STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties

All 481 questions from the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. One can ensure structural security by:

A. Sealing off the ship
B. Limiting entry into the ship
C. Locking all doors
D. Limiting Access Points

Answer: D — Limiting Access Points

Structural security is enhanced by physical measures that restrict unauthorized movement. Limiting access points allows the crew to better monitor and control entries, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized boarding or intrusion.

2. The port facility is required to appoint:

A. Port Facility Security Officer
B. Ship Security Officer
C. Company Security Officer
D. Port Facility Security Assessment (PFSA)

Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer

The ISPS Code mandates that every port facility must appoint a Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO). This individual is responsible for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan.

3. The term "security level" refers to:

A. The probability of an attack
B. The degree of risk that a security incident will occur
C. The level of danger
D. The level of casualties

Answer: B — The degree of risk that a security incident will occur

Security levels, ranging from 1 to 3, quantify the risk of a security incident. Level 1 is normal, Level 2 indicates an elevated risk, and Level 3 represents the highest risk when an incident is probable or imminent.

4. Controlling embarkation of persons and their effects is done by:

A. Access control, personal effects, and body searches
B. Visitor control, personal effects, and body searches
C. CCTV control, personal effects, and baggage control
D. Baggage control, personal effects, and body searches

Answer: A — Access control, personal effects, and body searches

Access control is the primary method for maintaining ship security. It involves verifying the identity of personnel and screening their effects, including baggage, to ensure no weapons or dangerous items are brought on board.

5. To prevent a pirate attack, the first line of defense is:

A. Proper lookout
B. Seal all entrances to accommodation
C. Maximize the speed of your vessel
D. Early detection

Answer: D — Early detection

Early detection is the most vital defensive layer in maritime security against piracy. By identifying potential threats from a distance, the crew gains sufficient time to maneuver, increase speed, and initiate other protective measures.

6. IMO introduced the ISPS Code and made it mandatory to enhance security in:

A. July 2004
B. After the 9/11 incident
C. December 2002
D. July 1998

Answer: A — July 2004

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code was adopted by the IMO as a direct response to the heightened global security concerns following the 9/11 incident, becoming mandatory in July 2004.

7. To meet the requirements of the ISPS Code, the most effective and practical methods used by port authorities for surveillance is:

A. Use of security cameras
B. Use of thermal cameras
C. Trained security staff
D. Dedicated task force to bolster security

Answer: A — Use of security cameras

Security cameras (CCTV) are a cost-effective and continuous surveillance method required by the ISPS Code. They allow for monitoring of restricted areas and access points, providing a visual deterrent and an audit trail of activity.

8. Security equipment and systems need not be:

A. Calibrated and tested before every use
B. Included in your pre-maintenance schedule (VMS)
C. Kept under lock and key
D. Tried out during each security drill

Answer: C — Kept under lock and key

ISPS requires security equipment to be tested, calibrated and maintained per the plan and exercised in drills. Keeping it under lock and key is not a requirement. The stem is vague.

9. Ship Security Assessments are the responsibility of:

A. CSO (Company Security Officer)
B. PFSO
C. SSO
D. Designated person

Answer: A — CSO (Company Security Officer)

While the SSO manages security on board, the Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is a complex process required by the Company Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate risks and develop the comprehensive Ship Security Plan (SSP).

10. The use of water spray and foam monitors to deliver jets of water on an attacking skiff is intended to:

A. All of the above
B. Deter the attackers
C. Create a distraction
D. Disable their weapons

Answer: A — All of the above

Water monitors are non-lethal, effective deterrents against pirate skiffs. They are used to create a physical barrier of water, hamper the visibility and maneuverability of the attackers, and protect the vessel's hull from boarding.

11. A security alert should be issued:

A. Only after confirming the threat
B. Immediately upon detection of a security threat
C. When the ship is in territorial waters
D. At the discretion of the Master

Answer: B — Immediately upon detection of a security threat

Prompt action is critical to maritime security. An alert must be issued immediately upon the detection of a threat to activate the ship's security protocols and ensure all crew members are warned and move to safety.

12. The person ultimately responsible for the security of the ship is:

A. The Company Security Officer
B. The Security Officer
C. The Master
D. The Chief Officer

Answer: C — The Master

While security officers handle the technical implementation of security plans, the Master retains the ultimate authority and responsibility for the ship, its cargo, and the safety of all personnel on board.

13. Security drills should be conducted:

A. Quarterly
B. As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
C. Monthly
D. Annually

Answer: B — As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

Security drills and exercises must be conducted at regular intervals as specified in the ship's security plan to ensure the crew is proficient in executing security procedures and responding to different alert levels.

14. A security breach investigation should include:

A. Examination of evidence
B. All of the above
C. Review of security procedures
D. Interviews with witnesses

Answer: B — All of the above

A thorough security investigation is essential to prevent recurrence. It requires a holistic review of what occurred, including interviews for qualitative data, physical evidence, and a critical analysis of current procedures to identify weaknesses.

15. The Designated Security Duties (DSD) officer is responsible for:

A. Investigating security breaches
B. Implementing the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
C. Conducting security drills
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Seafarers assigned Designated Security Duties (DSD) are integral to maintaining ship security. Their responsibilities, as outlined in the ISPS Code and STCW, encompass active implementation of the SSP, conducting security drills, and assisting the SSO in investigating security incidents. Therefore, all listed activities fall within their remit.

16. Corrective actions should be taken when:

A. A security incident occurs
B. A security drill is not conducted as planned
C. A vulnerability in the security system is identified
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Corrective actions are crucial for an effective Ship Security Plan (SSP) and overall maritime security. They are required proactively when vulnerabilities are identified, reactively after a security incident, and when scheduled security drills or exercises are not performed as planned, ensuring continuous improvement and compliance with ISPS Code.

17. Actions which are not necessarily part of an assessment of a security drill include:

A. Debriefing by Master and SSO
B. Disciplinary action against any crew member
C. Written report of the drill
D. Analysis and discussions on takeaways from drills

Answer: B — Disciplinary action against any crew member

The assessment of a security drill, as per the ISPS Code, focuses on evaluating performance, identifying deficiencies, and improving the Ship Security Plan (SSP). It involves debriefing, analysis, and a written report. Disciplinary action is generally not an immediate or necessary part of the drill assessment process itself, which is for learning and improvement.

18. Overt methods to overcome security measures include:

A. Disabling alarms
B. While the guards are sleeping
C. Befriending the crew members
D. Forcefully breaking and entering

Answer: D — Forcefully breaking and entering

Overt methods to overcome security measures are those that are open, observable, and often involve direct confrontation or visible force. Forcefully breaking and entering is a clear example of an overt act, as it directly and visibly challenges physical security barriers. Other options generally describe covert or subtle approaches.

19. The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is accessible to:

A. International Maritime Bureau
B. IMO members
C. Ship owners
D. Contracting governments

Answer: B — IMO members

The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is an IMO platform designed to provide restricted access to various maritime data. Its primary users and those with comprehensive access include IMO member states and related organizations for regulatory and enforcement purposes, supporting the implementation of international conventions.

20. Security measures are not necessarily extended by the contracting governments for:

A. Offshore supply vessels (OSVs)
B. Fishing vessels
C. Naval vessels
D. Passenger and cargo ships in coastal trade

Answer: B — Fishing vessels

The ISPS Code primarily applies to passenger ships, cargo ships over 500 gross tonnage, and mobile offshore drilling units engaged on international voyages. Fishing vessels are generally excluded from the mandatory provisions of the ISPS Code, although some national regulations might impose security measures.

21. To ensure ship's personnel are doing their security duties properly, one must carry out:

A. On-scene security survey
B. Surprise survey
C. Intermediate survey
D. Continuous survey

Answer: B — Surprise survey

To effectively verify that ship's personnel are performing their security duties correctly and consistently, surprise surveys or inspections are often employed. This method provides an unannounced assessment of adherence to the Ship Security Plan (SSP) and ISPS Code procedures, revealing actual operational practices rather than prepared demonstrations.

22. If a suspicious object or package is found on board, the first action should be to:

A. Inform the person of your suspicion
B. Activate radio communication
C. Seize and open the package
D. Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item

Answer: D — Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item

When a suspicious object is found, the immediate priority, as per ship security procedures, is to ensure safety and prevent potential harm. Cordoning off and controlling the area isolates the threat and allows for further assessment by qualified personnel, following the Ship Security Plan (SSP) protocols.

23. The protection of people is called:

A. Physical security
B. Ship security
C. Crew security
D. Human security

Answer: A — Physical security

In the context of security measures like those under the ISPS Code, "physical security" specifically refers to the protection of personnel, assets, and facilities from unauthorized access, damage, or harm. This includes controlling access, surveillance, and protective barriers for people on board, as opposed to broader concepts like human security.

24. Security equipment and systems disallowed for use on board include:

A. Searchlights
B. Razor wire and bar fence wires
C. Locking equipment for all external doors
D. Firearms

Answer: D — Firearms

Under international maritime law and the ISPS Code, commercial vessels are generally prohibited from carrying firearms, except in very specific circumstances with explicit authorization from the Flag State and coastal states. Other items like locks, razor wire (with proper precautions), and searchlights are commonly used security enhancements.

25. The mandatory requirements of the ISPS Code are contained in:

A. Introduction
B. Part A
C. Part B
D. Conference resolutions

Answer: B — Part A

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code is divided into two parts. Part A contains the mandatory requirements, including those for Ship Security Plans (SSP) and Port Facility Security Plans (PFSP). Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for the implementation of these requirements.

26. Complaints of security incidents on board do not require:

A. Periodic testing of communication equipment
B. Immediate investigation
C. Ship Security Plan to be displayed
D. Reporting to the port facility

Answer: C — Ship Security Plan to be displayed

The Ship Security Plan is confidential and must not be displayed (ISPS Code A/9.7). Security incidents do require immediate investigation and reporting, and communication equipment must be tested.

27. Who issues the CSR (Continuous Synopsis Record)?

A. Company Security Officer
B. Flag State
C. Classification Society
D. Port State Control

Answer: B — Flag State

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is an essential onboard document under SOLAS Chapter XI-1/5, providing a history of the ship. It is issued by the Flag State of the vessel and contains vital information such as the ship's name, flag, IMO number, and details of ownership and management, updated throughout its operational life.

28. What is the requirement for an Escape Route opening?

A. Can only be opened using a master key
B. Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required
C. None of the above
D. Must be locked from the inside at all times

Answer: B — Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required

Escape routes, particularly their openings, must always be readily accessible and operable to ensure the safe and rapid evacuation of personnel during an emergency, including security incidents. The SOLAS convention and ship safety regulations mandate that such openings are capable of being opened from the direction of escape without special tools.

29. What is the operational limitation of security equipment like a weld lock?

A. It can easily fail due to high vibrations
B. It cannot withstand marine corrosion
C. It can only be operated electronically
D. The weld locks can be cut open

Answer: D — The weld locks can be cut open

While weld locks offer a degree of physical security, their primary operational limitation lies in their vulnerability to determined intruders with appropriate tools. Weld locks, like other physical barriers, can be cut, ground, or broken open using specialized equipment, thereby compromising their protective function.

30. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Ship Security Officer (SSO)
C. The Chief Engineer
D. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)

Answer: B — Ship Security Officer (SSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO), as defined by the ISPS Code, is directly responsible for the security of the ship. This includes conducting regular security inspections of the ship, ensuring the implementation and maintenance of the Ship Security Plan (SSP), and overseeing the training of shipboard personnel.

Set 2 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is considered an assessment tool?

A. Fuel oil consumption log
B. Cargo manifest list
C. Open deck arrangement including the height of the deck above water
D. Official Log Book entries

Answer: C — Open deck arrangement including the height of the deck above water

In the context of a Ship Security Assessment (SSA), understanding the ship's physical layout, such as open deck arrangements and deck height, is crucial. This information helps identify potential vulnerabilities for unauthorized access (e.g., from small boats) and aids in developing effective countermeasures as part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

2. Before hiding in the safe house or Citadel, we shall:

A. Turn on all deck floodlights
B. Keep the main engine on standby
C. Increase ventilation to the maximum
D. Stop and immobilize the main engine

Answer: D — Stop and immobilize the main engine

When retreating to a Citadel or safe house during a pirate attack, immobilizing the main engine is a critical defensive measure. This prevents the attackers from taking control of the ship's propulsion and navigating it to a different location, thus complicating their objective and aiding in potential rescue operations.

3. To ensure shipboard personnel are ready to deal with different security situations, what should you carry out?

A. Theoretical lectures only
B. Maintenance check sheets
C. Drills and exercises
D. Tabletop reviews exclusively

Answer: C — Drills and exercises

As mandated by the ISPS Code and STCW Convention, regular security drills and exercises are essential to ensure shipboard personnel are competent and prepared to respond effectively to various security threats. They provide practical experience, reinforce theoretical knowledge, and test the efficacy of the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

4. A security drill can be conducted in:

A. Only under the supervision of a Port State surveyor
B. Combination with other exercises such as emergency response exercises
C. Isolation without any crew involvement
D. Only when the vessel is drydocked

Answer: B — Combination with other exercises such as emergency response exercises

Security drills, as per ISPS Code guidelines, can often be combined with other mandatory drills, such as fire or abandon ship exercises, provided that the security aspects are adequately addressed. This integrated approach optimizes training time and enhances crew readiness for complex emergency scenarios.

5. What can be a possible smuggling mode on a ship?

A. Via the automated ballast system
B. Through the main engine exhaust trunk
C. Via satellite communication links
D. By the routine suppliers

Answer: D — By the routine suppliers

Routine suppliers, such as those delivering stores, provisions, or spare parts, present a significant vulnerability for smuggling on board ships. Without stringent access control and thorough checks of all incoming goods, contraband can easily be introduced onto the vessel, circumventing security measures.

6. The RSO (Recognized Security Organization) can carry out which of the following for a company or port?

A. Commercial cargo custom checks
B. Crew medical clearance
C. Ship Security Assessment (SSA)
D. Approving the permanent flag changes

Answer: C — Ship Security Assessment (SSA)

A Recognized Security Organization (RSO) is authorized by a Contracting Government to conduct Ship Security Assessments (SSA) and review and approve Ship Security Plans (SSP) on its behalf, as per the ISPS Code. RSOs play a crucial role in ensuring compliance and enhancing maritime security.

7. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling of drugs and contrabands?

A. Purifier room workbench
B. Main steering flat floor
C. Equipment box
D. Generator platform railings

Answer: C — Equipment box

Equipment boxes and other storage containers on deck or in machinery spaces are highly vulnerable for smuggling drugs and contraband due to their potential for concealment and relatively easy access. Regular and thorough security searches, as part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP), must target such areas.

8. Who appoints the PFSO (Port Facility Security Officer) for a port?

A. Government
B. Classification Society
C. Shipping Company
D. The Ship Master

Answer: A — Government

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is a crucial role under the ISPS Code, responsible for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan (PFSP). PFSOs are appointed by the relevant Contracting Government or the designated authority for the port facility.

9. Which of the following spaces in the Galley and dry stores are *least* vulnerable for smuggling of drugs and contrabands?

A. Under dry store floorboards
B. In the galley first aid box
C. Inside bulk flour bins
D. Behind walk-in freezer panels

Answer: B — In the galley first aid box

The galley first aid box is generally the least vulnerable among the options for smuggling large quantities of drugs or contraband. While not immune, its small size and frequent use for medical items make it less practical for clandestine storage compared to hidden compartments in bulk stores or behind panels.

10. The SCSA (Ship Security Assessment) report shall consist of the following:

A. description of countermeasures that could be used to address vulnerability
B. Full machinery maintenance layout
C. Crew wage scales and financial portfolios
D. Commercial routing preferences

Answer: A — description of countermeasures that could be used to address vulnerability

The Ship Security Assessment (SSA) report, mandated by the ISPS Code, identifies vulnerabilities and outlines potential countermeasures. It includes an on-scene survey, an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities, and a description of protective measures, personnel, procedures, and equipment that could mitigate identified risks.

11. A DoS (Declaration of Security) is required when:

A. The ship is entering a dry dock area
B. crew member changes their contract status
C. Bunkering operation is completed safely
D. When port and ship are not on the same security level

Answer: D — When port and ship are not on the same security level

A Declaration of Security (DoS) is typically required under the ISPS Code when a ship is interfacing with a port facility or another ship, and one party is at a higher security level than the other. It ensures that appropriate security measures are agreed upon and maintained to address the heightened risk.

12. Who is responsible for the submission of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) for approval?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Port Facility Security Officer
C. Master of the Vessel
D. Ship Security Officer (SSO)

Answer: A — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO), appointed by the shipping company, is responsible for ensuring that a Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is carried out and that a Ship Security Plan (SSP) is developed, submitted for approval to the Flag State or RSO, and subsequently implemented and maintained on board.

13. Who approves the Ship Security Plan?

A. The Port Authority
B. Charterer's Representative
C. The Recognized Cargo Agency
D. The Flag State

Answer: D — The Flag State

The Ship Security Plan (SSP), a critical document under the ISPS Code, must be approved by the Flag State Administration or a Recognized Security Organization (RSO) acting on its behalf. This approval ensures that the plan meets the mandatory requirements and effectively addresses the identified security vulnerabilities of the ship.

14. Seafarers with designated security duties are responsible for:

A. Calculating vessel stability indices
B. Managing commercial port bills
C. Comprehensive engine overhauling procedures
D. Knowledge of methods of physical structures of baggage

Answer: D — Knowledge of methods of physical structures of baggage

Seafarers assigned Designated Security Duties (DSD), as per STCW and ISPS Code, receive training in critical security functions. This includes understanding search techniques, methods for inspecting baggage and cargo, and identifying suspicious items or concealed compartments, directly related to the physical integrity of the vessel.

15. The ISPS code applies to:

A. Cargo ships
B. Ships above 500 GRT
C. Passenger ships
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code, specifically SOLAS Chapter XI-2, applies broadly to passenger ships, cargo ships (including high-speed craft) of 500 gross tonnage and upwards, and mobile offshore drilling units, when engaged on international voyages. It also applies to port facilities serving such ships.

16. Which of the following is considered a security record?

A. Engine indicator cards
B. Cargo stowage plan blueprints
C. Record of security/safety drills
D. Fuel oil analysis profiles

Answer: C — Record of security/safety drills

Under the ISPS Code, records of security drills and exercises are mandatory security records. They demonstrate compliance, document training, and provide evidence of the ship's preparedness to respond to security threats, forming a crucial part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) documentation.

17. Which of the below is *not* included in a CSR (Continuous Synopsis Record)?

A. Name of the classification society
B. Flag under which ship is registered
C. Date of ship registration
D. The SSO's name

Answer: D — The SSO's name

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR), mandated by SOLAS, contains a permanent record of the ship's history, including flag, name, IMO number, owner, and classification society. While the SSO is a critical security role, their personal name is not an element required to be on the CSR, which focuses on ship and company details.

18. Who sets the security level for the ship?

A. The Charterer
B. The Chief Mate
C. The Flag State
D. The Port Customs Department

Answer: C — The Flag State

The security level for a ship is primarily set by the Contracting Government (Flag State) or, when in port, by the Port State. The ship's Company Security Officer (CSO) and Ship Security Officer (SSO) must ensure the vessel operates at the declared security level, adjusting measures as required by the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

19. Complete the sentence: Security drills should be conducted at least once every:

A. Six months
B. Three months
C. Twelve months
D. One month

Answer: B — Three months

As per the ISPS Code, security drills should be conducted at intervals of no more than three months. This regular practice ensures that shipboard personnel are proficient in their security duties and familiar with the Ship Security Plan (SSP), maintaining a high level of preparedness for various security scenarios.

20. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling of drugs or contraband?

A. Cargo hold
B. Galley mess room tables
C. Captain's office desk
D. Navigation bridge deck floors

Answer: A — Cargo hold

Cargo holds, due to their large volume and often varying access control during loading and unloading, are highly vulnerable spaces for the concealment and smuggling of drugs or contraband. Comprehensive search procedures and stringent access control are essential for these areas, as outlined in the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

21. The modern definition of piracy includes one of the following:

A. Robbery
B. Cargo short delivery disputes
C. Commercial contract breach
D. Unintentional navigational deviation

Answer: A — Robbery

Under international law (UNCLOS Article 101), piracy involves illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft against another ship or aircraft on the high seas. This definition directly encompasses acts of robbery at sea.

22. You find a suspicious object on the deck. Which action will you take?

A. Throw it overboard immediately
B. Open it up to check the contents yourself
C. Leave it and check it during the next watch change
D. Inform Master immediately on radio

Answer: D — Inform Master immediately on radio

Discovering a suspicious object requires immediate action and adherence to the Ship Security Plan (SSP). The priority is to inform the Master immediately, who will then assess the situation and initiate appropriate responses, which may include isolating the area and calling for expert assistance. Unauthorized handling is dangerous.

23. Which of the below spaces in the galley and dry stores are most vulnerable for smuggling and contrabands?

A. The mess room dining counter
B. Open garbage bin containers
C. Daily dry store shelves
D. Inside fish or sides of beef in freezers

Answer: D — Inside fish or sides of beef in freezers

In the galley and dry stores, concealed spaces within perishable goods like large fish or sides of beef in freezers present a significant vulnerability for smuggling. Such items require thorough inspection, as contraband can be hidden within them, making detection difficult without careful scrutiny during loading and storage.

24. Which of the below has the *least* possibility of finding hidden drugs and contrabands?

A. In the wash basin cabinet
B. All the above
C. Inside structural ventilation louvers
D. On the soap stand

Answer: D — On the soap stand

An open soap stand offers no concealment, so it is the least likely place for hidden contraband compared with cabinets or ventilation louvres.

25. The CSR is a:

A. Custom Survey Report
B. Commercial Statement of Freight Rates
C. Crew Service Record registry
D. Record of history of the ship

Answer: D — Record of history of the ship

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR), mandated by SOLAS Chapter XI-1/5, serves as a comprehensive onboard history of the ship. It records essential administrative data, such as the ship's name, flag, owner, and management, detailing all changes throughout its operational life to enhance transparency and security.

26. The ISPS code applies to cargo ships, passenger ships, and:

A. Coastal fishing boats
B. Non-propelled wooden barges
C. Pleasure yachts under 12 meters
D. Mobile offshore drilling units (MODUs)

Answer: D — Mobile offshore drilling units (MODUs)

ISPS A/3.1 applies to passenger ships, cargo ships of 500 GT and above, and mobile offshore drilling units.

27. Which of the following equipment is *not* a part of cyber security?

A. Soap up equipment
B. Firewalls
C. Network routers
D. Encryption devices

Answer: A — Soap up equipment

Firewalls, encryption devices, and network routers are all fundamental components of cyber security infrastructure, designed to protect digital systems and data from unauthorized access or attacks. "Soap up equipment" is not a recognized term in cybersecurity and is therefore not part of cyber security measures.

28. When doing a physical search of a package or bag, we should look for the following:

A. Expiry dates of interior goods
B. The quality of the package or bag
C. Manufacturer addresses
D. Price tags of the items

Answer: B — The quality of the package or bag

During a physical search of a package or bag for security purposes, personnel should pay attention to the construction and quality of the item itself. Unusual or poor quality, tampering, false bottoms, or unusual weight distribution can indicate concealment or attempts to bypass security, guiding further investigation.

29. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling drugs or contrabands?

A. Steering wheel housing
B. Open walkways
C. Main switchboard panels
D. Cofferdams

Answer: D — Cofferdams

Cofferdams are enclosed, often inaccessible spaces designed to provide separation, making them ideal clandestine hiding spots for contraband due to their infrequent inspection and isolation. Open walkways, steering wheel housing, and main switchboard panels are more visible or require specialist access, making them less preferred for illicit concealment.

30. A DoS is required when:

A. The crew complements change fully
B. When the vessel drops anchor in open international waters
C. When taking provisions from a standard certified barge
D. When a ship interfaces with a non-ISPS compliant ship

Answer: D — When a ship interfaces with a non-ISPS compliant ship

A Declaration of Security (DoS) is an agreement between a ship and a port facility, or between two ships, specifying the security measures each will implement. It is required when a ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility or another ship, or when interfacing with a non-ISPS compliant entity to ensure necessary security protocols are met.

Set 3 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. When the Ship Security Alert System (SSAS) is activated, the alarm will sound:

A. On one's own ship
B. On nearby vessels
C. In the ship's engine room
D. None of the above

Answer: D — None of the above

It is a covert alarm transmitted directly to shore

2. The most vulnerable place in a cabin where we can find hidden drugs and contrabands is:

A. Top of the study desk
B. Inside radio or TV
C. Open book shelves
D. The main wardrobe hanger rod

Answer: B — Inside radio or TV

Electronic equipment like radios or TVs offer concealed spaces behind their casings, making them prime locations for stashing small, illicit items. Open book shelves, study desks, and wardrobe hanger rods are easily visible and frequently accessed, thus less suitable for discrete concealment.

3. Which of the following may be used as additional security measures?

A. Isolating the emergency generator emergency link
B. Closing sea chests entirely
C. Pressurized fire hoses on deck
D. Turning off all navigational radars

Answer: C — Pressurized fire hoses on deck

Pressurized fire hoses on deck can serve as a non-lethal deterrent against unauthorized boarding attempts, creating a physical barrier and making access difficult. Turning off radars, closing sea chests entirely, or isolating emergency generator links are operational or safety hazards, not direct security measures.

4. The best place to search individuals physically is:

A. In the engine room workshop
B. Near the gangway
C. Inside the steering flat
D. On the captain's bridge deck

Answer: B — Near the gangway

The gangway is the primary point of access to the vessel, making it the most effective and logical location for physical searches of individuals before they can gain significant access to the ship. Conducting searches elsewhere would mean unauthorized persons have already boarded.

5. The normal level that the ship or port facility operates on a daily basis is:

A. Security level 2
B. Security level 3
C. Security level 1
D. Security level 0

Answer: C — Security level 1

Security Level 1 is the normal level at which ships and port facilities operate, ensuring minimum appropriate protective security measures are maintained at all times. Higher levels (2 and 3) are set when there is an increased risk or imminent threat of a security incident.

6. Which of the following are *not* regular security measures implemented at security level 1?

A. Ensuring security communication is available
B. Controlling access to the ship
C. Call for shore security personnel
D. Supervising the handling of cargo

Answer: C — Call for shore security personnel

Calling for shore security personnel is typically a heightened measure, often reserved for Security Level 2 or 3, when existing shipboard security capabilities are insufficient. Controlling access, supervising cargo handling, and ensuring communication availability are standard, regular measures at Security Level 1.

7. For security level 3:

A. All shore leave is standardly granted
B. Normal watchkeeping ranks are reduced
C. Additional group to be put on security duty
D. Cargo handling is speeded up to maximum limits

Answer: C — Additional group to be put on security duty

Security Level 3 signifies an imminent or actual security incident, requiring further specific protective measures, which includes deploying additional personnel for security duties to respond effectively. Reducing watchkeeping ranks, granting shore leave, or speeding up cargo are contrary to heightened security protocols.

8. How frequently shall the Master review the Ship Security Plan (SSP)?

A. Quarterly
B. Bi-annually
C. Monthly
D. Annually

Answer: A — Quarterly

While formal external audits are typically annual, the Master (as SSO) is expected to frequently review the SSP's operational effectiveness. Quarterly internal checks ensure the SSP remains current with evolving threats and operational changes, preventing complacency and ensuring constant readiness, as advised by best practices.

9. Which of the following equipment is a part of cyber security?

A. Dedicated cargo computers
B. Main engine indicator mechanical drums
C. Hydraulic valve remote control levers
D. Mechanical sound-powered phones

Answer: A — Dedicated cargo computers

Dedicated cargo computers, often networked and critical for cargo operations and administration, are integral to a ship's IT infrastructure and thus fall under cyber security considerations. Mechanical sound-powered phones, hydraulic levers, and engine indicator drums are purely mechanical or analogue systems, not susceptible to cyber threats.

10. Who approves the permanent revisions of the Ship Security Plan?

A. Chief Security Agency of the Port
B. The Flag State
C. The Classification surveyor exclusively
D. Local Port Authority

Answer: B — The Flag State

The Ship Security Plan (SSP) is approved by the Administration (Flag State) or a Recognized Security Organization (RSO) acting on its behalf. Any permanent revisions or major amendments to the SSP must be submitted for re-approval to the Flag State to ensure continued compliance with the ISPS Code.

11. Who proposes modifications to the Ship Security Plan?

A. Third Mate
B. Custom Agent
C. Port Facility Security Officer
D. Company Security Officer

Answer: D — Company Security Officer

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is primarily responsible for ensuring the Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is carried out, that a Ship Security Plan (SSP) is developed and maintained, and for proposing any necessary modifications to the SSP based on security assessments, audits, or changes in operational circumstances.

12. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) means a person tasked to:

A. Manage standard cargo commercial operations
B. Manage Port Security
C. Handle ship-to-shore bunkering pipelines financially
D. Inspect marine auxiliary machinery ashore

Answer: B — Manage Port Security

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is responsible for the development, implementation, revision, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan (PFSP), and for liaison with Ship Security Officers (SSOs) and Company Security Officers (CSOs) regarding security matters. Their primary role is to manage and oversee port security.

13. Who sets the maritime security level for a country's territorial waters?

A. Classification Board
B. Private Maritime Security Agency
C. Ship Master
D. Flag State Authority

Answer: D — Flag State Authority

The Contracting Government (Flag State Authority or Coastal State Authority) is responsible for setting the appropriate maritime security level for its ports and territorial waters, communicating this to ships and port facilities within its jurisdiction.

14. Is security fencing mandatory for the ship-side railing?

A. Mandatory at all times
B. Mandatory only during dry dock periods
C. Not mandatory
D. Dependent on structural class rules only

Answer: C — Not mandatory

While additional physical barriers like fencing or barbed wire may be implemented as temporary security measures at higher security levels, a permanent security fence on the ship's railing is not a mandatory requirement under the ISPS Code. Ship design focuses on safety and operational functionality primarily.

15. With whom does the SSO liaise in the company regarding security matters?

A. Technical Superintendent
B. Financial Director
C. Crewing Manager
D. Company Security Officer (CSO)

Answer: D — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO) is the designated person on board responsible for the ship's security and for liaising with the Company Security Officer (CSO) and Port Facility Security Officers (PFSOs) on security matters, forming the crucial link in the ship-shore security interface.

16. What is the operational limitation of security equipment such as weld logs?

A. They require active high-voltage power
B. High vulnerability to sea spray damage
C. The weld logs can be cut open
D. Cannot be used on steel structures

Answer: C — The weld logs can be cut open

Assuming "weld logs" refers to physical security barriers like weld locks or welded bars, their operational limitation is that they can be compromised. With sufficient time and tools, such as cutting equipment, even robust welded structures can be breached by determined intruders.

17. The maximum validity of the International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is:

A. 7 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. 2 years

Answer: B — 5 years

An International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is issued for a period specified by the Administration, which shall not exceed five years. Its validity is subject to intermediate and renewal verification surveys to ensure ongoing compliance with the ISPS Code.

18. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling drugs and contrabands?

A. Ventilation ducts
B. Purifier drip trays
C. Boiler burner platform surfaces
D. Open main deck walkways

Answer: A — Ventilation ducts

Ventilation ducts provide concealed and often extensive internal pathways, making them highly vulnerable for hiding illicit goods due to their less frequent and difficult inspection access. Open walkways, purifier drip trays, and boiler platforms are generally visible and more routinely monitored areas.

19. Which of the following are regular security measures implemented at security level 1?

A. Suspend all operations immediately
B. Search 100% of all packages manually
C. Evacuate non-essential personnel to a Citadel
D. Supervise the handling of cargo and ship stores

Answer: D — Supervise the handling of cargo and ship stores

At Security Level 1, routine measures include supervising cargo and ship stores handling to prevent unauthorized access or introduction of contraband. Suspending operations, 100% manual package search, or evacuating personnel are elevated measures typically for Security Level 2 or 3.

20. When securing the Escape Route doors, can we lock them closed?

A. No
B. Yes, if authorized by the SSO verbally
C. Yes, to prevent unauthorized intrusion
D. Only during night port stays

Answer: A — No

Escape route doors, vital for the safe evacuation of personnel in an emergency, must never be locked in a manner that prevents their immediate opening from the inside. Security measures must not compromise safety and emergency egress requirements under SOLAS.

21. An RSO (Recognized Security Organization) *cannot* do the following for a Contracting Government:

A. Conduct verification audits
B. Issue interim certificates if authorized
C. Review ship security assessments
D. Communicate with the ship or port on active security matters

Answer: D — Communicate with the ship or port on active security matters

A Recognized Security Organization (RSO) can review security assessments, conduct verification audits, and issue certificates on behalf of the Administration. However, communicating with ships or ports on active security threat responses or setting security levels remains the responsibility of the Contracting Government or its designated authority, not an RSO.

22. Why is it advised to hide in the safe house or Citadel during a pirate attack?

A. To protect machinery from overheating
B. To keep up with routine paperwork safely
C. To avoid being caught by the pirates and hence prevent them from taking control of the ship
D. To avoid physical labor during a crisis

Answer: C — To avoid being caught by the pirates and hence prevent them from taking control of the ship

The primary purpose of a Citadel or Safe Muster Point during a pirate attack is to provide a secure, impenetrable refuge for the crew. This prevents their capture, denies pirates access to the ship's vital controls, frustrates their objective, and buys time for rescue.

23. The security internal audit is conducted:

A. Annually
B. Every 5 years
C. Monthly
D. Every 3 years

Answer: A — Annually

Company internal audits of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) and its implementation, along with the International Safety Management (ISM) Code audits, are generally conducted annually. This frequency ensures systematic review, identifies non-conformities, and allows for timely correction of deficiencies to maintain compliance and effectiveness.

24. The on-scene security survey does *not* fulfill the following function:

A. Identifying the ship's engine performance
B. Determining weaknesses in physical security infrastructure
C. Evaluating shipboard key operations
D. Identifying existing security measures

Answer: A — Identifying the ship's engine performance

An on-scene security survey, which forms part of the Ship Security Assessment (SSA), focuses on identifying security measures, evaluating key operations, and determining weaknesses in physical security. It does not assess or identify the ship's engine performance, which falls under technical and operational assessments.

25. Where is the guidance for risk-based assessment available in the ISPS framework?

A. MARPOL Annex VI
B. ISPS Code Part A
C. ISPS Code Part B
D. Solas Chapter II-1

Answer: C — ISPS Code Part B

Part B of the ISPS Code provides detailed guidance and recommendations for the implementation of the provisions of Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the Code. This includes comprehensive guidance for conducting ship and port facility security assessments on a risk-based approach.

26. Which of the following is considered a most vulnerable place where hidden drugs and contrabands can be found?

A. Access panels in floors, walls, and ceilings
B. Fire hose and compartments
C. Fire extinguishers
D. All of them

Answer: D — All of them

All listed options—fire extinguishers, fire hose and compartments, and access panels in floors, walls, and ceilings—are potential hiding spots for drugs and contraband. Their enclosed, often overlooked, or easily manipulated nature makes them vulnerable to clandestine concealment, requiring thorough inspection.

27. The most vulnerable place in toilets and showers where we can find hidden drugs and contrabands is:

A. Behind and under the wash basin
B. On top of exposed soap dishes
C. The shower curtain rod surface
D. Open towel rails

Answer: A — Behind and under the wash basin

Areas behind and under wash basins, often with concealed piping and access panels, offer discreet spaces for hiding small items due to their less visible nature. Open towel rails, shower curtain rods, and exposed soap dishes are highly visible and unsuitable for covert concealment.

28. A plan which contains measures on board designed to protect persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship stores, or the ship from the risk of a security incident is called:

A. Ship Security Plan (SSP)
B. Emergency Towing Plan
C. Fire Control Plan
D. Safety Management Manual

Answer: A — Ship Security Plan (SSP)

This definition precisely describes the purpose and scope of a Ship Security Plan (SSP) as required by the ISPS Code. The SSP outlines shipboard measures, procedures, and responsibilities for protecting against security threats to personnel, cargo, stores, and the ship itself.

29. To ensure ship's personnel are performing their security duties properly, what should be periodically executed?

A. On-scene security surveys/inspections
B. Reviewing financial accounts of the vessel
C. Engine trials
D. Checking structural dry-dock profiles

Answer: A — On-scene security surveys/inspections

Regular on-scene security surveys, drills, and inspections are crucial to verify the effectiveness of security measures and ensure that ship's personnel are proficient in performing their assigned security duties as per the SSP. This ensures ongoing readiness and compliance.

30. Which shipboard personnel should be able to recognize and detect weapons, dangerous substances, and devices?

A. Only the Master and SSO
B. All shipboard personnel
C. Only the deck watchkeepers
D. The galley staff only

Answer: B — All shipboard personnel

Basic security awareness and the ability to recognize suspicious items or activities are fundamental for *all* shipboard personnel. This collective vigilance is critical for an effective security posture, as outlined in security training requirements to detect potential threats early.

Set 4 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Security measures are *not* necessarily extended by the Contracting Governments for which type of ships/crafts?

A. Fishing vessels
B. Passenger cruise liners
C. Large container vessels
D. Chemical tankers

Answer: A — Fishing vessels

The ISPS Code primarily applies to cargo ships of 500 GT and above, passenger ships, and mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages. Fishing vessels are generally exempt from the mandatory requirements of the ISPS Code, although some national regulations may impose similar measures.

2. The security assessment documentation shall be:

A. Kept on ship safely in a secure location
B. Discarded after verification is completed
C. Displayed publicly in the crew mess room
D. Forwarded to the public maritime archive

Answer: A — Kept on ship safely in a secure location

The Ship Security Assessment (SSA) documentation, forming the basis of the SSP, contains sensitive information about vulnerabilities and threats. It must be kept secure on board the ship and with the Company, restricted to authorized personnel only, to prevent unauthorized disclosure or misuse.

3. The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS) is accessible to:

A. IMO members
B. General cargo charterers openly
C. Unregistered casual suppliers
D. Local port labor trade unions

Answer: A — IMO members

GISIS is an IMO web-based public information system that provides access to a database of information submitted by IMO Member States. While some parts are publicly accessible, detailed or restricted data is primarily for IMO Member States and authorized entities.

4. Covert methods to overcome security measures include:

A. Forcefully breaking and entering
B. None of the above
C. Open armed assault
D. Using false documentation or hidden entries

Answer: D — Using false documentation or hidden entries

Covert methods avoid detection, such as false documents, stowaways or concealment, unlike forced entry or armed assault.

5. The IMO resolution A.545(13) measures to prevent acts of armed robbery against ships was adopted in the year:

A. 1983
B. 1975
C. 1991
D. 2002

Answer: A — 1983

IMO Resolution A.545(13), concerning "Measures to prevent acts of piracy and armed robbery against ships," was indeed adopted in 1983. This resolution marked an early international effort to address and mitigate the rising threats of maritime security incidents.

6. The precise circumstances when a DoS is required by the port facility can be established through the:

A. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)
B. Custom Board Officer
C. Third Party Agent
D. Chief Engineer

Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is responsible for initiating and concluding a Declaration of Security (DoS) with the ship's SSO. The PFSO determines when a DoS is required based on prevailing security levels, specific threats, or ship-port interface conditions.

7. What is available in the Citadel/Safe House room?

A. Emergency means of communication
B. Water
C. It has all of the above
D. Provisions

Answer: C — It has all of the above

A Citadel or Safe Muster Point is designed as a secure refuge during pirate attacks, equipped with emergency communication, provisions (food and water), and other survival necessities to sustain the crew until rescue forces arrive. Therefore, it has all the listed items.

8. IMO introduced the ISPS code and made it mandatory in:

A. July 2004
B. January 2000
C. December 2006
D. June 2010

Answer: A — July 2004

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code was developed by the IMO in response to the 9/11 attacks. It became mandatory on 1 July 2004 as an amendment to SOLAS Chapter XI-2, signifying a global commitment to enhanced maritime security.

9. Various types of exercises with the CSO, PFSO, relevant authorities of Coast Guard, and SSO should be carried out at least once in:

A. 3 months
B. 24 months
C. 12 to 18 months
D. 6 months

Answer: C — 12 to 18 months

Security drills should be conducted at least every three months, and comprehensive security exercises involving the CSO, SSO, PFSO, and relevant authorities should be carried out at least once every 12 to 18 months. This schedule tests the full spectrum of the security plan's effectiveness.

10. An act which *cannot* be termed as a piracy attack is:

A. Intentional boarding to capture crew hostages
B. Impeding safe navigation of a vessel due to close quarters engine defects
C. Seizure of cargo assets via gun threat
D. Armed robbery on the high seas

Answer: B — Impeding safe navigation of a vessel due to close quarters engine defects

Piracy, by definition in UNCLOS, involves illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship. Impeding navigation due to engine defects is an operational issue or accident, not an act of piracy or armed robbery.

11. The on-scene security survey shall fulfill the following function:

A. Overhauling mechanical safety valves
B. Evaluating general propulsion parameters
C. Identifying structural vulnerabilities and access points
D. Identifying the ship's navigation efficiency profiles

Answer: C — Identifying structural vulnerabilities and access points

ISPS B/8.5: the on-scene security survey examines and evaluates existing protective measures, identifying vulnerabilities and access points.

12. Seafarers with a designated security duty are responsible for:

A. Deep-sea oceanographic tracking
B. Knowledge of crowd control techniques
C. Main propulsion optimization metrics
D. Commercial cargo handling contracts

Answer: B — Knowledge of crowd control techniques

Seafarers with designated security duties, such as those responsible for access control, may need knowledge of crowd control techniques, especially on passenger ships. This is essential to manage personnel flow, prevent unauthorized entry, or mitigate the escalation of security incidents effectively.

13. The ISPS code was brought into force by:

A. INTERPOL
B. International Chamber of Shipping
C. World Trade Organization
D. IMO (International Maritime Organization)

Answer: D — IMO (International Maritime Organization)

The International Maritime Organization (IMO), a specialized agency of the United Nations, developed and brought into force the ISPS Code. This was achieved through amendments to the SOLAS Convention to establish a comprehensive framework for enhancing maritime security globally.

14. Security drills should be conducted at least once every:

A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 12 months
D. 6 months

Answer: A — 3 months

ISPS B/13.6: security drills are held at least once every three months.

15. What is the advantage of an Ion Scan system?

A. Requires very little preparation
B. All of the above
C. It is portable
D. Can detect and operate in a vacuum

Answer: B — All of the above

Ion Scan systems are advanced trace detection units used for identifying explosive or narcotic residue. Their advantages include high sensitivity, portability, minimal sample preparation, and the ability to operate in diverse environments, making all listed features valid.

16. At security level 3, the following lights are to be switched on:

A. Emergency battery locker indicator lights only
B. No lights (Complete structural blackout)
C. All lights showing clearly the deck and surrounding the vessel
D. Only standard navigation lights

Answer: C — All lights showing clearly the deck and surrounding the vessel

Security Level 3 represents the highest security posture, typically when a security incident is imminent or occurring. Ensuring the deck and surrounding areas are fully illuminated is essential to deter intruders and monitor for unauthorized approaches.

17. At security level 3, baggage is standardly screened on an X-ray machine from:

A. One angle
B. Four angles
C. Two angles
D. Three angles

Answer: D — Three angles

Multi-angle X-ray screening (usually three angles) provides comprehensive images of complex items, reducing the chance that organic or metallic threats are hidden behind or within denser materials. This increases detection reliability for security-critical screenings.

18. After searching a suspiciously looking person, you have found nothing. What action will you take?

A. Let them roam around the restricted compartments freely
B. Hand them over to the engine workshop as a worker
C. Detain them in a dark hold space without notification
D. Ask the crew to keep an eye on him

Answer: D — Ask the crew to keep an eye on him

If a person is suspicious, the primary objective is to maintain observation and control without escalating the situation unnecessarily. Alerting the crew ensures situational awareness, allowing for coordinated monitoring until the person leaves or is properly identified/handled.

19. Security level 2 can be set for a:

A. Permanent basis for all remaining voyages
B. Single watch hour shift only
C. Indefinite prolonged duration
D. Limited period

Answer: D — Limited period

Security Level 2 is an elevated state, typically maintained for a limited period when there is a heightened risk of a security incident. It is a temporary, proactive measure relative to changing threat assessments.

20. What is the best defense against pirates?

A. Painting the hull white to blind them
B. Speeding up the vessel to 40 knots
C. Active armed counter-fire at all times
D. Do not go to a pirate-affected area

Answer: D — Do not go to a pirate-affected area

Avoiding pirate-affected areas is the most effective preventative strategy, often facilitated by AIS monitoring and compliance with Best Management Practices (BMP). Other options, like active armed fire or extreme speed, are either dangerous or impractical.

21. How frequently shall the Master verify the security records?

A. Yearly
B. Quarterly
C. Every 5 years
D. Monthly

Answer: A — Yearly

Under the ISPS Code, the Master has the responsibility to ensure that security records are maintained and audited for accuracy. Periodic verification, typically on an annual basis, ensures the integrity and effectiveness of the Ship Security Plan.

22. What do we do with the Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) when the flag changes?

A. Mail it to the previous owner's home address
B. Hand it over to the local port customs agents
C. Destroy it immediately
D. We keep them on board

Answer: D — We keep them on board

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is a vital history of the ship, providing information about its status under different flags and owners. It must remain with the ship even during a change of flag, as it is a permanent legal document.

23. Which of the following elements shall be part of a security drill on a ship?

A. Attacks from the seaward side while the ship is at berth
B. Handling minor oil spills on deck
C. Testing boiler safety high-pressure cut-offs
D. Complete machinery breakdown overhauls

Answer: A — Attacks from the seaward side while the ship is at berth

Security drills must be realistic and reflect potential scenarios, such as an unauthorized boarding attempt from the seaward side. Other options involve maintenance or safety drills (oil spills/machinery), which are covered by different codes like MARPOL or SMS.

24. The active security level in force shall be posted in:

A. Hidden inside the emergency generator room
B. The steering flat lower deck spaces only
C. Only the Master's personal office cabin
D. All common places on board the vessel

Answer: D — All common places on board the vessel

The current security level must be displayed in common areas and at access points to ensure all crew and visitors are aware of their obligations. This transparency is crucial for the effective implementation of ISPS procedures.

25. The maritime security measures under ISPS do *not* apply to which zone?

A. Internal anchorage limits
B. Territorial waters
C. Port facilities interfacing with international vessels
D. Continental shelf

Answer: D — Continental shelf

The ISPS Code focuses on the ship-port interface. The continental shelf is a geographical/legal definition related to resource rights and does not constitute a zone where ISPS security measures, as defined for ships and port facilities, are applied.

26. The SSO (Ship Security Officer) course framework was adopted by IMO resolution:

A. 863(20)
B. 482(12)
C. 924(22)
D. 741(18)

Answer: C — 924(22)

IMO Resolution A.924(22) provided the foundational framework for the development and implementation of the ISPS Code, specifically addressing the protection of ships and port facilities from unlawful acts.

27. On board, whose explicit duty is it to *propose* modifications to the Ship Security Plan (SSP)?

A. The Ship Security Officer (SSO)
B. The Cadet on watch
C. The Port Authority Agent
D. The Chief Cook

Answer: A — The Ship Security Officer (SSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO) is responsible for the day-to-day security on board and possesses the technical insight to recommend necessary updates or modifications to the Ship Security Plan to the Company Security Officer.

28. The modern definition of piracy includes which of the following acts?

A. Shipwrecking done intentionally
B. Accidental commercial short landing
C. Navigating without a pilot in non-mandatory zones
D. Minor engine machinery log discrepancies

Answer: A — Shipwrecking done intentionally

Modern definitions of piracy often include intentional acts of sabotage or causing shipwreck to illicitly gain control of a vessel or its cargo. The other listed options represent minor procedural errors or commercial issues, not criminal acts.

29. Which IMO resolution deals with measures to prevent unlawful acts that threaten the safety of ships and the security of passengers?

A. 584(14) in 1985
B. 545(13)
C. 924(22)
D. None of the above

Answer: A — 584(14) in 1985

IMO Resolution A.584(14) (1985) was a landmark resolution specifically focused on measures to prevent unlawful acts against the safety of ships and the security of passengers, predating and informing the later ISPS Code.

30. The likelihood that an unlawful act will be committed against a particular target based on a perpetrator's intent and capability is called:

A. Vulnerability
B. Reliability index
C. Consequence
D. Threat

Answer: D — Threat

In security risk management, 'threat' is defined as the potential for an adverse event involving the combination of a perpetrator's intent and their capability to execute an attack against a target.

Set 5 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. When using the X-ray scanning machine at an access point, the operator shall continuously monitor the screen for a maximum of:

A. 10 minutes
B. 120 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 20 minutes

Answer: D — 20 minutes

Due to the cognitive fatigue associated with analyzing X-ray imagery, operators are required to limit continuous screen monitoring to 20 minutes to maintain high levels of vigilance and accuracy in threat detection.

2. Where do we find documentation providing evidence of the Master's overriding authority regarding safety and security?

A. In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
B. In the commercial cargo charter party agreements
C. In the oil record book
D. Inside the garbage log ledger

Answer: A — In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

The Ship Security Plan (SSP) explicitly defines the Master's overriding authority, ensuring that the Master can take any action deemed necessary for the safety and security of the vessel, regardless of other commercial pressures.

3. All ship staff are *not* required to have a defined knowledge of:

A. Reporting suspicious elements to the SSO
B. Location of emergency alarm switches
C. Basic security actions during alerts
D. The ISPS Code in full

Answer: D — The ISPS Code in full

While crew must be aware of their security roles, they are not expected to have a comprehensive, technical understanding of the entire ISPS Code. That level of in-depth knowledge is required of the SSO and CSO.

4. What gets absolute priority on board in case of an direct conflict between safety and security parameters?

A. Keeping to the commercial schedule
B. Safety of life and the vessel
C. Security measures
D. Cargo integrity protection

Answer: B — Safety of life and the vessel

Under SOLAS Chapter XI-2, the safety of life and the vessel is the paramount concern. If security protocols conflict with immediate safety requirements, safety measures take absolute priority.

5. Areas designated as _______ in the SSP should be well marked, secured, and permit authorized entry only:

A. Restricted areas
B. Recreation spaces
C. Open decks
D. Public spaces

Answer: A — Restricted areas

Restricted areas are defined locations on the ship where security risk is high, such as the bridge or engine room. These must be clearly marked and controlled to prevent unauthorized access per the SSP.

6. What does the acronym IED stand for in maritime security?

A. Internal Engine Damper
B. International Enforcement Directive
C. Improvised Explosive Device
D. Integrated Electrical Drive

Answer: C — Improvised Explosive Device

IED stands for Improvised Explosive Device, a common term in maritime security assessments to describe non-standard explosive threats that may be encountered during ship-port operations.

7. Which part of the ISPS code is fully mandatory for all signatory flag states?

A. Part C
B. Annex VI
C. Part A
D. Part B

Answer: C — Part A

Part A of the ISPS Code contains the mandatory requirements for Contracting Governments, port authorities, and shipping companies, whereas Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for implementation.

8. The criteria used to decide on the physical search method of a group boarding the ship includes:

A. The distance from the nearest city center
B. The draft of the vessel at the berth
C. The number of people
D. The weather temperature outside

Answer: C — The number of people

When planning search protocols, the scale of the operation—such as the number of people boarding—is a critical factor in determining the required resources, time, and intensity of the search procedure.

9. The security certificate renewal audit of a maritime vessel is done once every:

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 1 year
D. 3 years

Answer: A — 5 years

The International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is subject to an intermediate verification and is renewed following a full audit every five years, aligning with standard SOLAS certification cycles.

10. Which of the following equipment is considered a part of cyber security?

A. Hydraulic actuators
B. Portable computer
C. Mechanical tachometers
D. Centrifugal fire pumps

Answer: B — Portable computer

Cyber security concerns the protection of digital assets. Among the options, a portable computer is a key piece of IT hardware that could be a vector or target for unauthorized access, malware, or data breaches.

11. Emergency response services to a security incident do *not* standardly include:

A. Extinguishing a major structural fire
B. Shore medical evac links during hostage trauma
C. Armed naval backup assistance
D. Coast Guard tactical communication support

Answer: A — Extinguishing a major structural fire

Fires come under safety/fire-fighting codes, not standard anti-security assault metrics Fires are managed under safety frameworks

12. What percentage of baggage is required to be checked at standard Security Level 1?

A. 0% checked unless authorized by local police
B. 100% manually without exception
C. As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
D. 50% checked by alternate lottery method

Answer: C — As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

The exact percentage of baggage to be screened is determined by the specific requirements laid out in the Ship Security Plan (SSP), which must account for the current security level and vessel-specific risk assessment.

13. PMSCs (Private Maritime Security Companies) should require that their personnel do not use firearms against persons except in _______ or defense of others:

A. Clearing path ways
B. Warnings during routine approach
C. Checking identification criteria
D. Self-defense

Answer: D — Self-defense

The use of firearms by private security is strictly governed by the principles of necessity and proportionality, limiting their use solely to self-defense or the defense of others to prevent loss of life.

14. As per the ISPS code, a ship is required to maintain records of its past:

A. 5 ports of call
B. 10 ports of call
C. 15 ports of call
D. 20 ports of call

Answer: B — 10 ports of call

The ISPS Code mandates that vessels maintain records of the past 10 ports of call, which is essential for tracking the security history and ensuring the ship has followed appropriate security measures at every terminal.

15. The crew is required to know which of the following during an emergency?

A. All of the above
B. Being aware not to use elevators in an emergency
C. Location and use of emergency equipment
D. Casualty handling

Answer: A — All of the above

All crew members must have a foundational understanding of emergency procedures, including the location of equipment, basic casualty care, and the dangers of using elevators during emergencies, to ensure safe evacuation.

16. Which of the below spaces in a cabin are considered a most vulnerable place where hidden drugs and contrabands are discovered?

A. Exposed bathroom tile surfaces
B. Flat tabletop spaces
C. Hollow out moldings
D. Open hanging coat rack pegs

Answer: C — Hollow out moldings

Hidden storage spaces, such as behind interior moldings or in false bulkheads, are classic areas where contraband is concealed. These areas are priority targets during cabin security searches.

17. Which of the following poses an active potential security risk to the ship's networks?

A. Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)
B. VHF channel 16 routine calls
C. Standard radar tuning alerts
D. Routine weather fax printouts

Answer: A — Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)

Phishing emails are a primary method of cyber-attack, designed to trick personnel into revealing sensitive vessel information or credentials, which could lead to a breach of the ship's security systems.

18. Who is responsible for submitting the Ship Security Plan for official administration approval?

A. Third Engineer
B. Ship Security Officer (SSO)
C. Company Security Officer (CSO)
D. The Chief Mate

Answer: C — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the designated person ashore responsible for liaising with the flag state or Recognized Security Organization (RSO) to ensure the SSP meets regulatory standards and gains official approval.

19. Who addresses and deals directly with any identified structural deficiencies or non-conformities of security measures on behalf of the management?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Junior Engineer on duty
C. The Supplier's Delivery Foreman
D. The Port Customs Clearance Team

Answer: A — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the bridge between the vessel and the company management, responsible for addressing non-conformities and ensuring that security infrastructure and protocols are properly maintained.

20. When doing a physical search of a package or a bag, we should look for the following:

A. The retail barcode design structure
B. Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces
C. Country of manufacture stamp marks
D. Weight labels on the exterior print

Answer: B — Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces

During a physical search, one must be vigilant for anomalies such as unusual weight, strange noises, or electronic components—like wires or sensors—hidden in packages, which may indicate the presence of illicit items or dangerous goods.

21. The Ship Security Plan (SSP) cannot be shown to any unauthorized person without the approval of:

A. Any crew member on watch duty
B. The local ship supplier foreman
C. The Master, SSO, or CSO
D. The terminal cargo operations loader

Answer: C — The Master, SSO, or CSO

The Ship Security Plan is a restricted document containing sensitive vulnerability data. Access to it is strictly controlled and limited to authorized personnel like the Master, SSO, and CSO to prevent information leakage.

22. During container loading, which of the following is required at Security Level 1?

A. Checking of loading as per the loading plan
B. Checking 100% interior contents of all sealed boxes
C. Discharging all other auxiliary fuel oils
D. Complete lockdown of all steering machinery positions

Answer: A — Checking of loading as per the loading plan

At Security Level 1, verifying the cargo against the loading plan is the standard security measure. This ensures the cargo matches the documentation and helps prevent the unauthorized loading of dangerous or illicit items.

23. You find a suspicious object on the deck. Which initial action will you take to safeguard life?

A. Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible
B. Submerge it in the main galley sink water tank immediately
C. Hit it with a wrench to check for metallic hollow signatures
D. Carry it manually to the captain's office deck

Answer: A — Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible

In the event of a suspicious object, the primary goal is the safety of the crew. Evacuation and cordoning off the area are the mandatory initial responses, followed by professional intervention; the object should never be touched or moved.

24. A ship may request completion of a Declaration of Security (DoS) in which of the following cases?

A. When the ship and the port are at the same security level
B. When the ship and another ship it is interfacing with are at the same security level
C. When there has been a safety incident on board
D. When there has been a security threat involving the port or another ship it is interfacing with

Answer: D — When there has been a security threat involving the port or another ship it is interfacing with

ISPS Code A/5.2 allows a ship to request a DoS when, among other cases, it operates at a higher security level than the port facility or other ship, or there has been a security threat or incident involving the ship or port facility.

25. An International Ship Security Certificate can be issued or endorsed by:

A. A class surveyor acting independently
B. A port State surveyor
C. A cargo surveyor
D. The flag State Administration

Answer: D — The flag State Administration

Under ISPS Code A/19.2, the ISSC is issued or endorsed by the Administration (flag State) or by a Recognized Security Organization acting on its behalf, after verification of the ship.

26. What is the primary use of an ion scan?

A. Plant detection
B. Cigarette detection
C. Drug detection
D. Liquor detection

Answer: C — Drug detection

Ion mobility spectrometry (ion scan) devices analyse swab samples for trace particles of narcotics and explosives. In ship security they are used to detect drugs and explosive residues on baggage, cargo and persons.

27. When carrying out a physical search of a bag or package, we should look for:

A. The size of the bag
B. The quality of the bag
C. The locking arrangement of the bag
D. Any visible unbalanced weight in the bag or package

Answer: D — Any visible unbalanced weight in the bag or package

Uneven or unbalanced weight, bulges, unusual wiring or odours can indicate concealed weapons, explosives or contraband, and are key signs to look for during a physical search.

28. Which of the following is NOT recorded in the Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR)?

A. The name of the CSO
B. The classification society details
C. The details of the authority auditing the vessel for DOC and SMC
D. The details of the registered bareboat charterer

Answer: A — The name of the CSO

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires the CSR to include the flag, ship name, IMO number, registered owner, registered bareboat charterer (if any), company, classification society and the bodies issuing the DOC, SMC and ISSC. The CSO's name is not part of the CSR.

29. Who is responsible for submitting the Ship Security Plan for approval?

A. The Master
B. The SSO
C. The CSO
D. The CEO

Answer: C — The CSO

Under ISPS Code A/11.2, the Company Security Officer is responsible for ensuring the Ship Security Plan is developed and submitted for approval to the Administration or RSO, and subsequently implemented and maintained.

30. The Ship Security Assessment report shall include:

A. A summary of port activities
B. A summary of how the assessment was conducted
C. A summary of crew behaviour
D. A summary of cargo operations

Answer: B — A summary of how the assessment was conducted

ISPS Code A/8 requires the SSA to be documented. The report includes a summary of how the assessment was conducted, a description of each vulnerability found and the countermeasures that could address it.

Set 6 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. A ship security drill can be conducted:

A. By phone call
B. By email
C. As a circular to all
D. In combination with other exercises such as search and rescue

Answer: D — In combination with other exercises such as search and rescue

ISPS Code Part B/13.7 allows security exercises and drills to be combined with other exercises such as search and rescue or emergency response, provided the security elements are effectively tested.

2. Under the ISPS Code, which term describes the current degree of security threat to a country and its coastal region, including ships visiting that country?

A. Exchange rate
B. GDP
C. Daily news channels
D. Security levels

Answer: D — Security levels

The ISPS Code defines security levels 1, 2 and 3, set by Contracting Governments to reflect the degree of risk that a security incident will be attempted or occur, applying to ships and port facilities.

3. Why is it advised that crew retreat to the citadel (safe room) during a pirate attack?

A. To avoid being captured by the pirates and prevent them taking control of the ship
B. To take some rest before the pirates take over
C. To avoid working after the pirates take over
D. To protest against the pirate attack

Answer: A — To avoid being captured by the pirates and prevent them taking control of the ship

Best Management Practices advise all crew to retreat to a pre-prepared citadel from which propulsion and communications can be controlled. Pirates who cannot seize the crew cannot easily take control of the ship, and naval forces can intervene.

4. When the Ship Security Alert System (SSAS) is activated:

A. A covert alert is sent ashore to the competent authority without raising any alarm on board or on other ships
B. An audible alarm sounds throughout own ship
C. An alarm sounds on all ships in the vicinity
D. A distress message is broadcast on VHF channel 16

Answer: A — A covert alert is sent ashore to the competent authority without raising any alarm on board or on other ships

SOLAS XI-2/6 requires the SSAS to send a ship-to-shore security alert to the competent authority designated by the Administration, identifying the ship and its position, without sending the alert to other ships or raising any alarm on board.

5. What does the Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) contain?

A. The safety record of the ship
B. The security record of the ship
C. The history of the ship
D. The sailing record of the ship

Answer: C — The history of the ship

Required by SOLAS XI-1/5, the CSR is an on-board record of the ship's history, including its name, flag, IMO number, registered owner, bareboat charterer, company and classification society, updated whenever a change occurs.

6. Which of the following is NOT used as an additional security measure against unauthorised boarding?

A. Gratings used to block companionways
B. Rods welded across openings such as hawse pipes
C. Butterfly nuts or eye pads used on watertight doors
D. Cargo hoses

Answer: D — Cargo hoses

Gratings, welded bars over hawse pipes and securing doors from inside are physical barriers that deny or delay access by intruders. Cargo hoses are cargo-handling equipment, not a security measure.

7. With whom does the SSO liaise in the company?

A. Company Security Officer
B. Port Facility Security Officer
C. Company MD
D. Company CEO

Answer: A — Company Security Officer

ISPS Code A/12.2 requires the Ship Security Officer to liaise with the Company Security Officer on security matters, and with the PFSO at port facilities. The CSO is the SSO's point of contact within the company.

8. Regarding security levels, a ship:

A. May be at a higher security level than the port facility, but never at a lower level
B. Must always be at a lower security level than the port facility
C. May choose any security level independent of the port
D. Must always be at security level 3 in port

Answer: A — May be at a higher security level than the port facility, but never at a lower level

Under the ISPS Code, a ship in port must comply with the port State's security level if it is higher than that set by the flag State. A ship may operate at a higher level than the port facility, but not lower.

9. What should be done with deficiencies identified during a security drill?

A. Inform the CSO and wait for his advice
B. Inform the Master, who advises what to do
C. Inform the Chief Officer, who makes the corrections
D. Discuss them, identify corrective actions, implement them and record them

Answer: D — Discuss them, identify corrective actions, implement them and record them

Drills are intended to identify security-related deficiencies. These should be debriefed, corrective actions identified and implemented, and the drill and actions recorded as required by ISPS A/10 and the SSP.

10. An automatic intrusion detection device may be provided on a vessel for:

A. Monitoring the gangway
B. Monitoring access to restricted areas
C. Monitoring the Master's room
D. Monitoring the mess room

Answer: B — Monitoring access to restricted areas

ISPS Code Part B suggests restricted areas such as the bridge, machinery spaces and steering gear may be protected by intrusion detection devices which alert the watch if unauthorised access is attempted.

11. The CSO shall have knowledge of, and have received training in:

A. Security-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations
B. Safety-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations
C. MARPOL-relevant conventions, codes and recommendations
D. STCW-relevant conventions, codes and recommendations

Answer: A — Security-relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations

ISPS Code B/13.1 lists the knowledge required of a CSO, starting with security administration and relevant international conventions, codes and recommendations, along with legislation, threat patterns and security equipment.

12. One of the functional requirements of the ISPS Code that requires training, drills and exercises is to ensure:

A. Familiarity with security plans and procedures
B. Familiarity with cargo handling procedures
C. Compliance with MARPOL discharge criteria
D. Competence in celestial navigation

Answer: A — Familiarity with security plans and procedures

Training, drills and exercises under the ISPS Code ensure that ship and port personnel are familiar with security plans and procedures and can respond effectively to security threats at each security level.

13. The Ship Security Plan is:

A. A controlled confidential document protected from unauthorised access or disclosure
B. A public document to be displayed in the crew mess
C. A document to be handed to any port State inspector on request
D. A voluntary guidance booklet

Answer: A — A controlled confidential document protected from unauthorised access or disclosure

ISPS Code A/9.7 requires the SSP to be protected from unauthorised access or disclosure. PSC officers may not normally inspect its confidential parts without the consent of the flag State or Master.

14. The locations of the SSAS activation points should be known to:

A. The Master, SSO and a limited number of designated persons
B. All crew members
C. All visitors and shore staff
D. The port facility personnel

Answer: A — The Master, SSO and a limited number of designated persons

SOLAS XI-2/6 requires SSAS activation points to be designed to prevent inadvertent activation, and the system must be covert. Their location is confidential and known only to the Master, SSO and selected senior officers.

15. Under the ISPS Code, the initial verification of a ship is carried out:

A. Before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time
B. Only after the first port State control inspection
C. Within 5 years of the ship being put in service
D. Only if requested by the charterer

Answer: A — Before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time

ISPS Code A/19.1.1 requires an initial verification before the ship is put in service or before the ISSC is issued for the first time, covering the security system, equipment and approved SSP.

16. The ISPS Code does NOT apply to:

A. Warships, naval auxiliaries and government ships used only on non-commercial service
B. Passenger ships on international voyages
C. Cargo ships of 500 GT and upwards on international voyages
D. Mobile offshore drilling units

Answer: A — Warships, naval auxiliaries and government ships used only on non-commercial service

SOLAS XI-2/2 and ISPS A/3.3 exclude warships, naval auxiliaries and other ships owned or operated by a Contracting Government and used only on government non-commercial service. It applies to passenger ships, cargo ships of 500 GT and over, and MODUs on international voyages.

17. When setting the security level, who determines the degree to which threat information is credible, specific or imminent?

A. The Contracting Government
B. The Company
C. The Master
D. The classification society

Answer: A — The Contracting Government

Under ISPS Code A/4 and B/4, Contracting Governments set security levels considering how credible, corroborated, specific or imminent the threat information is, and the potential consequences of an incident.

18. Under the ISPS Code, the Administration may entrust the verification of ships to:

A. A Recognized Security Organization
B. The ship's own SSO
C. The ship's charterer
D. The port facility security officer

Answer: A — A Recognized Security Organization

ISPS Code A/19.1.2 permits the Administration to entrust verifications to a Recognized Security Organization, although approval and issuing of the ISSC remain under its responsibility.

19. Which of the following are vulnerable places in companionways where drugs and contraband may be hidden?

A. Behind or inside water coolers
B. Inside fire extinguishers
C. In ducts
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

During ship searches, any space that can be opened or accessed easily, such as water coolers, fire extinguisher bodies and ventilation ducts, may be used to conceal drugs and contraband and should be checked.

20. What is assessed in a security drill?

A. The effectiveness of the drill
B. The mistakes made during the drill
C. The response of personnel to the scenario
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

A security drill assesses how effective the response was, identifies mistakes and deficiencies, and tests whether personnel respond correctly to the security scenario, so that the SSP and training can be improved.

21. Under the ISPS Code, is the Company Security Officer required to visit company ships at every port?

A. No, the ISPS Code contains no such requirement
B. Yes, at every port of call
C. Yes, but only at ports at security level 2
D. Yes, but only at ports outside the flag state

Answer: A — No, the ISPS Code contains no such requirement

ISPS Code A/11 lists the CSO's duties, such as arranging the SSA, SSP development, audits and training. Visiting the ship at every port is not one of them; the CSO is a shore-based company officer who liaises with the SSO.

22. STSDSD stands for:

A. Safety Training for Seafarers with Designated Safety Duties
B. Safety Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
C. Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties
D. Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Safety Duties

Answer: C — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties

STSDSD is the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties required by STCW Regulation VI/6 and Section A-VI/6 for crew members assigned security duties under the ship security plan.

23. What is an operational limitation of security equipment such as a radio?

A. The radio can be too loud
B. The radio volume can be too low
C. The radio signal can be jammed
D. None of the above

Answer: C — The radio signal can be jammed

Radio communication can be disrupted by deliberate jamming, interference or poor signal coverage, which may leave the security team unable to communicate. Knowing equipment limitations is part of STSDSD competence in operating security equipment.

24. How frequently should security equipment be calibrated?

A. Every month
B. Every three months
C. As per the manufacturer's instructions
D. Only on breakdown

Answer: C — As per the manufacturer's instructions

ISPS Code A/12.2.10 requires the SSO to ensure security equipment is properly operated, tested, calibrated and maintained. Calibration intervals and methods are set by the manufacturer's instructions, recorded in the ship's maintenance system.

25. Which of the following is NOT normally treated as Security Sensitive Information (SSI)?

A. The ship security programme
B. Technical details of the screening equipment
C. The ship's cargo plan
D. The location of the SSAS activation points

Answer: C — The ship's cargo plan

Security Sensitive Information is information that could help someone defeat the ship's security system, such as SSP details, equipment specifications and SSAS activation locations. The cargo plan is a commercial operational document shared with terminals and agents.

26. Separate areas for embarking and disembarking persons are typically provided:

A. On passenger ships
B. On gas carriers
C. On chemical tankers
D. Not on any ship

Answer: A — On passenger ships

ISPS Code Part B guidance (B/9) recommends segregating embarking passengers and their baggage from disembarking passengers on passenger ships, so that checked persons do not mix with unchecked persons.

27. If the ship is at a higher security level than the port facility:

A. The ship will lower its security level to match the port
B. The ship will maintain its security level and may request a Declaration of Security
C. The ship will ask the CSO what to do
D. The ship will ask the flag state what to do

Answer: B — The ship will maintain its security level and may request a Declaration of Security

A ship may never operate at a lower security level than that set by its Administration. Under ISPS Code A/5.2 a ship may request a Declaration of Security when it is operating at a higher security level than the port facility.

28. Which of the following elements is tested during a ship-shore security exercise?

A. The availability of security resources
B. The availability of safety resources
C. The availability of sailing resources
D. The availability of social resources

Answer: A — The availability of security resources

ISPS Code B/13.7 says security exercises may be full scale, tabletop or combined and should test communications, coordination, resource availability and response. The resources being tested are those used for security.

29. To whom shall the CSO send a proposed amendment to the SSP for approval?

A. The flag state Administration
B. The port state
C. The master
D. The owners

Answer: A — The flag state Administration

Under ISPS Code A/9.4 and A/9.5 the SSP and any amendments to the elements of the approved plan must be approved by the Administration, or a Recognized Security Organization acting on its behalf, before implementation.

30. What is an operational limitation of security equipment such as a light bulb?

A. The bulb can be too big
B. The bulb can be too small
C. The bulb can fuse or break
D. None of the above

Answer: C — The bulb can fuse or break

Security lighting depends on bulbs that can fuse, break or be deliberately damaged, leaving dark areas around the ship. Regular checks and spare bulbs are needed to keep lighting effective at all security levels.

Set 7 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. The ship security assessment must include:

A. The perceived threats to the ship and the consequences of an incident
B. Only the ports she visits
C. Only the cargo she carries
D. The nationality of the crew on board

Answer: A — The perceived threats to the ship and the consequences of an incident

ISPS Code A/8 and B/8 require the SSA to identify possible threats, their likelihood and consequences, existing measures and weaknesses. It is a risk-based assessment, not a record of ports, cargo or crew nationality.

2. Which part of the ISPS Code is mandatory?

A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

Answer: A — Part A

The ISPS Code has two parts. Part A contains mandatory requirements made binding by SOLAS Chapter XI-2, while Part B gives recommendatory guidance on how to implement Part A.

3. Which statement is correct about securing escape route doors for security purposes?

A. They may be secured against entry from outside but must always be openable from inside
B. They should be padlocked at all security levels
C. They may be locked shut from inside at security level 3
D. They need not be treated as escape routes while in port

Answer: A — They may be secured against entry from outside but must always be openable from inside

Security measures must never compromise safety. SOLAS XI-2/8 gives safety priority, so escape routes must remain usable for emergency escape; doors can be secured against unauthorised entry from outside while still opening from inside.

4. Familiarisation with the relevant provisions of the SSP is required for:

A. The master only
B. The SSO only
C. All crew members
D. None of the above

Answer: C — All crew members

ISPS Code A/13 and STCW A-VI/6 require all shipboard personnel to receive security familiarisation and to be familiar with their duties and the relevant provisions of the SSP before being assigned duties.

5. Who issues the International Ship Security Certificate?

A. The flag state Administration (or an RSO on its behalf)
B. The port state
C. The CSO
D. The SSO

Answer: A — The flag state Administration (or an RSO on its behalf)

ISPS Code A/19.2 states the ISSC is issued or endorsed by the Administration, or by a Recognized Security Organization acting on its behalf, after initial or renewal verification.

6. Who addresses and deals with deficiencies and non-conformities identified during internal audits, inspections and verifications?

A. Company Security Officer
B. Chief Officer
C. Chief Engineer
D. Ship Security Officer

Answer: A — Company Security Officer

ISPS Code A/11.2.8 makes the CSO responsible for ensuring that deficiencies and non-conformities identified during internal audits, periodic reviews, security inspections and verifications of compliance are promptly addressed and dealt with.

7. When entering a high-risk area, the ship should:

A. Consider proceeding in a group transit or escorted convoy where available
B. Switch off navigation lights
C. Hide all crew
D. Switch off the AIS

Answer: A — Consider proceeding in a group transit or escorted convoy where available

Best Management Practices advise using recommended transit corridors, group transits or escorted convoys and keeping AIS on. Switching off navigation lights is unsafe, and hiding the crew leaves no lookout or control of the ship.

8. Who should ensure that the flag state is consulted at an early stage when considering placing PCASP on board, so that any statutory requirements are met?

A. Ship master
B. CSO
C. SSO
D. Shipowner

Answer: D — Shipowner

IMO MSC.1/Circ.1405 interim guidance to shipowners says shipowners should ensure the flag state is consulted at an early stage in their decision to place PCASP on board, so that statutory requirements are met.

9. Is an internal auditor allowed access to the SSP?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only with flag state permission
D. Only at security level 3

Answer: A — Yes

The SSP is protected from unauthorised access, but internal auditors appointed by the company need it to verify implementation. ISPS Code A/9.4.10 requires the SSP to include internal audit procedures, and auditors must be independent of the activities audited.

10. What is a Continuous Synopsis Record?

A. A plan of all security measures on board
B. An on-board record of the ship's history
C. A record of all security incidents
D. A plan for maintaining security equipment

Answer: B — An on-board record of the ship's history

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires every ship to carry a CSR issued by the Administration, giving a record of its history such as name, flag, IMO number, owners, charterers, ISM company and classification society.

11. Who is the first point of contact in the office for security-related matters?

A. The CEO
B. The Managing Director
C. The General Manager
D. The Company Security Officer

Answer: D — The Company Security Officer

The CSO is designated by the company under ISPS Code A/11 as the person responsible for ship security matters ashore and is the point of contact for the SSO, office staff and authorities on security issues.

12. Which of these indicates that an individual may be a drug smuggler?

A. The individual spends free time relaxing with others
B. The individual wears bulky or out-of-season clothing
C. The individual makes small local purchases
D. The individual shows no interest in the ship's cargo

Answer: B — The individual wears bulky or out-of-season clothing

Bulky or out-of-season clothing can hide drugs strapped to the body and is a recognised behavioural indicator in security training. The other behaviours are normal for seafarers and suggest nothing suspicious.

13. The CSO should ensure that the SSA addresses which of the following?

A. Physical security
B. Structural integrity
C. Radio and telecommunication systems
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

ISPS Code A/8.4 requires the SSA to address physical security, structural integrity, personnel protection systems, procedural policies, radio and telecommunication systems including computer systems, and other areas that may pose a risk.

14. As per the ISPS Code, providing a CCTV camera at the gangway is:

A. Optional, not mandatory
B. Compulsory at all security levels
C. Compulsory only at security levels 2 and 3
D. Compulsory only on passenger ships

Answer: A — Optional, not mandatory

The ISPS Code is performance-based and does not mandate specific equipment such as CCTV. The company decides on monitoring equipment based on the SSA, and it is recorded in the approved SSP.

15. What is a Declaration of Security?

A. A checklist completed only by the ship
B. A certificate declaring that the ship is secure
C. An agreement between a ship and a port facility or another ship, specifying the security measures each will implement
D. A document between the port and the cargo owner

Answer: C — An agreement between a ship and a port facility or another ship, specifying the security measures each will implement

ISPS Code A/2.1.15 defines a Declaration of Security as an agreement reached between a ship and either a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces, specifying the security measures each will implement.

16. Records of the security level at which the ship operated must be kept for the last:

A. 8 port calls
B. 10 port calls
C. 12 port calls
D. 14 port calls

Answer: B — 10 port calls

SOLAS XI-2/9.2.1 and 9.2.3 require ships to keep information, including the security level, special measures and ship-to-ship activities, for the last 10 calls at port facilities, for provision on request to control officers.

17. The transfer of goods or persons from one ship to another, not related to a port facility, is known as:

A. Ship-to-ship activity
B. Ship/port interface
C. Ship-to-facility interface
D. None of the above

Answer: A — Ship-to-ship activity

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.10 and ISPS A/2 define ship-to-ship activity as any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons from one ship to another.

18. Who carries out routine security inspections of the ship?

A. Master
B. Duty officer
C. Chief Engineer
D. Ship Security Officer

Answer: D — Ship Security Officer

ISPS Code A/12.2.1 lists the SSO's first duty as undertaking regular security inspections of the ship to ensure that appropriate security measures are maintained.

19. How will you search persons boarding and their bags at security level 1?

A. As per the master's instructions
B. As per the Ship Security Plan requirements
C. As per the SSO's instructions
D. As per the duty officer's instructions

Answer: B — As per the Ship Security Plan requirements

Search measures for each security level, including the frequency and method of screening persons and baggage, are set out in the approved SSP (ISPS A/9.4 and B/9.14). Crew apply the SSP requirements, not personal judgement.

20. Which of the following is NOT protected by the Ship Security Plan?

A. The persons on board
B. The cargo
C. The ship's stores
D. The port facility

Answer: D — The port facility

The SSP is designed to protect persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship's stores and the ship itself (ISPS A/2.1.4). The port facility is covered by its own Port Facility Security Plan.

21. Does the master have the authority to override the Ship Security Plan, if required, without consulting the CSO?

A. Yes
B. No
C. Only with flag state permission
D. Only at security level 3

Answer: A — Yes

SOLAS XI-2/8 states the master shall not be constrained by the company or anyone else from making decisions needed to maintain the safety and security of the ship, using professional judgement, and the SSP must state this overriding authority.

22. Who arranges internal audits and reviews of security activities of the ships?

A. Master
B. SSO
C. CSO
D. None of the above

Answer: C — CSO

ISPS Code A/11.2.6 makes the CSO responsible for arranging internal audits and reviews of security activities, and for ensuring deficiencies found are dealt with.

23. In the event of pirates firing small arms or RPGs at the ship, what are your actions?

A. Fight back with everyone on board
B. Fire pyrotechnics at the pirates
C. Activate the SSAS and DSC alert and muster the crew in a safe area
D. Switch off the AIS

Answer: C — Activate the SSAS and DSC alert and muster the crew in a safe area

Best Management Practices advise raising the alarm, sending SSAS and distress alerts, and mustering crew in the citadel or a safe muster point. Crew should never confront armed attackers, and AIS should remain on.

24. The CSR contains which of the following details?

A. Name and details of the registered owner
B. ISM company details
C. Bareboat charterer details
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

SOLAS XI-1/5.3 requires the CSR to record the flag, ship's name, IMO number, registered owner, bareboat charterer, ISM company, classification society, and the bodies issuing the DOC, SMC and ISSC.

25. Which information should be included in your search plan?

A. Areas to be searched
B. Personnel to be involved in the search
C. Restricted areas
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

A ship's search plan should divide the ship into areas, assign trained personnel to each area, give priority to restricted and vulnerable spaces, and set out reporting procedures, so that a search is systematic and complete.

26. A ship can request a Declaration of Security when:

A. It is at a port at a lower security level than the ship
B. There has been a security threat or incident involving the port
C. It is interfacing with another ship at a different security level
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

ISPS Code A/5.2 lets a ship request a DoS when it operates at a higher security level than the port facility or interfacing ship, after a security threat or incident, at a port without an approved PFSP, or under an agreement between governments.

27. The SSO is NOT responsible for which of the following?

A. The ship's cargo operations
B. Providing security awareness to the crew
C. Reviewing the SSP and proposing amendments to the CSO
D. Ensuring security equipment is properly operated

Answer: A — The ship's cargo operations

ISPS Code A/12.2 lists SSO duties such as security inspections, maintaining and amending the SSP, security awareness, training and equipment. Cargo operations are the responsibility of the master and chief officer, not a security duty.

28. A Ship Security Officer is a person tasked to:

A. Manage the ship's security
B. Maintain and review the Ship Security Plan
C. Liaise with the CSO and PFSO
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

ISPS Code A/2.1.6 defines the SSO as the person on board, accountable to the master, designated by the company as responsible for the security of the ship, including implementation and maintenance of the SSP, and liaison with the CSO and PFSOs.

29. Should crew members be allowed to give comments and feedback on a security drill?

A. Yes, feedback should be encouraged at the debrief
B. No, only the SSO may comment
C. Only if the CSO is present
D. Only after a real security incident

Answer: A — Yes, feedback should be encouraged at the debrief

A drill debrief that includes crew feedback identifies weaknesses in procedures, equipment and training, so that lessons learned can be used to improve the SSP and future drills.

30. The ship security assessment is a process to identify and mitigate:

A. Weaknesses in the ship's security system
B. Weaknesses in the ship's safety system
C. The ship's old equipment
D. Commercial risks to the ship

Answer: A — Weaknesses in the ship's security system

Under ISPS Code A/8 and B/8, the SSA identifies threats, existing security measures and weaknesses in infrastructure, policies and procedures, so that the SSP can address them.

Set 8 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. When is a visitor on board required to present identification?

A. Only at security level 3
B. At security levels 2 and 3
C. At security levels 1, 2 and 3
D. Never

Answer: C — At security levels 1, 2 and 3

ISPS Code B/9.14 recommends checking the identity of all persons seeking to board at security level 1, with stricter measures at levels 2 and 3. Identification is therefore required at all security levels.

2. The IMB Piracy Reporting Centre is located in:

A. New Delhi
B. Kuala Lumpur
C. London
D. Gibraltar

Answer: B — Kuala Lumpur

The International Maritime Bureau's Piracy Reporting Centre, set up in 1991, operates 24 hours a day from Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. It receives reports of piracy and armed robbery worldwide and broadcasts warnings to ships.

3. Who is responsible for maintenance of the security equipment on board?

A. The safety officer
B. The Ship Security Officer
C. The duty officer
D. The Chief Engineer

Answer: B — The Ship Security Officer

ISPS Code A/12.2.10 makes the SSO responsible for ensuring that security equipment is properly operated, tested, calibrated and maintained, if any is provided.

4. Which of the following records shall be kept on board for the last 10 port calls?

A. Port agent details
B. Declaration of Security details
C. Port captain details
D. Harbour master details

Answer: B — Declaration of Security details

SOLAS XI-2/9.2 requires ships to retain security information for the last 10 port calls, including the security level and any special or additional measures taken, such as Declarations of Security agreed with port facilities.

5. Security exercises involving shore authorities should be conducted at least:

A. Once each calendar year, with no more than 18 months between exercises
B. Once every three months
C. Once every five years
D. Only when security level 3 is declared

Answer: A — Once each calendar year, with no more than 18 months between exercises

ISPS Code B/13.7 recommends that security exercises involving CSOs, PFSOs, authorities and SSOs be carried out at least once each calendar year, with no more than 18 months between exercises.

6. What is an IED?

A. Indian Education Department
B. International Expert Document
C. Improvised Explosive Device
D. Initial Entry Document

Answer: C — Improvised Explosive Device

IED stands for Improvised Explosive Device, a home-made bomb that can be hidden in baggage, stores or cargo. Recognising IEDs and suspicious items is part of the STSDSD syllabus on weapons and dangerous substances.

7. Which IMO resolution deals with measures to prevent acts of piracy and armed robbery against ships?

A. IMO Resolution A.544(13) of 1983
B. IMO Resolution A.545(13) of 1983
C. IMO Resolution A.546(13) of 1983
D. IMO Resolution A.547(13) of 1983

Answer: B — IMO Resolution A.545(13) of 1983

IMO Assembly Resolution A.545(13), adopted in 1983, was the first IMO resolution on measures to prevent acts of piracy and armed robbery against ships. It urged governments and the industry to take preventive measures.

8. What is piracy?

A. An act of robbery or criminal violence in a town
B. An act of robbery or criminal violence on an aircraft
C. An act of robbery or criminal violence at sea
D. An act of robbery or criminal violence only at anchorage

Answer: C — An act of robbery or criminal violence at sea

Piracy is robbery or criminal violence at sea. UNCLOS Article 101 defines it as illegal acts of violence, detention or depredation committed for private ends on the high seas; similar acts in a state's waters are called armed robbery against ships.

9. Which of the following may be available in a safe house or citadel?

A. Fresh linen
B. CCTV display of the boarding point, upper deck and bridge
C. A refrigerator for provisions
D. A TV for recreation

Answer: B — CCTV display of the boarding point, upper deck and bridge

A citadel should have independent communications, water, food, first aid and sanitation. CCTV displays let the crew monitor the pirates' movements and pass information to military forces without leaving the citadel.

10. The PFSP and emergency response plans should be based on a:

A. Risk assessment
B. Group discussion
C. Loss prevention study
D. Memorandum

Answer: A — Risk assessment

Security plans are based on risk assessment. ISPS Code A/16 requires the PFSP to be developed from the Port Facility Security Assessment, which identifies threats, vulnerabilities and consequences.

11. During a bomb search, which of the following is an important principle to follow?

A. Reach behind bulkheads to find the bomb
B. Know exactly what a bomb looks like
C. Do not touch any suspicious package
D. Throw any suspicious items overboard

Answer: C — Do not touch any suspicious package

Searchers must never touch, move or tamper with a suspicious item, because it may be booby-trapped. They should mark and clear the area, report to the SSO and bridge, and avoid using radios close to the item.

12. What is security sensitive information?

A. Information that could help someone defeat the safety systems
B. Information that could help someone defeat the security system
C. Information that could help someone defeat the loading system
D. Information that could help someone defeat the discharging system

Answer: B — Information that could help someone defeat the security system

Security sensitive information is any information that would help a person defeat the ship's security measures, such as SSP contents, restricted area details and SSAS locations. ISPS A/9.7 requires the SSP to be protected from unauthorised access or disclosure.

13. The SSO works from:

A. On board the ship
B. The management office
C. The owners' office
D. The port facility

Answer: A — On board the ship

ISPS Code A/2.1.6 defines the SSO as the person on board the ship, accountable to the master, designated by the company as responsible for the security of the ship. The CSO is the shore-based counterpart.

14. What is the latest ILO convention on the Seafarers' Identity Document (SID)?

A. C 180
B. C 108
C. C 185
D. C 208

Answer: C — C 185

ILO Convention No. 185 (Seafarers' Identity Documents Convention, Revised, 2003) replaced C 108 of 1958 after the ISPS-era security review. It introduced a biometric SID, and India has implemented it.

15. The amendments to the ISPS Code by IMO Resolution MSC.196(80) were adopted on:

A. 20 May 2005
B. 20 May 2006
C. 20 May 2007
D. 20 May 2008

Answer: A — 20 May 2005

Resolution MSC.196(80) was adopted on 20 May 2005 at the 80th session of the Maritime Safety Committee. It amended ISPS Code Part A, mainly in connection with the Continuous Synopsis Record.

16. Name the person who has overriding authority and responsibility to make decisions with respect to the safety and security of the ship.

A. CSO
B. SSO
C. Master
D. Duty officer

Answer: C — Master

SOLAS XI-2/8 and ISPS A/6.1 make the master the person with overriding authority and responsibility to make decisions on the safety and security of the ship, and to request assistance from the company or any Contracting Government.

17. What does RA stand for?

A. Rack assessment
B. Risk assessment
C. Rational assessment
D. Rotational assessment

Answer: B — Risk assessment

RA stands for risk assessment. It is the systematic identification of threats and vulnerabilities, assessing their likelihood and consequences, and is the basis of ship and port facility security assessments under the ISPS Code.

18. A port facility may include:

A. Anchorages
B. Waiting berths
C. Approaches from seaward
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.9 defines a port facility as a location where the ship/port interface takes place, including areas such as anchorages, waiting berths and approaches from seaward, as appropriate.

19. Which of the following is least likely to be used by modern-day pirates?

A. Verbal sound signals
B. Mounted machine guns
C. RPGs
D. Grenade launchers

Answer: A — Verbal sound signals

Modern pirates, especially off Somalia and in the Gulf of Guinea, typically carry automatic weapons, machine guns and rocket-propelled grenades to intimidate crews. Verbal sound signals are not a weapon or attack method.

20. Where do we find documentary evidence of the master's overriding authority?

A. In the master's contract
B. In the master's standing orders
C. In the SSP
D. On the company's website

Answer: C — In the SSP

ISPS Code A/6.1 requires the company to ensure that the Ship Security Plan contains a clear statement emphasising the master's authority and overriding authority to make decisions on the safety and security of the ship.

21. What special equipment is provided for transmitting a security alert to a competent authority ashore?

A. Ship Security Alert System
B. Ship safety alert system
C. Ship general alert system
D. Ship special alert system

Answer: A — Ship Security Alert System

SOLAS XI-2/6 requires ships to have a Ship Security Alert System that sends a covert ship-to-shore alert to a competent authority designated by the Administration. It does not raise an alarm on board or alert nearby ships.

22. It is essential that all PCASP have a complete understanding of the:

A. RUFF
B. Rules for the Use of Force
C. Rules of use
D. Rules of the Road

Answer: B — Rules for the Use of Force

IMO guidance in MSC.1/Circ.1405 and ISO 28007 requires that all privately contracted armed security personnel fully understand the Rules for the Use of Force agreed between the shipowner, PMSC and master, including graduated response.

23. Which standard gives guidelines with additional sector-specific recommendations for private maritime security companies providing Privately Contracted Armed Security Personnel (PCASP) on board ships?

A. ISO 28007-1:2015
B. ISO 18007-1:2015
C. ISO 9001-1:2015
D. ISO 28007-1:2011

Answer: A — ISO 28007-1:2015

ISO 28007-1:2015 gives guidelines for private maritime security companies providing PCASP on board ships. It builds on ISO 28000 security management, and PMSCs certify against it to show they meet IMO-recognised standards.

24. Ship/port interface means the interactions that occur when:

A. The ship is indirectly affected by port services to or from the ship
B. The ship is directly and immediately affected by the movement of persons or goods or the provision of port services to or from the ship
C. The ship is not affected by port services to or from the ship
D. Only the port is affected by services to or from the ship

Answer: B — The ship is directly and immediately affected by the movement of persons or goods or the provision of port services to or from the ship

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.8 defines ship/port interface as the interactions that occur when a ship is directly and immediately affected by actions involving the movement of persons or goods, or the provision of port services, to or from the ship.

25. What is the most reliable method of searching passengers and visitors?

A. Physical search
B. Walk-through arch detector
C. X-ray search
D. None of the above

Answer: A — Physical search

A thorough physical (hand) search by a trained searcher is the most reliable way to find concealed items, including non-metallic ones that metal detectors miss. It is slower and must respect privacy and same-gender rules.

26. Security contingency planning should include plans for:

A. Pollution prevention
B. Unidentified objects found on board
C. Man overboard
D. Crowd control at muster stations

Answer: B — Unidentified objects found on board

Security contingency plans in the SSP cover threats such as bomb threats, unidentified or suspicious objects, unauthorised boarding, hijacking and stowaways. Pollution, man overboard and muster crowd control are safety emergencies under SOLAS and the SMS.

27. IMO acted rapidly to enhance maritime security following the:

A. 11 September 2001 (9/11) attacks
B. Achille Lauro hijacking of 1985
C. Exxon Valdez grounding
D. Titanic disaster

Answer: A — 11 September 2001 (9/11) attacks

After the 11 September 2001 attacks in the USA, IMO quickly developed new security measures. A diplomatic conference in December 2002 adopted SOLAS Chapter XI-2 and the ISPS Code, which came into force on 1 July 2004.

28. If pirates board the ship, you should:

A. Shout and scream
B. Fight with them
C. Try to jump overboard
D. Stay calm and cooperate

Answer: D — Stay calm and cooperate

If pirates gain control, Best Management Practices advise crew to stay calm, offer no resistance and cooperate. Resistance or sudden movements can provoke violence, and the priority is the safety of the crew until release or rescue.

29. What does ISSC stand for?

A. International Ship Security Certificate
B. International Ship Safety Certificate
C. Indian Ship Security Certificate
D. Indian Ship Safety Certificate

Answer: A — International Ship Security Certificate

ISSC stands for International Ship Security Certificate. It is issued under ISPS Code A/19 to a ship that has been verified to comply with SOLAS Chapter XI-2 and Part A of the ISPS Code.

30. Who is responsible for implementation of the Ship Security Plan on board?

A. The safety officer
B. The Ship Security Officer
C. The duty officer
D. The Chief Engineer

Answer: B — The Ship Security Officer

ISPS Code A/12.2.2 makes the SSO responsible for maintaining and supervising the implementation of the SSP on board, including any amendments, under the master's authority.

Set 9 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. With whom does the SSO complete a Declaration of Security when the ship is at a port facility?

A. The Company Security Officer
B. The local coast guard officer
C. The Port Facility Security Officer
D. The local agent

Answer: C — The Port Facility Security Officer

ISPS Code A/5.4 states the DoS is completed by the master or SSO on behalf of the ship and by the PFSO, or another body responsible for shore-side security, on behalf of the port facility.

2. Which of the following activities is done first?

A. Ship security assessment
B. Ship security plan
C. Ship internal audit
D. Ship external audit (verification)

Answer: A — Ship security assessment

ISPS Code A/9.1 requires the SSP to be developed from the findings of the ship security assessment, so the SSA is carried out first. Approval, implementation, internal audits and verification for the ISSC follow.

3. The ReCAAP Information Sharing Centre (ISC) is located in:

A. Mumbai
B. Chennai
C. Singapore
D. Hong Kong

Answer: C — Singapore

The ReCAAP Information Sharing Centre was set up in Singapore in 2006 under the Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia. India is a contracting party.

4. Which of the following may be restricted areas on board?

A. The bridge
B. The engine control room
C. The cargo control room
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

ISPS Code B/9.21 lists restricted areas that may include the navigation bridge, machinery spaces and other control stations, cargo control rooms, steering gear spaces and security equipment locations, as set out in the SSP.

5. The SSAS alert shall be transmitted to:

A. The local port authority
B. A competent authority designated by the flag state Administration
C. The ship's agent
D. Nearby ships

Answer: B — A competent authority designated by the flag state Administration

SOLAS XI-2/6.2.1 requires the SSAS to send a ship-to-shore alert to a competent authority designated by the Administration, which may include the company. It must not be sent to other ships or raise an alarm on board.

6. As per the ISPS Code, all vessels are required to have at least:

A. A metal detector
B. An X-ray screening machine
C. A bomb disposal squad
D. None of the above

Answer: D — None of the above

The ISPS Code does not require any specific screening equipment on all ships, except the SSAS required by SOLAS XI-2/6. Equipment such as metal detectors is decided by the company based on the SSA and listed in the SSP.

7. Modern-day piracy includes which of the following?

A. Stealing from the ship's stores
B. Pilferage from crew cabins
C. Pickpocketing
D. Kidnapping of people for ransom

Answer: D — Kidnapping of people for ransom

Modern piracy, as seen off Somalia and in the Gulf of Guinea, often means hijacking ships and kidnapping crew for ransom. Petty theft and pilferage are treated as theft or armed robbery rather than the defining feature of modern piracy.

8. Which of the following can an RSO NOT do on behalf of a Contracting Government?

A. Approve the Ship Security Plan
B. Carry out verification of the ship
C. Approve amendments to the Ship Security Plan
D. Handle communications during a security incident

Answer: D — Handle communications during a security incident

ISPS Code A/4.3 lets an RSO act for the Administration in approving SSPs and amendments and carrying out verification and certification. Communication during a security incident is handled by the ship, company and authorities, not the RSO.

9. Which spaces in the galley and dry stores are most vulnerable to concealment of drugs and contraband?

A. On the hot plate
B. In the galley first-aid box
C. In the galley utensils
D. Under or behind refrigerators

Answer: D — Under or behind refrigerators

Smugglers prefer hidden spaces that are rarely moved or inspected, such as voids under or behind fixed refrigerators and freezers, deckhead panels and behind stores. Search plans should cover these locations.

10. Who decides how long security records must be kept on board?

A. The CSO
B. The SSO
C. The flag state Administration
D. The master

Answer: C — The flag state Administration

ISPS Code A/10.1 requires security records to be kept on board for at least the minimum period specified by the Administration, bearing in mind SOLAS XI-2/9.2.3, and to be protected from unauthorised access.

11. What is the minimum number of activation points the SSAS must have on board?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: B — Two

SOLAS XI-2/6.4 requires the SSAS to be capable of being activated from the navigation bridge and from at least one other location, giving a minimum of two activation points designed to prevent accidental activation.

12. On board, the SSO is accountable to:

A. The master
B. The Chief Officer
C. The duty officer
D. The Chief Engineer

Answer: A — The master

ISPS Code A/2.1.6 defines the SSO as the person on board the ship, accountable to the master, designated by the company as responsible for the security of the ship.

13. Why do we have a safe house or citadel?

A. For the master to hide
B. For the crew to shelter until shore or military help arrives
C. For locking up the pirates
D. For hiding personal belongings

Answer: B — For the crew to shelter until shore or military help arrives

A citadel is a pre-planned secure space where all crew can shelter with communications and supplies if pirates board. It denies them control of the crew, and military forces usually intervene only if all crew are accounted for in the citadel.

14. What is the least likely way for items to be smuggled on board?

A. By crew
B. By passengers
C. By routine suppliers
D. By drinking water bunkering

Answer: D — By drinking water bunkering

Contraband is usually brought on board by people or with stores, so crew, passengers, visitors and suppliers' deliveries need screening. Drinking water is supplied through hoses into tanks and is not a practical route for smuggling items.

15. When must the SSA be reviewed and updated?

A. On arrival at each port
B. Only at dry-docking
C. After a significant security incident involving the ship
D. On departure from each port

Answer: C — After a significant security incident involving the ship

The SSA and SSP should be reviewed periodically and whenever circumstances change, such as after a significant security incident, change of ownership, or major alteration of the ship, so that measures stay effective against current threats.

16. The SSAS continues to send a security alert until:

A. It is acknowledged ashore
B. Its battery runs out
C. It is muted ashore
D. It is deactivated or reset on board

Answer: D — It is deactivated or reset on board

SOLAS XI-2/6.2 requires the SSAS to continue the ship security alert until it is deactivated and/or reset, so the competent authority keeps receiving the ship's identity and position throughout the incident.

17. What gets priority when there is a conflict between safety and security requirements?

A. The master's personal preference
B. Safety
C. Security
D. Both have equal priority

Answer: B — Safety

SOLAS XI-2/8.2 states that if, in the master's professional judgement, a conflict arises between safety and security requirements, the master shall give effect to those requirements necessary to maintain the safety of the ship.

18. An RSO works on behalf of the:

A. Shipowner
B. Ship's master
C. Contracting Government
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Contracting Government

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.16 defines a Recognized Security Organization as one authorised by a Contracting Government to carry out assessment, verification, approval or certification activities required by Chapter XI-2 and the ISPS Code on its behalf.

19. What is the duty of armed security guards on board?

A. To keep lookout, warn of approaching pirates and protect the ship
B. To rest in the cabin until called
C. To train the crew in small arms
D. To wait for the crew to inform them

Answer: A — To keep lookout, warn of approaching pirates and protect the ship

PCASP are embarked to protect the crew and ship from pirate attack. They keep a lookout with the bridge team, give early warning and respond under the Rules for the Use of Force. They do not train crew in weapons.

20. Which of the following is NOT included in a port facility?

A. Anchorages
B. Waiting berths
C. High seas
D. Approaches from seaward

Answer: C — High seas

Under SOLAS XI-2/1 and the ISPS Code, a port facility is the location where the ship/port interface takes place, including areas such as anchorages, awaiting berths and approaches from seaward as appropriate. The high seas lie outside any port facility.

21. With regard to emergencies, the crew is required to know:

A. The location and use of emergency equipment
B. Casualty handling procedures
C. Not to use elevators in an emergency
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Every crew member must be familiar with the location and use of emergency equipment, basic casualty handling and safe escape practices such as avoiding elevators during an emergency. All of these form part of shipboard emergency familiarisation and security awareness.

22. What can happen if the crew does not cooperate with pirates once they have boarded the vessel?

A. The pirates will jump into the water
B. The pirates will call for local help
C. The pirates will leave the ship immediately
D. The pirates may harm the crew

Answer: D — The pirates may harm the crew

Industry guidance (BMP) advises crew who are taken by pirates to remain calm and cooperate, because resistance once pirates are in control of the ship can provoke violence and lead to injury or death of crew members.

23. The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is kept:

A. At the company office
B. At the owner's office
C. At the agent's office
D. On board the ship

Answer: D — On board the ship

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires every ship to which Chapter I applies to be provided with a Continuous Synopsis Record, which shall be kept on board and be available for inspection at all times.

24. Which of the following is NOT security equipment?

A. Navigation equipment
B. CCTV cameras
C. Baggage screening equipment
D. Container X-ray devices

Answer: A — Navigation equipment

Security equipment is used to detect, deter or monitor unauthorised access and prohibited items, such as CCTV, baggage screening and container X-ray devices. Navigation equipment serves safe navigation and is not classed as security equipment.

25. The renewal verification (audit) for the ship's International Ship Security Certificate is done:

A. Once a year
B. Once every two years
C. Once every 2.5 years
D. Once every five years

Answer: D — Once every five years

Under ISPS Code A/19.1 the ISSC is issued for a period not exceeding five years, and a renewal verification is carried out at intervals not exceeding five years, with at least one intermediate verification in between.

26. Who is responsible for the development of the Ship Security Plan?

A. The Company Security Officer
B. The classification society
C. The Port Facility Security Officer
D. The Ship Security Officer

Answer: A — The Company Security Officer

ISPS Code A/11.2 makes the Company Security Officer responsible for ensuring that the ship security assessment is carried out and that the Ship Security Plan is developed, submitted for approval, implemented and maintained.

27. As per ISPS regulation 2, the Code applies to:

A. All passenger and cargo ships of 500 GT and below on international voyages and port facilities serving them
B. All passenger ships, and cargo ships of 500 GT and upwards, on international voyages and port facilities serving them
C. All passenger and cargo ships of 500 GT and below on domestic voyages and port facilities serving them
D. All ships on international voyages regardless of size and port facilities serving them

Answer: B — All passenger ships, and cargo ships of 500 GT and upwards, on international voyages and port facilities serving them

SOLAS XI-2/2 and ISPS A/3 apply to passenger ships, including high-speed craft, cargo ships of 500 gross tonnage and upwards and MODUs engaged on international voyages, and to port facilities serving such ships.

28. An RSO can do which of the following on behalf of a Contracting Government?

A. Change the security level
B. Approve the port facility security assessment
C. Exercise control and compliance measures
D. Verify compliance with the ISPS Code and SOLAS Chapter XI-2

Answer: D — Verify compliance with the ISPS Code and SOLAS Chapter XI-2

ISPS Code A/4.3 allows a Contracting Government to delegate certain duties to a Recognized Security Organization, such as verification and certification of ships, but not setting security levels, approving PFSAs or PFSPs, or exercising control and compliance measures.

29. One of the SSAS activation points must be located on:

A. The navigation bridge
B. The master's cabin
C. The mess room
D. The engine room

Answer: A — The navigation bridge

SOLAS XI-2/6.3 requires the ship security alert system to be capable of being activated from the navigation bridge and from at least one other location.

30. Records of Declarations of Security and security levels shall be maintained for the:

A. Last 8 port calls
B. Last 9 port calls
C. Last 10 port calls
D. Last 11 port calls

Answer: C — Last 10 port calls

SOLAS XI-2/9.2.3 requires ships to keep records of the security level, special security measures and Declarations of Security for the last 10 calls at port facilities, to be provided to port States on request.

Set 10 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. To whom shall the master send a proposed amendment to the SSP?

A. The flag state
B. The port state
C. The CSO
D. The owners

Answer: C — The CSO

The CSO is responsible for the SSP and for its amendment and resubmission for approval under ISPS Code A/11.2. The master or SSO therefore forwards proposed amendments to the CSO, who submits them to the Administration or RSO.

2. Who shall assess the shipboard security drills?

A. Master
B. Chief Officer
C. Chief Engineer
D. SSO

Answer: D — SSO

Under ISPS Code A/12.2 the Ship Security Officer ensures that adequate training, drills and exercises are carried out on board and evaluates their effectiveness, reporting deficiencies and proposing improvements to the SSP.

3. The ISPS Code is mandatory for:

A. Sailing ships
B. Mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages
C. Both sailing ships and mobile offshore drilling units
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages

SOLAS XI-2/2 applies the ISPS Code to passenger ships, cargo ships of 500 GT and upwards and mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages. Sailing ships and fixed offshore installations are not covered.

4. During container loading at security level 2, which of the following is required?

A. Stop cargo loading
B. Call shore security personnel to do the loading
C. Check the seals/locks of all containers loaded
D. Check loading as per the loading plan

Answer: C — Check the seals/locks of all containers loaded

At security level 2 ISPS Code Part B (B/9.27) calls for additional measures in cargo handling, such as increased checking of cargo and cargo transport units and verifying that container seals are intact to prevent tampering.

5. Areas designated as ____ in the SSP should be well marked and secured against unauthorised entry.

A. Private areas
B. Master's areas
C. Public areas
D. Restricted areas

Answer: D — Restricted areas

ISPS Code A/9.4 and B/9.18 require the SSP to identify restricted areas, such as the bridge, machinery spaces and steering gear, which must be clearly marked and protected against unauthorised access.

6. The Port Facility Security Officer's tasks include:

A. Implementing the port facility security plan
B. Coordinating security with ships
C. Assisting ship's personnel in case of a security incident
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

ISPS Code A/17.2 lists PFSO duties including implementing and maintaining the PFSP, coordinating with SSOs and CSOs, and assisting ships, so all the listed tasks are part of the PFSO's responsibilities.

7. Which part of the ISPS Code contains guidelines (recommendatory provisions)?

A. Part A
B. Part B
C. Part C
D. Part D

Answer: B — Part B

The ISPS Code has two parts: Part A contains mandatory requirements, while Part B provides recommendatory guidance on how to meet the requirements of SOLAS Chapter XI-2 and Part A.

8. Where should the safe house or citadel be located on the ship?

A. At any location that is difficult for the crew to find
B. At a location that is difficult for the pirates to locate and access
C. At any location that is difficult for the master to find
D. At any location that is difficult for the SSO to find

Answer: B — At a location that is difficult for the pirates to locate and access

The citadel should be a secure space that pirates cannot easily find or breach, while the crew know its location and route. It must allow crew to remain protected with communications until help arrives.

9. The minimum number of SSAS activation points required on board is:

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: B — Two

SOLAS XI-2/6.3 requires the SSAS to be capable of activation from the navigation bridge and in at least one other location, giving a minimum of two activation points.

10. For security matters, who is the person designated in the port for liaison with the Ship Security Officer?

A. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)
B. Company Security Officer (CSO)
C. Harbour Master
D. Port Captain

Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)

ISPS Code A/2.1.8 defines the PFSO as the person designated as responsible for the development, implementation, revision and maintenance of the PFSP and for liaison with the ship security officers and company security officers.

11. A Declaration of Security is signed by the master or SSO on behalf of the ship and, on behalf of the port facility, by the:

A. Company Security Officer
B. Local coast guard officer
C. Port Facility Security Officer
D. Harbour master

Answer: C — Port Facility Security Officer

ISPS Code A/5.4 requires the DOS to be completed by the master or SSO on behalf of the ship and by the PFSO, or any other body responsible for shore-side security, on behalf of the port facility.

12. An RSO cannot do which of the following for a company or port?

A. Prepare a security plan
B. Carry out a ship security assessment
C. Set the security level
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Set the security level

Under ISPS Code A/4.3 setting the applicable security level is a function reserved to the Contracting Government and cannot be delegated to an RSO, whereas an RSO may assist with security assessments and plans.

13. The Continuous Synopsis Record is issued by:

A. The classification society
B. The owners
C. The managers
D. The flag state Administration

Answer: D — The flag state Administration

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires the Administration of the flag State to issue the Continuous Synopsis Record, which provides an on-board history of the ship's flag, ownership, management and classification.

14. Which of the following places in the galley and dry stores is the LEAST likely hiding place for drugs or contraband?

A. On the hot plate
B. In the flour bins
C. Under or behind refrigerators
D. Inside fish or sides of beef in the freezer

Answer: A — On the hot plate

Contraband is hidden where it is concealed and rarely disturbed, such as in flour bins, behind refrigerators or inside frozen meat. A hot plate is exposed, frequently used and heated, so it is the least likely hiding place.

15. The Port Facility Security Plan should provide procedures for:

A. Evacuation in case of security threats or breaches of security
B. Setting the security level of visiting ships
C. Approving the SSPs of visiting ships
D. Issuing the ISSC to visiting ships

Answer: A — Evacuation in case of security threats or breaches of security

ISPS Code A/16.3 lists PFSP contents, including procedures for evacuation in case of security threats or breaches of security. Setting security levels, approving SSPs and issuing ISSCs are functions of Governments.

16. The Ship Security Plan is designed to protect ____ from the risks of a security incident.

A. Persons on board only
B. Cargo only
C. The ship only
D. Persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship's stores and the ship

Answer: D — Persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship's stores and the ship

ISPS Code A/2.1.4 defines the SSP as a plan to ensure the application of measures on board designed to protect persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship's stores or the ship from the risks of a security incident.

17. The SSAS activation points shall be designed so as to:

A. Prevent inadvertent initiation of the security alert
B. Sound a loud alarm on the bridge
C. Be visible to all visitors
D. Require a password from the company

Answer: A — Prevent inadvertent initiation of the security alert

SOLAS XI-2/6.4 requires the ship security alert system activation points to be designed so as to prevent the inadvertent initiation of the ship security alert, avoiding false alerts to the competent authority.

18. Under IMO guidance, a Private Maritime Security Company (PMSC) providing armed guards should:

A. Maintain adequate insurance cover
B. Take command of the ship during an attack
C. Be exempt from flag state law
D. Carry weapons without any documentation

Answer: A — Maintain adequate insurance cover

IMO interim guidance on PMSCs (MSC.1/Circ.1405 and 1443) expects them to maintain appropriate insurance cover for their personnel and liabilities. The master remains in command, and guards must comply with flag and coastal State laws.

19. When a ship changes its flag, the Continuous Synopsis Record:

A. Remains on board and the previous Administration sends a copy to the new Administration
B. Is destroyed and a new record started without history
C. Is returned to the classification society
D. Is surrendered to the port state

Answer: A — Remains on board and the previous Administration sends a copy to the new Administration

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires the previous CSR documents to remain on board when a ship changes flag, and the former flag Administration transmits a copy of the CSR to the new Administration so the ship's history is continuous.

20. Once activated, the SSAS shall:

A. Continue the ship security alert until deactivated and/or reset
B. Transmit only a single alert message
C. Stop transmitting automatically after 10 minutes
D. Sound an alarm throughout the ship

Answer: A — Continue the ship security alert until deactivated and/or reset

SOLAS XI-2/6.2.3 requires the ship security alert system, when activated, to continue the ship-to-shore security alert until deactivated and/or reset, so that the competent authority keeps receiving the alert while the threat continues.

21. Regarding alarms on board, every crew member should:

A. Know the various alarms and the correct response to each
B. Know only the general emergency alarm
C. Leave all alarm responses to the SSO
D. Respond to alarms only when instructed by the master

Answer: A — Know the various alarms and the correct response to each

All crew must be familiar with the various shipboard alarms, including security alarms, and the correct response to each, as required by STCW familiarisation and the SSP security awareness requirements.

22. Amendments to the approved Ship Security Plan relating to ISPS Code requirements shall be implemented:

A. Only after approval by the Administration (or RSO on its behalf)
B. At the master's discretion
C. After informing the PFSO
D. After the next annual company audit

Answer: A — Only after approval by the Administration (or RSO on its behalf)

ISPS Code A/9.5 states that amendments to an approved SSP relating to the requirements of A/9.4 shall not be implemented unless approved by the Administration, or an RSO acting on its behalf.

23. Acts of piracy and armed robbery reported to coastal or port States should be reported by those States to:

A. IMO
B. The ship's P&I club
C. The classification society
D. The shipbuilder

Answer: A — IMO

IMO guidance to Governments (MSC.1/Circ.1333) recommends that coastal and port States report to IMO any acts of piracy and armed robbery against ships in their waters, so that IMO can compile and circulate statistics.

24. A security drill is best described as a supervised activity used to:

A. Test a single measure or procedure in the SSP
B. Test the full port security system together with authorities
C. Audit the International Ship Security Certificate
D. Replace security training of the crew

Answer: A — Test a single measure or procedure in the SSP

ISPS Code Part B (B/13.6-13.7) explains that drills test individual elements of the SSP, such as a single procedure, at least every three months, while exercises test combinations of measures and communication with other parties.

25. In the ISPS Code, 'security level' means the qualification of the degree of risk that:

A. A security incident will be attempted or will occur
B. A ship will be detained by PSC
C. Cargo will be damaged
D. A collision will occur

Answer: A — A security incident will be attempted or will occur

ISPS Code A/2.1.9 defines security level as the qualification of the degree of risk that a security incident will be attempted or will occur; levels 1, 2 and 3 reflect increasing threat.

26. Who must be familiar with the location of, and the shortest route to, the safe house or citadel?

A. All crew members
B. Only the master and the SSO
C. Only the deck officers
D. Only the engine room crew

Answer: A — All crew members

Every crew member must know where the citadel is and the quickest route to it, and drills should be held, so that the entire crew can reach safety before pirates board, as advised in BMP guidance.

27. When the ship is transiting an area of piracy risk, the master should:

A. Keep only the minimum cash on board
B. Carry extra cash to pay pirates on demand
C. Keep all cash openly in the master's cabin
D. Distribute the ship's cash among all crew

Answer: A — Keep only the minimum cash on board

Large amounts of cash attract pirates and armed robbers and increase the risk to crew. Guidance on preventing piracy and armed robbery advises keeping only the minimum necessary cash on board in high-risk areas.

28. A port facility is a location, as determined by the Contracting Government, where:

A. The ship/port interface takes place
B. Ships are built
C. Ships are dry-docked only
D. The CSO's office is located

Answer: A — The ship/port interface takes place

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.9 defines a port facility as a location, determined by the Contracting Government or Designated Authority, where the ship/port interface takes place, including anchorages, awaiting berths and approaches as appropriate.

29. When the SSAS is activated, it:

A. Does not raise any alarm on board the ship
B. Sounds the general emergency alarm
C. Alerts all ships in the vicinity
D. Sounds the ship's whistle

Answer: A — Does not raise any alarm on board the ship

SOLAS XI-2/6.2.2 requires the SSAS to transmit a covert ship-to-shore alert that does not send the alert to other ships and does not raise any alarm on board, so that attackers are not alerted.

30. Which of the following is addressed in the Ship Security Plan?

A. Security measures for handling cargo, ship's stores and unaccompanied baggage
B. Crew wage scales
C. Ship's stability calculations
D. Bunker purchase procedures

Answer: A — Security measures for handling cargo, ship's stores and unaccompanied baggage

ISPS Code Part B (B/9.25-9.40) guides the SSP to include procedures and measures for handling cargo, delivery of ship's stores and handling of unaccompanied baggage at each security level.

Set 11 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. An RSO that has prepared a ship's SSA or SSP:

A. Shall not approve that SSP
B. May approve it if the master agrees
C. Must approve it within 30 days
D. May approve it for security level 1 only

Answer: A — Shall not approve that SSP

ISPS Code A/9.2.1 states that an RSO undertaking the review and approval of an SSP shall not have been involved in the preparation of the ship security assessment or SSP under review, to ensure independence.

2. Information on the locations of the SSAS activation points should be:

A. Known only to key ship's personnel
B. Displayed at the gangway
C. Shared with all visitors
D. Marked prominently on deck plans displayed in alleyways

Answer: A — Known only to key ship's personnel

The SSAS is a covert system, so its activation points are not marked or publicised. Their locations are confidential and known only to the master, SSO and other key personnel, and may be kept separately from the SSP (ISPS A/9.4.18).

3. In maritime security terms, a 'deficiency' means:

A. A failure to comply with the requirements of the maritime security measures
B. Any security incident
C. A breach of security by pirates
D. A delay in cargo operations

Answer: A — A failure to comply with the requirements of the maritime security measures

A deficiency is a failure to comply with the requirements of SOLAS XI-2 and the ISPS Code, for example missing records or SSP measures not implemented. It is found during audits, verifications or control inspections and requires corrective action.

4. A Declaration of Security is an agreement reached between:

A. A ship and a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces
B. A port facility and the CSO
C. The flag state and the company
D. The master and the crew

Answer: A — A ship and a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces

ISPS Code A/2.1.15 defines the DOS as an agreement reached between a ship and either a port facility or another ship with which it interfaces, specifying the security measures each will implement.

5. A key shipboard operation to be considered in the ship security assessment is:

A. Planned maintenance work
B. Equipment and machinery trials
C. Handling of ship's stores
D. Mooring and unmooring

Answer: C — Handling of ship's stores

ISPS Code A/8 and B/8 require the SSA to identify key shipboard operations that must be protected, including access control, handling of cargo and delivery of ship's stores, through which unauthorised items could enter.

6. Security risk assessment is done by evaluating:

A. The type of risk
B. The reason for the risk
C. The likelihood and the consequences of the risk
D. The existing security measures

Answer: C — The likelihood and the consequences of the risk

Risk is assessed as a combination of the likelihood of a threat occurring and the consequences if it does. This is the basis of the ship and port facility security assessments under the ISPS Code.

7. Security aspects of the ship layout to be verified and surveyed are:

A. All access points to the ship and the prevention of unauthorised access
B. Location of crew accommodation and engine room
C. Positioning of cargo gear such as cranes and derricks
D. Location of ballast and oil tanks

Answer: A — All access points to the ship and the prevention of unauthorised access

The on-scene security survey in ISPS Code A/8.4 and B/8.5 focuses on identifying all access points to the ship and the measures needed to prevent unauthorised access, which are the main security weaknesses of a ship.

8. During verification of the SSP a security drill is conducted. Observations needing corrective action will be raised if:

A. The SSO demonstrates excessive control
B. Measures over and above those in the SSP are implemented
C. The master's actions are proactive and in line with the SSP
D. There is inadequate participation of crew members in the drill

Answer: D — There is inadequate participation of crew members in the drill

Drills are meant to test crew response to SSP procedures. Inadequate crew participation shows that the plan is not effectively implemented and would be noted by the auditor for corrective action under ISPS Code requirements.

9. The highest risk during a pirate attack arises from:

A. Dummies used to deter pirates
B. Physical barriers at vulnerable locations
C. Crew members left outside the citadel
D. Water cannons with low water pressure

Answer: C — Crew members left outside the citadel

A citadel only works if all crew are inside it. Any crew member left outside can be captured and used as leverage, and naval forces will normally not intervene unless all crew are accounted for in the citadel (BMP).

10. If a ship is at, or is required by its Administration to set, a higher security level than the port it intends to enter, the ship shall advise:

A. The SSO
B. The Designated Authority and the PFSO
C. The harbour master only
D. The CSO only

Answer: B — The Designated Authority and the PFSO

SOLAS XI-2/4.5 requires a ship at a higher security level than the port facility to advise, without delay, the competent authority of the Contracting Government in whose territory the port facility is located and the PFSO.

11. An RSO's role with regard to a port facility is related to:

A. Issuance of ISPS certificates to the port
B. Carrying out port facility security assessments/surveys
C. Approving the port facility security plan developed by it
D. Developing the SSP

Answer: B — Carrying out port facility security assessments/surveys

ISPS Code A/4.3 permits an RSO to conduct port facility security assessments on behalf of the Contracting Government, but approval of the PFSA and PFSP is reserved to the Government and cannot be delegated.

12. The system developed by IMO to provide access to maritime security information and other shipping information to all end users is:

A. SAR Convention
B. ISPS Code
C. SOLAS
D. Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS)

Answer: D — Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS)

GISIS is IMO's online database giving public and Member State access to data such as maritime security information, piracy and armed robbery reports, port facility data and ship particulars.

13. The International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is issued to the ship by the:

A. Coast guard
B. Port authorities
C. CSO
D. Flag state (or an RSO on its behalf)

Answer: D — Flag state (or an RSO on its behalf)

ISPS Code A/19.2 states that the ISSC is issued or endorsed by the Administration of the flag State, or by an RSO acting on its behalf, after initial or renewal verification of the ship.

14. A Port Facility Security Officer is responsible for:

A. Maintenance of the port
B. Maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan
C. Entry of persons into the port
D. Entry of vehicles into the port

Answer: B — Maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan

ISPS Code A/2.1.8 and A/17.2 make the PFSO responsible for developing, implementing, revising and maintaining the Port Facility Security Plan, and for liaison with SSOs and CSOs.

15. A Contracting Government ensures implementation of the legal security requirements (PFSO, PFSP etc.) in port facilities within its jurisdiction acting as the:

A. Flag state
B. Port state
C. Coastal state
D. Coast guard

Answer: B — Port state

Security of port facilities is the responsibility of the Contracting Government in whose territory they lie, acting as port State through its Designated Authority, which approves PFSAs and PFSPs and sets port security levels.

16. When a security risk is identified, the Contracting Government should inform ships and all concerned of the:

A. Source of the information
B. Exact location of the risk
C. Severity of the risk
D. Current security level

Answer: D — Current security level

SOLAS XI-2/3 and ISPS A/4 require Contracting Governments to set security levels and provide security-level information to ships and port facilities, without disclosing the source of the intelligence.

17. Whenever security level 2 or 3 is set by the Administration, the ship shall:

A. Alert all crew on board
B. Inform the company only
C. Acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level
D. Alert the boat crew

Answer: C — Acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level

ISPS Code A/7.4 requires a ship, when a higher security level is set by the Administration, to acknowledge receipt of the instructions on the change of security level and confirm that it has implemented the required measures.

18. The SSO's duties and responsibilities include:

A. Comparing the SSPs of other ships in the fleet
B. Overseeing security assessments of the entire fleet
C. Reviewing the PFSP of the port of call
D. Reporting all security incidents

Answer: D — Reporting all security incidents

ISPS Code A/12.2 lists SSO duties, including reporting to the CSO any deficiencies and non-conformities and reporting all security incidents. Fleet-wide assessments are CSO functions, and PFSPs are reviewed by the PFSO.

19. On security grounds, the master has the authority to directly:

A. Reject any cargo of dangerous goods
B. Deny access to all foreign nationals
C. Allow free entry of crew members from other vessels
D. Reject stores of a suspicious nature

Answer: D — Reject stores of a suspicious nature

SOLAS XI-2/8 gives the master overriding authority for decisions on ship security, including denying access to persons or their effects and refusing to load cargo or ship's stores considered suspicious or a security risk.

20. A CSO can be nominated for:

A. One ship only
B. Two ships only
C. Three ships only
D. One or several ships

Answer: D — One or several ships

ISPS Code A/11.1 states that a company may designate a person as CSO for one or more ships, depending on the number and types of ships operated, provided responsibilities are clearly defined.

21. The ship's arrival and departure times are considered:

A. Security-sensitive information
B. Freely accessible information
C. Unimportant information
D. Public information to be advertised

Answer: A — Security-sensitive information

Details of a ship's movements, including arrival and departure times, could help criminals or terrorists plan an attack. In security training they are treated as security-sensitive and shared only with those who need them.

22. A port facility is required to act upon the security levels set by:

A. The flag state of the visiting ship
B. IMO
C. The Contracting Government within whose territory it is located
D. The national police

Answer: C — The Contracting Government within whose territory it is located

ISPS Code A/14.1 requires a port facility to act upon the security levels set by the Contracting Government within whose territory it is located, implementing the measures in its PFSP for that level.

23. A security incident is defined as:

A. An attack on a ship obstructing safe navigation
B. Any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship or port facility
C. An attack on the security officer while in port
D. Any act endangering the safety of a ship in port

Answer: B — Any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship or port facility

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.13 defines a security incident as any suspicious act or circumstance threatening the security of a ship, MODU, high-speed craft, port facility, ship/port interface or ship-to-ship activity.

24. A ship-to-ship activity means any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons:

A. Between two ships in port only
B. Between two ships at anchorage only
C. Between two ships of the same flag only
D. From one ship to another

Answer: D — From one ship to another

SOLAS XI-2/1.1.10 defines a ship-to-ship activity as any activity not related to a port facility that involves the transfer of goods or persons from one ship to another, wherever it takes place.

25. Security level 2 applies for the period of time during which there is:

A. A need to maintain minimum protective security measures
B. A recent piracy attack in the region
C. A heightened risk of a security incident
D. An imminent or probable security incident

Answer: C — A heightened risk of a security incident

ISPS Code A/2.1.10-12 defines level 1 as normal minimum measures, level 2 as the level for a heightened risk of a security incident, and level 3 for when a security incident is probable or imminent.

26. Special measures to enhance maritime safety are contained in SOLAS Chapter:

A. IX
B. X
C. XI-1
D. XI-2

Answer: C — XI-1

SOLAS Chapter XI-1 covers special measures to enhance maritime safety, such as the IMO ship identification number and the Continuous Synopsis Record. Chapter XI-2 deals with special measures to enhance maritime security.

27. C&ROIN is the acronym for:

A. Crew and registration identification number
B. Company and registered owner identification number
C. Company and registration of independent number
D. Company and registered organisation identification number

Answer: B — Company and registered owner identification number

SOLAS XI-1/3-1 requires the IMO unique company and registered owner identification number (C&ROIN) to be assigned to companies and registered owners and recorded on certificates such as the DOC, SMC, ISSC and CSR.

28. A circumstance that can warrant a Declaration of Security is when the:

A. Ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility
B. Ship is operating at security level 1
C. Ship is operating at security level 2 with the port at level 2
D. Ship is operating at a lower security level than the port

Answer: A — Ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility

ISPS Code A/5.2 lists cases where a ship can request a DOS, including when the ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility or another ship with which it interfaces.

29. The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is maintained and updated:

A. Throughout the ship's life
B. Every voyage
C. Every month
D. Every year

Answer: A — Throughout the ship's life

SOLAS XI-1/5 requires the CSR to provide an on-board record of the ship's history, kept on board and updated whenever particulars such as flag, name, owner or company change, throughout the life of the ship.

30. Approval of the PFSP (Port Facility Security Plan) is under the authority of the:

A. Flag state
B. Port state (Designated Authority)
C. Recognised Security Organisation
D. Ship's coastal state of registry

Answer: B — Port state (Designated Authority)

ISPS Code A/16.1 requires the PFSP to be approved by the Contracting Government in whose territory the port facility is located; under A/4.3 this approval cannot be delegated to an RSO.

Set 12 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. A short international voyage is an international voyage in the course of which a ship is not more than ____ from a port or place where passengers and crew could be placed in safety.

A. 50 miles
B. 100 miles
C. 150 miles
D. 200 miles

Answer: D — 200 miles

SOLAS I/2 defines a short international voyage as one where the ship is not more than 200 miles from a port or place of safety, and the distance from the last port of call to the final port does not exceed 600 miles.

2. Which of the following is a mandatory requirement of the SOLAS Convention to enhance ship security?

A. Provision of a ship security alert system
B. Fitting of anti-piracy boarding systems
C. Providing high pressure water turrets
D. Fitting electrified fences

Answer: A — Provision of a ship security alert system

SOLAS XI-2/6 makes a ship security alert system mandatory for ships to which the chapter applies. Water cannons, razor wire and similar ship protection measures are recommended by BMP but are not SOLAS requirements.

3. A CSO is required to liaise on security matters with the:

A. Master and PFSO
B. Master and charterer
C. PFSO and consignee
D. Charterer and SSO

Answer: A — Master and PFSO

ISPS Code A/11.2.13 requires the CSO to ensure effective communication and cooperation between the SSO and the relevant PFSOs, and the CSO works closely with the master on all security matters.

4. Setting the security level is carried out by the:

A. Maritime Administration (Contracting Government)
B. Ministry of Shipping
C. Port
D. Ship

Answer: A — Maritime Administration (Contracting Government)

SOLAS XI-2/3 makes Contracting Governments responsible for setting security levels: the Administration sets them for its ships, and the Government sets them for port facilities in its territory.

5. When the SSAS is activated, it must transmit an alert to:

A. All ships in the vicinity
B. All crew on board
C. A competent authority designated by the Administration
D. The nearest port only

Answer: C — A competent authority designated by the Administration

SOLAS XI-2/6.2.1 requires the SSAS to initiate and transmit a ship-to-shore security alert to a competent authority designated by the Administration, which may include the company.

6. The Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is the responsibility of the:

A. Master
B. CSO
C. SSO
D. Administration

Answer: B — CSO

ISPS Code A/8.1 and A/11.2.2 make the Company Security Officer responsible for ensuring that the ship security assessment is carried out by persons with appropriate skills, including an on-scene survey.

7. The Ship Security Officer (SSO) is the person on board the ship accountable to the:

A. Company
B. Master
C. Port
D. Administration

Answer: B — Master

ISPS Code A/2.1.6 defines the SSO as the person on board the ship, accountable to the master, designated by the company as responsible for the security of the ship and for liaison with the CSO and PFSOs.

8. For exchange of security related information under SOLAS, which of the following must be fitted on board?

A. Gyro compass
B. Radar
C. AIS and LRIT
D. ECDIS

Answer: C — AIS and LRIT

AIS (SOLAS V/19) and LRIT (SOLAS V/19-1) provide ship identification and position information to coastal States and flag Administrations, and are key tools for maritime domain awareness and security.

9. Containers used in intermodal transport are subjected to security scanning mainly to detect:

A. Loading of IMDG cargoes
B. Carriage of refrigerated cargoes
C. Illicit trade in drugs and weapons
D. Freight collection irregularities

Answer: C — Illicit trade in drugs and weapons

Containers can easily be used to smuggle drugs, weapons and other illicit goods because their contents are hidden. Security scanning and seal checks are therefore carried out to detect contraband before loading.

10. When pirates board a ship, the crew should take shelter in the:

A. Citadel (if available)
B. Bridge
C. Engine room
D. Steering flat

Answer: A — Citadel (if available)

BMP advises that if pirates gain access, all crew should retreat to the citadel, a pre-planned secure space with communications, where they remain until the military arrives. Other spaces are not designed to resist forced entry.

11. The IMB Piracy Reporting Centre (PRC) in Kuala Lumpur provides free services to seafarers. These do NOT cover:

A. A contact point to report piracy incidents
B. Pirates' command centre details and identity
C. Piracy maps of the area
D. Piracy-prone areas and warnings

Answer: B — Pirates' command centre details and identity

The IMB PRC operates a 24-hour contact point for reporting attacks, broadcasts warnings and publishes live piracy maps and reports. It does not provide intelligence on pirate command centres or their identities.

12. Which type of ship is normally least likely to be attacked by pirates?

A. Container ships
B. General cargo ships
C. Handy-size bulk carriers and tankers
D. Passenger ships

Answer: D — Passenger ships

Pirates prefer slow ships with low freeboard and small crews, such as handy-size bulkers, tankers and general cargo ships. Passenger ships are fast, have high freeboard and many people on board, making boarding difficult, so they are rarely targeted.

13. The ISPS Code came into force on

A. 1st July 2002
B. 1st July 2003
C. 1st July 2004
D. 1st July 2005

Answer: C — 1st July 2004

The ISPS Code was adopted by the SOLAS Diplomatic Conference in December 2002 as part of new SOLAS Chapter XI-2 and entered into force on 1 July 2004 for ships and port facilities.

14. Under the IMO FAL Convention, a stowaway is a person secreted on a ship or in its cargo without consent who is:

A. A crew member who fails to rejoin the ship before sailing
B. Found on board while the ship is still alongside at the port of embarkation
C. Detected on board after the ship has departed from a port, or in the cargo while unloading at the port of arrival
D. Any unauthorised visitor found on the gangway

Answer: C — Detected on board after the ship has departed from a port, or in the cargo while unloading at the port of arrival

The FAL Convention defines a stowaway as a person secreted on a ship or in cargo without the consent of the owner or master who is detected after the ship has departed, or in the cargo while unloading, and is reported as such by the master.

15. Which of the following best describes 'collateral damage' as a maritime security threat?

A. Damage to cargo caused by poor stowage
B. Loss of revenue from delayed port clearance
C. Damage caused by heavy weather to deck fittings
D. Damage to a ship caused by an attack aimed at a nearby target such as another ship or port installation

Answer: D — Damage to a ship caused by an attack aimed at a nearby target such as another ship or port installation

Collateral damage is harm suffered by a ship, its crew or cargo that was not the intended target, for example from an explosion or attack directed at an adjacent vessel or a port facility. The STSDSD syllabus lists it among current threats to shipping.

16. The 1985 hijacking of the passenger ship Achille Lauro led directly to the adoption of which instrument?

A. The ISPS Code, 2002
B. The SUA Convention, 1988 (Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Maritime Navigation)
C. The MLC, 2006
D. The FAL Convention, 1965

Answer: B — The SUA Convention, 1988 (Suppression of Unlawful Acts against the Safety of Maritime Navigation)

The Achille Lauro hijacking prompted IMO to issue MSC/Circ.443 and to adopt the 1988 SUA Convention in Rome, which makes unlawful acts such as seizing a ship by force criminal offences that States must prosecute or extradite.

17. The 2002 attack on the tanker Limburg off Yemen is an example of which security threat?

A. Contraband smuggling through ship's stores
B. Stowaway infiltration
C. Terrorism using an explosive-laden small boat
D. Cargo theft by organised gangs

Answer: C — Terrorism using an explosive-laden small boat

The Limburg was struck by a small boat packed with explosives off Yemen in 2002, a terrorist attack showing that merchant ships themselves can be targets. Such incidents reinforced the need for the ISPS Code measures adopted that year.

18. Why is contraband smuggling considered a security threat to the ship and not only a customs matter?

A. It is a threat only on passenger ships
B. The ship may be detained, fined or its crew arrested, and the same concealment routes can be used for weapons or explosives
C. It only affects the profit of the charterer
D. Contraband is always harmless to the ship's operation

Answer: B — The ship may be detained, fined or its crew arrested, and the same concealment routes can be used for weapons or explosives

Drugs or contraband found on board can lead to heavy fines, detention of the ship and arrest of crew, and the methods used to smuggle them—concealment in stores, cargo or spaces—can equally be exploited to bring weapons or explosive devices on board.

19. 'Intermodal' transport, as discussed in the STSDSD introduction, refers to:

A. Use of two engines on one ship
B. Carriage of dangerous goods in bulk only
C. Movement of cargo in the same unit, such as a container, by more than one mode of transport (sea, rail, road)
D. Transfer of passengers between two ships at sea

Answer: C — Movement of cargo in the same unit, such as a container, by more than one mode of transport (sea, rail, road)

Intermodal transport moves cargo in a standard unit, typically a container, across ship, rail and road without re-handling the contents. Each interface between modes is a point where tampering or concealment can occur, which is why the syllabus stresses the ship's interfaces.

20. High-security mechanical seals used on freight containers are specified by which standard?

A. ISO 9001
B. ISO 45001
C. ISO 14001
D. ISO 17712

Answer: D — ISO 17712

ISO 17712 sets requirements for mechanical seals for freight containers, including high-security bolt seals. Checking that seal numbers and condition match the documentation is a basic measure against cargo tampering at ship and port interfaces.

21. On arrival at a container berth, the seal number on a loaded container does not match the number on the cargo documents. What does this indicate?

A. That the container has passed customs inspection
B. Possible tampering with the container, which should be reported and the container treated as suspect
C. That the container is empty
D. A routine clerical difference that can be ignored

Answer: B — Possible tampering with the container, which should be reported and the container treated as suspect

A mismatched or damaged seal is a key indicator that a container may have been opened and its contents altered. Under the SSP the discrepancy should be reported to the SSO and port authorities and the unit handled as suspect cargo.

22. Which international programme provides 'Authorised Economic Operator' status to companies with secure supply chains?

A. The ISM Code
B. The MARPOL Convention
C. The World Customs Organization SAFE Framework of Standards
D. The Load Line Convention

Answer: C — The World Customs Organization SAFE Framework of Standards

The WCO SAFE Framework of Standards to Secure and Facilitate Global Trade introduced Authorised Economic Operator status for traders meeting supply-chain security standards, complementing the ship and port measures of the ISPS Code.

23. Refugees and migrants attempting to board ships, or being rescued at sea, are relevant to ship security mainly because:

A. They are never a concern for merchant ships
B. The ISPS Code prohibits rescuing them
C. They automatically become crew members
D. Large numbers of unidentified persons on board create safety, health and control problems that must be managed under the SSP

Answer: D — Large numbers of unidentified persons on board create safety, health and control problems that must be managed under the SSP

Masters must render assistance at sea, but an influx of unidentified persons can overwhelm the ship's resources and control measures. The syllabus lists stowaways and refugees as threats, so access control and crowd management procedures must be ready.

24. Cargo theft as a maritime security threat is most likely to occur:

A. Only when the ship is in dry dock
B. At ports, terminals and anchorages where cargo and stores are accessible
C. Only in mid-ocean on the high seas
D. Only on passenger ships

Answer: B — At ports, terminals and anchorages where cargo and stores are accessible

Most cargo theft happens where cargo is handled or stored—berths, terminals and anchorages—often with insider help. This is why the SSP requires supervision of cargo handling and control of access during port operations.

25. Which of the following is an example of a ship being used as a weapon?

A. Using fire hoses against boarders
B. Carrying an armed security team on board
C. Firing distress flares
D. Deliberately ramming a hijacked ship into a port facility or another ship

Answer: D — Deliberately ramming a hijacked ship into a port facility or another ship

Use of the ship itself as a weapon or means of causing damage is a threat explicitly listed in SOLAS/ISPS-based contingency planning, for example steering a hijacked tanker into a terminal, a bridge or a crowded anchorage.

26. A security threat to a ship is assessed mainly on the basis of:

A. The number of crew nationalities
B. The deadweight of the ship
C. The intent and capability of a potential perpetrator against that ship
D. The ship's age and flag only

Answer: C — The intent and capability of a potential perpetrator against that ship

Threat is the likelihood of an unlawful act against a target, judged from a perpetrator's intent and capability. Risk then combines threat with the ship's vulnerability and the consequences of an incident.

27. Who is responsible for detecting and reporting stowaways found on board after departure?

A. The pilot who disembarked last
B. The classification society
C. The master, who must report them to the appropriate authorities
D. The shipper of the cargo

Answer: C — The master, who must report them to the appropriate authorities

Under the FAL Convention the master reports a stowaway to the appropriate authorities at the next port and to the flag State, and the ship must treat the person humanely. Thorough searches before departure, required by the SSP, aim to prevent this.

28. Before sailing from a port known for stowaway attempts, the most effective security measure is:

A. Increasing main engine speed after leaving
B. Inspecting only the bridge
C. Locking only the accommodation doors
D. A thorough search of the ship, including holds, store rooms, funnel and rudder trunk, before departure

Answer: D — A thorough search of the ship, including holds, store rooms, funnel and rudder trunk, before departure

Stowaways often hide in holds, containers, lockers, funnel casing, chain lockers and rudder trunks. A planned pre-departure search using search check cards, together with access control at the gangway, is the recommended measure.

29. Which of these is a common way stowaways gain access to ships in port?

A. Boarding with cargo, stores or shore workers, or climbing mooring lines and anchor chains
B. Being delivered by the pilot boat with official papers
C. Joining as replacement crew through the manning agent
D. Arriving with port State control officers

Answer: A — Boarding with cargo, stores or shore workers, or climbing mooring lines and anchor chains

Stowaways commonly mingle with stevedores or stores deliveries, hide inside cargo, or climb mooring ropes and anchor chains at night. Rat guards, lighting, gangway control and deck patrols counter these methods.

30. The ship/port interface is a high-risk point for security because:

A. Persons, goods and services move between ship and shore, offering opportunities for unauthorised access and tampering
B. The ISPS Code does not apply in port
C. The ship is always at its lowest crew strength at sea
D. There are no security procedures in port

Answer: A — Persons, goods and services move between ship and shore, offering opportunities for unauthorised access and tampering

The ship/port interface is where the ship is directly affected by movement of persons, goods or port services. These movements create access opportunities that the SSP and the port facility security plan must jointly control.

Set 13 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Which threat pattern has characterised piracy in the Gulf of Guinea in recent years?

A. Collisions with fishing vessels
B. Kidnapping of crew for ransom and theft of cargo, especially oil products
C. Iceberg damage
D. Stowaways from cruise ships

Answer: B — Kidnapping of crew for ransom and theft of cargo, especially oil products

In the Gulf of Guinea, criminal groups have hijacked tankers to steal oil cargo and, increasingly, kidnapped crew members and taken them ashore for ransom. This differs from the Somali model of holding ships and crews off the coast.

2. Why are ships particularly vulnerable when at anchor or drifting off a port?

A. The ISPS Code requires all crew to be ashore
B. Low speed or no way allows boats to approach and crew vigilance may be reduced, especially at night
C. Pirates never operate near ports
D. They are always inside a secured port facility

Answer: B — Low speed or no way allows boats to approach and crew vigilance may be reduced, especially at night

Ships at anchor or drifting cannot use speed or manoeuvring to avoid boarding, and many armed robbery incidents occur in such conditions at night. Anchor watches, lighting and deck patrols are therefore essential.

3. Which type of cargo has historically been a prime target for hijacking and cargo theft in West Africa?

A. Ballast water
B. Iron ore in bulk carriers
C. Empty containers
D. Refined petroleum products carried by product tankers

Answer: D — Refined petroleum products carried by product tankers

West African criminal groups have hijacked product tankers to transfer and sell gasoil and gasoline on the black market. Recognising high-value, easily saleable cargo is part of understanding current threat patterns.

4. Terrorist interest in shipping is primarily due to:

A. The potential for mass casualties, economic disruption and use of the ship to deliver weapons or people
B. Ships being exempt from all security law
C. The low value of ships and cargo
D. The absence of crews on modern ships

Answer: A — The potential for mass casualties, economic disruption and use of the ship to deliver weapons or people

Shipping is attractive to terrorists because an attack can cause loss of life, close ports and disrupt global trade, and ships or containers can be used to move weapons or operatives. These concerns drove the 2002 SOLAS XI-2 and ISPS measures.

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the threats to maritime transport listed in the STSDSD introductory module?

A. Piracy and armed robbery
B. Ship's engine breakdown due to poor maintenance
C. Stowaways and refugees
D. Contraband smuggling

Answer: B — Ship's engine breakdown due to poor maintenance

The syllabus lists piracy and armed robbery, terrorism, contraband smuggling, stowaways and refugees, cargo theft and collateral damage. Mechanical failure is a safety and maintenance issue, not a security threat.

6. Drug traffickers who attach packages to the outside of a ship's hull below the waterline, for recovery by divers at the next port, are using a method known as:

A. Stowage planning
B. Bunker dilution
C. Container lashing
D. Parasitic or hull-attached concealment

Answer: D — Parasitic or hull-attached concealment

Traffickers increasingly attach drugs in sea chests, rudder spaces or hull attachments using divers, without the crew's knowledge. Underwater hull inspections and port checks of sea chests are used to counter this concealment method.

7. A 'rip-on/rip-off' method of drug smuggling in container trade involves:

A. Transferring bunkers between ships
B. Opening a legitimate container at origin to insert drugs and removing them at destination before customs inspection
C. Removing container lashings at sea
D. Swapping a ship's flag during the voyage

Answer: B — Opening a legitimate container at origin to insert drugs and removing them at destination before customs inspection

In rip-on/rip-off smuggling criminals, often with port insiders, break into a legitimate container, insert drugs and replace the seal, then retrieve the drugs at the destination terminal. Seal verification and access control at terminals counter it.

8. The STSDSD course is mandatory under STCW for:

A. Port facility personnel only
B. Seafarers assigned specific security duties under the ship security plan
C. Only the master and chief engineer
D. Only seafarers on passenger ships

Answer: B — Seafarers assigned specific security duties under the ship security plan

STCW regulation VI/6 and Section A-VI/6 paragraphs 4 to 6 require seafarers designated to perform security duties in connection with the SSP to meet the competence in Table A-VI/6-2, which the STSDSD course delivers.

9. Under the IMO Code of Practice (resolution A.1025(26)), an unlawful act of violence against a ship for private ends is classed as 'armed robbery' rather than piracy when it occurs:

A. Only against warships
B. Only on the high seas
C. Only in a port's inner harbour at night
D. Within a State's internal waters, archipelagic waters or territorial sea

Answer: D — Within a State's internal waters, archipelagic waters or territorial sea

Piracy, as defined in UNCLOS Article 101, occurs on the high seas or outside any State's jurisdiction. Resolution A.1025(26) defines armed robbery against ships as similar unlawful acts committed within a State's internal waters, archipelagic waters and territorial sea.

10. Recognition of persons posing potential security risks must be carried out on a non-discriminatory basis. This means it should be based on:

A. Observed behaviour and circumstances, not race, religion, nationality or gender
B. The person's nationality
C. Random selection of a particular ethnic group
D. The person's religion or dress

Answer: A — Observed behaviour and circumstances, not race, religion, nationality or gender

The STSDSD syllabus requires recognition of persons posing risks on a non-discriminatory basis, so attention is directed to suspicious behaviour, such as unusual interest in security arrangements or evasive answers, rather than personal characteristics.

11. Which behaviour by a visitor at the gangway should most alert a crew member with security duties?

A. Taking photographs of access points and asking about the ship's security arrangements
B. Asking the way to the ship's office
C. Carrying a briefcase with company documents
D. Showing a valid port pass when asked

Answer: A — Taking photographs of access points and asking about the ship's security arrangements

Unusual interest in security measures, photographing access points, guard routines or restricted areas, and questions about the SSP are typical indicators of reconnaissance before an unlawful act and should be reported to the SSO.

12. 'Tailgating' as a technique to circumvent security measures means:

A. Using a forged identity card
B. Approaching the ship's stern in a small boat
C. Hiding inside a container
D. Following closely behind an authorised person through a controlled access point without being checked

Answer: D — Following closely behind an authorised person through a controlled access point without being checked

Tailgating or piggybacking is gaining entry by following an authorised person through a door or gangway before it closes or while the watchman is distracted. Every person must be individually identified at the access point.

13. Which of the following is an example of a covert technique used to defeat ship security?

A. Firing at the bridge from a skiff
B. Impersonating a surveyor or contractor using forged documents
C. Ramming the ship's side
D. Throwing grappling hooks openly at the rail

Answer: B — Impersonating a surveyor or contractor using forged documents

Covert techniques rely on deception rather than force, for example false identity documents, posing as officials or service providers, concealment in cargo or stores, or bribing insiders. Verification of identity and of the purpose of visit counters them.

14. An 'insider threat' in ship security refers to:

A. A cyber attack from a foreign country
B. An intruder who climbs the anchor chain
C. A pirate attack from seaward
D. A crew member, contractor or port worker with legitimate access who assists or commits an unlawful act

Answer: D — A crew member, contractor or port worker with legitimate access who assists or commits an unlawful act

Insiders already have authorised access and knowledge of routines, making them able to bypass controls, for example by smuggling items on board or leaving doors unlocked. Need-to-know handling of security information and supervision help reduce this risk.

15. A distraction technique to circumvent security might involve:

A. Creating a disturbance at one access point while an accomplice boards at another
B. Booking a cabin through an agent
C. Presenting a valid ID card
D. Requesting permission from the SSO

Answer: A — Creating a disturbance at one access point while an accomplice boards at another

Intruders may stage an argument, accident or fire alarm to draw watchkeepers away so that others can board or place items unseen. Watchkeepers should report incidents but keep the access points they are responsible for covered.

16. During an emergency on a passenger ship, the basic psychology of a crowd tends to show:

A. Immediate perfect compliance with written notices
B. Calm, independent decision-making by each person
C. Panic and herd behaviour, with people following others or the loudest voice
D. Total silence and no movement

Answer: C — Panic and herd behaviour, with people following others or the loudest voice

In a crisis, crowds can quickly lose rational behaviour, spread panic and follow whoever appears to lead. Crew must therefore take visible, confident control and give simple, clear instructions to direct people safely.

17. When controlling a crowd during a security emergency, crew should give instructions that are:

A. Long and detailed so that every reason is explained
B. Shouted aggressively to frighten passengers into compliance
C. Short, clear, calm and repeated, in a language people understand, supported by gestures
D. Given only in writing on notice boards

Answer: C — Short, clear, calm and repeated, in a language people understand, supported by gestures

The syllabus stresses the importance of clear communication with crew and passengers in emergencies. Brief, calm, authoritative directions, repeated and reinforced with hand signals, reduce confusion and panic.

18. Why is it important for crew to keep passengers informed during a security incident?

A. Passengers must decide the response themselves
B. It is required to obtain passengers' consent before acting
C. Lack of information breeds rumour and panic, while accurate information helps maintain order
D. Information delays the response

Answer: C — Lack of information breeds rumour and panic, while accurate information helps maintain order

Uncertainty quickly causes fear and disorderly behaviour in a crowd. Timely, honest announcements about what is happening and what passengers must do maintain confidence and make crowd control easier.

19. In crowd management, crew members should identify and use 'leaders' in a group of passengers because:

A. Leaders can be asked to take over crew duties
B. It avoids the need for crew instructions
C. People in groups tend to follow persons who appear calm and in charge
D. They can be removed from the ship first

Answer: C — People in groups tend to follow persons who appear calm and in charge

Crowds naturally follow apparent leaders. Recognising calm individuals and enlisting them to help pass instructions and assist others extends the crew's control, especially where language barriers exist.

20. A person attempts to board claiming to be a technician but cannot name who requested the service. The correct action is to:

A. Deny access, verify the claim with the responsible officer or company, and report to the SSO
B. Allow access but ask him to sign the log afterwards
C. Allow access because technicians are usually expected
D. Escort him straight to the engine room

Answer: A — Deny access, verify the claim with the responsible officer or company, and report to the SSO

Every visitor's identity and reason for visit must be confirmed before access is granted under the SSP. Unverified claims are a common covert technique, so access is refused until the officer concerned confirms the visit.

21. Which of the following is a behavioural indicator that a person may be carrying something concealed?

A. Presenting identity documents promptly
B. Calm conversation with the gangway watch
C. Waiting patiently in the queue
D. Unusual nervousness, constant touching of a part of the body or bag, and avoiding screening

Answer: D — Unusual nervousness, constant touching of a part of the body or bag, and avoiding screening

Indicators include nervousness, sweating, reluctance to be searched, repeatedly checking a pocket or bag and inconsistent explanations. Such signs justify closer screening in accordance with the SSP and should be reported.

22. Pirates and armed robbers commonly try to circumvent ship security by:

A. Approaching from astern or low-freeboard areas at night using small fast boats and ladders or hooks
B. Requesting permission to board by VHF
C. Joining through the manning agent
D. Boarding only at a secured berth by the gangway

Answer: A — Approaching from astern or low-freeboard areas at night using small fast boats and ladders or hooks

Attackers exploit darkness, the ship's blind spots astern and low freeboard, using small fast craft, hooked ladders or grappling hooks. Lighting, lookouts, physical barriers and early detection are the countermeasures.

23. An 'unattended bag' is found in a passenger embarkation area. The first concern of crew with security duties is to:

A. Keep people away from it, not touch it, and report it to the SSO
B. Carry it to the purser's office
C. Throw it overboard immediately
D. Open it to identify the owner

Answer: A — Keep people away from it, not touch it, and report it to the SSO

An unattended item may be an explosive device or hoax. The recommended response is to clear and cordon the area, avoid touching or moving it, prevent radio use close to it if instructed, and report to the SSO under the SSP.

24. A crewmember notices a crane driver repeatedly entering a restricted area not needed for his work. The correct action is to:

A. Report the observation to the SSO without confronting him aggressively
B. Lock him inside the space
C. Ignore it as port workers are authorised
D. Ask him to sign the crew list

Answer: A — Report the observation to the SSO without confronting him aggressively

Repeated unexplained presence in restricted areas is a warning sign of possible reconnaissance, theft or tampering. Being observant and reporting to the SSO, who decides further action, is the role of seafarers with designated duties.

25. During a security incident on a crowded passenger deck, crew should direct people away from danger by:

A. Sounding the general alarm continuously without announcements
B. Leaving passengers to find their own way
C. Positioning themselves at key points, giving clear directions and keeping exits and routes unobstructed
D. Locking all doors to the deck

Answer: C — Positioning themselves at key points, giving clear directions and keeping exits and routes unobstructed

Effective crowd control relies on crew stationed at decision points such as stairways and doors, clear directions and unobstructed routes, so that people can be moved in an orderly way and do not crowd towards the danger.

26. Social engineering, as a method of circumventing security, means:

A. Engineering stronger access doors
B. Training crew in crowd control
C. Manipulating people into revealing information or granting access, often by phone, email or in person
D. Designing the ship's accommodation layout

Answer: C — Manipulating people into revealing information or granting access, often by phone, email or in person

Social engineering exploits trust and helpfulness, for example by phishing emails or by calls pretending to be from the company asking for passwords, schedules or security details. Crew should verify requests and protect security-sensitive information.

27. Under the STSDSD syllabus, the on-scene security survey is divided into sections including physical security, structural integrity, personnel protection systems, procedural policies, radio and telecommunication systems and:

A. Main engine performance
B. Ballast water management
C. Other areas
D. Cargo stowage planning

Answer: C — Other areas

The syllabus divides the on-scene survey into physical security, structural integrity, personnel protection systems, procedural policies, radio and telecommunication systems, and other areas that, if damaged or used for illicit observation, could pose a risk to persons, property or operations.

28. Under ISPS Code Part A section 8, the ship security assessment must include an on-scene security survey and at least the identification of existing measures, key shipboard operations, possible threats and:

A. Weaknesses, including human factors, in the infrastructure, policies and procedures
B. Crew wage scales
C. Fuel consumption figures
D. The ship's charter party terms

Answer: A — Weaknesses, including human factors, in the infrastructure, policies and procedures

ISPS A/8.4 requires the SSA to include an on-scene survey and identification of existing security measures, procedures and operations, key shipboard operations to protect, possible threats and their likelihood, and weaknesses including human factors.

29. Before conducting an on-scene security survey, the person carrying it out should:

A. Only interview the cook
B. Board without any preparation to see the real condition
C. Wait until the ship enters dry dock
D. Review the ship's general arrangement plans, previous assessments, security records and threat information

Answer: D — Review the ship's general arrangement plans, previous assessments, security records and threat information

The syllabus lists preparations before an on-scene survey: gathering plans, previous SSAs and audits, incident records, threat assessments and port information so that the survey can focus on relevant areas and operations.

30. Which of the following is part of 'personnel protection systems' examined during a security survey?

A. Means of protecting crew such as the citadel, safe muster areas, alarms and communication
B. The cargo pumping system
C. Cargo hold ventilation
D. The fresh water generator

Answer: A — Means of protecting crew such as the citadel, safe muster areas, alarms and communication

Personnel protection systems are the arrangements that protect people on board during an incident, such as alarms, communication, protected muster points and citadels. The survey checks that they exist, work and are known to the crew.

Set 14 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. During a ship security assessment, 'procedural policies' refers to:

A. The ship's stability booklet
B. The written and practised procedures such as access control, visitor handling, key control and reporting
C. The company's commercial policies
D. The ship's insurance policy

Answer: B — The written and practised procedures such as access control, visitor handling, key control and reporting

Procedural policies are the security procedures that crew follow, including identification checks, visitor escorts, key control, patrols and reporting. The syllabus notes that proper procedures are vital in preventing and mitigating incidents, including pirate attacks.

2. A key purpose of identifying vulnerabilities during the SSA is to:

A. Prepare countermeasures that reduce the ship's exposure to identified threats
B. Calculate the ship's freight earnings
C. Decide the crew's nationality
D. Replace the need for an SSP

Answer: A — Prepare countermeasures that reduce the ship's exposure to identified threats

The SSA identifies weaknesses in physical security, procedures and human factors so that countermeasures can be developed and written into the SSP. The syllabus links vulnerability identification directly to the preparation of countermeasures.

3. Which characteristics make a merchant ship most vulnerable to pirate boarding?

A. Low freeboard and slow speed
B. Large crew and high freeboard
C. High freeboard and high speed
D. Night-time speed above service speed

Answer: A — Low freeboard and slow speed

BMP guidance and the STSDSD syllabus identify low freeboard and slow speed as the factors that make boarding easiest. Ship size, sea state, visibility and day/night conditions also affect vulnerability.

4. Why do small-boat pirate attacks become less likely in rough sea conditions?

A. Ships carry armed guards only in rough weather
B. Ship radars work only in rough weather
C. Pirates are prohibited from operating during monsoons
D. Small skiffs find it difficult to approach and place ladders alongside in heavy seas

Answer: D — Small skiffs find it difficult to approach and place ladders alongside in heavy seas

Skiffs used by pirates are small and lightly built, so high waves and swell make high-speed approach and boarding very difficult. Attack frequency in the Indian Ocean has historically dropped during the monsoon seasons.

5. Before entering a high-risk area, ships following BMP should register with which organisation for the Gulf of Aden/Somali basin?

A. IMB Piracy Reporting Centre only
B. ReCAAP ISC
C. International Labour Organization
D. MSCHOA (Maritime Security Centre - Horn of Africa)

Answer: D — MSCHOA (Maritime Security Centre - Horn of Africa)

BMP guidance asks ships to register their transit with MSCHOA, which coordinates naval protection, and to report to UKMTO. Registration allows naval forces to know which ships are in the area and to plan protection.

6. Under BMP guidance, UKMTO serves merchant ships in the Indian Ocean/Red Sea region as:

A. The classification society for armed guards
B. The primary point of contact for reporting position and security incidents in the Voluntary Reporting Area
C. The ship's P&I insurer
D. The authority that issues ISSCs

Answer: B — The primary point of contact for reporting position and security incidents in the Voluntary Reporting Area

UK Maritime Trade Operations is the primary point of contact for merchant ships in the Voluntary Reporting Area, receiving initial, daily and final reports and incident alerts, and passing information to naval forces.

7. In the Gulf of Guinea, the reporting and information centre for merchant ships operated by the French and UK navies is:

A. ReCAAP ISC
B. UKMTO Dubai only
C. MSCHOA
D. MDAT-GoG (Maritime Domain Awareness for Trade - Gulf of Guinea)

Answer: D — MDAT-GoG (Maritime Domain Awareness for Trade - Gulf of Guinea)

MDAT-GoG, operated jointly by the French and UK navies from Brest, is the reporting centre for ships in the Gulf of Guinea Voluntary Reporting Area. Ships send it initial, daily and final reports and incident alerts.

8. Ship protection measures recommended by BMP are intended primarily to:

A. Allow pirates to board without harm
B. Replace the need for watchkeeping
C. Increase the ship's cargo capacity
D. Detect, deter and delay boarding until help arrives or the attack is abandoned

Answer: D — Detect, deter and delay boarding until help arrives or the attack is abandoned

The syllabus calls for self-protection measures to detect, deter and delay an attack. Physical barriers, lookouts, lighting, water spray and manoeuvring buy time for the crew to reach the citadel and for naval forces to respond.

9. Which of the following is a BMP-recommended physical barrier against boarding?

A. Lowering the accommodation ladder
B. Leaving the pilot ladder rigged
C. Removing all deck lighting
D. Razor wire fitted along the ship's side rails

Answer: D — Razor wire fitted along the ship's side rails

Razor wire and other physical barriers on the rails at low-freeboard areas make it hard for boarders to climb on board. They must be fitted securely and not obstruct crew escape routes or emergency equipment.

10. Transiting the Gulf of Aden in the Internationally Recommended Transit Corridor (IRTC) and in a group transit is advised because:

A. It reduces fuel consumption to zero
B. The corridor is outside all coastal States' waters, so no piracy occurs
C. Pirates are not permitted to enter it
D. Naval forces concentrate their patrols in the corridor and ships moving together are easier to protect

Answer: D — Naval forces concentrate their patrols in the corridor and ships moving together are easier to protect

The IRTC is patrolled by naval forces, and group transits at set speeds allow them to protect several ships at once. The syllabus refers to transiting the high-risk area in the recommended zone and preferably in a convoy.

11. While transiting a high-risk area, why should ships update their position frequently with the flag State, coastal authorities and naval forces?

A. So that authorities know where the ship is and can respond quickly if it is attacked
B. Because AIS is always switched off by law
C. To claim reduced port dues
D. To obtain weather routing

Answer: A — So that authorities know where the ship is and can respond quickly if it is attacked

The syllabus requires communication with the flag State, coastal authority and task force to update the ship's position. Regular reporting allows naval forces to track the ship and shortens their response time in an attack.

12. Somali piracy has typically followed a business model based on:

A. Hijacking ships and holding the ship and crew for ransom off the Somali coast
B. Stealing cargo containers in port
C. Selling forged certificates
D. Smuggling stowaways to Europe

Answer: A — Hijacking ships and holding the ship and crew for ransom off the Somali coast

Somali pirate groups, backed by financiers ashore, hijack ships and hold the vessel and crew at anchor off Somalia while ransom is negotiated, sometimes for many months. Understanding this model explains the emphasis on preventing boarding.

13. Which equipment did Somali pirates typically use to extend their range into the Indian Ocean?

A. Submarines
B. Helicopters
C. Motherships, often hijacked dhows or fishing vessels, towing attack skiffs
D. Large container ships

Answer: C — Motherships, often hijacked dhows or fishing vessels, towing attack skiffs

Motherships, usually captured dhows or fishing vessels, carried pirates, fuel and skiffs far from the coast, allowing attacks hundreds of miles offshore. Naval forces target them, and crews should report suspicious motherships.

14. Before entering a high-risk area, the master should ensure that the crew:

A. Are briefed on the ship protection measures, alarm signals and actions, and have rehearsed citadel drills
B. Have switched off all alarms
C. Are given extra shore leave
D. Have removed physical barriers to improve access

Answer: A — Are briefed on the ship protection measures, alarm signals and actions, and have rehearsed citadel drills

BMP guidance recommends briefing and drilling the crew before entering the risk area, including the distinct piracy alarm, muster and citadel procedures, so everyone knows what to do in an attack.

15. A distinct piracy or attack alarm on board is recommended because:

A. It is required only in port
B. Crew must be able to distinguish it from fire or abandon ship alarms and react correctly
C. It replaces the general alarm
D. It informs the pirates that they have been seen

Answer: B — Crew must be able to distinguish it from fire or abandon ship alarms and react correctly

BMP advises a distinctive security alarm signal different from other emergency alarms, so that crew immediately move to the safe muster point or citadel instead of to fire or lifeboat stations on deck.

16. When dummies or mannequins are placed on deck in a high-risk area, the purpose is to:

A. Train crew in first aid
B. Serve as targets for weapons practice
C. Give the impression of extra lookouts or armed guards to deter attackers
D. Test fire-fighting equipment

Answer: C — Give the impression of extra lookouts or armed guards to deter attackers

Mannequins dressed as guards or lookouts are a low-cost deterrent measure mentioned in industry guidance, suggesting heightened vigilance. They support but never replace real lookouts and other protection measures.

17. Enhanced bridge protection measures in BMP guidance include:

A. Painting the bridge in bright colours
B. Protective materials such as sandbags or plating around the bridge wings and windows to protect against gunfire
C. Removing the bridge windows
D. Moving the ship's controls to the poop deck

Answer: B — Protective materials such as sandbags or plating around the bridge wings and windows to protect against gunfire

Pirates often fire at the bridge to force the ship to slow down. Ballistic protection, film on windows and protective barriers on the bridge wings reduce the risk to watchkeepers, who must continue to manoeuvre the ship.

18. The Joint War Committee 'Listed Areas' are important to a ship planning a voyage because they:

A. Are areas closed to all navigation
B. Are areas where the ISPS Code does not apply
C. List ports where crew changes are prohibited
D. Identify areas of perceived enhanced risk where additional insurance and precautions apply

Answer: D — Identify areas of perceived enhanced risk where additional insurance and precautions apply

The Joint War Committee of the London insurance market publishes Listed Areas considered to carry enhanced war, piracy and terrorism risk. Entering them affects insurance and prompts additional security planning under the SSP.

19. On sighting a suspicious craft approaching at high speed in a high-risk area, the first action of the officer of the watch should be to:

A. Lower the pilot ladder to show peaceful intent
B. Raise the alarm, increase to maximum speed and inform the master
C. Switch off all navigation lights
D. Stop the engines and wait

Answer: B — Raise the alarm, increase to maximum speed and inform the master

Early detection followed by immediate action is crucial: sounding the security alarm, increasing speed, starting evasive manoeuvres and informing the master give the crew time to muster in safety and report the attack.

20. During a pirate attack, who must the ship report to in the Indian Ocean Voluntary Reporting Area?

A. UKMTO, followed by the company and flag State as per the SSP
B. Only the next port agent
C. The classification society
D. Only the charterer

Answer: A — UKMTO, followed by the company and flag State as per the SSP

UKMTO is the primary contact in the Voluntary Reporting Area and alerts naval forces in the vicinity. The SSP also requires the CSO and flag State to be informed, and the SSAS may be activated.

21. Before the crew retreat into the citadel when pirates are about to board, the bridge team should normally:

A. Open all accommodation doors
B. Stop the main engine and ensure all crew are accounted for
C. Leave the radio on channel 16 broadcasting the citadel location
D. Leave the engine at full speed with the wheel on autopilot towards the coast

Answer: B — Stop the main engine and ensure all crew are accounted for

BMP guidance is to bring the ship to a stop or disable propulsion, so pirates cannot steer the ship, and to make sure every crew member is inside. Citadel location must never be broadcast in plain language.

22. Naval forces will generally only consider a military intervention to free a boarded ship when:

A. Some crew are still on deck
B. All crew are confirmed safe inside the citadel with two-way communication
C. The ship is in port
D. The pirates have taken control of the bridge with crew present

Answer: B — All crew are confirmed safe inside the citadel with two-way communication

Military boarding is considered only if 100% of the crew are accounted for in the citadel, pirates cannot reach them and communication with the citadel is established. Use of a citadel does not guarantee a military response.

23. What is a 'safe muster point' in BMP guidance?

A. The open deck aft
B. The gangway
C. A protected internal area where crew gather during a suspicious approach, before deciding to retreat to the citadel
D. The lifeboat embarkation station

Answer: C — A protected internal area where crew gather during a suspicious approach, before deciding to retreat to the citadel

A safe muster point is a centrally located, protected space away from external bulkheads where non-essential crew gather when an attack is threatened. It is distinct from the citadel, which is used if pirates actually board.

24. Why should crew keep away from the bridge wings and open decks during an attack?

A. To allow pirates to board freely
B. Open decks must be kept clear for cargo work
C. Pirates often fire weapons at the bridge and accommodation to force the ship to stop
D. It is too windy on deck

Answer: C — Pirates often fire weapons at the bridge and accommodation to force the ship to stop

Pirates frequently fire small arms and RPGs at the bridge and accommodation to intimidate the crew into slowing down. Crew should stay behind protection and only essential personnel should remain on the bridge as long as safe.

25. Which of the following is an implication of a successful piracy attack for the crew?

A. Immediate repatriation with bonus pay
B. Possible injury, long captivity, psychological trauma and loss of contact with families
C. Automatic promotion
D. Exemption from all future sea service

Answer: B — Possible injury, long captivity, psychological trauma and loss of contact with families

Hijacked crews have faced violence, months or years in captivity, poor food and medical care, and long-lasting trauma. Recognising these implications underlines why preventing boarding is the priority.

26. Individuals react in different ways during a piracy attack. The best way to reduce panic among crew is:

A. Avoiding discussion of the risk
B. Leaving decisions to each individual
C. Keeping the plans secret from junior crew
D. Regular briefings and realistic drills so everyone knows their role

Answer: D — Regular briefings and realistic drills so everyone knows their role

People under sudden threat may freeze, panic or act rashly. The syllabus notes individual reactions vary, and familiarity gained through briefings and drills gives a practiced response that reduces confusion.

27. In March 2024 the Indian Navy freed the bulk carrier MV Ruen and its crew from Somali pirates. This case illustrates that:

A. Navies never intervene in hijacks
B. Somali piracy ended permanently in 2012
C. Piracy off Somalia can resurge and long-held vessels may be used as motherships
D. Merchant ships no longer need BMP measures

Answer: C — Piracy off Somalia can resurge and long-held vessels may be used as motherships

MV Ruen was hijacked in December 2023 and reportedly used as a mothership before the Indian Navy's operation freed 17 crew and detained the pirates. It showed that threats re-emerge and BMP measures remain essential.

28. While the ship is under attack, the SSAS should be activated to:

A. Covertly alert the competent authority ashore that the ship's security is under threat
B. Sound a loud alarm to frighten the pirates
C. Automatically stop the main engine
D. Broadcast a mayday on VHF

Answer: A — Covertly alert the competent authority ashore that the ship's security is under threat

The SSAS sends a covert alert identifying the ship and its position to the competent authority designated by the flag State, without raising an alarm on board. It complements the reports to UKMTO or MDAT-GoG.

29. In BMP guidance, the use of fire hoses or water cannon during an attack is intended to:

A. Extinguish pirate boats' engines automatically
B. Signal surrender
C. Make it difficult for pirates to approach and climb on board
D. Replace the need for a citadel

Answer: C — Make it difficult for pirates to approach and climb on board

Water spray from fixed nozzles or hoses directed at likely boarding points can swamp skiffs and make climbing hazardous. Such systems should be set up to operate without crew being exposed on deck.

30. If a ship's crew is in the citadel and pirates are on board, the crew should:

A. Open the citadel door when pirates knock
B. Come out after a few minutes to check the situation
C. Turn off all communication to remain hidden
D. Remain inside and maintain communication with naval forces or the company until told it is safe

Answer: D — Remain inside and maintain communication with naval forces or the company until told it is safe

Crew should stay in the citadel until naval forces or the company confirm it is safe, as pirates may wait or try to trick them into leaving. Maintaining external communication allows the response to be coordinated.

Set 15 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Keeping communication channels open with task forces and coordination authorities during an attack is important because:

A. It is needed to claim insurance
B. It allows them to update the situation periodically and plan assistance
C. It satisfies COLREG requirements
D. It allows pirates to locate the citadel

Answer: B — It allows them to update the situation periodically and plan assistance

The syllabus stresses that communications with naval task forces and local coordination centres must be maintained to give regular updates. Accurate information on crew location and pirate activity is essential for any intervention.

2. Should the crew of a merchant ship use force against armed pirates who have already boarded?

A. Yes; crew should always fight to defend the cargo
B. No; crew should avoid confrontation and retreat to safety, as resistance can lead to injury or death
C. Yes; but only with the ship's distress flares
D. Only if the cargo is valuable

Answer: B — No; crew should avoid confrontation and retreat to safety, as resistance can lead to injury or death

Industry guidance and the syllabus stress there are no dead heroes: unarmed crew must not confront armed boarders. Once pirates are on board the priority is the safety of life, by reaching the citadel or complying if captured.

3. What information should be ready for the initial report to UKMTO or MDAT-GoG if attacked?

A. Ship's name, position, course, speed, nature of the attack and number and description of craft
B. Cargo freight rate
C. Crew wage details
D. Last port's bunker price

Answer: A — Ship's name, position, course, speed, nature of the attack and number and description of craft

A rapid, standard report giving ship identity, position, course and speed, what is happening and a description of the attackers lets reporting centres alert nearby naval forces quickly. Templates are provided in BMP guidance.

4. After an attack has been repelled, the ship should:

A. Delete CCTV records to save space
B. Disclose the citadel location publicly
C. Resume normal routine without reporting
D. Send a follow-up report, preserve evidence and complete the post-incident report

Answer: D — Send a follow-up report, preserve evidence and complete the post-incident report

Following an attack the ship sends a follow-up report to UKMTO or MDAT-GoG, informs the CSO and flag State, preserves evidence such as photos and CCTV for investigators, and completes the standard post-incident report.

5. Which factor most increases the time pirates need to gain control of a ship?

A. Leaving the steering gear room open
B. Securing all access points to the accommodation, bridge and machinery spaces
C. Keeping only the lifeboats lowered
D. Removing deck lighting

Answer: B — Securing all access points to the accommodation, bridge and machinery spaces

Locking and strengthening doors and hatches to the accommodation, bridge, engine room and steering gear delays attackers after boarding, giving crew time to reach the citadel and naval forces time to respond.

6. The Ship Security Plan's contingency measures for a pirate attack should be consistent with:

A. Local fishing regulations
B. Only the charterer's instructions
C. Current BMP guidance and company procedures for the trading area
D. The ship's stability booklet

Answer: C — Current BMP guidance and company procedures for the trading area

The syllabus requires the crew to apply BMP methods together with the contingency measures in the SSP. The SSP's piracy annex and company instructions should reflect current industry guidance for the area being transited.

7. If pirates are seen preparing to fire on the ship, crew members on deck should:

A. Lower the gangway
B. Stand at the rail to watch the attackers
C. Move immediately to protected positions inside the accommodation
D. Wave flags to signal compliance

Answer: C — Move immediately to protected positions inside the accommodation

Exposure on deck risks injury from gunfire. All non-essential crew should already be at the safe muster point and anyone on deck must move to protected positions while the bridge team continues evasive action from cover.

8. 'There are no dead heroes' is a principle in hostage situations which means:

A. Try to escape alone at night
B. Comply with the pirates' orders and avoid resistance, as survival is the priority
C. Fight the captors at the first opportunity
D. Refuse food until released

Answer: B — Comply with the pirates' orders and avoid resistance, as survival is the priority

The syllabus stresses obedience to the pirates' orders. Armed captors under stress may react violently to resistance, so cooperation without provocation gives hostages the best chance of surviving until release.

9. In the immediate phase after being taken hostage, the most common personal reactions are:

A. Immediate long-term depression only
B. Complete indifference
C. Shock, disbelief, fear and numbness
D. Relief and happiness

Answer: C — Shock, disbelief, fear and numbness

The immediate crisis reaction usually involves shock, disbelief, fear and confusion. Understanding that these reactions are normal helps hostages regain composure and adapt to captivity.

10. When held hostage by pirates, a seafarer should avoid:

A. Eating and drinking what is provided
B. Asking permission before moving
C. Keeping a daily routine
D. Arguing with, insulting or making sudden movements towards the captors

Answer: D — Arguing with, insulting or making sudden movements towards the captors

Confrontation, insults or sudden movements can be interpreted as threats and provoke violence. Hostage guidance advises calm behaviour, asking permission before acting, and avoiding anything that may escalate tension.

11. Which of the following helps a hostage cope with long-term captivity?

A. Keeping a daily routine, exercising, maintaining hygiene and supporting fellow crew
B. Constantly challenging the captors' authority
C. Refusing all food in protest
D. Isolating oneself from other hostages

Answer: A — Keeping a daily routine, exercising, maintaining hygiene and supporting fellow crew

Routine, mental activity, exercise, personal hygiene and mutual support help maintain physical and mental health over long captivity. The syllabus includes long-term coping as a learning objective.

12. The 'Stockholm syndrome' sometimes seen in hostages refers to:

A. Hostages trying to escape repeatedly
B. A medical condition caused by cold weather
C. Hostages developing positive feelings or sympathy towards their captors
D. Captors releasing hostages early

Answer: C — Hostages developing positive feelings or sympathy towards their captors

Stockholm syndrome describes hostages forming an emotional bond with captors as a survival mechanism. Being aware of it helps crews understand their own reactions and avoid revealing information that could harm others.

13. If a rescue operation by armed forces takes place while you are held hostage, you should:

A. Run towards the rescuers
B. Pick up a weapon to help
C. Hide behind a pirate
D. Lie flat on the floor, keep hands visible and follow the rescuers' instructions

Answer: D — Lie flat on the floor, keep hands visible and follow the rescuers' instructions

During a rescue, sudden movement can be mistaken for hostile action. Hostages should get down, keep hands visible and empty, stay still and obey rescuers, who may restrain everyone until identities are confirmed.

14. Pirates sometimes stage mock executions or threats to provoke hostages. The recommended way to cope is to:

A. Beg the pirates loudly for mercy
B. Stay as calm as possible, avoid reacting aggressively and rely on fellow crew for support
C. Try to seize the pirate's weapon
D. Retaliate to show strength

Answer: B — Stay as calm as possible, avoid reacting aggressively and rely on fellow crew for support

Provocations such as threats or mock executions are intended to intimidate and pressure owners. The syllabus covers understanding such provocations and coping techniques, which centre on calmness, non-aggression and mutual support.

15. When held hostage, why should crew avoid discussing the shipowner's finances or their own wealth with the pirates?

A. It will shorten captivity
B. Pirates are not interested in money
C. Such information could be used to raise the ransom demand or target individuals
D. It is against the ISPS Code to talk to pirates

Answer: C — Such information could be used to raise the ransom demand or target individuals

Pirates aim to maximise ransom, and information about the owner's finances or wealthy families can be used in negotiation or to single out individuals. Hostages should keep conversations neutral and non-provocative.

16. Pirates may force hostages to telephone their families or the company. The hostage should:

A. Reveal the naval forces' positions
B. Follow the instructions, stay calm and avoid giving information that could compromise others
C. Give the pirates the company's bank details
D. Refuse and resist the order

Answer: B — Follow the instructions, stay calm and avoid giving information that could compromise others

Forced calls are used to put pressure on families and owners. Complying calmly reduces risk to the hostage, while avoiding sensitive details protects colleagues and the negotiation, which is handled by the company.

17. Which statement about personal reactions in captivity is correct?

A. Reactions such as anger, guilt, depression or anxiety are normal and may change over time
B. Reactions occur only after release
C. Only weak people react emotionally
D. All crew react in exactly the same way

Answer: A — Reactions such as anger, guilt, depression or anxiety are normal and may change over time

The syllabus covers personal reactions in immediate, post-crisis and short-term phases. Understanding that a range of emotions is normal helps hostages support each other and avoid blame.

18. If a hostage is sick or injured during captivity, the best course of action is to:

A. Attempt to leave the ship to seek help
B. Stop eating
C. Calmly inform the captors and request medical care or medicines through them
D. Hide the injury

Answer: C — Calmly inform the captors and request medical care or medicines through them

Pirates usually want hostages alive for ransom and may allow first aid or medicines. Calmly making the need known, while senior crew support the person, is the safest way to obtain care.

19. Senior officers in a hostage situation can best support the crew by:

A. Maintaining discipline, morale and cohesion, and acting as calm intermediaries with the pirates
B. Negotiating the ransom amount
C. Encouraging individuals to escape
D. Leaving each crew member to cope alone

Answer: A — Maintaining discipline, morale and cohesion, and acting as calm intermediaries with the pirates

Leadership in captivity helps keep the group together: maintaining routines and discipline, sharing information, supporting weaker members and communicating calmly with captors. Ransom negotiations are handled by the owner's team.

20. When pirates order hostages to perform tasks such as operating the ship, the crew should:

A. Pretend not to understand
B. Comply with the orders while avoiding unnecessary risks
C. Deliberately damage equipment
D. Refuse all work

Answer: B — Comply with the orders while avoiding unnecessary risks

Obedience to orders reduces the risk of violence. Crew should carry out instructions such as navigating or operating machinery while keeping safety in mind, and not attempt sabotage, which can provoke reprisals.

21. Which of the following is a recommended mental coping technique during long captivity?

A. Avoiding all communication with others
B. Counting the pirates' weapons openly
C. Constantly thinking about worst-case outcomes
D. Focusing on things within one's control, keeping hope and planning for life after release

Answer: D — Focusing on things within one's control, keeping hope and planning for life after release

Psychological guidance for hostages recommends focusing on controllable matters, keeping the mind active, maintaining hope and thinking about the future. These help limit despair during a prolonged hostage situation.

22. During captivity, hostages should accept food and water offered by captors because:

A. It obliges the pirates to release them
B. It shortens negotiations
C. Refusing is required by law
D. Maintaining physical strength and health is vital for survival

Answer: D — Maintaining physical strength and health is vital for survival

Captives may face long periods of poor conditions, so eating and drinking what is available, even if unfamiliar, helps preserve strength and health. Refusal can also be seen as defiance and cause tension.

23. Why might pirates move hostages ashore or separate them from the ship?

A. To hand them over to naval forces
B. To increase pressure in negotiations and make rescue more difficult
C. To carry out repairs
D. To provide them better accommodation

Answer: B — To increase pressure in negotiations and make rescue more difficult

Moving hostages ashore, as seen in Somalia and the Gulf of Guinea, complicates rescue and is used to apply pressure on owners and families. Hostages should continue to comply and support each other.

24. A hostage who observes details about the captors, such as appearance and number of weapons, should:

A. Photograph them with a mobile phone
B. Ask the pirates for their names and addresses
C. Openly write notes in front of pirates
D. Discreetly remember them for later debriefing without being seen to observe

Answer: D — Discreetly remember them for later debriefing without being seen to observe

Information on captors can assist investigation and prosecution after release, but overt observation may be seen as hostile. Hostages should note details mentally and report them at debriefing.

25. Pirates may use hostages as 'human shields'. This means:

A. Assigning hostages to watchkeeping only
B. Locking hostages in the citadel
C. Releasing hostages to the navy
D. Placing hostages where they deter attack or rescue by naval forces

Answer: D — Placing hostages where they deter attack or rescue by naval forces

Pirates sometimes keep hostages on deck or near their positions to deter naval action. This danger is one reason rescue forces require clear information on where the crew are.

26. Which phrase best describes the short-term period after the immediate crisis of being taken hostage?

A. Instant release
B. Retirement from sea
C. Adjustment to captivity, with fluctuating emotions, uncertainty and fatigue
D. Complete recovery

Answer: C — Adjustment to captivity, with fluctuating emotions, uncertainty and fatigue

After the initial shock, hostages enter a period of adjustment marked by uncertainty, fatigue and mood swings. The syllabus covers reactions in immediate, post-crisis and short-term phases to prepare seafarers mentally.

27. If hostages are allowed limited communication with the outside world, they should:

A. Reveal naval movements
B. Exaggerate their condition to speed release
C. Make promises about ransom amounts
D. Give accurate information on their health and keep messages calm and reassuring

Answer: D — Give accurate information on their health and keep messages calm and reassuring

Calm, accurate messages about health and wellbeing reassure families and assist the company's negotiation team. Exaggerating conditions or discussing ransom amounts can increase pressure on the owner and may prolong the negotiations.

28. When pirates are under the influence of drugs such as khat, hostages should be especially careful because:

A. It means release is imminent
B. The pirates will fall asleep and allow escape
C. It has no effect on behaviour
D. The captors' behaviour may become unpredictable and aggressive

Answer: D — The captors' behaviour may become unpredictable and aggressive

Somali pirates commonly chew khat, a stimulant that can cause mood swings, agitation and unpredictable behaviour, particularly when supplies run out. Hostages should avoid provocation and remain cautious.

29. A religious or cultural difference between hostages and captors should be handled by:

A. Debating beliefs with the captors
B. Avoiding discussion of religion and politics, and respecting the captors' customs
C. Refusing to work with them
D. Mocking their customs

Answer: B — Avoiding discussion of religion and politics, and respecting the captors' customs

Discussion of sensitive subjects such as religion or politics can provoke hostility. Hostage guidance advises neutral conversation and respect for captors' customs to reduce tension.

30. After a long period in captivity, a hostage group's best protection against despair is:

A. Mutual support, shared routines and maintaining hope of release
B. Planning a violent escape
C. Breaking into individual factions
D. Ignoring the welfare of others

Answer: A — Mutual support, shared routines and maintaining hope of release

Group cohesion helps hostages survive long captivity. Supporting each other, sharing tasks and routines and maintaining hope are central to long-term coping, which is a specific learning objective of the syllabus.

Set 16 — 31 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is a particular danger during the release process of a hijacked ship?

A. Another pirate group may attempt to seize the ship after the original pirates leave
B. The ISSC is withdrawn immediately
C. Crew wages are stopped
D. The ship is automatically arrested by the flag State

Answer: A — Another pirate group may attempt to seize the ship after the original pirates leave

After ransom is delivered and pirates disembark, the weakened ship and crew are vulnerable to other gangs or splinter groups. This is why naval escort and rapid departure to a safe area are arranged during release.

2. Immediately after the pirates leave the ship on release, the crew should:

A. Drift in the area until the next day
B. Check that all pirates have left, search for remaining weapons or devices, and contact the company and naval forces
C. Switch off all communications
D. Hold a celebration on deck

Answer: B — Check that all pirates have left, search for remaining weapons or devices, and contact the company and naval forces

Safeguards on release include confirming that no pirates remain, searching for weapons, explosives or booby traps left behind, establishing contact with the company and naval forces and leaving the area safely.

3. Before release, ransom payments for Somali hijacks have often been delivered by:

A. Credit card payment
B. Bank transfer to the ship's master
C. Airdrop of cash near the ship or delivery by boat
D. Cheque sent to the pirates' agent

Answer: C — Airdrop of cash near the ship or delivery by boat

In Somali cases ransom has commonly been delivered in cash, often dropped by aircraft near the ship or brought by boat. The period around delivery is tense and can be dangerous as pirates count money and argue among themselves.

4. A hijacked ship released after months off Somalia may face additional hazards because:

A. Its hull will have been cleaned by the pirates
B. Machinery may be poorly maintained and fuel, water and provisions may be very low
C. It will be sailing in a protected port
D. The crew will be fully rested

Answer: B — Machinery may be poorly maintained and fuel, water and provisions may be very low

During long captivity ships are often stripped of supplies and machinery is neglected. On release the ship may be short of fuel, food and water and may need naval or tug assistance to reach a safe port.

5. Which practical need should be addressed first for crew released after captivity?

A. A commercial debrief on cargo condition
B. Medical examination and treatment, food, water and rest
C. Signing a new contract
D. Immediately resuming normal duties

Answer: B — Medical examination and treatment, food, water and rest

Released hostages are often malnourished, injured or ill. The syllabus lists the practical needs of the crew after release, beginning with medical care, nourishment and rest, followed by contact with families and repatriation.

6. Why is professional psychological support recommended for seafarers after release from captivity?

A. Captivity can cause lasting trauma such as post-traumatic stress disorder, which may appear later
B. It is only for officers
C. It prevents the need for medical examination
D. It is required to renew the CoC

Answer: A — Captivity can cause lasting trauma such as post-traumatic stress disorder, which may appear later

Many released hostages suffer anxiety, sleep disturbance and PTSD, sometimes months later. Early screening, counselling and follow-up help recovery and are part of good practice in the post-release phase.

7. Which parties are typically involved in the post-release phase of a piracy hostage case?

A. Only the port State control officer
B. Only the charterer
C. Only the pirates' negotiator
D. Shipowner, manager, insurers, flag State, naval forces, crewing agents and welfare organisations

Answer: D — Shipowner, manager, insurers, flag State, naval forces, crewing agents and welfare organisations

The syllabus requires awareness of the various parties in post-release: the owner and manager, insurers and response consultants, flag and crew national governments, naval forces, manning agents, unions and seafarer welfare organisations.

8. Released crew may be interviewed by naval or police investigators because:

A. It is required to obtain wages
B. Their evidence can support the prosecution of pirates
C. It replaces medical care
D. Investigators want to blame the crew

Answer: B — Their evidence can support the prosecution of pirates

Crew observations about pirates, weapons and events are important evidence for prosecution. Debriefs should be handled sensitively, with medical needs met first, and crew informed of their rights.

9. Under the MLC, 2006 as amended in 2022 (in force December 2024), when a seafarer is held captive as a result of piracy or armed robbery, wages and entitlements:

A. Stop on the day of capture
B. Are paid only if the ship is released
C. Continue to be paid throughout captivity until the seafarer is released and duly repatriated
D. Are paid by the flag State only

Answer: C — Continue to be paid throughout captivity until the seafarer is released and duly repatriated

The 2022 amendments to Standard A2.2 require that wages and other entitlements under the seafarer's employment agreement continue during the entire period of captivity, even if the agreement expires, until release and repatriation.

10. Under the 2022 MLC amendments, a seafarer's employment agreement that expires while the seafarer is held captive by pirates:

A. Is cancelled by the pirates
B. Continues to have effect until the seafarer is released and repatriated
C. Ends automatically on its expiry date
D. Is transferred to the flag State

Answer: B — Continues to have effect until the seafarer is released and repatriated

The amended Standard A2.1 provides that the employment agreement continues to have effect while a seafarer is held captive as a result of piracy or armed robbery, regardless of its expiry date, until release and repatriation.

11. During the release process, the ship should be prepared to proceed under naval escort mainly to:

A. Avoid paying port dues
B. Collect evidence at sea
C. Protect the vulnerable ship and crew until they reach a safe port
D. Comply with customs rules

Answer: C — Protect the vulnerable ship and crew until they reach a safe port

Released ships are weak and exposed to re-attack. Escort by naval forces or protected passage to the nearest safe port is a key safeguard in the release process.

12. Why may the period just before release be one of the most dangerous phases of captivity?

A. Tension among pirates over the ransom and delays can provoke violence
B. The ship is already in port
C. Pirates are always calmer at this stage
D. Naval forces have taken control

Answer: A — Tension among pirates over the ransom and delays can provoke violence

Disputes among pirate groups over ransom shares, delays in payment and pirates' anxiety about leaving can make behaviour erratic. Hostages should stay calm and compliant until the pirates have fully left.

13. Repatriation of seafarers released after captivity is the responsibility of:

A. The shipowner, under the MLC, 2006 repatriation requirements
B. The pirates
C. The port State only
D. The seafarers themselves

Answer: A — The shipowner, under the MLC, 2006 repatriation requirements

Under MLC Regulation 2.5 the shipowner must repatriate seafarers at no cost to them, and the 2022 amendments specifically cover seafarers held captive due to piracy. Flag States must ensure this obligation is met.

14. A key advantage of serving with a reputed shipowner or manager when trading in piracy-risk areas is that they are more likely to:

A. Ignore BMP guidance
B. Avoid all piracy areas on every voyage
C. Pay ransom from crew wages
D. Have proper ship protection measures, crisis management plans and support for crew and families

Answer: D — Have proper ship protection measures, crisis management plans and support for crew and families

Reputed companies follow BMP, maintain crisis response plans, arrange insurance and family liaison, and meet MLC obligations such as continued wages and repatriation. The syllabus asks seafarers to consider this when seeking employment.

15. Before joining a ship trading in a piracy-risk area, what should a seafarer share with the family?

A. Unverified rumours from social media
B. Nothing at all, to avoid worry
C. Every detail of the ship's security plan
D. A balanced explanation of the risks, the protection measures in place and the company's contact details

Answer: D — A balanced explanation of the risks, the protection measures in place and the company's contact details

The syllabus encourages seafarers to consider what to share: honest but balanced information on risks and safeguards, and how to reach the company, prepares families without causing undue alarm or breaching security.

16. Why must a seafarer keep next-of-kin details up to date with the company?

A. To calculate the seafarer's income tax
B. So the company can contact and support the family quickly and accurately in an emergency
C. For port clearance purposes
D. It is required for the CSR

Answer: B — So the company can contact and support the family quickly and accurately in an emergency

Accurate next-of-kin information allows the company to inform the right person promptly and provide correct information. The syllabus highlights the seafarer's responsibility to ensure correct information reaches the family.

17. If pirates contact the family of a hostage seafarer directly, the family should:

A. Not negotiate, and pass all contact details to the company's family liaison or crisis team
B. Give the pirates the shipowner's details
C. Negotiate a ransom themselves
D. Post the conversation on social media

Answer: A — Not negotiate, and pass all contact details to the company's family liaison or crisis team

Pirates may call families to increase pressure. Negotiation is handled by the owner's professional response team; families should not negotiate or promise money but should inform the company immediately.

18. Family members of hostage seafarers are advised to be careful when speaking to the media because:

A. The media always provides correct information
B. It is illegal to speak to the media
C. It speeds up the release
D. Statements can be used by pirates to increase pressure or the ransom demand

Answer: D — Statements can be used by pirates to increase pressure or the ransom demand

Pirates follow news reports, and emotional public appeals or mention of money can strengthen their position. Families are encouraged to coordinate media contact with the company to protect the hostages.

19. Typical reactions of family members on learning that a seafarer has been taken hostage include:

A. Immediate acceptance with no concern
B. Indifference
C. Relief
D. Shock, fear, anger, helplessness and anxiety

Answer: D — Shock, fear, anger, helplessness and anxiety

The syllabus asks seafarers to be aware of the reactions of family members when informed of a hostage situation. Shock, anxiety, anger and helplessness are common, and families need regular, reliable information and support.

20. The most common worry of a seafarer's family concerning piracy is:

A. The ship's cargo value
B. The ship's fuel consumption
C. The physical safety of the seafarer and lack of information during an incident
D. Port State control inspections

Answer: C — The physical safety of the seafarer and lack of information during an incident

Families fear for the seafarer's safety and suffer from uncertainty if information is lacking. Understanding these concerns helps seafarers prepare families and choose employers that provide good communication and support.

21. Who should normally be the family's main source of information if a seafarer is held hostage?

A. Other seafarers' families only
B. The pirates
C. The company's designated family liaison person or crisis team
D. Social media posts

Answer: C — The company's designated family liaison person or crisis team

Good practice is for the company to appoint a family liaison who provides regular, accurate updates and support. This reduces reliance on rumours and protects the sensitive negotiation process.

22. Which organisation's guidance and programmes support seafarers and families affected by piracy?

A. The World Meteorological Organization
B. The Maritime Piracy Humanitarian Response Programme (MPHRP), now part of ISWAN
C. The International Hydrographic Organization
D. The International Civil Aviation Organization

Answer: B — The Maritime Piracy Humanitarian Response Programme (MPHRP), now part of ISWAN

MPHRP developed good-practice guides for companies and manning agents on the humanitarian support of seafarers and families affected by piracy, and its work continues under the International Seafarers' Welfare and Assistance Network.

23. Why should a seafarer avoid sharing details of the ship's route and security arrangements with family on social media?

A. They are security-sensitive and could be used by criminals to plan an attack
B. Families are not interested
C. It is the master's private information only
D. Social media is never read

Answer: A — They are security-sensitive and could be used by criminals to plan an attack

Voyage plans, transit timings and security measures are security-sensitive information. Posting them publicly, even innocently, could help criminals; seafarers should share general reassurance rather than operational details.

24. A seafarer's family receives a rumour that his ship has been hijacked. The best advice is to:

A. Tell the media
B. Ignore it entirely
C. Immediately contact the pirates
D. Contact the company or manning agent for verified information before reacting

Answer: D — Contact the company or manning agent for verified information before reacting

Rumours spread quickly in piracy incidents. Families should seek verified information from the company, which will be in contact with authorities and can confirm the facts and provide support.

25. Why should a seafarer understand the company's financial security arrangements for repatriation and abandonment under the MLC?

A. To avoid joining the ship
B. So the family knows the seafarer's rights to wages and repatriation are protected
C. It is required by the ISPS Code
D. To negotiate the ransom

Answer: B — So the family knows the seafarer's rights to wages and repatriation are protected

MLC Regulation 2.5 and Standard A2.5.2 require financial security for repatriation and abandonment, and the 2022 amendments protect wages during captivity. Knowing these rights reassures families about income and return.

26. Which statement about family members of a released hostage is correct?

A. They never need help
B. They should avoid contact for a year
C. They may also need support, as the seafarer's return can bring readjustment problems
D. They should ask the seafarer to rejoin immediately

Answer: C — They may also need support, as the seafarer's return can bring readjustment problems

Families experience their own stress during captivity, and on return they may face changes in the seafarer's behaviour due to trauma. Support for families as well as seafarers is part of good post-release practice.

27. Before sailing in a high-risk area, a seafarer can reduce family anxiety by:

A. Promising that nothing can happen
B. Giving family the ship's SSP
C. Explaining the company's support arrangements and how the family will be kept informed
D. Refusing to talk about work

Answer: C — Explaining the company's support arrangements and how the family will be kept informed

Realistic reassurance about protection measures, insurance and how the company would communicate in an incident helps families cope. Unrealistic promises or sharing confidential plans are not appropriate.

28. A seafarer's specific responsibility towards his family regarding piracy risks includes:

A. Keeping the family unaware of his employer
B. Instructing them to negotiate if needed
C. Arranging ransom funds in advance
D. Ensuring they have accurate contact information for the company and correct information about the risks

Answer: D — Ensuring they have accurate contact information for the company and correct information about the risks

The syllabus stresses the seafarer's responsibility to make sure correct information passes to the family: who to contact, what support exists and a realistic picture of risks, so that they are not misled in a crisis.

29. Why do pirates sometimes allow hostages to speak to their families during captivity?

A. Because it is required by international law
B. To reassure the shipowner
C. To create emotional pressure on families and owners to pay the ransom quickly
D. To help naval forces locate the ship

Answer: C — To create emotional pressure on families and owners to pay the ransom quickly

Calls from distressed hostages are a pressure tactic. Families should understand this, avoid committing to anything, and pass details to the company's response team, which handles negotiation.

30. Which statement about the employer's role towards families during a hostage incident is good practice?

A. Ask families to pay part of the ransom
B. Provide regular updates, a named contact person, and practical and financial support
C. Avoid contacting families until the crew are released
D. Refer all family enquiries to the media

Answer: B — Provide regular updates, a named contact person, and practical and financial support

Good-practice guidance asks companies to maintain regular contact with families through a named liaison, give accurate updates and arrange practical, financial and psychological support throughout the incident and after release.

31. When considering employment, which indicator suggests a shipowner is less reputable in relation to piracy risk?

A. Compliance with BMP and flag State guidance
B. Regular piracy drills on board
C. A documented family liaison procedure
D. No clear crisis plan, insurance or support arrangements for crew and families

Answer: D — No clear crisis plan, insurance or support arrangements for crew and families

Owners without crisis plans, insurance or family support arrangements may leave crews and families without help in an incident. The syllabus asks seafarers to weigh the advantages of employment with reputed owners and managers.

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STSDSD exit exam questions and answers — Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties

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