STSDSD exit exam questions and answers

All 154 questions from the Security Training for Seafarers with Designated Security Duties (STSDSD) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. One can ensure structural security by:

A. Sealing off the ship
B. Limiting entry into the ship
C. Locking all doors
D. Limiting Access Points

Answer: D — Limiting Access Points

Structural security is enhanced by physical measures that restrict unauthorized movement. Limiting access points allows the crew to better monitor and control entries, significantly reducing the risk of unauthorized boarding or intrusion.

2. The port facility is required to appoint:

A. Port Facility Security Officer
B. Ship Security Officer
C. Company Security Officer
D. Port Facility Security Assessment (PFSA)

Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer

The ISPS Code mandates that every port facility must appoint a Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO). This individual is responsible for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan.

3. The term "security level" refers to:

A. The probability of an attack
B. The degree of risk that a security incident will occur
C. The level of danger
D. The level of casualties

Answer: B — The degree of risk that a security incident will occur

Security levels, ranging from 1 to 3, quantify the risk of a security incident. Level 1 is normal, Level 2 indicates an elevated risk, and Level 3 represents the highest risk when an incident is probable or imminent.

4. Controlling embarkation of persons and their effects is done by:

A. Access control, personal effects, and body searches
B. Visitor control, personal effects, and body searches
C. CCTV control, personal effects, and baggage control
D. Baggage control, personal effects, and body searches

Answer: A — Access control, personal effects, and body searches

Access control is the primary method for maintaining ship security. It involves verifying the identity of personnel and screening their effects, including baggage, to ensure no weapons or dangerous items are brought on board.

5. To prevent a pirate attack, the first line of defense is:

A. Proper lookout
B. Seal all entrances to accommodation
C. Maximize the speed of your vessel
D. Early detection

Answer: D — Early detection

Early detection is the most vital defensive layer in maritime security against piracy. By identifying potential threats from a distance, the crew gains sufficient time to maneuver, increase speed, and initiate other protective measures.

6. IMO introduced the ISPS Code and made it mandatory to enhance security in:

A. July 2004
B. After the 9/11 incident
C. December 2002
D. July 1998

Answer: A — July 2004

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code was adopted by the IMO as a direct response to the heightened global security concerns following the 9/11 incident, becoming mandatory in July 2004.

7. To meet the requirements of the ISPS Code, the most effective and practical methods used by port authorities for surveillance is:

A. Use of security cameras
B. Use of thermal cameras
C. Trained security staff
D. Dedicated task force to bolster security

Answer: A — Use of security cameras

Security cameras (CCTV) are a cost-effective and continuous surveillance method required by the ISPS Code. They allow for monitoring of restricted areas and access points, providing a visual deterrent and an audit trail of activity.

8. Security equipment and systems need not be:

A. Calibrated and tested before every use
B. Included in your pre-maintenance schedule (VMS)
C. Kept under lock and key
D. Tried out during each security drill

Answer: C — Kept under lock and key

Security equipment must be readily available when needed; therefore, it should be stored securely but accessible to authorized personnel. Keeping them under lock and key prevents tampering and ensures the gear is ready for use during a security threat.

9. Ship Security Assessments are the responsibility of:

A. CSO (Company Security Officer)
B. PFSO
C. SSO
D. Designated person

Answer: A — CSO (Company Security Officer)

While the SSO manages security on board, the Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is a complex process required by the Company Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate risks and develop the comprehensive Ship Security Plan (SSP).

10. The use of water spray and foam monitors to deliver jets of water on an attacking skiff is intended to:

A. All of the above
B. Deter the attackers
C. Create a distraction
D. Disable their weapons

Answer: A — All of the above

Water monitors are non-lethal, effective deterrents against pirate skiffs. They are used to create a physical barrier of water, hamper the visibility and maneuverability of the attackers, and protect the vessel's hull from boarding.

11. A security alert should be issued:

A. Only after confirming the threat
B. Immediately upon detection of a security threat
C. When the ship is in territorial waters
D. At the discretion of the Master

Answer: B — Immediately upon detection of a security threat

Prompt action is critical to maritime security. An alert must be issued immediately upon the detection of a threat to activate the ship's security protocols and ensure all crew members are warned and move to safety.

12. The person ultimately responsible for the security of the ship is:

A. The Company Security Officer
B. The Security Officer
C. The Master
D. The Chief Officer

Answer: C — The Master

While security officers handle the technical implementation of security plans, the Master retains the ultimate authority and responsibility for the ship, its cargo, and the safety of all personnel on board.

13. Security drills should be conducted:

A. Quarterly
B. As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
C. Monthly
D. Annually

Answer: B — As per the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

Security drills and exercises must be conducted at regular intervals as specified in the ship's security plan to ensure the crew is proficient in executing security procedures and responding to different alert levels.

14. A security breach investigation should include:

A. Examination of evidence
B. All of the above
C. Review of security procedures
D. Interviews with witnesses

Answer: B — All of the above

A thorough security investigation is essential to prevent recurrence. It requires a holistic review of what occurred, including interviews for qualitative data, physical evidence, and a critical analysis of current procedures to identify weaknesses.

15. The Designated Security Duties (DSD) officer is responsible for:

A. Investigating security breaches
B. Implementing the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
C. Conducting security drills
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Seafarers assigned Designated Security Duties (DSD) are integral to maintaining ship security. Their responsibilities, as outlined in the ISPS Code and STCW, encompass active implementation of the SSP, conducting security drills, and assisting the SSO in investigating security incidents. Therefore, all listed activities fall within their remit.

16. Corrective actions should be taken when:

A. A security incident occurs
B. A security drill is not conducted as planned
C. A vulnerability in the security system is identified
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Corrective actions are crucial for an effective Ship Security Plan (SSP) and overall maritime security. They are required proactively when vulnerabilities are identified, reactively after a security incident, and when scheduled security drills or exercises are not performed as planned, ensuring continuous improvement and compliance with ISPS Code.

17. Actions which are not necessarily part of an assessment of a security drill include:

A. Debriefing by Master and SSO
B. Disciplinary action against any crew member
C. Written report of the drill
D. Analysis and discussions on takeaways from drills

Answer: B — Disciplinary action against any crew member

The assessment of a security drill, as per the ISPS Code, focuses on evaluating performance, identifying deficiencies, and improving the Ship Security Plan (SSP). It involves debriefing, analysis, and a written report. Disciplinary action is generally not an immediate or necessary part of the drill assessment process itself, which is for learning and improvement.

18. Overt methods to overcome security measures include:

A. Disabling alarms
B. While the guards are sleeping
C. Befriending the crew members
D. Forcefully breaking and entering

Answer: D — Forcefully breaking and entering

Overt methods to overcome security measures are those that are open, observable, and often involve direct confrontation or visible force. Forcefully breaking and entering is a clear example of an overt act, as it directly and visibly challenges physical security barriers. Other options generally describe covert or subtle approaches.

19. The Declaration of Security (DoS) is to be completed on behalf of the ship by:

A. CSO
B. SSO
C. Master
D. Chief Officer

Answer: C — Master

The Declaration of Security (DoS) is a critical document under the ISPS Code, establishing shared security responsibilities between a ship and a port facility. It is signed by the Master of the ship and the Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO), as the Master holds ultimate authority and responsibility for the ship's operations and security.

20. The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is accessible to:

A. International Maritime Bureau
B. IMO members
C. Ship owners
D. Contracting governments

Answer: B — IMO members

The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GIS) is an IMO platform designed to provide restricted access to various maritime data. Its primary users and those with comprehensive access include IMO member states and related organizations for regulatory and enforcement purposes, supporting the implementation of international conventions.

21. Security measures are not necessarily extended by the contracting governments for:

A. Offshore supply vessels (OSVs)
B. Fishing vessels
C. Naval vessels
D. Passenger and cargo ships in coastal trade

Answer: B — Fishing vessels

The ISPS Code primarily applies to passenger ships, cargo ships over 500 gross tonnage, and mobile offshore drilling units engaged on international voyages. Fishing vessels are generally excluded from the mandatory provisions of the ISPS Code, although some national regulations might impose security measures.

22. To ensure ship's personnel are doing their security duties properly, one must carry out:

A. On-scene security survey
B. Surprise survey
C. Intermediate survey
D. Continuous survey

Answer: B — Surprise survey

To effectively verify that ship's personnel are performing their security duties correctly and consistently, surprise surveys or inspections are often employed. This method provides an unannounced assessment of adherence to the Ship Security Plan (SSP) and ISPS Code procedures, revealing actual operational practices rather than prepared demonstrations.

23. If a suspicious object or package is found on board, the first action should be to:

A. Inform the person of your suspicion
B. Activate radio communication
C. Seize and open the package
D. Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item

Answer: D — Cordon and control the area around the suspicious item

When a suspicious object is found, the immediate priority, as per ship security procedures, is to ensure safety and prevent potential harm. Cordoning off and controlling the area isolates the threat and allows for further assessment by qualified personnel, following the Ship Security Plan (SSP) protocols.

24. The protection of people is called:

A. Physical security
B. Ship security
C. Crew security
D. Human security

Answer: A — Physical security

In the context of security measures like those under the ISPS Code, "physical security" specifically refers to the protection of personnel, assets, and facilities from unauthorized access, damage, or harm. This includes controlling access, surveillance, and protective barriers for people on board, as opposed to broader concepts like human security.

25. Security equipment and systems disallowed for use on board include:

A. Searchlights
B. Razor wire and bar fence wires
C. Locking equipment for all external doors
D. Firearms

Answer: D — Firearms

Under international maritime law and the ISPS Code, commercial vessels are generally prohibited from carrying firearms, except in very specific circumstances with explicit authorization from the Flag State and coastal states. Other items like locks, razor wire (with proper precautions), and searchlights are commonly used security enhancements.

26. The mandatory requirements of the ISPS Code are contained in:

A. Introduction
B. Part A
C. Part B
D. Conference resolutions

Answer: B — Part A

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code is divided into two parts. Part A contains the mandatory requirements, including those for Ship Security Plans (SSP) and Port Facility Security Plans (PFSP). Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for the implementation of these requirements.

27. Complaints of security incidents on board do not require:

A. Periodic testing of communication equipment
B. Immediate investigation
C. Ship Security Plan to be displayed
D. Reporting to the port facility

Answer: B — Immediate investigation

The Ship Security Plan (SSP) contains sensitive information regarding the ship's security arrangements and vulnerabilities, as per the ISPS Code. It is a confidential document that should only be accessible to authorized personnel and is explicitly not to be displayed openly on board, ensuring its integrity and effectiveness.

28. Who issues the CSR (Continuous Synopsis Record)?

A. Company Security Officer
B. Flag State
C. Classification Society
D. Port State Control

Answer: B — Flag State

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is an essential onboard document under SOLAS Chapter XI-1/5, providing a history of the ship. It is issued by the Flag State of the vessel and contains vital information such as the ship's name, flag, IMO number, and details of ownership and management, updated throughout its operational life.

29. What is the requirement for an Escape Route opening?

A. Can only be opened using a master key
B. Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required
C. None of the above
D. Must be locked from the inside at all times

Answer: B — Must be capable of opening from the direction for which escape is required

Escape routes, particularly their openings, must always be readily accessible and operable to ensure the safe and rapid evacuation of personnel during an emergency, including security incidents. The SOLAS convention and ship safety regulations mandate that such openings are capable of being opened from the direction of escape without special tools.

30. What is the operational limitation of security equipment like a weld lock?

A. It can easily fail due to high vibrations
B. It cannot withstand marine corrosion
C. It can only be operated electronically
D. The weld locks can be cut open

Answer: D — The weld locks can be cut open

While weld locks offer a degree of physical security, their primary operational limitation lies in their vulnerability to determined intruders with appropriate tools. Weld locks, like other physical barriers, can be cut, ground, or broken open using specialized equipment, thereby compromising their protective function.

Set 2 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Who is responsible for the regular security inspections of the ship?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Ship Security Officer (SSO)
C. The Chief Engineer
D. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)

Answer: B — Ship Security Officer (SSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO), as defined by the ISPS Code, is directly responsible for the security of the ship. This includes conducting regular security inspections of the ship, ensuring the implementation and maintenance of the Ship Security Plan (SSP), and overseeing the training of shipboard personnel.

2. Which of the following is considered an assessment tool?

A. Fuel oil consumption log
B. Cargo manifest list
C. Open deck arrangement including the height of the deck above water
D. Official Log Book entries

Answer: C — Open deck arrangement including the height of the deck above water

In the context of a Ship Security Assessment (SSA), understanding the ship's physical layout, such as open deck arrangements and deck height, is crucial. This information helps identify potential vulnerabilities for unauthorized access (e.g., from small boats) and aids in developing effective countermeasures as part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

3. Before hiding in the safe house or Citadel, we shall:

A. Turn on all deck floodlights
B. Keep the main engine on standby
C. Increase ventilation to the maximum
D. Stop and immobilize the main engine

Answer: D — Stop and immobilize the main engine

When retreating to a Citadel or safe house during a pirate attack, immobilizing the main engine is a critical defensive measure. This prevents the attackers from taking control of the ship's propulsion and navigating it to a different location, thus complicating their objective and aiding in potential rescue operations.

4. To ensure shipboard personnel are ready to deal with different security situations, what should you carry out?

A. Theoretical lectures only
B. Maintenance check sheets
C. Drills and exercises
D. Tabletop reviews exclusively

Answer: C — Drills and exercises

As mandated by the ISPS Code and STCW Convention, regular security drills and exercises are essential to ensure shipboard personnel are competent and prepared to respond effectively to various security threats. They provide practical experience, reinforce theoretical knowledge, and test the efficacy of the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

5. A security drill can be conducted in:

A. Only under the supervision of a Port State surveyor
B. Combination with other exercises such as emergency response exercises
C. Isolation without any crew involvement
D. Only when the vessel is drydocked

Answer: B — Combination with other exercises such as emergency response exercises

Security drills, as per ISPS Code guidelines, can often be combined with other mandatory drills, such as fire or abandon ship exercises, provided that the security aspects are adequately addressed. This integrated approach optimizes training time and enhances crew readiness for complex emergency scenarios.

6. What can be a possible smuggling mode on a ship?

A. Via the automated ballast system
B. Through the main engine exhaust trunk
C. Via satellite communication links
D. By the routine suppliers

Answer: D — By the routine suppliers

Routine suppliers, such as those delivering stores, provisions, or spare parts, present a significant vulnerability for smuggling on board ships. Without stringent access control and thorough checks of all incoming goods, contraband can easily be introduced onto the vessel, circumventing security measures.

7. The RSO (Recognized Security Organization) can carry out which of the following for a company or port?

A. Commercial cargo custom checks
B. Crew medical clearance
C. Ship Security Assessment (SSA)
D. Approving the permanent flag changes

Answer: C — Ship Security Assessment (SSA)

A Recognized Security Organization (RSO) is authorized by a Contracting Government to conduct Ship Security Assessments (SSA) and review and approve Ship Security Plans (SSP) on its behalf, as per the ISPS Code. RSOs play a crucial role in ensuring compliance and enhancing maritime security.

8. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling of drugs and contrabands?

A. Purifier room workbench
B. Main steering flat floor
C. Equipment box
D. Generator platform railings

Answer: C — Equipment box

Equipment boxes and other storage containers on deck or in machinery spaces are highly vulnerable for smuggling drugs and contraband due to their potential for concealment and relatively easy access. Regular and thorough security searches, as part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP), must target such areas.

9. Who appoints the PFSO (Port Facility Security Officer) for a port?

A. Government
B. Classification Society
C. Shipping Company
D. The Ship Master

Answer: A — Government

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is a crucial role under the ISPS Code, responsible for the development, implementation, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan (PFSP). PFSOs are appointed by the relevant Contracting Government or the designated authority for the port facility.

10. Which of the following spaces in the Galley and dry stores are *least* vulnerable for smuggling of drugs and contrabands?

A. Under dry store floorboards
B. In the galley first aid box
C. Inside bulk flour bins
D. Behind walk-in freezer panels

Answer: B — In the galley first aid box

The galley first aid box is generally the least vulnerable among the options for smuggling large quantities of drugs or contraband. While not immune, its small size and frequent use for medical items make it less practical for clandestine storage compared to hidden compartments in bulk stores or behind panels.

11. The SCSA (Ship Security Assessment) report shall consist of the following:

A. description of countermeasures that could be used to address vulnerability
B. Full machinery maintenance layout
C. Crew wage scales and financial portfolios
D. Commercial routing preferences

Answer: A — description of countermeasures that could be used to address vulnerability

The Ship Security Assessment (SSA) report, mandated by the ISPS Code, identifies vulnerabilities and outlines potential countermeasures. It includes an on-scene survey, an analysis of threats and vulnerabilities, and a description of protective measures, personnel, procedures, and equipment that could mitigate identified risks.

12. A DoS (Declaration of Security) is required when:

A. The ship is entering a dry dock area
B. crew member changes their contract status
C. Bunkering operation is completed safely
D. When port and ship are not on the same security level

Answer: D — When port and ship are not on the same security level

A Declaration of Security (DoS) is typically required under the ISPS Code when a ship is interfacing with a port facility or another ship, and one party is at a higher security level than the other. It ensures that appropriate security measures are agreed upon and maintained to address the heightened risk.

13. Who is responsible for the submission of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) for approval?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Port Facility Security Officer
C. Master of the Vessel
D. Ship Security Officer (SSO)

Answer: A — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO), appointed by the shipping company, is responsible for ensuring that a Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is carried out and that a Ship Security Plan (SSP) is developed, submitted for approval to the Flag State or RSO, and subsequently implemented and maintained on board.

14. Who approves the Ship Security Plan?

A. The Port Authority
B. Charterer's Representative
C. The Recognized Cargo Agency
D. The Flag State

Answer: D — The Flag State

The Ship Security Plan (SSP), a critical document under the ISPS Code, must be approved by the Flag State Administration or a Recognized Security Organization (RSO) acting on its behalf. This approval ensures that the plan meets the mandatory requirements and effectively addresses the identified security vulnerabilities of the ship.

15. Seafarers with designated security duties are responsible for:

A. Calculating vessel stability indices
B. Managing commercial port bills
C. Comprehensive engine overhauling procedures
D. Knowledge of methods of physical structures of baggage

Answer: D — Knowledge of methods of physical structures of baggage

Seafarers assigned Designated Security Duties (DSD), as per STCW and ISPS Code, receive training in critical security functions. This includes understanding search techniques, methods for inspecting baggage and cargo, and identifying suspicious items or concealed compartments, directly related to the physical integrity of the vessel.

16. The ISPS code applies to:

A. Cargo ships
B. Ships above 500 GRT
C. Passenger ships
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code, specifically SOLAS Chapter XI-2, applies broadly to passenger ships, cargo ships (including high-speed craft) of 500 gross tonnage and upwards, and mobile offshore drilling units, when engaged on international voyages. It also applies to port facilities serving such ships.

17. Which of the following is considered a security record?

A. Engine indicator cards
B. Cargo stowage plan blueprints
C. Record of security/safety drills
D. Fuel oil analysis profiles

Answer: C — Record of security/safety drills

Under the ISPS Code, records of security drills and exercises are mandatory security records. They demonstrate compliance, document training, and provide evidence of the ship's preparedness to respond to security threats, forming a crucial part of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) documentation.

18. Which of the below is *not* included in a CSR (Continuous Synopsis Record)?

A. Name of the classification society
B. Flag under which ship is registered
C. Date of ship registration
D. The SSO's name

Answer: D — The SSO's name

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR), mandated by SOLAS, contains a permanent record of the ship's history, including flag, name, IMO number, owner, and classification society. While the SSO is a critical security role, their personal name is not an element required to be on the CSR, which focuses on ship and company details.

19. Who sets the security level for the ship?

A. The Charterer
B. The Chief Mate
C. The Flag State
D. The Port Customs Department

Answer: C — The Flag State

The security level for a ship is primarily set by the Contracting Government (Flag State) or, when in port, by the Port State. The ship's Company Security Officer (CSO) and Ship Security Officer (SSO) must ensure the vessel operates at the declared security level, adjusting measures as required by the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

20. Complete the sentence: Security drills should be conducted at least once every:

A. Six months
B. Three months
C. Twelve months
D. One month

Answer: B — Three months

As per the ISPS Code, security drills should be conducted at intervals of no more than three months. This regular practice ensures that shipboard personnel are proficient in their security duties and familiar with the Ship Security Plan (SSP), maintaining a high level of preparedness for various security scenarios.

21. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling of drugs or contraband?

A. Cargo hold
B. Galley mess room tables
C. Captain's office desk
D. Navigation bridge deck floors

Answer: A — Cargo hold

Cargo holds, due to their large volume and often varying access control during loading and unloading, are highly vulnerable spaces for the concealment and smuggling of drugs or contraband. Comprehensive search procedures and stringent access control are essential for these areas, as outlined in the Ship Security Plan (SSP).

22. The modern definition of piracy includes one of the following:

A. Robbery
B. Cargo short delivery disputes
C. Commercial contract breach
D. Unintentional navigational deviation

Answer: A — Robbery

Under international law (UNCLOS Article 101), piracy involves illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship or aircraft against another ship or aircraft on the high seas. This definition directly encompasses acts of robbery at sea.

23. You find a suspicious object on the deck. Which action will you take?

A. Throw it overboard immediately
B. Open it up to check the contents yourself
C. Leave it and check it during the next watch change
D. Inform Master immediately on radio

Answer: D — Inform Master immediately on radio

Discovering a suspicious object requires immediate action and adherence to the Ship Security Plan (SSP). The priority is to inform the Master immediately, who will then assess the situation and initiate appropriate responses, which may include isolating the area and calling for expert assistance. Unauthorized handling is dangerous.

24. Which of the below spaces in the galley and dry stores are most vulnerable for smuggling and contrabands?

A. The mess room dining counter
B. Open garbage bin containers
C. Daily dry store shelves
D. Inside fish or sides of beef in freezers

Answer: D — Inside fish or sides of beef in freezers

In the galley and dry stores, concealed spaces within perishable goods like large fish or sides of beef in freezers present a significant vulnerability for smuggling. Such items require thorough inspection, as contraband can be hidden within them, making detection difficult without careful scrutiny during loading and storage.

25. Which of the below has the *least* possibility of finding hidden drugs and contrabands?

A. In the wash basin cabinet
B. All the above
C. Inside structural ventilation louvers
D. On the soap stand

Answer: B — All the above

Least likely context compared to hidden voids

26. The CSR is a:

A. Custom Survey Report
B. Commercial Statement of Freight Rates
C. Crew Service Record registry
D. Record of history of the ship

Answer: D — Record of history of the ship

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR), mandated by SOLAS Chapter XI-1/5, serves as a comprehensive onboard history of the ship. It records essential administrative data, such as the ship's name, flag, owner, and management, detailing all changes throughout its operational life to enhance transparency and security.

27. The ISPS code applies to cargo ships, passenger ships, and:

A. Coastal fishing boats
B. Non-propelled wooden barges
C. Pleasure yachts under 12 meters
D. Mobile offshore drilling units (MODUs)

Answer: D — Mobile offshore drilling units (MODUs)

Or D - All the Above based on video options sequence

28. Which of the following equipment is *not* a part of cyber security?

A. Soap up equipment
B. Firewalls
C. Network routers
D. Encryption devices

Answer: A — Soap up equipment

Firewalls, encryption devices, and network routers are all fundamental components of cyber security infrastructure, designed to protect digital systems and data from unauthorized access or attacks. "Soap up equipment" is not a recognized term in cybersecurity and is therefore not part of cyber security measures.

29. When doing a physical search of a package or bag, we should look for the following:

A. Expiry dates of interior goods
B. The quality of the package or bag
C. Manufacturer addresses
D. Price tags of the items

Answer: B — The quality of the package or bag

During a physical search of a package or bag for security purposes, personnel should pay attention to the construction and quality of the item itself. Unusual or poor quality, tampering, false bottoms, or unusual weight distribution can indicate concealment or attempts to bypass security, guiding further investigation.

30. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling drugs or contrabands?

A. Steering wheel housing
B. Open walkways
C. Main switchboard panels
D. Cofferdams

Answer: D — Cofferdams

Cofferdams are enclosed, often inaccessible spaces designed to provide separation, making them ideal clandestine hiding spots for contraband due to their infrequent inspection and isolation. Open walkways, steering wheel housing, and main switchboard panels are more visible or require specialist access, making them less preferred for illicit concealment.

Set 3 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. A DoS is required when:

A. The crew complements change fully
B. When the vessel drops anchor in open international waters
C. When taking provisions from a standard certified barge
D. When a ship interfaces with a non-ISPS compliant ship

Answer: D — When a ship interfaces with a non-ISPS compliant ship

A Declaration of Security (DoS) is an agreement between a ship and a port facility, or between two ships, specifying the security measures each will implement. It is required when a ship is operating at a higher security level than the port facility or another ship, or when interfacing with a non-ISPS compliant entity to ensure necessary security protocols are met.

2. When the Ship Security Alert System (SSAS) is activated, the alarm will sound:

A. On one's own ship
B. On nearby vessels
C. In the ship's engine room
D. None of the above

Answer: D — None of the above

It is a covert alarm transmitted directly to shore

3. The most vulnerable place in a cabin where we can find hidden drugs and contrabands is:

A. Top of the study desk
B. Inside radio or TV
C. Open book shelves
D. The main wardrobe hanger rod

Answer: B — Inside radio or TV

Electronic equipment like radios or TVs offer concealed spaces behind their casings, making them prime locations for stashing small, illicit items. Open book shelves, study desks, and wardrobe hanger rods are easily visible and frequently accessed, thus less suitable for discrete concealment.

4. Which of the following may be used as additional security measures?

A. Isolating the emergency generator emergency link
B. Closing sea chests entirely
C. Pressurized fire hoses on deck
D. Turning off all navigational radars

Answer: C — Pressurized fire hoses on deck

Pressurized fire hoses on deck can serve as a non-lethal deterrent against unauthorized boarding attempts, creating a physical barrier and making access difficult. Turning off radars, closing sea chests entirely, or isolating emergency generator links are operational or safety hazards, not direct security measures.

5. The best place to search individuals physically is:

A. In the engine room workshop
B. Near the gangway
C. Inside the steering flat
D. On the captain's bridge deck

Answer: B — Near the gangway

The gangway is the primary point of access to the vessel, making it the most effective and logical location for physical searches of individuals before they can gain significant access to the ship. Conducting searches elsewhere would mean unauthorized persons have already boarded.

6. The normal level that the ship or port facility operates on a daily basis is:

A. Security level 2
B. Security level 3
C. Security level 1
D. Security level 0

Answer: C — Security level 1

Security Level 1 is the normal level at which ships and port facilities operate, ensuring minimum appropriate protective security measures are maintained at all times. Higher levels (2 and 3) are set when there is an increased risk or imminent threat of a security incident.

7. Which of the following are *not* regular security measures implemented at security level 1?

A. Ensuring security communication is available
B. Controlling access to the ship
C. Call for shore security personnel
D. Supervising the handling of cargo

Answer: C — Call for shore security personnel

Calling for shore security personnel is typically a heightened measure, often reserved for Security Level 2 or 3, when existing shipboard security capabilities are insufficient. Controlling access, supervising cargo handling, and ensuring communication availability are standard, regular measures at Security Level 1.

8. For security level 3:

A. All shore leave is standardly granted
B. Normal watchkeeping ranks are reduced
C. Additional group to be put on security duty
D. Cargo handling is speeded up to maximum limits

Answer: C — Additional group to be put on security duty

Security Level 3 signifies an imminent or actual security incident, requiring further specific protective measures, which includes deploying additional personnel for security duties to respond effectively. Reducing watchkeeping ranks, granting shore leave, or speeding up cargo are contrary to heightened security protocols.

9. How frequently shall the Master review the Ship Security Plan (SSP)?

A. Quarterly
B. Bi-annually
C. Monthly
D. Annually

Answer: A — Quarterly

While formal external audits are typically annual, the Master (as SSO) is expected to frequently review the SSP's operational effectiveness. Quarterly internal checks ensure the SSP remains current with evolving threats and operational changes, preventing complacency and ensuring constant readiness, as advised by best practices.

10. Which of the following equipment is a part of cyber security?

A. Dedicated cargo computers
B. Main engine indicator mechanical drums
C. Hydraulic valve remote control levers
D. Mechanical sound-powered phones

Answer: A — Dedicated cargo computers

Dedicated cargo computers, often networked and critical for cargo operations and administration, are integral to a ship's IT infrastructure and thus fall under cyber security considerations. Mechanical sound-powered phones, hydraulic levers, and engine indicator drums are purely mechanical or analogue systems, not susceptible to cyber threats.

11. Who approves the permanent revisions of the Ship Security Plan?

A. Chief Security Agency of the Port
B. The Flag State
C. The Classification surveyor exclusively
D. Local Port Authority

Answer: B — The Flag State

The Ship Security Plan (SSP) is approved by the Administration (Flag State) or a Recognized Security Organization (RSO) acting on its behalf. Any permanent revisions or major amendments to the SSP must be submitted for re-approval to the Flag State to ensure continued compliance with the ISPS Code.

12. Who proposes modifications to the Ship Security Plan?

A. Third Mate
B. Custom Agent
C. Port Facility Security Officer
D. Company Security Officer

Answer: D — Company Security Officer

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is primarily responsible for ensuring the Ship Security Assessment (SSA) is carried out, that a Ship Security Plan (SSP) is developed and maintained, and for proposing any necessary modifications to the SSP based on security assessments, audits, or changes in operational circumstances.

13. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) means a person tasked to:

A. Manage standard cargo commercial operations
B. Manage Port Security
C. Handle ship-to-shore bunkering pipelines financially
D. Inspect marine auxiliary machinery ashore

Answer: B — Manage Port Security

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is responsible for the development, implementation, revision, and maintenance of the Port Facility Security Plan (PFSP), and for liaison with Ship Security Officers (SSOs) and Company Security Officers (CSOs) regarding security matters. Their primary role is to manage and oversee port security.

14. Who sets the maritime security level for a country's territorial waters?

A. Classification Board
B. Private Maritime Security Agency
C. Ship Master
D. Flag State Authority

Answer: D — Flag State Authority

The Contracting Government (Flag State Authority or Coastal State Authority) is responsible for setting the appropriate maritime security level for its ports and territorial waters, communicating this to ships and port facilities within its jurisdiction.

15. Is security fencing mandatory for the ship-side railing?

A. Mandatory at all times
B. Mandatory only during dry dock periods
C. Not mandatory
D. Dependent on structural class rules only

Answer: C — Not mandatory

While additional physical barriers like fencing or barbed wire may be implemented as temporary security measures at higher security levels, a permanent security fence on the ship's railing is not a mandatory requirement under the ISPS Code. Ship design focuses on safety and operational functionality primarily.

16. With whom does the SSO liaise in the company regarding security matters?

A. Technical Superintendent
B. Financial Director
C. Crewing Manager
D. Company Security Officer (CSO)

Answer: D — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO) is the designated person on board responsible for the ship's security and for liaising with the Company Security Officer (CSO) and Port Facility Security Officers (PFSOs) on security matters, forming the crucial link in the ship-shore security interface.

17. What is the operational limitation of security equipment such as weld logs?

A. They require active high-voltage power
B. High vulnerability to sea spray damage
C. The weld logs can be cut open
D. Cannot be used on steel structures

Answer: C — The weld logs can be cut open

Assuming "weld logs" refers to physical security barriers like weld locks or welded bars, their operational limitation is that they can be compromised. With sufficient time and tools, such as cutting equipment, even robust welded structures can be breached by determined intruders.

18. The maximum validity of the International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is:

A. 7 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. 2 years

Answer: B — 5 years

An International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is issued for a period specified by the Administration, which shall not exceed five years. Its validity is subject to intermediate and renewal verification surveys to ensure ongoing compliance with the ISPS Code.

19. Which of the below spaces on deck and machinery spaces are most vulnerable for smuggling drugs and contrabands?

A. Ventilation ducts
B. Purifier drip trays
C. Boiler burner platform surfaces
D. Open main deck walkways

Answer: A — Ventilation ducts

Ventilation ducts provide concealed and often extensive internal pathways, making them highly vulnerable for hiding illicit goods due to their less frequent and difficult inspection access. Open walkways, purifier drip trays, and boiler platforms are generally visible and more routinely monitored areas.

20. Which of the following are regular security measures implemented at security level 1?

A. Suspend all operations immediately
B. Search 100% of all packages manually
C. Evacuate non-essential personnel to a Citadel
D. Supervise the handling of cargo and ship stores

Answer: D — Supervise the handling of cargo and ship stores

At Security Level 1, routine measures include supervising cargo and ship stores handling to prevent unauthorized access or introduction of contraband. Suspending operations, 100% manual package search, or evacuating personnel are elevated measures typically for Security Level 2 or 3.

21. When securing the Escape Route doors, can we lock them closed?

A. No
B. Yes, if authorized by the SSO verbally
C. Yes, to prevent unauthorized intrusion
D. Only during night port stays

Answer: A — No

Escape route doors, vital for the safe evacuation of personnel in an emergency, must never be locked in a manner that prevents their immediate opening from the inside. Security measures must not compromise safety and emergency egress requirements under SOLAS.

22. An RSO (Recognized Security Organization) *cannot* do the following for a Contracting Government:

A. Conduct verification audits
B. Issue interim certificates if authorized
C. Review ship security assessments
D. Communicate with the ship or port on active security matters

Answer: D — Communicate with the ship or port on active security matters

A Recognized Security Organization (RSO) can review security assessments, conduct verification audits, and issue certificates on behalf of the Administration. However, communicating with ships or ports on active security threat responses or setting security levels remains the responsibility of the Contracting Government or its designated authority, not an RSO.

23. Why is it advised to hide in the safe house or Citadel during a pirate attack?

A. To protect machinery from overheating
B. To keep up with routine paperwork safely
C. To avoid being caught by the pirates and hence prevent them from taking control of the ship
D. To avoid physical labor during a crisis

Answer: C — To avoid being caught by the pirates and hence prevent them from taking control of the ship

The primary purpose of a Citadel or Safe Muster Point during a pirate attack is to provide a secure, impenetrable refuge for the crew. This prevents their capture, denies pirates access to the ship's vital controls, frustrates their objective, and buys time for rescue.

24. The security internal audit is conducted:

A. Annually
B. Every 5 years
C. Monthly
D. Every 3 years

Answer: A — Annually

Company internal audits of the Ship Security Plan (SSP) and its implementation, along with the International Safety Management (ISM) Code audits, are generally conducted annually. This frequency ensures systematic review, identifies non-conformities, and allows for timely correction of deficiencies to maintain compliance and effectiveness.

25. The on-scene security survey does *not* fulfill the following function:

A. Identifying the ship's engine performance
B. Determining weaknesses in physical security infrastructure
C. Evaluating shipboard key operations
D. Identifying existing security measures

Answer: A — Identifying the ship's engine performance

An on-scene security survey, which forms part of the Ship Security Assessment (SSA), focuses on identifying security measures, evaluating key operations, and determining weaknesses in physical security. It does not assess or identify the ship's engine performance, which falls under technical and operational assessments.

26. Where is the guidance for risk-based assessment available in the ISPS framework?

A. MARPOL Annex VI
B. ISPS Code Part A
C. ISPS Code Part B
D. Solas Chapter II-1

Answer: C — ISPS Code Part B

Part B of the ISPS Code provides detailed guidance and recommendations for the implementation of the provisions of Chapter XI-2 of SOLAS and Part A of the Code. This includes comprehensive guidance for conducting ship and port facility security assessments on a risk-based approach.

27. Which of the following is considered a most vulnerable place where hidden drugs and contrabands can be found?

A. Access panels in floors, walls, and ceilings
B. Fire hose and compartments
C. Fire extinguishers
D. All of them

Answer: D — All of them

All listed options—fire extinguishers, fire hose and compartments, and access panels in floors, walls, and ceilings—are potential hiding spots for drugs and contraband. Their enclosed, often overlooked, or easily manipulated nature makes them vulnerable to clandestine concealment, requiring thorough inspection.

28. The most vulnerable place in toilets and showers where we can find hidden drugs and contrabands is:

A. Behind and under the wash basin
B. On top of exposed soap dishes
C. The shower curtain rod surface
D. Open towel rails

Answer: A — Behind and under the wash basin

Areas behind and under wash basins, often with concealed piping and access panels, offer discreet spaces for hiding small items due to their less visible nature. Open towel rails, shower curtain rods, and exposed soap dishes are highly visible and unsuitable for covert concealment.

29. A plan which contains measures on board designed to protect persons on board, cargo, cargo transport units, ship stores, or the ship from the risk of a security incident is called:

A. Ship Security Plan (SSP)
B. Emergency Towing Plan
C. Fire Control Plan
D. Safety Management Manual

Answer: A — Ship Security Plan (SSP)

This definition precisely describes the purpose and scope of a Ship Security Plan (SSP) as required by the ISPS Code. The SSP outlines shipboard measures, procedures, and responsibilities for protecting against security threats to personnel, cargo, stores, and the ship itself.

30. To ensure ship's personnel are performing their security duties properly, what should be periodically executed?

A. On-scene security surveys/inspections
B. Reviewing financial accounts of the vessel
C. Engine trials
D. Checking structural dry-dock profiles

Answer: A — On-scene security surveys/inspections

Regular on-scene security surveys, drills, and inspections are crucial to verify the effectiveness of security measures and ensure that ship's personnel are proficient in performing their assigned security duties as per the SSP. This ensures ongoing readiness and compliance.

Set 4 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. Which shipboard personnel should be able to recognize and detect weapons, dangerous substances, and devices?

A. Only the Master and SSO
B. All shipboard personnel
C. Only the deck watchkeepers
D. The galley staff only

Answer: B — All shipboard personnel

Basic security awareness and the ability to recognize suspicious items or activities are fundamental for *all* shipboard personnel. This collective vigilance is critical for an effective security posture, as outlined in security training requirements to detect potential threats early.

2. Security measures are *not* necessarily extended by the Contracting Governments for which type of ships/crafts?

A. Fishing vessels
B. Passenger cruise liners
C. Large container vessels
D. Chemical tankers

Answer: A — Fishing vessels

The ISPS Code primarily applies to cargo ships of 500 GT and above, passenger ships, and mobile offshore drilling units on international voyages. Fishing vessels are generally exempt from the mandatory requirements of the ISPS Code, although some national regulations may impose similar measures.

3. The security assessment documentation shall be:

A. Kept on ship safely in a secure location
B. Discarded after verification is completed
C. Displayed publicly in the crew mess room
D. Forwarded to the public maritime archive

Answer: A — Kept on ship safely in a secure location

The Ship Security Assessment (SSA) documentation, forming the basis of the SSP, contains sensitive information about vulnerabilities and threats. It must be kept secure on board the ship and with the Company, restricted to authorized personnel only, to prevent unauthorized disclosure or misuse.

4. The Global Integrated Shipping Information System (GISIS) is accessible to:

A. IMO members
B. General cargo charterers openly
C. Unregistered casual suppliers
D. Local port labor trade unions

Answer: A — IMO members

GISIS is an IMO web-based public information system that provides access to a database of information submitted by IMO Member States. While some parts are publicly accessible, detailed or restricted data is primarily for IMO Member States and authorized entities.

5. Covert methods to overcome security measures include:

A. Forcefully breaking and entering
B. None of the above
C. Open armed assault
D. Using false documentation or hidden entries

Answer: D — Using false documentation or hidden entries

Video notes standard security breaches

6. The IMO resolution A.545(13) measures to prevent acts of armed robbery against ships was adopted in the year:

A. 1983
B. 1975
C. 1991
D. 2002

Answer: A — 1983

IMO Resolution A.545(13), concerning "Measures to prevent acts of piracy and armed robbery against ships," was indeed adopted in 1983. This resolution marked an early international effort to address and mitigate the rising threats of maritime security incidents.

7. The precise circumstances when a DoS is required by the port facility can be established through the:

A. Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)
B. Custom Board Officer
C. Third Party Agent
D. Chief Engineer

Answer: A — Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO)

The Port Facility Security Officer (PFSO) is responsible for initiating and concluding a Declaration of Security (DoS) with the ship's SSO. The PFSO determines when a DoS is required based on prevailing security levels, specific threats, or ship-port interface conditions.

8. What is available in the Citadel/Safe House room?

A. Emergency means of communication
B. Water
C. It has all of the above
D. Provisions

Answer: C — It has all of the above

A Citadel or Safe Muster Point is designed as a secure refuge during pirate attacks, equipped with emergency communication, provisions (food and water), and other survival necessities to sustain the crew until rescue forces arrive. Therefore, it has all the listed items.

9. IMO introduced the ISPS code and made it mandatory in:

A. July 2004
B. January 2000
C. December 2006
D. June 2010

Answer: A — July 2004

The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code was developed by the IMO in response to the 9/11 attacks. It became mandatory on 1 July 2004 as an amendment to SOLAS Chapter XI-2, signifying a global commitment to enhanced maritime security.

10. Various types of exercises with the CSO, PFSO, relevant authorities of Coast Guard, and SSO should be carried out at least once in:

A. 3 months
B. 24 months
C. 12 to 18 months
D. 6 months

Answer: C — 12 to 18 months

Security drills should be conducted at least every three months, and comprehensive security exercises involving the CSO, SSO, PFSO, and relevant authorities should be carried out at least once every 12 to 18 months. This schedule tests the full spectrum of the security plan's effectiveness.

11. An act which *cannot* be termed as a piracy attack is:

A. Intentional boarding to capture crew hostages
B. Impeding safe navigation of a vessel due to close quarters engine defects
C. Seizure of cargo assets via gun threat
D. Armed robbery on the high seas

Answer: B — Impeding safe navigation of a vessel due to close quarters engine defects

Piracy, by definition in UNCLOS, involves illegal acts of violence or detention committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private ship. Impeding navigation due to engine defects is an operational issue or accident, not an act of piracy or armed robbery.

12. The on-scene security survey shall fulfill the following function:

A. Overhauling mechanical safety valves
B. Evaluating general propulsion parameters
C. Identifying structural vulnerabilities and access points
D. Identifying the ship's navigation efficiency profiles

Answer: C — Identifying structural vulnerabilities and access points

Transcript references alternate check formats

13. Seafarers with a designated security duty are responsible for:

A. Deep-sea oceanographic tracking
B. Knowledge of crowd control techniques
C. Main propulsion optimization metrics
D. Commercial cargo handling contracts

Answer: B — Knowledge of crowd control techniques

Seafarers with designated security duties, such as those responsible for access control, may need knowledge of crowd control techniques, especially on passenger ships. This is essential to manage personnel flow, prevent unauthorized entry, or mitigate the escalation of security incidents effectively.

14. The ISPS code was brought into force by:

A. INTERPOL
B. International Chamber of Shipping
C. World Trade Organization
D. IMO (International Maritime Organization)

Answer: D — IMO (International Maritime Organization)

The International Maritime Organization (IMO), a specialized agency of the United Nations, developed and brought into force the ISPS Code. This was achieved through amendments to the SOLAS Convention to establish a comprehensive framework for enhancing maritime security globally.

15. Security drills should be conducted at least once every:

A. 3 months
B. 1 month
C. 12 months
D. 6 months

Answer: A — 3 months

Corrected update in video audio context

16. What is the advantage of an Ion Scan system?

A. Requires very little preparation
B. All of the above
C. It is portable
D. Can detect and operate in a vacuum

Answer: B — All of the above

Ion Scan systems are advanced trace detection units used for identifying explosive or narcotic residue. Their advantages include high sensitivity, portability, minimal sample preparation, and the ability to operate in diverse environments, making all listed features valid.

17. At security level 3, the following lights are to be switched on:

A. Emergency battery locker indicator lights only
B. No lights (Complete structural blackout)
C. All lights showing clearly the deck and surrounding the vessel
D. Only standard navigation lights

Answer: C — All lights showing clearly the deck and surrounding the vessel

Security Level 3 represents the highest security posture, typically when a security incident is imminent or occurring. Ensuring the deck and surrounding areas are fully illuminated is essential to deter intruders and monitor for unauthorized approaches.

18. At security level 3, baggage is standardly screened on an X-ray machine from:

A. One angle
B. Four angles
C. Two angles
D. Three angles

Answer: D — Three angles

Multi-angle X-ray screening (usually three angles) provides comprehensive images of complex items, reducing the chance that organic or metallic threats are hidden behind or within denser materials. This increases detection reliability for security-critical screenings.

19. After searching a suspiciously looking person, you have found nothing. What action will you take?

A. Let them roam around the restricted compartments freely
B. Hand them over to the engine workshop as a worker
C. Detain them in a dark hold space without notification
D. Ask the crew to keep an eye on him

Answer: D — Ask the crew to keep an eye on him

If a person is suspicious, the primary objective is to maintain observation and control without escalating the situation unnecessarily. Alerting the crew ensures situational awareness, allowing for coordinated monitoring until the person leaves or is properly identified/handled.

20. Security level 2 can be set for a:

A. Permanent basis for all remaining voyages
B. Single watch hour shift only
C. Indefinite prolonged duration
D. Limited period

Answer: D — Limited period

Security Level 2 is an elevated state, typically maintained for a limited period when there is a heightened risk of a security incident. It is a temporary, proactive measure relative to changing threat assessments.

21. What is the best defense against pirates?

A. Painting the hull white to blind them
B. Speeding up the vessel to 40 knots
C. Active armed counter-fire at all times
D. Do not go to a pirate-affected area

Answer: D — Do not go to a pirate-affected area

Avoiding pirate-affected areas is the most effective preventative strategy, often facilitated by AIS monitoring and compliance with Best Management Practices (BMP). Other options, like active armed fire or extreme speed, are either dangerous or impractical.

22. How frequently shall the Master verify the security records?

A. Yearly
B. Quarterly
C. Every 5 years
D. Monthly

Answer: A — Yearly

Under the ISPS Code, the Master has the responsibility to ensure that security records are maintained and audited for accuracy. Periodic verification, typically on an annual basis, ensures the integrity and effectiveness of the Ship Security Plan.

23. What do we do with the Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) when the flag changes?

A. Mail it to the previous owner's home address
B. Hand it over to the local port customs agents
C. Destroy it immediately
D. We keep them on board

Answer: D — We keep them on board

The Continuous Synopsis Record (CSR) is a vital history of the ship, providing information about its status under different flags and owners. It must remain with the ship even during a change of flag, as it is a permanent legal document.

24. Which of the following elements shall be part of a security drill on a ship?

A. Attacks from the seaward side while the ship is at berth
B. Handling minor oil spills on deck
C. Testing boiler safety high-pressure cut-offs
D. Complete machinery breakdown overhauls

Answer: A — Attacks from the seaward side while the ship is at berth

Security drills must be realistic and reflect potential scenarios, such as an unauthorized boarding attempt from the seaward side. Other options involve maintenance or safety drills (oil spills/machinery), which are covered by different codes like MARPOL or SMS.

25. The active security level in force shall be posted in:

A. Hidden inside the emergency generator room
B. The steering flat lower deck spaces only
C. Only the Master's personal office cabin
D. All common places on board the vessel

Answer: D — All common places on board the vessel

The current security level must be displayed in common areas and at access points to ensure all crew and visitors are aware of their obligations. This transparency is crucial for the effective implementation of ISPS procedures.

26. The maritime security measures under ISPS do *not* apply to which zone?

A. Internal anchorage limits
B. Territorial waters
C. Port facilities interfacing with international vessels
D. Continental shelf

Answer: D — Continental shelf

The ISPS Code focuses on the ship-port interface. The continental shelf is a geographical/legal definition related to resource rights and does not constitute a zone where ISPS security measures, as defined for ships and port facilities, are applied.

27. The SSO (Ship Security Officer) course framework was adopted by IMO resolution:

A. 863(20)
B. 482(12)
C. 924(22)
D. 741(18)

Answer: C — 924(22)

IMO Resolution A.924(22) provided the foundational framework for the development and implementation of the ISPS Code, specifically addressing the protection of ships and port facilities from unlawful acts.

28. On board, whose explicit duty is it to *propose* modifications to the Ship Security Plan (SSP)?

A. The Ship Security Officer (SSO)
B. The Cadet on watch
C. The Port Authority Agent
D. The Chief Cook

Answer: A — The Ship Security Officer (SSO)

The Ship Security Officer (SSO) is responsible for the day-to-day security on board and possesses the technical insight to recommend necessary updates or modifications to the Ship Security Plan to the Company Security Officer.

29. The modern definition of piracy includes which of the following acts?

A. Shipwrecking done intentionally
B. Accidental commercial short landing
C. Navigating without a pilot in non-mandatory zones
D. Minor engine machinery log discrepancies

Answer: A — Shipwrecking done intentionally

Modern definitions of piracy often include intentional acts of sabotage or causing shipwreck to illicitly gain control of a vessel or its cargo. The other listed options represent minor procedural errors or commercial issues, not criminal acts.

30. Which IMO resolution deals with measures to prevent unlawful acts that threaten the safety of ships and the security of passengers?

A. 584(14) in 1985
B. 545(13)
C. 924(22)
D. None of the above

Answer: A — 584(14) in 1985

IMO Resolution A.584(14) (1985) was a landmark resolution specifically focused on measures to prevent unlawful acts against the safety of ships and the security of passengers, predating and informing the later ISPS Code.

Set 5 — 30 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. The likelihood that an unlawful act will be committed against a particular target based on a perpetrator's intent and capability is called:

A. Vulnerability
B. Reliability index
C. Consequence
D. Threat

Answer: D — Threat

In security risk management, 'threat' is defined as the potential for an adverse event involving the combination of a perpetrator's intent and their capability to execute an attack against a target.

2. When using the X-ray scanning machine at an access point, the operator shall continuously monitor the screen for a maximum of:

A. 10 minutes
B. 120 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 20 minutes

Answer: D — 20 minutes

Due to the cognitive fatigue associated with analyzing X-ray imagery, operators are required to limit continuous screen monitoring to 20 minutes to maintain high levels of vigilance and accuracy in threat detection.

3. Where do we find documentation providing evidence of the Master's overriding authority regarding safety and security?

A. In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
B. In the commercial cargo charter party agreements
C. In the oil record book
D. Inside the garbage log ledger

Answer: A — In the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

The Ship Security Plan (SSP) explicitly defines the Master's overriding authority, ensuring that the Master can take any action deemed necessary for the safety and security of the vessel, regardless of other commercial pressures.

4. All ship staff are *not* required to have a defined knowledge of:

A. Reporting suspicious elements to the SSO
B. Location of emergency alarm switches
C. Basic security actions during alerts
D. The ISPS Code in full

Answer: D — The ISPS Code in full

While crew must be aware of their security roles, they are not expected to have a comprehensive, technical understanding of the entire ISPS Code. That level of in-depth knowledge is required of the SSO and CSO.

5. What gets absolute priority on board in case of an direct conflict between safety and security parameters?

A. Keeping to the commercial schedule
B. Safety of life and the vessel
C. Security measures
D. Cargo integrity protection

Answer: B — Safety of life and the vessel

Under SOLAS Chapter XI-2, the safety of life and the vessel is the paramount concern. If security protocols conflict with immediate safety requirements, safety measures take absolute priority.

6. Areas designated as _______ in the SSP should be well marked, secured, and permit authorized entry only:

A. Restricted areas
B. Recreation spaces
C. Open decks
D. Public spaces

Answer: A — Restricted areas

Restricted areas are defined locations on the ship where security risk is high, such as the bridge or engine room. These must be clearly marked and controlled to prevent unauthorized access per the SSP.

7. What does the acronym IED stand for in maritime security?

A. Internal Engine Damper
B. International Enforcement Directive
C. Improvised Explosive Device
D. Integrated Electrical Drive

Answer: C — Improvised Explosive Device

IED stands for Improvised Explosive Device, a common term in maritime security assessments to describe non-standard explosive threats that may be encountered during ship-port operations.

8. Which part of the ISPS code is fully mandatory for all signatory flag states?

A. Part C
B. Annex VI
C. Part A
D. Part B

Answer: C — Part A

Part A of the ISPS Code contains the mandatory requirements for Contracting Governments, port authorities, and shipping companies, whereas Part B provides non-mandatory guidance for implementation.

9. The criteria used to decide on the physical search method of a group boarding the ship includes:

A. The distance from the nearest city center
B. The draft of the vessel at the berth
C. The number of people
D. The weather temperature outside

Answer: C — The number of people

When planning search protocols, the scale of the operation—such as the number of people boarding—is a critical factor in determining the required resources, time, and intensity of the search procedure.

10. The security certificate renewal audit of a maritime vessel is done once every:

A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 1 year
D. 3 years

Answer: A — 5 years

The International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) is subject to an intermediate verification and is renewed following a full audit every five years, aligning with standard SOLAS certification cycles.

11. Which of the following equipment is considered a part of cyber security?

A. Hydraulic actuators
B. Portable computer
C. Mechanical tachometers
D. Centrifugal fire pumps

Answer: B — Portable computer

Cyber security concerns the protection of digital assets. Among the options, a portable computer is a key piece of IT hardware that could be a vector or target for unauthorized access, malware, or data breaches.

12. Emergency response services to a security incident do *not* standardly include:

A. Extinguishing a major structural fire
B. Shore medical evac links during hostage trauma
C. Armed naval backup assistance
D. Coast Guard tactical communication support

Answer: A — Extinguishing a major structural fire

Fires come under safety/fire-fighting codes, not standard anti-security assault metrics Fires are managed under safety frameworks

13. What percentage of baggage is required to be checked at standard Security Level 1?

A. 0% checked unless authorized by local police
B. 100% manually without exception
C. As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)
D. 50% checked by alternate lottery method

Answer: C — As per the parameters specified in the Ship Security Plan (SSP)

The exact percentage of baggage to be screened is determined by the specific requirements laid out in the Ship Security Plan (SSP), which must account for the current security level and vessel-specific risk assessment.

14. PMSCs (Private Maritime Security Companies) should require that their personnel do not use firearms against persons except in _______ or defense of others:

A. Clearing path ways
B. Warnings during routine approach
C. Checking identification criteria
D. Self-defense

Answer: D — Self-defense

The use of firearms by private security is strictly governed by the principles of necessity and proportionality, limiting their use solely to self-defense or the defense of others to prevent loss of life.

15. As per the ISPS code, a ship is required to maintain records of its past:

A. 5 ports of call
B. 10 ports of call
C. 15 ports of call
D. 20 ports of call

Answer: B — 10 ports of call

The ISPS Code mandates that vessels maintain records of the past 10 ports of call, which is essential for tracking the security history and ensuring the ship has followed appropriate security measures at every terminal.

16. The crew is required to know which of the following during an emergency?

A. All of the above
B. Being aware not to use elevators in an emergency
C. Location and use of emergency equipment
D. Casualty handling

Answer: A — All of the above

All crew members must have a foundational understanding of emergency procedures, including the location of equipment, basic casualty care, and the dangers of using elevators during emergencies, to ensure safe evacuation.

17. Which of the below spaces in a cabin are considered a most vulnerable place where hidden drugs and contrabands are discovered?

A. Exposed bathroom tile surfaces
B. Flat tabletop spaces
C. Hollow out moldings
D. Open hanging coat rack pegs

Answer: C — Hollow out moldings

Hidden storage spaces, such as behind interior moldings or in false bulkheads, are classic areas where contraband is concealed. These areas are priority targets during cabin security searches.

18. Which of the following poses an active potential security risk to the ship's networks?

A. Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)
B. VHF channel 16 routine calls
C. Standard radar tuning alerts
D. Routine weather fax printouts

Answer: A — Emails attempting to obtain sensitive information regarding the vessel (Phishing)

Phishing emails are a primary method of cyber-attack, designed to trick personnel into revealing sensitive vessel information or credentials, which could lead to a breach of the ship's security systems.

19. Who is responsible for submitting the Ship Security Plan for official administration approval?

A. Third Engineer
B. Ship Security Officer (SSO)
C. Company Security Officer (CSO)
D. The Chief Mate

Answer: C — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the designated person ashore responsible for liaising with the flag state or Recognized Security Organization (RSO) to ensure the SSP meets regulatory standards and gains official approval.

20. Who addresses and deals directly with any identified structural deficiencies or non-conformities of security measures on behalf of the management?

A. Company Security Officer (CSO)
B. Junior Engineer on duty
C. The Supplier's Delivery Foreman
D. The Port Customs Clearance Team

Answer: A — Company Security Officer (CSO)

The Company Security Officer (CSO) is the bridge between the vessel and the company management, responsible for addressing non-conformities and ensuring that security infrastructure and protocols are properly maintained.

21. When doing a physical search of a package or a bag, we should look for the following:

A. The retail barcode design structure
B. Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces
C. Country of manufacture stamp marks
D. Weight labels on the exterior print

Answer: B — Unusual electronic appliances hidden within standard spaces

During a physical search, one must be vigilant for anomalies such as unusual weight, strange noises, or electronic components—like wires or sensors—hidden in packages, which may indicate the presence of illicit items or dangerous goods.

22. The Ship Security Plan (SSP) cannot be shown to any unauthorized person without the approval of:

A. Any crew member on watch duty
B. The local ship supplier foreman
C. The Master, SSO, or CSO
D. The terminal cargo operations loader

Answer: C — The Master, SSO, or CSO

The Ship Security Plan is a restricted document containing sensitive vulnerability data. Access to it is strictly controlled and limited to authorized personnel like the Master, SSO, and CSO to prevent information leakage.

23. During container loading, which of the following is required at Security Level 1?

A. Checking of loading as per the loading plan
B. Checking 100% interior contents of all sealed boxes
C. Discharging all other auxiliary fuel oils
D. Complete lockdown of all steering machinery positions

Answer: A — Checking of loading as per the loading plan

At Security Level 1, verifying the cargo against the loading plan is the standard security measure. This ensures the cargo matches the documentation and helps prevent the unauthorized loading of dangerous or illicit items.

24. You find a suspicious object on the deck. Which initial action will you take to safeguard life?

A. Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible
B. Submerge it in the main galley sink water tank immediately
C. Hit it with a wrench to check for metallic hollow signatures
D. Carry it manually to the captain's office deck

Answer: A — Move all personnel as far away from the object as possible

In the event of a suspicious object, the primary goal is the safety of the crew. Evacuation and cordoning off the area are the mandatory initial responses, followed by professional intervention; the object should never be touched or moved.

25. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/6-2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Security Training Designated Duties operations?

A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
C. Verbal recommendation without documentation
D. Applicable only during drydock operations

Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations

STCW Code Table A-VI/6-2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Security Training Designated Duties.

26. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements for Security Training Designated Duties on board?

A. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
B. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
D. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Answer: D — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work

Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Security Training Designated Duties operations.

27. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements concerning Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
C. Port State Control advisory note only
D. STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions

Answer: D — STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions

STCW Code Section A-VI/6-2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Security Training Designated Duties.

28. In the event of an emergency involving regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Security Training Designated Duties tasks, what immediate action is required?

A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
B. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
C. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
D. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Answer: D — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties

Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.

29. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements be conducted for Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
C. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
D. Once every 5 years during special survey

Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)

Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.

30. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements in Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
B. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
C. Verbal update to port agent without logging
D. No written record is required

Answer: B — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters

Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.

Set 6 — 4 STSDSD exit exam questions with answers

1. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Security Training Designated Duties guidelines?

A. High-visibility vest only
B. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
C. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves

Answer: B — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards

Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.

2. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements related to Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
B. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
C. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
D. Temperature check only

Answer: A — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration

Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

3. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements under Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
B. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
C. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
D. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies

Answer: D — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies

Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

4. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in regulatory compliance and STCW code requirements during Security Training Designated Duties?

A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
B. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
C. Crew List document
D. Bill of Lading description

Answer: B — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)

Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

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