudder angle to five degrees
D. Steady the ship on her present heading

Answer: A — Put the rudder to the fore-and-aft position, zero rudder angle

Under the SMCP, 'Midships' means the rudder is to be held in the fore-and-aft (zero) position. The helmsman repeats the order and reports 'Wheel midships' once the rudder indicator shows zero.

7. The helm order 'Steady as she goes' means the helmsman must

A. Put the wheel hard over and hold it
B. Steer the compass heading the ship has at the moment the order is given
C. Hand over the wheel to the relieving helmsman
D. Return to the course steered at the start of the watch

Answer: B — Steer the compass heading the ship has at the moment the order is given

'Steady as she goes' requires the helmsman to note the heading at the time of the order and steer that heading, reporting it back to the officer, for example 'Steady on 076'.

8. The helm order 'Nothing to port' means

A. Do not use any port rudder at all
B. Do not allow the ship's head to go to port of the ordered course
C. Ease the rudder to midships from port
D. Put the rudder hard to port

Answer: B — Do not allow the ship's head to go to port of the ordered course

According to the SMCP wheel orders, 'Nothing to port' means avoid any heading to port of the ordered course, for example when there is danger on that side. It is one of the orders listed in syllabus 2.3.2.

9. On receiving the helm order 'Starboard ten', the correct action by the helmsman is to

A. Alter the ship's course by 10 degrees to starboard
B. Repeat the order and wait for confirmation before moving the wheel
C. Repeat the order, apply 10 degrees of starboard rudder and report 'Wheel starboard ten'
D. Apply 10 degrees of starboard rudder without replying

Answer: C — Repeat the order, apply 10 degrees of starboard rudder and report 'Wheel starboard ten'

Helm orders must be repeated, carried out and confirmed. The helmsman repeats the order, applies the stated rudder angle and reports when the rudder indicator shows it, so the officer knows it has been executed.

10. The helm order 'Hard-a-starboard' means

A. Alter course to starboard slowly
B. Hold the wheel firmly in the midships position
C. Put the rudder fully over to starboard
D. Apply 20 degrees of starboard rudder

Answer: C — Put the rudder fully over to starboard

'Hard-a-starboard' means the rudder is to be put to the maximum angle to starboard allowed by the steering gear. It is used for large, quick alterations such as emergency collision avoidance or man overboard.

11. When steering by follow-up (FU) hand steering, the rudder

A. Keeps moving as long as the lever is held over
B. Moves to the angle set on the wheel and stops there
C. Is moved directly by mechanical rods from the wheel
D. Is controlled automatically by the gyro compass

Answer: B — Moves to the angle set on the wheel and stops there

In follow-up mode the rudder follows the wheel: when the wheel is set to a given angle, the rudder moves to that angle and stops. This differs from non-follow-up steering, where the rudder moves only while the control is held.

12. When steering in non-follow-up (NFU) mode, the rudder

A. Is controlled by the autopilot
B. Follows the angle set on the steering wheel
C. Returns to midships automatically when the control is released
D. Moves only while the tiller or button is held and stays where it is when released

Answer: D — Moves only while the tiller or button is held and stays where it is when released

NFU steering acts like a direct on-off control of the steering gear. The rudder moves while the control is held and stops at that angle when released, so the helmsman must watch the rudder angle indicator closely.

13. Under SOLAS Chapter V, the change-over from automatic to manual steering and vice versa shall be made

A. Only by the electrical officer
B. Only by the master
C. By, or under the supervision of, a responsible officer
D. By the helmsman on his own decision

Answer: C — By, or under the supervision of, a responsible officer

SOLAS regulation V/24 requires that change-over between automatic and manual steering is made by, or under the supervision of, a responsible officer, usually the OOW. A rating carries it out only on the officer's order.

14. Under SOLAS Chapter V, the ship's steering gear shall be checked and tested by the ship's crew before departure within

A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 6 hours

Answer: A — 12 hours

SOLAS regulation V/26 requires checks and tests of the steering gear within 12 hours before departure, including the main and auxiliary steering gear, remote control systems and rudder angle indicator response.

15. Under SOLAS Chapter V, emergency steering drills are to be carried out at least once every

A. Month
B. Year
C. Three months
D. Six months

Answer: C — Three months

SOLAS regulation V/26 requires emergency steering drills at least once every three months, including direct control from the steering gear compartment and the communication procedure with the bridge.

16. The echo sounder on the bridge measures the

A. Distance to other ships
B. Speed of the ship through the water
C. Height of the tide
D. Depth of water below the ship's transducer

Answer: D — Depth of water below the ship's transducer

The echo sounder transmits a sound pulse downward from a transducer in the hull and measures the time taken for the echo to return from the seabed, which is converted into the depth below the ship.

17. An electromagnetic log measures the ship's

A. Depth of water
B. Speed through the water
C. Heading
D. Speed over the ground

Answer: B — Speed through the water

The electromagnetic log senses the voltage induced by water flowing past a sensor in a magnetic field, which is proportional to the ship's speed through the water. A Doppler log in bottom-track mode can give speed over the ground.

18. Marine radar determines the range of a target by

A. Measuring the brightness of the target's lights
B. Measuring the time taken for a transmitted radio pulse to return as an echo
C. Receiving the target ship's AIS signal
D. Using satellite positions

Answer: B — Measuring the time taken for a transmitted radio pulse to return as an echo

Radar transmits short radio pulses through a rotating scanner; the time between transmission and the return of the echo gives the range, and the scanner direction gives the bearing of the target.

19. Which of the following is NOT a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)?

A. LORAN-C
B. GPS
C. GLONASS
D. Galileo

Answer: A — LORAN-C

GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia) and Galileo (European Union) are satellite navigation systems. LORAN-C was a shore-based low-frequency radio navigation system and does not use satellites.

20. The geodetic datum used by GPS for position fixing is

A. ED 50
B. Tokyo Datum
C. OSGB 36
D. WGS 84

Answer: D — WGS 84

GPS positions are referred to the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS 84). The syllabus requires trainees to know this, because a chart on a different datum needs a correction before GPS positions are plotted.

21. The main purpose of the Automatic Identification System (AIS) is to

A. Record bridge conversations for accident investigation
B. Automatically exchange ship identity, position, course and speed with other ships and shore stations
C. Alert the OOW if he falls asleep
D. Measure the ship's speed through water

Answer: B — Automatically exchange ship identity, position, course and speed with other ships and shore stations

AIS enhances safety, security and environmental protection by automatically exchanging identity and voyage data between ships and with shore stations, helping to identify and track vessels and improving the watchkeeper's situational awareness.

22. The Voyage Data Recorder (VDR) is fitted on ships mainly to

A. Transmit the ship's position to the flag State every six hours
B. Record the crew's working and rest hours
C. Store data such as bridge audio, VHF communications, position and radar images for investigation after an accident
D. Display electronic charts

Answer: C — Store data such as bridge audio, VHF communications, position and radar images for investigation after an accident

The VDR, like an aircraft 'black box', securely stores key data from before and during an incident so that investigators can reconstruct events. A simplified version (S-VDR) is fitted on some existing cargo ships.

23. The Bridge Navigational Watch Alarm System (BNWAS) is designed to

A. Give warning of approaching ships
B. Warn of shallow water ahead
C. Raise an alarm if the officer on watch does not reset it within a set time, indicating he may be incapacitated
D. Detect fire on the bridge

Answer: C — Raise an alarm if the officer on watch does not reset it within a set time, indicating he may be incapacitated

BNWAS monitors bridge activity. If the OOW does not acknowledge it within the set period, alarms are raised first on the bridge and then to the master or back-up officer, guarding against a sleeping or incapacitated watchkeeper.

24. Under the LRIT system, ships automatically transmit their position to the flag Administration

A. Every hour
B. Four times a day, every 6 hours
C. Once a day
D. Only when requested by a port

Answer: B — Four times a day, every 6 hours

Long Range Identification and Tracking (SOLAS V/19-1) requires ships on international voyages to transmit identity, position and time automatically at 6-hour intervals, i.e. four times a day, unless more frequent reports are requested.

25. A course recorder on the bridge

A. Records the engine revolutions
B. Plots the ship's position on the chart
C. Continuously records the ship's heading against time
D. Records the conversations on the bridge

Answer: C — Continuously records the ship's heading against time

The course recorder draws a continuous record of the ship's heading against time, taken from the gyro compass. It shows how well the course was steered and when alterations were made.

26. A satellite EPIRB used in GMDSS transmits its distress alert on

A. 2182 kHz
B. 156.8 MHz
C. 9 GHz
D. 406 MHz

Answer: D — 406 MHz

Cospas-Sarsat satellite EPIRBs transmit on 406 MHz, carrying a coded identity of the ship, and usually a GNSS position, to rescue coordination centres. 156.8 MHz is VHF channel 16 and 9 GHz is the X-band radar frequency.

27. When a radar SART is activated and interrogated by a ship's X-band radar, it appears on the radar screen as

A. A line of 12 dots extending outward from the SART's position
B. A flashing red light
C. A circle around the own ship
D. A single bright spot

Answer: A — A line of 12 dots extending outward from the SART's position

A radar SART responds to 9 GHz radar pulses with a series of signals that appear as a line of 12 dots outward along its bearing. The dot nearest the own ship marks the survival craft's position.

28. If a ship's EPIRB is accidentally activated, the correct action is to

A. Switch it off and say nothing to avoid a penalty
B. Leave it transmitting until the next port
C. Switch it off and inform the nearest coast station or rescue coordination centre to cancel the false alert
D. Throw it overboard

Answer: C — Switch it off and inform the nearest coast station or rescue coordination centre to cancel the false alert

False alerts waste search and rescue resources. GMDSS procedure is to stop the transmission and immediately notify the RCC or coast station to cancel the alert. The syllabus stresses avoidance of false distress alerts.

29. VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) is used for

A. Routine port operations only
B. Ship-to-ship conversations of any length
C. Digital selective calling only
D. Distress, urgency and safety traffic and for calling

Answer: D — Distress, urgency and safety traffic and for calling

Channel 16 is the international VHF distress, urgency, safety and calling channel and must be kept clear. After establishing contact, routine traffic is moved to a working channel; DSC uses channel 70.

30. Under the IMDG Code, dangerous goods are divided into

A. 7 classes
B. 9 classes
C. 12 classes
D. 5 classes

Answer: B — 9 classes

The IMDG Code, following the UN classification, divides dangerous goods into nine classes, some with divisions, such as explosives, gases, flammable liquids and corrosives. Ratings must recognise the class labels on cargo and stores.

Set 19 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. IMDG Class 3 covers

A. Corrosive substances
B. Radioactive material
C. Flammable liquids
D. Explosives

Answer: C — Flammable liquids

Class 3 of the IMDG Code is flammable liquids, for example paints, thinners and many solvents. Its label is a red diamond with a black or white flame symbol and the figure 3.

2. IMDG Class 8 covers

A. Oxidizing substances
B. Corrosive substances
C. Miscellaneous dangerous substances
D. Toxic substances

Answer: B — Corrosive substances

Class 8 is corrosive substances such as acids and alkalis, which damage skin and metals. The label shows liquid dripping from two test tubes onto a hand and a metal bar, with the lower half black.

3. IMDG Division 4.3 covers substances which

A. In contact with water emit flammable gases
B. Are organic peroxides
C. Are liable to spontaneous combustion
D. Are flammable solids

Answer: A — In contact with water emit flammable gases

Division 4.3 is substances that are dangerous when wet: in contact with water they give off flammable gases. Water must therefore not be used on spillage of these goods. Division 4.2 is spontaneous combustion; 4.1 is flammable solids.

4. Organic peroxides are classified in the IMDG Code under

A. Class 6.1
B. Class 9
C. Division 5.2
D. Division 5.1

Answer: C — Division 5.2

Class 5 has two divisions: 5.1 oxidizing substances and 5.2 organic peroxides. Organic peroxides are thermally unstable and may decompose violently, so many need temperature control during carriage.

5. IMDG Division 6.2 covers

A. Infectious substances
B. Toxic substances
C. Radioactive material
D. Corrosive substances

Answer: A — Infectious substances

Class 6 is divided into 6.1 toxic substances and 6.2 infectious substances, which contain pathogens able to cause disease in humans or animals, such as some medical and clinical wastes.

6. The minimum size of an IMDG Code hazard label on a package is

A. 150 mm x 150 mm
B. 100 mm x 100 mm
C. 250 mm x 250 mm
D. 50 mm x 50 mm

Answer: B — 100 mm x 100 mm

IMDG labels on packages are diamond-shaped with minimum dimensions of 100 mm x 100 mm. Larger placards of at least 250 mm x 250 mm are fixed to cargo transport units such as containers.

7. The minimum size of an IMDG placard displayed on a container carrying dangerous goods is

A. 400 mm x 400 mm
B. 150 mm x 150 mm
C. 100 mm x 100 mm
D. 250 mm x 250 mm

Answer: D — 250 mm x 250 mm

Under the IMDG Code, placards on cargo transport units are enlarged labels of at least 250 mm x 250 mm, displayed on the sides and ends of the unit so the hazard can be seen from a distance.

8. The IMDG marine pollutant mark shows

A. A skull and crossbones
B. A flame on a red background
C. A black and white striped diamond
D. A dead fish and a dead tree in a triangle

Answer: D — A dead fish and a dead tree in a triangle

Dangerous goods that are also marine pollutants must carry the marine pollutant mark, a triangle showing a dead fish and a dead tree, in addition to their class labels. The striped diamond is the Class 9 label.

9. In the event of a fire or spillage involving dangerous goods, the emergency response procedures are found in the

A. Cargo Securing Manual
B. EmS Guide (Emergency Response Procedures for Ships Carrying Dangerous Goods)
C. Garbage Management Plan
D. International Code of Signals

Answer: B — EmS Guide (Emergency Response Procedures for Ships Carrying Dangerous Goods)

The EmS Guide, published as a supplement to the IMDG Code, gives fire and spillage schedules for each dangerous good. The Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG) gives medical advice for people exposed to dangerous goods.

10. Medical treatment of a person affected by a dangerous chemical carried on board is guided by the

A. International Code of Signals
B. Ship's Garbage Record Book
C. EmS Guide fire schedules
D. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)

Answer: D — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)

The MFAG, a supplement to the IMDG Code, gives first aid and medical treatment advice for chemical poisoning and injury from dangerous goods, and is used with the ship's medical guide and radio medical advice.

11. While stores are being lifted on board by crane, a rating must

A. Stand under the load to guide it down
B. Ride on the load to land it quickly
C. Hold the load with his hands while it is being hoisted
D. Never stand or pass under the suspended load

Answer: D — Never stand or pass under the suspended load

No person should stand, pass or work under a suspended load, because slings or gear can fail. Tag lines are used to control the load from a safe position, as stressed in syllabus 3.2.1.

12. The knot traditionally used to shorten a rope sling without cutting it is the

A. Clove hitch
B. Timber hitch
C. Sheepshank
D. Reef knot

Answer: C — Sheepshank

A sheepshank takes up slack in a rope temporarily without cutting it. The syllabus requires trainees to know the method of shortening a rope sling for handling stores.

13. In the standard crane hand signal for 'Emergency stop', the signaller

A. Points the forefinger downward and moves the hand in small circles
B. Points the forefinger upward and moves the hand in small circles
C. Clenches the fist and holds it at chest level
D. Extends both arms horizontally, palms down, and moves them back and forth

Answer: D — Extends both arms horizontally, palms down, and moves them back and forth

Emergency stop is signalled with both arms held out horizontally, palms down, moving them back and forth. Upward-pointing forefinger with small circles means hoist; downward-pointing means lower.

14. Paints, thinners and other flammable stores on board should be kept in

A. The engine room near the boiler
B. The cabin of the bosun
C. An open area on the poop deck without lashing
D. A well-ventilated paint store with fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from accommodation

Answer: D — A well-ventilated paint store with fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from accommodation

Paints and thinners are flammable liquids giving off flammable vapour. They are stowed in a dedicated paint locker that is ventilated, protected by fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from heat sources, with containers secured against movement.

15. While loading a container of dangerous goods, a rating finds the container seal broken. He should

A. Fit a new seal himself
B. Report it immediately to the OOW
C. Open the container to check the contents
D. Ignore it as the container is already on board

Answer: B — Report it immediately to the OOW

A broken or tampered seal may indicate theft, a security threat or damaged dangerous goods. Under the syllabus and ISPS requirements, the rating reports such findings immediately to the OOW and does not interfere with the container.

16. The bend used to join two ropes of different sizes is the

A. Sheet bend
B. Bowline
C. Reef knot
D. Clove hitch

Answer: A — Sheet bend

A sheet bend securely joins two ropes of unequal size, or a rope to an eye. A reef knot should only join ropes of the same size and may slip if the ropes differ in size.

17. A reef knot is mainly used to

A. Join two ropes of the same size, for example when tying bandages
B. Secure a rope to a spar to take a lengthwise pull
C. Make a permanent eye in a rope
D. Join two ropes of very different sizes

Answer: A — Join two ropes of the same size, for example when tying bandages

The reef knot lies flat and is easy to untie, so it is used for joining two ropes of equal size under light load and for tying bandages in first aid. It is not reliable for joining unequal ropes.

18. The hitch used to make a rope fast quickly to a spar or rail is the

A. Monkey's fist
B. Clove hitch
C. Figure of eight knot
D. Sheepshank

Answer: B — Clove hitch

A clove hitch consists of two half hitches made round a spar, rail or post and is quick to tie and adjust. It may slip under varying load, so it is often finished with extra half hitches.

19. A rolling hitch is used to

A. Make a temporary eye at the end of a rope
B. Join two ropes of equal size
C. Secure a rope to a spar or another rope so that it can take a pull along its length
D. Prevent a rope's end from unlaying

Answer: C — Secure a rope to a spar or another rope so that it can take a pull along its length

A rolling hitch grips a spar or rope and resists slipping when the pull is along the length of the spar or rope, making it useful for taking the strain off another rope temporarily.

20. A round turn and two half hitches is commonly used to

A. Shorten a rope sling
B. Make a rope fast to a ring, post or bollard so that it holds under load
C. Join two ropes of different sizes
D. Make a stopper knot at the end of a rope

Answer: B — Make a rope fast to a ring, post or bollard so that it holds under load

The round turn takes the strain while the two half hitches secure the end, so the rope can be made fast to a ring or bollard even when under load and still be released easily.

21. Where a spliced rope has to pass through a block, the splice that should be used is the

A. Eye splice
B. Long splice
C. Back splice
D. Short splice

Answer: B — Long splice

A short splice increases the diameter of the rope and may jam in a block sheave. A long splice joins two ropes with little increase in diameter, so it can pass through a block.

22. Which synthetic fibre rope floats on water?

A. Polypropylene
B. Manila
C. Polyester
D. Nylon

Answer: A — Polypropylene

Polypropylene is lighter than water and floats, which makes it useful for lifebuoy lines and towing lines. Nylon and polyester are heavier than water and sink.

23. Synthetic fibre ropes should be protected from long exposure to strong sunlight because

A. They absorb water
B. They become heavier
C. They become stiff and impossible to coil
D. Ultraviolet rays weaken the fibres

Answer: D — Ultraviolet rays weaken the fibres

Ultraviolet radiation degrades synthetic fibres, reducing their strength. Synthetic ropes should therefore be covered or stowed under cover when not in use, in a dry, ventilated place.

24. A right-hand laid fibre rope should be coiled down

A. Either way, it does not matter
B. Clockwise
C. In a figure of eight only
D. Anticlockwise

Answer: B — Clockwise

A right-hand laid rope is coiled clockwise, with the lay, to prevent kinks and twists. Coiling it against the lay puts turns into the rope and causes kinking when it runs out.

25. The fibre core of a steel wire rope is mainly provided to

A. Increase the breaking strength of the rope
B. Make the rope float
C. Give flexibility and hold lubricant inside the rope
D. Prevent the rope from stretching

Answer: C — Give flexibility and hold lubricant inside the rope

The fibre heart supports the strands, makes the rope more flexible and holds lubricant that reduces internal wear and corrosion. An independent wire rope core gives greater strength and crush resistance but less flexibility.

26. When bulldog grips are used to make an eye in a wire rope, the U-bolt should be placed on the

A. Dead end with the saddle also on the dead end
B. Dead (short) end and the saddle on the live (standing) part
C. Live part and the saddle on the dead end
D. Eye of the wire only

Answer: B — Dead (short) end and the saddle on the live (standing) part

The saddle grips without damaging the wire, so it goes on the live, load-bearing part, and the U-bolt goes on the dead end. Seamen remember this as 'never saddle a dead horse'.

27. Under SOLAS, a pilot ladder alone may be used only when the climb to the point of access is not less than 1.5 m and not more than

A. 12 m
B. 15 m
C. 9 m
D. 6 m

Answer: C — 9 m

SOLAS regulation V/23 limits the use of a pilot ladder alone to a climb of 1.5 m to 9 m above the water. Where the climb exceeds 9 m, an accommodation ladder used with the pilot ladder (combination arrangement) is required.

28. While rigging a pilot ladder, which equipment must be kept ready at the point of access?

A. A lifebuoy with a self-igniting light and a heaving line
B. A breathing apparatus
C. A fire hose with water running
D. A stretcher and splints

Answer: A — A lifebuoy with a self-igniting light and a heaving line

SOLAS V/23 requires a lifebuoy with a self-igniting light, and a heaving line, kept ready at hand at the pilot boarding position, together with adequate lighting at night so the ladder and pilot can be seen.

29. The side ropes of a pilot ladder must be secured to

A. Strong points on the ship, not to the handrails
B. The lowest spreader of the ladder
C. The accommodation ladder platform
D. The ship's rails using shackles

Answer: A — Strong points on the ship, not to the handrails

The pilot ladder must be secured to strong points, which are strong enough to take the load. Securing it to handrails or other weak fittings has led to fatal accidents when the fittings gave way.

30. A gun tackle consists of two single blocks. When rove to advantage, ignoring friction, its mechanical advantage is

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 3

Answer: D — 3

Mechanical advantage equals the number of parts of rope at the moving block. Rove to advantage, a gun tackle has three parts at the moving block giving 3; rove to disadvantage it has two parts giving 2.

Set 20 — 15 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. A luff tackle is made up of

A. Two treble blocks
B. Two double blocks
C. Two single blocks
D. One double block and one single block

Answer: D — One double block and one single block

A luff tackle uses a double block and a single block. Rove to advantage it gives a mechanical advantage of 4, ignoring friction. A gun tackle uses two single blocks and a double purchase uses two double blocks.

2. Before a rating works aloft near the radar scanner on the mast, the

A. Radar should be set to standby only
B. Radar must be switched off and isolated, with a warning notice posted on the bridge
C. Whistle should be sounded
D. Ship must stop the main engine

Answer: B — Radar must be switched off and isolated, with a warning notice posted on the bridge

A rotating scanner can strike a person and radar emissions are a hazard. Under the working aloft permit, the radar is switched off and isolated, and a warning notice displayed at the set so nobody starts it.

3. A seaman going aloft in a bosun's chair must also

A. Wear a safety harness with a lifeline secured independently of the chair
B. Carry his tools loose in his pockets
C. Rely on the gantline alone
D. Work without anyone on deck watching him

Answer: A — Wear a safety harness with a lifeline secured independently of the chair

COSWP requires a person working aloft in a bosun's chair to wear a safety harness attached to a separate lifeline. Tools are secured with lanyards and a person on deck keeps watch.

4. A capstan differs from a winch in that the capstan's barrel

A. Rotates about a horizontal axis
B. Is used only for anchor cable
C. Has no brake or drive
D. Rotates about a vertical axis

Answer: D — Rotates about a vertical axis

A capstan has a vertical barrel driven from below deck, so ropes can be led to it from any direction. Winches and windlasses have drums or warping ends that rotate about a horizontal shaft.

5. The cable lifter (gypsy) of a windlass is designed to

A. Take the weight of the cable when the ship is at anchor
B. Store the mooring ropes
C. Lead the anchor cable into the chain locker
D. Grip the links of the anchor cable to heave in or pay out the cable

Answer: D — Grip the links of the anchor cable to heave in or pay out the cable

The cable lifter has shaped recesses (snugs) that grip each link of the anchor cable. When it is clutched in, the windlass motor heaves or walks out the cable; the brake holds it when the clutch is out.

6. The cable lifter clutch of a windlass should be engaged or disengaged

A. While the windlass is running at full speed
B. At any time, as the clutch is self-aligning
C. Only when the windlass is stopped
D. While the anchor is running out freely

Answer: C — Only when the windlass is stopped

Engaging or disengaging the clutch while the windlass is turning can damage the dog clutch and cause loss of control of the cable. The windlass is stopped and the brake applied before operating the clutch.

7. Before starting hydraulic deck machinery such as a mooring winch, a rating should first check

A. The level of fresh water in the drinking water tank
B. The ship's draft forward
C. The hydraulic oil level in the tank and that the controls are in neutral
D. The gyro compass error

Answer: C — The hydraulic oil level in the tank and that the controls are in neutral

Low hydraulic oil can damage pumps and cause loss of control, and a control left out of neutral can make the machinery move suddenly on starting. These checks are part of safe operation of deck machinery.

8. A non-return valve in a ship's piping system

A. Is used only to drain the pipe
B. Allows the liquid to flow in one direction only
C. Allows flow in both directions equally
D. Controls the pressure of the system

Answer: B — Allows the liquid to flow in one direction only

A non-return (check) valve opens with flow in the intended direction and closes when the flow reverses. In bilge lines, for example, it prevents sea water or ballast from flowing back into a compartment.

9. A striker plate is fitted at the bottom of a sounding pipe to

A. Prevent damage to the tank bottom plating from the sounding rod or tape weight
B. Measure the temperature of the liquid
C. Stop the tank from overflowing
D. Close the sounding pipe automatically

Answer: A — Prevent damage to the tank bottom plating from the sounding rod or tape weight

Each time a sounding is taken, the sounding rod or weighted tape strikes the bottom of the tank. A doubler or striker plate beneath the pipe protects the shell or tank-top plating from wear.

10. Under MARPOL Annex V, the discharge of plastics, including synthetic ropes and fishing nets, into the sea is

A. Allowed beyond 25 nautical miles from land
B. Allowed if the plastics are shredded
C. Allowed beyond 12 nautical miles from land
D. Prohibited everywhere

Answer: D — Prohibited everywhere

MARPOL Annex V prohibits discharge of all plastics into the sea in all areas, including synthetic ropes, fishing gear and plastic garbage bags. Plastics are kept on board and landed to port reception facilities.

11. MARPOL Annex VI deals with

A. Prevention of pollution by garbage
B. Prevention of air pollution from ships
C. Prevention of pollution by noxious liquid substances in bulk
D. Prevention of pollution by sewage

Answer: B — Prevention of air pollution from ships

Annex VI controls air pollution, including sulphur oxides, nitrogen oxides, ozone-depleting substances and shipboard incineration. Annex IV covers sewage, Annex V garbage and Annex II noxious liquid substances.

12. Since 1 January 2020, the global limit of sulphur content in fuel oil used on board ships outside emission control areas is

A. 3.50% m/m
B. 1.00% m/m
C. 0.50% m/m
D. 0.10% m/m

Answer: C — 0.50% m/m

MARPOL Annex VI regulation 14 set a global sulphur cap of 0.50% m/m from 1 January 2020, reduced from 3.50%. Inside sulphur emission control areas the limit is 0.10% m/m.

13. Under the Ballast Water Management Convention, ballast water exchange to standard D-1 should be done wherever possible at least

A. 12 nautical miles from the nearest land in any depth
B. 3 nautical miles from land in any depth
C. 200 nautical miles from the nearest land in water at least 200 m deep
D. 50 nautical miles from land in water at least 50 m deep

Answer: C — 200 nautical miles from the nearest land in water at least 200 m deep

Regulation B-4 requires exchange at least 200 nm from the nearest land in at least 200 m depth, or if not possible at least 50 nm from land in 200 m depth. The D-1 standard needs 95% volumetric exchange.

14. Under MARPOL Annex V, a ship of 12 m or more in length must display

A. An incinerator on the poop deck
B. A ballast water exchange sign
C. A Garbage Record Book on the gangway
D. Placards notifying the crew and passengers of the garbage disposal requirements

Answer: D — Placards notifying the crew and passengers of the garbage disposal requirements

MARPOL Annex V regulation 10 requires every ship of 12 m or more in length to display placards informing crew and passengers of the garbage discharge requirements, in the working language and in English, French or Spanish where needed.

15. Outside special areas, food waste that has not been comminuted may be discharged from a ship en route only when it is at least

A. 25 nautical miles from the nearest land
B. 3 nautical miles from the nearest land
C. 12 nautical miles from the nearest land
D. 1 nautical mile from the nearest land

Answer: C — 12 nautical miles from the nearest land

MARPOL Annex V permits discharge of food waste outside special areas when the ship is en route and at least 12 nm from land. Comminuted food waste passing a 25 mm screen may be discharged at not less than 3 nm.

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GSK exit exam questions and answers — General Ship Knowledge

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