PSF exit exam questions and answers — Passenger Ship Familiarization

1. Average mass of persons permitted to board a rigid liferaft shall be.

• A. 70 kgs
• B. 82.5 kgs
• C. 90 kgs
• D. 100 kgs

2. A feature of an inflatable raft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is.

• A. Lashing on the floor of the raft for the passenger's feet
• B. Straps from the overhead
• C. Ridges in the floor of the raft
• D. Lifelines on the inside of the raft

3. Sufficient fuel should be provided to run the loaded lifeboat at 6 knots for.

• A. Not less than 24 hours
• B. Not less than 18 hours
• C. Not less than 12 hours
• D. Not less than 6 hours

4. Signalling devices which are required on inflatable liferafts include.

• A. A rocket shoulder rifle
• B. An oil lantern
• C. Red flares
• D. An air horn

5. Wearing a lifejacket what will be the maximum safe height above the water that you can jump from.

• A. 4.5 meters or 15 feet
• B. 4 meters or 13 feet
• C. 3 meters or 10 feet
• D. 3.6 meter or 12 feet

6. The most important thing to remember when launching an inflatable life raft by hand is to.

• A. Open the CO2 inflation valve
• B. Open the raft container
• C. Ensure that the operating cord is secured to the vessel
• D. Inflate the raft on the vessel, then lower in over the side

7. The life jackets on all vessels shall be.

• A. Inspected weekly
• B. Readily available
• C. Worn at all times
• D. Tested yearly

8. A lifeboat should be launched by two persons.

• A. In less than 10 minutes
• B. In less than 5 minutes
• C. In less than 12 minutes
• D. In less than 2 minutes

9. The operating cord of the inflatable life raft has a length of (or question can be of) The painter of an inflatable life raft must have a minimum length of.

• A. 6 fathoms
• B. 50 feet
• C. 100 feet
• D. 300 feet

10. The operating cord on an inflatable liferaft also serves as a.

• A. Lifeline
• B. Painter
• C. Drogue
• D. Marker

11. A rescue boat should be in a position suitable for.

• A. Launching
• B. Recovery
• C. Launching and recovery
• D. Embarking

12. On vessels on an international voyage inflatable life raft on each side shall have a carrying capacity of.

• A. 50 percent of all persons on board
• B. 75 percent of all persons on board
• C. 100 percent of all person on board
• D. 10 persons

13. A partially enclosed lifeboat shall be installed with.

• A. Temporarily fixed foldable canopy
• B. Permanently fixed foldable canopy
• C. Rigid canopy
• D. Portable canopy

14. An embarkation ladder from deck to the waterline should be capable of be used with.

• A. A trim of up to 10° and a list of upto 20° either way
• B. A trim of up to 5° and a list of upto 10° either way
• C. A trim of up to 5° and a list of upto 20° either way
• D. A trim of up to 10° and a list of upto 10° either way

15. If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down you can right it by.

• A. Pushing upon one side
• B. Standing on the CO2 cylinder, holding the bottom straps and throwing your weight backwards
• C. Getting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder
• D. Doing nothing it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate

16. A fully loaded motor propelled lifeboat must be capable of attaining a speed of at least.

• A. 3 knots in smooth water
• B. 6 knots in smooth water
• C. 6 knots in rough water
• D. 3 knots in rough water

17. The thermal protective aid shall function properly through a temperature range of.

• A. -30° C to +20° C
• B. -25° C to +15° C
• C. -20° C to +10° C
• D. -15° C to +05° C

18. The sea painter of a rescue boat should be led.

• A. Forward and outboard of all obstructions
• B. Forward and inboard of all obstructions
• C. Up and down form the main deck
• D. To the foremost point on the vessel

19. An anti-exposure suit shall permit a person to climb down a ladder of at least.

• A. 5m in length
• B. 6 m in length
• C. 7m in length
• D. 8 m in length

20. Recovery time of a rescue boat in moderate sea condition with full complement shall be.

• A. Not more than 5 mins
• B. Not more than 10 mins
• C. Not more than 15 mins
• D. Not more than 20 mins

21. Full recovery of a totally enclosed lifeboat the ship shall.

• A. Hoist the boat from the windward side
• B. Use painter from both ends of the boat
• C. Make a lee for the boat to come alongside
• D. Have crew hold on to lifelines

22. What is the primary advantage of a davit launched liferaft in comparison to an inflatable liferaft?

• A. The davit-launched liferaft is easier to maintain
• B. The davit-launched liferaft is made of fire-retardant material
• C. The davit-launched liferaft has a built in sprinkler system for fire protection
• D. The davit-launched liferaft enables personnel to enter the raft without having to enter the water

23. Motor-propelled lifeboats are required to be fitted with which of the following.

• A. Compartments for the storage of canned drinking water
• B. Ballast tanks to prevent the boat from capsizing
• C. An air starter on the diesel engine
• D. Auxiliary mechanical propulsion (Fleming gear)

24. You have abandoned ship and are in charge of a liferaft or survival craft. How much water per day should you permit each person to have after the first 24 hours.

• A. 1 can
• B. 1 pint
• C. 1 quart
• D. 1 gallon

25. The air spaces in the floor of an inflatable life raft will provide protection against.

• A. Asphyxiation from CO2
• B. Loss of air in the side of the raft
• C. Rough seas
• D. Cold water temperatures

26. If you wish to remove an inflatable life raft from its cradle the best way to free it is by.

• A. Cutting the restraining strap
• B. Unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
• C. Lifting one end of the raft
• D. Pausing the plunger on the centre of the hydrostatic release

27. For passenger ships on voyages less than 24 hour a number of infant lifejackets equal to at least.

• A. 1.5% of the number of passenger onboard
• B. 2.5% of the number of passenger onboard
• C. 3.5% of the number of passenger onboard
• D. 4.5% of the number of passenger onboard

28. Every liferaft shall be so constructed as to be capable of withstanding exposure for.

• A. 7 days
• B. 14 days
• C. 21 days
• D. 30 days

29. A passenger ship under a length of 60m shall carry not less than.

• A. 8 lifebuoys
• B. 12 lifebuoys
• C. 18 lifebuoys
• D. 24 lifebuoys

30. The number of orange smoke floats to be carried in a lifeboat is.

• A. 3
• B. 2
• C. 4
• D. 5

1. You should deploy the sea anchor from a life raft to.

• A. Keep the life raft from capsizing
• B. Navigate against the current
• C. Keep personnel from getting seasick
• D. Help stay in the general location

2. Inflatable liferafts are provide with.

• A. A very pistol
• B. A towing connection
• C. Canned milk
• D. A portable radio

3. The sprinkler system of an enclosed lifeboat is used to.

• A. Cool the craft in a fire
• B. Cool the engine
• C. Spray oil on the sea to calm it
• D. Spray personnel during a fire

4. Water pockets on the underside of an inflatable liferaft are for.

• A. Catching rain water
• B. Stability
• C. Maneuverablity
• D. Easy drainage

5. Fitted with reflective tape and lifejacket lights, what would be the expected range of visibility in darkness.

• A. 1 mile
• B. 0.5 mile
• C. 1.5 miles
• D. 2 miles

6. The survival capsule is manufactured with fire retardant.

• A. Foam
• B. Marine plywood
• C. Steel
• D. Fiberglass

7. The purpose of air tanks in a lifeboat is to.

• A. Make the boat float higher
• B. Provide a stowage place for provisions
• C. Add strength to the boat
• D. Keep the boat afloat if flooded

8. How many VHF survival craft transceivers are required aboard passenger ships?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 5

9. How much water is required onboard a lifeboat?

• A. 5 litres fresh water for every person onboard
• B. 3 litres fresh water for every person onboard
• C. 8 litres fresh water for every person onboard
• D. 4 litres fresh water for every person onboard

10. The painter which is to be attached to the thwart of a lifeboat should.

• A. Be fitted at the end with an approved safety shackle
• B. Have a long eye splice at the end and a shackle and pin should be attached to the painter with a lanyard
• C. Have a long eye splice at the end and a hardwood toggle would be attached to the thwart with a lanyard
• D. Be fitted with a swivel and quick releasing pelican hook

11. The marine evacuation system shall be capable of deployment.

• A. By one person
• B. By two person
• C. By three person
• D. By four person

12. When using the rainwater collection tubes on a life raft the first collection should be?

• A. Passed around so all can drink
• B. Poured overboard because of salt washed off the canopy
• C. Saved to used at a late time
• D. Use to boil food

13. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to.

• A. Aid in casting off
• B. Direct the drift of the vessel
• C. Aid in its recovery
• D. Maintain maximum resistance to broaching

14. As a vessel sinks to a depth of 15 feet the hydrostatic trip releases the life raft container from its cradle by.

• A. Breaking the weak line
• B. Releasing the tie down stop
• C. Pulling the operating cord
• D. Releasing the CO2 Canister

15. Which visual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?

• A. Hand-held red flare
• B. Self contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare
• C. Hand-held orange smoke distress flare
• D. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare

16. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea, your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way to prevent broaching you should.

• A. Take no action broaching is recommended in a heavy sea
• B. Put out the sea anchor
• C. Put out the sea painter
• D. Fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride better

17. Lifeboat shall be capable of being launched with the ship making headway at speed upto.

• A. 3 knots in calm water
• B. 5 knots in calm water
• C. 7 knots in calm water
• D. 10 knots in calm water

18. The light on the outside of the canopy on an inflatable liferaft operate.

• A. By turning the globe clockwise
• B. By a switch at each light
• C. By a light sensor
• D. Automatically when the raft is inflated

19. Wearing an immersion suit you must be able to jump from a height of 4.5 meter or 15 feet into the water do you agree.

• A. Yes
• B. No
• C. Only under emergency
• D. Only when rescuing someone from the water

20. On most makes of inflatable life raft the batteries to operate the light on the inside of the raft can be made to last longer by.

• A. Unscrewing the bulb during the daylight
• B. Operating the off switch for the light during the daylight
• C. Taking no action as there is no way of preserving power
• D. Removing the batteries during the daylight

21. After launching an inflatable raft should be kept dry inside by.

• A. Opening the automatic drain plugs
• B. During the water pockets
• C. Using the electric bilge pump
• D. Using the bailers and cellulose sponge

22. Visual inspection of survival craft on ships to ensure operation readiness must be conducted at least once a.

• A. Weak
• B. Month
• C. Quarter
• D. Year

23. What is place on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturn?

• A. Ballast bags
• B. A keel
• C. Strikes
• D. Sea anchor

24. Most lifeboats are launched from the stowed position.

• A. Under power
• B. Cranked down by hand
• C. By turning the winch drum manually
• D. By gravity

25. How is the external floatation bladder of an immersion suit inflate?

• A. It is inflated by a small CO2 cylinder that is automatically tripped when the front zipper is at the top of the sipper tack
• B. It is inflated by a small CO2 cylinder that is manually tripped
• C. It is inflated by blowing through an inflation tube
• D. It inflates by sea water bleeding into the floating bladder and reacting with a chemical therein

26. The capacity of any life raft onboard a vessel can be determined by.

• A. Examining the certificate of inspection
• B. Examining the plate on the outside of the container
• C. Referring to the muster list (station bill)
• D. Referring to the shipping articles

27. If the liferaft is released manually where should the operating cord be attached before throwing the raft overboard.

• A. Do not attach the cord to anything but throw it overboard with the raft container
• B. To some fixed object on the ship
• C. Stand on it with your feet
• D. To the special pad eye on the raft davit launcher

28. What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

• A. The hydrostatic release
• B. Nothing
• C. A rotten release
• D. The weak line in the painter line

29. Which sequence is correct when launching a lifeboat stowed in gravity davits?

• A. Release gripes, turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping line
• B. Release tricking pennants turn on emergency disconnect switch, release frapping lines
• C. Operate limit switches, release gripes, lift brake
• D. Release gripes, lift brake, release tricking pennants

30. One of the signals, other than a distress signal that can be used by a rescue boat to attract attention is a.

• A. Red star shell
• B. Searchlight
• C. Burning barrel
• D. Orange smoke signal

1. The searchlight on a survival craft must be capable of operating 3 hours continuously or 6 hour intermittently if operated in cycles of.

• A. 5 minutes on and 10 minutes off
• B. 10 minutes on and 5 minutes off
• C. 15 minutes on and 5 minutes off
• D. 15 minutes on and 10 minutes off

2. The search light's power source must be capable of operating the list without charging or recharging for not less than.

• A. 3 hours of continuous operation
• B. 5 hours of continuous operation
• C. 6 hours of continuous operation
• D. 4 hours of continuous operation

3. During the towing of a survival craft a lookout should be on station to.

• A. Release the towline in an emergency
• B. Help the helmsman steer
• C. Check water level in the bilge
• D. Look for food and water

4. In each inflatable liferaft, what equipment is provided to make quick emergency temporary repairs to large holes in the raft.

• A. No equipment is provided
• B. Glue and rubber patches
• C. Several various-size sealing clamps
• D. Self-adhesive rubberized canvas patches

5. Cabin stewards are responsible for.

• A. Waking up the passengers
• B. Making announcements
• C. Safety of the passengers
• D. Ensuring all passengers proceed to their muster station

6. Muster control teams are responsible for.

• A. Put up safety notices
• B. Brief stairway guides
• C. Overseeing all aspects of mustering and evacuation of passenger
• D. Standby for emergencies

7. Technical control team is responsible for.

• A. Fire fighting
• B. Getting boats ready
• C. Searching for passengers
• D. Keeping the master upto date with all pertinent information

8. Stairway guides are responsible for.

• A. Guiding and evacuating passengers to their muster stations
• B. Interacting with cabin stewards
• C. Safety of passengers
• D. Safety of crew

9. Boat group leaders are responsible for.

• A. Getting boats ready
• B. Safety of the passengers
• C. Directing the passengers from muster station to embarkation station
• D. Safety of the crew

10. Zone leaders are responsible for.

• A. Ensuring that all passengers are evacuated from their ones to their muster station
• B. Ensuring safety of passengers
• C. Ensuring lifejackets are worn
• D. Ensuring boats are ready

11. Medical control team is responsible for.

• A. Safety of the passengers
• B. Safety of patients
• C. Safety of crew
• D. Safety of children

12. Survival craft preparation teams are responsible for.

• A. Assembling the passengers
• B. Escorting the passengers
• C. Preparing the survival craft
• D. Getting fire fighting equipment ready

13. The bridge team is responsible for.

• A. Safety of the passengers
• B. Safety of the crew
• C. Safe navigation of the ship
• D. Safety of cargo onboard

14. The on-scene commander is responsible to.

• A. Direct operations
• B. Direct passengers
• C. Direct crew
• D. Direct security personnel

15. An embarkation ladder should be provided from deck to waterline in lightest seagoing condition under all conditions of trim of upto.

• A. 5 degrees
• B. 10 degrees
• C. 15 degrees
• D. 20 degrees

16. At a muster station each person must have clear deck space of at least.

• A. 0.20 M2
• B. 0.25 M2
• C. 0.35 M2
• D. 0.45 M2

17. In crowd management, one of the stages of knowing what action is to be taken is.

• A. Appraisal
• B. Planning
• C. Execution
• D. Monitoring

18. In crowd management one of the stages of execution the emergency action is.

• A. Appraisal
• B. Execution
• C. Planning
• D. Monitoring

19. In the crowd management, one of the stages of verifying the effectiveness of the action taken is.

• A. Appraisal
• B. Monitoring
• C. Execution
• D. Planning

20. In crowd management one of the stages of knowing what is going on around you is.

• A. Execution
• B. Appraisal
• C. Planning
• D. Monitoring

21. The general alarm consists of.

• A. Intermittent ringing of alarm bell
• B. 6 short and 1 long blast on whistle or alarm bell
• C. 7 short and 1 long blast on whistle or alarm bell
• D. Continuous ringing of alarm bell

22. How do you confirm that all passengers have reached their muster stations?

• A. Check with passengers escorts
• B. Check off passengers by cabin numbers
• C. Ask the crew members
• D. Ask the stairway guides

23. The fire alarm consist of.

• A. Intermittent ringing of alarm bell
• B. 6 short and 1 long blast on whistle or alarm bell
• C. 7 short and 1 long blast on whistle or alarm bell
• D. Continuous ringing of alarm bell

24. What is a crocodile queue?

• A. A short line of passengers
• B. A long line of passengers
• C. A line formed for an efficient controlled and organized movement of passengers
• D. A line of ships crew

25. In an emergency situation, the component that covers making the vessel safe is.

• A. Discovery
• B. Containment
• C. Clean up
• D. Incident investigation

26. In an emergency situation, the component that covers what to do is.

• A. Containment
• B. Discovery
• C. Clean up
• D. Incident investigation

27. In an emergency situation, the component that covers implementation of the emergency plan is.

• A. Discovery
• B. Containment
• C. Clean up
• D. Incident investigation

28. In an emergency situation the component that covers reporting is.

• A. Discovery
• B. Incident Investigation
• C. Clean up
• D. Containment

29. In a flooding crisis management scenario, the incident manager must consider.

• A. Informing the crew to standby
• B. Keeping the passengers in the dark
• C. Checking number of personnel in the affected compartment and their evacuation
• D. Checking on pumping capacity

30. Which of the following operational records is an integral part of the ship's emergency and contingency response documentation?

• A. List of passengers
• B. Log book
• C. Ships salient features
• D. List of crew

1. Which essential stability and structural document forms a mandatory part of the vessel's emergency contingency plan?

• A. List of passengers
• B. Damage control plan
• C. List of crew
• D. List of cabins

2. Which passenger safety and crowd management document is an integral component of the shipboard emergency contingency plan?

• A. List of passengers
• B. Evacuation plan
• C. Ships salient features
• D. List of crew

3. Which firefighting and emergency arrangement plan is a mandatory part of the ship's emergency contingency documentation?

• A. Fire control plan
• B. List of crew
• C. Ships salient features
• D. List of cabins

4. The stage of a crisis when the way people react to warnings differs is.

• A. Warning stage
• B. Impact stage
• C. Evacuation stage
• D. Recoil stage

5. The stage of a crisis when physical and psychological effect start to set in is.

• A. Warning stage
• B. Impact stage
• C. Evacuation stage
• D. Recoil stage

6. The stage of a crisis when crew must be prepared for the behaviours of the passengers is.

• A. Warning stage
• B. Impact stage
• C. Evacuation stage
• D. Recoil stage

7. The stage of a crisis when clear instructions and effective organisation is required is.

• A. Warning stage
• B. Evacuation stage
• C. Impact stage
• D. Recoil stage

8. Which primary emergency response document detailing duties and alarm signals is part of the ship's contingency plan?

• A. List of passengers
• B. List of crew
• C. Ships salient features
• D. Muster list and emergency instructions

9. In a crisis management fire scenario, what immediate containment measure must the central command team prioritize?

• A. Finding out the cause of fire
• B. Checking readiness of fire fighting equipment
• C. Taking head count of crew
• D. Identification and shutdown of ventilation

10. In a crisis management fire scenario, what operational coordination step must the central command team take for emergency response teams?

• A. Taking head count of crew
• B. Checking readiness of fire fighting equipment
• C. Identification of a safe working area and deployment of the emergency response teams
• D. Limiting information to the passengers

11. In a crisis management fire scenario, what initial situational assessment must the central command team carry out?

• A. Taking head count of crew
• B. Checking readiness of fire fighting equipment
• C. Identification of the source and size of the fire
• D. Limiting information to the passengers

12. Crew emergency procedures which are ship specific are developed by.

• A. The administration
• B. The shipping company
• C. The master
• D. Company training officer

13. Which key structural drawing showing all vessel spaces and escape routes is included in the emergency contingency plan?

• A. General arrangement plan
• B. List of crew
• C. Ships salient features
• D. List of cabins

14. During the voyage operational tests of watertight doors shall take place.

• A. Half-yearly
• B. Quarterly
• C. Monthly
• D. Weekly

15. The angle of heel on account of crowding of passengers to one side shall not exceed.

• A. 5 degrees
• B. 10 degrees
• C. 15 degrees
• D. 20 degrees

16. With the ship upright, watertight doors shall be capable of being closed from the bridge in.

• A. Not more than 60 seconds
• B. Not more than 90 seconds
• C. Not more than 120 seconds
• D. Not more than 150 seconds

17. The angle of heel on account of turning the ship shall not exceed.

• A. 5 degrees
• B. 10 degrees
• C. 15 degrees
• D. 20 degrees

18. A power-operated sliding watertight door shall be limited to a maximum clear opening of.

• A. 1.0 m
• B. 1.2 m
• C. 1.5 m
• D. 1.7 m

19. At an angle of heel equal to or greater than 30 degrees, the righting lever GZ shall be at least.

• A. 0.1 m
• B. 0.2 m
• C. 0.3 m
• D. 0.4 m

20. Watertight doors shall be capable to being closed with the ship listed either way by.

• A. 5 degrees
• B. 10 degrees
• C. 15 degrees
• D. 20 degrees

21. The initial metacentric height shall not be less than.

• A. 0.15 m
• B. 0.30 m
• C. 0.45 m
• D. 1.50 m

22. All watertight doors in watertight bulkheads, in use at sea shall be operated.

• A. Weekly
• B. Daily
• C. Monthly
• D. Bi-monthly

23. Supplementary emergency lighting for ro-ro ships public spaces and alleyways shall be for.

• A. 6 hours
• B. 3 hours
• C. 9hours
• D. 12 hours

24. At every muster and embarkation station, emergency lighting should be available for.

• A. 12 hours
• B. 36 hours
• C. 24 hours
• D. 48 hours

25. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided.

• A. In the ships control room
• B. On the navigation bridge
• C. In the masters cabin
• D. In the chief engineers cabin

26. When normal lighting is lost, supplementary lighting in cabins should remain on for minimum for?

• A. 120 minutes
• B. 90 minutes
• C. 60 minutes
• D. 30 minutes

27. For navigation lights emergency power should be available for.

• A. 12 hours
• B. 36 hours
• C. 24 hours
• D. 48 hours

28. Emergency source of power shall not be located.

• A. Forward to the steering flat
• B. Forward of the bridge
• C. Forward of the engine room
• D. Forward of the collision bulkhead

29. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the.

• A. Ship's articles
• B. Manning list
• C. Official log book
• D. Muster list ("Station Bill")

30. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being.

• A. Carried by hand to a fire
• B. Carried or rolled to a fire
• C. Recharged in the field
• D. Used on class "B" Fire

1. A vessel's fire control pan shall be.

• A. Posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck on the vessel
• B. Permanently posted for the guidance of ship's officers
• C. Given to each crewmember in booklet form
• D. Translated into three languages: English, French and Spanish

2. A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the.

• A. Hose sections disconnected
• B. Foam nozzle attached
• C. All-purpose nozzle attached
• D. Hose sections rolled separately

3. At each initial and subsequent inspection for certification, all carbon dioxide fire extinguishers aboard a vessel are ________ (small passenger vessel regulations).

• A. Check for pressure loss
• B. Discharged and recharged
• C. Sent ashore to an approved service facility
• D. Weighed

4. On the vessel's fire control plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed except.

• A. Spaces protected by the system
• B. Extinguishing agent cylinder location
• C. Remote cylinder releases(s)
• D. Instructions for activation of system

5. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following except.

• A. A power - available light
• B. An audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
• C. A means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
• D. A way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions

6. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transferred by.

• A. Conduction
• B. Convection
• C. Radiation
• D. Windage

7. Quick cleaning strainers are installed in the fire main system at individual fire hydrants to.

• A. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the system piping
• B. Prevent rust and foreign matter from entering the hoses and nozzles
• C. Protect the fire pumps from becoming clogged with marine growth
• D. Filter out some of the salt in an effort to reduce pipeline scaling

8. If your vessel is required to have a fire ax onboard where should it be located.

• A. In or adjacent to the primary operating station
• B. In below-decks passenger accommodations
• C. Just outside the engine room access
• D. In the galley near the stove

9. While reading the muster list you see that THREE SHORT blasts on the ship's whistle and the same signal on the general alarm bells is the signal for.

• A. Abandon ship
• B. Dismissal from drills
• C. Fire and emergency
• D. Man overboard

10. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

• A. Point the horn down
• B. Pull pin, squeeze grip
• C. Turn cylinder upside-down
• D. Break the rupture disc

11. Remote controls for quick closing shut off valves are required in how many locations.

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

12. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which of the following type of plan.

• A. General arrangement
• B. Midship section
• C. Subdivision
• D. Lines

13. In what location would a duplicate fire control plan normally not be located.

• A. Navigation bridge
• B. Engine room control
• C. Master's office
• D. Crew and Passenger Areas

14. The solid arrow sign represents.

• A. Path of forced ventilation
• B. Search and rescue route
• C. Nearest door
• D. Primary means of escape

15. A vessel fire control plan shall.

• A. Be posted in every space crewmembers eat and socialize
• B. Be written in English
• C. Have a duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house
• D. Provide a snapshot of the area of every crew members stateroom in their stateroom

16. Which of the listed fire extinguishers cannot be easily recharged aboard ship?

• A. Soda acid
• B. Carbon dioxide
• C. Dry chemical, cartridge-operated
• D. Foam

17. Fire hoses located at protected fire stations, must always be.

• A. Connected to the fire hydrant
• B. Capped on the ends for protection
• C. Supplied with a smooth bore nozzle
• D. Open to the air to prevent rot

18. Proper maintenance of a dry chemical fire extinguisher will include.

• A. Adding water to the powder
• B. Painting the CO2 cartridge red
• C. Puncturing the CO2 cartridge
• D. Shaking the extinguisher to loosen the caked-up portions of the powder

19. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by.

• A. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
• B. Burning liquids flowing into another space
• C. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
• D. The transfer of heat across and unobstructed space

20. The connection facilities for the international shore connection must be located to provide access.

• A. On each side of the vessel
• B. As close as possible to the house
• C. On the main deck
• D. On each level of the accommodation spaces

21. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells, you should.

• A. Start the fire pump to charge the fire main
• B. Standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on watch
• C. Go to your fire station
• D. Go to your lifeboat station

22. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should.

• A. Cool the bulkheads around the fire
• B. Remove combustibles form direct exposure
• C. Close all openings to the area
• D. Shut off all electric power

23. You must ensure that lifesaving equipments is.

• A. Locked up
• B. Readily accessible for use
• C. Inaccessible to passengers
• D. On the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

24. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be recharged.

• A. At least annually
• B. Whenever it is below 10% of the required weight
• C. Has not been used for 5 years
• D. Before every safety inspection

25. The international shore connection.

• A. Satisfies pollution prevention requirements
• B. Allows hook up of fire fighting water form shore facilities
• C. Allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
• D. Permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities

26. A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels must have a.

• A. Canister type gas mask
• B. Fresh-air breathing apparatus
• C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
• D. Combustible gas indicator

27. Fire hose couplings.

• A. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
• B. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
• C. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing
• D. Should be greased frequently

28. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment must be stowed in a.

• A. Locked cabinet in the machinery space
• B. Unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
• C. Separate and accessible locations
• D. Location near a fire hydrant

29. What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel operating station for use by the Master and crew?

• A. Emergency instructions
• B. A tide table for the area
• C. Instructions on artificial
• D. The location of the first aid kit

30. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway, after activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST.

• A. Attempt to determine what is burning
• B. Acquire the nearest self contained breathing apparatus
• C. Break out the nearest fire hose
• D. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed

1. Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose rack.

• A. After the hose has been completely drained
• B. With the nozzle in the solid stream position
• C. So the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs
• D. So that nozzle is protected by the hose

2. The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher.

• A. Is always ready for use and requires no attention
• B. May cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated
• C. Deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years
• D. Put out the fire with its cooling Acton

3. The state of charge of a stored pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by.

• A. Visual inspection of the pressure gauge
• B. Weighing the cylinder
• C. Removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical
• D. Weighing the CO2 cartridge

4. What should you do with your emergency position indicating radio beacon if you are in a liferaft in a storm?

• A. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on
• B. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes
• C. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on
• D. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off

5. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signalling to a ship on the horizon?

• A. A red parachute flare
• B. A red hand-held flare
• C. A flashlight
• D. A lantern

6. Bridge man overboard smoke maker gives orange smoke for.

• A. 5 minutes
• B. 15 minutes
• C. 10 minutes
• D. 20 minutes

7. Parachute rocket pyrotechnics on ships bridge display.

• A. Smoke signals
• B. A lighted flare
• C. A flashing light
• D. A flag

8. Which shipboard equipment will detect a signal form a SART?

• A. S-Band Radar
• B. A DSC receiver
• C. X-Band Radar
• D. The auto alarm

9. After you activate your emergency position indicating radio beacon you should.

• A. Turn it off for five minutes every half-hour
• B. Turn it off and on at five-minute intervals
• C. Turn it off during daylight hours
• D. Leave it on continuously

10. Hand held red flares expire 42 months from the date of manufacture, floating orange smoke distress signals expire after how many months.

• A. 18 months
• B. 42 months
• C. 24 months
• D. 60 months

11. When should you use distress flares and rockets?

• A. Only when there is a chance of their being seen by rescue vessels
• B. At half-hour intervals
• C. At one-hour intervals
• D. Immediately upon abandoning the vessel

12. What is the required amount of time that a SART's must be able to operate the unit in the standby mode?

• A. 8 hours
• B. 4 days
• C. 2 days
• D. 3 days

13. The number of rocket parachute flares on the bridge are.

• A. 9
• B. 12
• C. 15
• D. 8

14. The number of rocket parachute flares in the boat are.

• A. 3
• B. 4
• C. 5
• D. 6

15. How many hand flares are there on the bridge?

• A. One
• B. Nil
• C. Two
• D. Three

16. The radiotelephone safety message urgently concerned with safety of a person would be prefixed by the word.

• A. Mayday
• B. Pan
• C. Safety
• D. Interco

17. In the passenger ships a distress panel shall be installed at.

• A. The bridge wing
• B. The conning position
• C. In the master cabin
• D. In the ships office

18. The master shall insure that the emergency position indicating radio beacon (EPIRB) is.

• A. Secured inside the wheelhouse
• B. Tested annually
• C. Tested monthly
• D. Secured in the emergency locker

19. A vessel in distress should send by radio telephone the two tone alarm signal followed immediately by the.

• A. Distress position
• B. Spoken words "mayday, Mayday, Mayday"
• C. Ship's name
• D. Ship's call letters

20. You are using VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) or 2182 KHZ. You need help but are not in danger. You should use the urgent signal.

• A. ASSISTANCE NEEDED
• B. PAN-PAN
• C. MAYDAY
• D. SECURITE

21. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

• A. Securite
• B. Mayday
• C. Breaker
• D. Pan

22. How can a SART's Effective range be maximized?

• A. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation
• B. The SART should be held as high as possible
• C. Switch the SART into the high "power position"
• D. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal

23. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed.

• A. On or near the navigating bridge
• B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
• C. Above the freeboard deck away form heat
• D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away form heat

24. Which is the lifesaving signal for, this is the best place to land?

• A. Red star rocket
• B. Orange smoke signal
• C. Green star rocket
• D. Horizontal motion of a flag

25. The required portable radio shall be stored in the proper location and be.

• A. Equipped with an approved carrying case
• B. Equipped with spare batteries
• C. Readily accessible for transfer to a lifeboat
• D. In a waterproof enclosure

26. The master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested.

• A. Daily
• B. Weekend
• C. Month
• D. Every two weeks

27. How can vessel personnel detect the operation of a SART in its vicinity?

• A. A unique radar signal consisting of a blip code radiating outward from a SART's position along its line of bearing
• B. A unique two tone warbling signal heard on VHF-FM-Ch-70
• C. A unique two tone alarm signal heard upon the automatic unmuting of the 2182 KHZ radiotelephone automatic water receiver
• D. The SART signal appears as a target which comes and goes the effect of heavy swells on the SART

28. If you wished to transmit a message by voice concerning the Safety of navigation, you would preface it by the word.

• A. Mayday
• B. Securite
• C. Pan-pan
• D. Safety

29. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit to indicate landing here highly dangerous?

• A. The fire of a white star signal
• B. Horizontal motion with a white flag
• C. Vertical motion of a white light
• D. Code letter k by blinker light

30. What is the spoken emergency signal for a man overboard on the VHF radio?

• A. Man overboard
• B. Pan-pan
• C. Mayday
• D. Security

1. Under Annex IV of COLREG, which of the following pyrotechnic or sound signals is recognized as an international distress signal?

• A. Gun or other explosive signal fired at intervals of about a minute
• B. International code signal of distress indicated by NC flags
• C. Flag Oscar
• D. Flag tango

2. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message, what information would be essential to your rescuers.

• A. The nature of the distress
• B. The time of day
• C. Your radio call sign
• D. Your position by latitude and longitude

3. Answering signals made by life-saving stations when signals are seen from a ship by day are.

• A. Orange smoke signal
• B. Parachute rocket
• C. Hand flare
• D. Black ball

4. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an Inmarsat satellite?

• A. Class A EPIRB
• B. Class B EPIRB
• C. L-Band EPIRB
• D. Category I EPIRB

5. You hear on the radiotelephone the word Securite spoken three times this indicates that.

• A. A message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
• B. A message about the safety of navigation will follow
• C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
• D. You should secure your radiotelephone

6. The public address system shall be a loudspeaker installation enabling the broadcast of messages.

• A. Into all spaces where crew of passenger are present
• B. To bridge
• C. To engine room
• D. To forward deck

7. Which channel is designated as the VHF follow-on communications channel and is required in all portable survival craft equipment?

• A. Channel 6
• B. Channel 13
• C. Channel 16
• D. Channel 70

8. In a grounding scenario, the incident manager must consider.

• A. Stability of the ship
• B. Keeping the passengers in the dark
• C. Taking head count of crew
• D. Checking on pumping capacity

9. During an escalation of incidents, top priority should be given to.

• A. Operational safety
• B. Vessel safety
• C. Passenger and personnel safety
• D. Environmental safety

10. Which signal is detected as originating form SART?

• A. The Morse code distress series S-O-S repeated 3 times followed by DE and the vessel's call sign
• B. A line of blip code on a radar screen outward form the SART position along its line of bearing
• C. A line of blip code on a radar screen inward from the SART position to its own ship along its line of bearing
• D. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar

11. What would most likely prevent a SART signal from being detected?

• A. Signal absorption by the ionosphere
• B. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar
• C. Heavy sea swells
• D. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar

12. How can the SART audible tone monitor be used?

• A. It inform survivors when the battery's charge condition has weakened
• B. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby
• C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode
• D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signalling on DSC

13. Under Annex IV of COLREG, which of the following sound signals indicates distress and need of assistance?

• A. Flag Oscar
• B. Continuous sounding with fog signalling apparatus
• C. Flag bravo
• D. Flag tango

14. Under Annex IV of COLREG, which visual flag signal is recognized as an international code signal of distress?

• A. Flag Oscar
• B. International code signal of distress NC
• C. Flag tango
• D. Flag bravo

15. A line throwing appliance unit contains.

• A. 2 projectiles
• B. 4 projectiles
• C. 3 projectiles
• D. 5 projectiles

16. If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to.

• A. Hold the survival crafts head up into the seas
• B. Generate orange smoke
• C. Seal leaks in rubber rafts
• D. Send radio homing signals to searching aircraft

17. What is the maximum length of time that distress flares are approved for?

• A. 1 and ½ years
• B. 3 and ½ years
• C. 2 years
• D. 5 years

18. Red parachute flares are called.

• A. Flare technics
• B. Pyrotechnics
• C. Fire technics
• D. Light technics

19. On passenger ships an abandon ship drill and fire drill shall take place.

• A. Quarterly
• B. Weekly
• C. Monthly
• D. Bi-monthly

20. The emergency position indicating Radio beacon on a cargo vessel must be stowed.

• A. In an inside passageway
• B. In an approved bracket
• C. So that it is accessible from the bridge of the vessel
• D. So that it will float free if the vessel sinks

21. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by.

• A. Authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
• B. Replacing the propellant cartridge and refiling it with powder
• C. Puncturing the cartridge sea after installation
• D. Recharging the cartridge and refiling it with powder

22. The air cylinder bottles in the survival craft should be refilled with.

• A. Oxygen
• B. Nitrogen
• C. Compressed air
• D. Nitrogen and oxygen

23. Which statements is true concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

• A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are required
• B. If hand held rocket propelled parachute flares are provided they are the only distress signals required
• C. Tow hand held smoke signals shall be provided
• D. A very pistol with twelve flares is required

24. An inflatable liferaft can be launched by.

• A. The float-free method only
• B. Breaking the weak link on the painter
• C. Throwing the entire container overboard and then pulling on the operating cord to inflate the raft
• D. Removing the securing straps

25. The tops of the thwarts side benches and the footings of a lifeboat are painted which of the following colours.

• A. Yellow
• B. International orange
• C. White
• D. Red

26. Life jackets should be marked with the.

• A. Maximum weight allowed
• B. Stowage space assigned
• C. Vessel's home port
• D. Vessel's name

27. An immersion suit must be equipped with.

• A. Air bottle for breathing
• B. Orange smoke canister
• C. Whistle, light and retroreflective materials
• D. Sea dye marker

28. In what location must a duplicate fire control plan be located.

• A. Engine room
• B. Gangway
• C. Crew mess
• D. Chief mate's office

29. The symbols for fire control plans are approved by which organization.

• A. National fire protection agency
• B. U.S Coast Guard
• C. International Association of classification Societies
• D. International maritime organization

30. When boarding passengers into life boats, it would be beneficial to?

• A. Take extra clothes
• B. Take extra food and blankets
• C. Take extra shoes
• D. Take pillows

1. Which statement is true concerning life jackets?

• A. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets
• B. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of the water
• C. Life jackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float properly
• D. Lightly stained or faded lifejackets will fail in the water and should not be used

2. The self-activating smoke signal burns for.

• A. 9 minutes
• B. 15 minutes
• C. 12 minutes
• D. 18 minutes

3. A passenger is every person other than.

• A. A child under ten years of age
• B. A child under eight years of age
• C. A child under four years of age
• D. A child under one year of age

4. A passenger ship shall be subject to a renewal survey every.

• A. 12 months
• B. 18 months
• C. 24 months
• D. 36 months

5. A passenger ship is a ship which carries more than.

• A. 6 passengers
• B. 12 passengers
• C. 18 passengers
• D. 24 passengers

6. Ro-ro passenger ship is a passenger ship with.

• A. Tween decks
• B. Ro-ro spaces
• C. Container cell guides
• D. Hold spaces

7. A passenger ship shall be subject to an initial survey before.

• A. The sea trials
• B. The ship is put into service
• C. The end of the first voyage
• D. Being launched form the yard

8. The orange smoke in the boat burns for.

• A. 4 minutes
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 6 minutes

9. A line throwing appliance [LTA] is used.

• A. To pick up a survivor in water
• B. To life raft in water close to ship
• C. To make connection between a distressed ship and a safe ship to pass towing line
• D. To connect to lifeboat in water

10. If you are forced to abandon ship in a survival craft you should.

• A. Remain in vicinity of vessel
• B. Head for nearest land
• C. Head for closest sea lanes
• D. Have all hands vote for what to do

11. The purpose of water spray system on an enclosed lifeboat is.

• A. Cool the lifeboat engine
• B. Keeps the lifeboat reaching from combustion temperature while operating in fire
• C. Keep the lifeboat warm in cold temperatures by applying heated water spray from engine to boat
• D. Put out the fire inside lifeboat

12. How are lifelines attached to lifeboat?

• A. By serving
• B. By splicing one end of the line around the apparatus
• C. Securely attached around outside
• D. With an approved safety hook or shackle

13. Signalling devices required on inflatable life raft include a.

• A. Very pistol 3
• B. Orange smoke signal
• C. Air horn
• D. Lantern

14. What is the life saving signal for( you are seen) assistance will be given as soon as possible?

• A. Green star rocket
• B. Red star rocket
• C. Orange smoke signal
• D. Horizontal motion of a flag

15. When firing the line throwing apparatus should be held at?

• A. 30 degrees to the horizontal
• B. 45 degrees to the horizontal
• C. 60 degrees to the horizontal
• D. 75 degrees to the horizontal

16. The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be ____.

• A. Located close to the bridge
• B. Equipped with battery-powered emergency lighting
• C. Marked SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS
• D. Kept locked at all times with the key held by the Master

17. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

• A. Ship's articles
• B. Certificate of inspection
• C. Muster list
• D. Oil record book

18. When a sea anchor for a lifeboat is properly rigged, it will ____.

• A. Completely stop the lifeboat from drifting
• B. Help to prevent broaching
• C. Prevent the lifeboat from pitching
• D. Increase the speed of the lifeboat downwind

19. Can a cargo ship carry passengers?

• A. Yes, but not more than 12 passengers
• B. No, never
• C. Only with the permission of the crew
• D. Yes, any number of passengers

20. It is essential to communicate effectively with passengers in an emergency. Which of these statements is incorrect?

• A. Give contrasting individual instructions to group leaders at muster stations
• B. Identify crew members who can communicate in more than one language
• C. Place multilingual crew members in strategic positions such as assembly points
• D. Train personnel to use basic phrases in an emergency that can be easily understood

21. When securing cars on a ro-ro vessel, what is the preferred lashing angle from the lashing point?

• A. 15 degrees
• B. 30 degrees
• C. 45 degrees
• D. 10 degrees either side

22. A line-throwing appliance that meets SOLAS requirements must include not less than four projectiles. What distance must each projectile be capable of carrying the line?

• A. At least 230 m in calm weather
• B. At least 130 m in calm weather
• C. At least 300 m in rough weather
• D. At least 200 m in Beaufort force 5

23. If it were necessary to abandon ship, you would:

• A. Push all the passengers overboard
• B. Assist the passengers to slip into the water or the liferaft
• C. Get all the passengers off before inflating the liferaft
• D. Jump into the water first to encourage passengers to follow you

24. The minimum number of lifebuoys required on a passenger ship depends on ____.

• A. The number of passengers on board
• B. The total amount of emergency equipment on board
• C. The length of the ship
• D. The crew's preference

25. In an abandon ship situation, why must the person in command of the survival craft make it clear to everyone that he or she is in charge?

• A. To preserve food and drinking water
• B. The commander should keep a low profile and stick to steering the boat
• C. To ensure that his or her seat in the boat is reserved
• D. To establish proper leadership, which is vital in any survival situation

26. Which one of the listed requirements regarding means of escape does not correspond to present regulations?

• A. Safe escape routes shall be provided
• B. Lifts shall be considered as forming one of the required means of escape
• C. Additional aids for escape shall be provided as necessary to ensure accessibility, clear marking and adequate design for emergency situations
• D. Escape routes shall be maintained in a safe condition, clear of obstacles

27. On a ro-ro vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapours settle in a cargo space if the forced ventilation system is shut down?

• A. At the top, near the deckhead
• B. At the lowest levels
• C. Gasoline vapours are slightly heavier than air and hover at mid level
• D. Gasoline vapours are very light and will dissipate

28. Which of the following will aid early escape?

• A. Clear alleyways
• B. Clear doors
• C. Directional arrows
• D. All of the above

29. The function of fixed fire detection and alarm systems shall be periodically tested to the satisfaction of the Administration by means of equipment producing:

• A. Hot air at the appropriate temperature
• B. Smoke or aerosol particles of the appropriate range of density or particle size
• C. Other phenomena associated with incipient fires to which the detector is designed to respond
• D. All of the above

30. What arrangement may be installed in passenger ships to reduce unsymmetrical flooding in the damaged condition?

• A. Separate trim tanks
• B. Ballast trimming system
• C. Cross-flooding arrangement
• D. Self-acting ballast trimming arrangement

1. What does MARPOL Annex III deal with?

• A. Prevention of pollution by oil
• B. Control of pollution by noxious liquid substances in bulk
• C. Prevention of pollution by harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form
• D. Prevention of pollution by sewage from ships

2. The quantity of water provided in a liferaft for each person is:

• A. 2 litres
• B. 1 litre
• C. 1.5 litres
• D. 2.5 litres

3. In ship stability, what does GM stand for?

• A. General manager
• B. Gravity and motion
• C. Metacentric height
• D. None of these

4. Checklists and procedures must be strictly followed for all shipboard operations as mandated by the ____.

• A. IMDG Code
• B. IBC Code
• C. ISM Code
• D. BCH Code

5. Where shall manually operated call points of a fixed fire detection and alarm system be located in accommodation spaces?

• A. Inside the stores in the corridor
• B. At exits and in corridors
• C. Only in the lounge area
• D. In every passenger cabin

6. What is foundering?

• A. Flooding of water
• B. Pumping out of water
• C. Running aground
• D. Sinking of the ship

7. To return a capsized liferaft to the upright position, you need to ____.

• A. Slit the bottom and climb in that way
• B. Stand on the gas cylinder and pull on the righting strap
• C. Have all survivors hang on one side of the raft
• D. Accept that it is not possible to right a capsized liferaft

8. How does the body react when exposed to acute stress?

• A. Confusing signals are generated, with some persons feeling happy
• B. Persons become more open and talkative
• C. Stress hormones are secreted which activate the instinct to fight or flee
• D. A person feels energised to do more work

9. The stability of a vessel is greatest when all the fuel and water tanks are full because:

• A. The centre of gravity is lowered
• B. The centre of buoyancy is lowered
• C. Reserve buoyancy is unchanged
• D. Hull freeboard is increased

10. In what languages shall the fire control plans or booklets, or copies of them, be prepared?

• A. Only in English, since it is an international language
• B. The flag state language or English
• C. The flag state language with copies in English and German
• D. The flag state language with copies in English or French

11. Where is a fire blanket usually found?

• A. Engine control room
• B. Wheelhouse
• C. Galley
• D. Open deck

12. What is a consequence of stress?

• A. Ill health
• B. Good health
• C. No need to exercise
• D. None of these

13. What does the word 'bulkhead' mean?

• A. The vertical wall in the centre
• B. A vertical steel wall or partition
• C. The vertical wall between the aftermost hold and the engine room
• D. The vertical wall between the fore peak and No. 1 hold

14. Containers, brackets, racks and other similar stowage locations for life-saving equipment shall be marked with ____.

• A. Yellow paint triangles
• B. Yellow paint with black stripes
• C. Red paint
• D. Symbols in accordance with IMO recommendations

15. Which one of the listed requirements regarding launching stations does not correspond to present regulations (SOLAS III/16)?

• A. They shall be in positions that ensure safe launching, with particular regard to clearance from the propeller
• B. They shall be in positions that ensure safe launching, with particular regard to steeply overhanging portions of the hull
• C. Survival craft specially designed for free-fall launching shall be launched down the straight side of the ship
• D. If positioned forward, they shall be located abaft the collision bulkhead in a sheltered position

16. Which statement about passenger response in an emergency on board a passenger vessel is incorrect?

• A. They may not respond to instructions as they would in a non-emergency situation
• B. They will be able to comprehend all instructions completely and act accordingly
• C. They may panic and not behave with a normal level of rationality
• D. Their ability to comprehend may be impaired

17. Where would you find a limit switch?

• A. On a liferaft cradle
• B. On a radial davit
• C. On a sheath-screw davit
• D. On a gravity davit

18. In an emergency, the technical team has the task of ____.

• A. The front-line job of tackling the emergency
• B. Providing first aid and preparing the boats for lowering
• C. Maintaining the propulsion and manoeuvring capability of the ship and auxiliary machinery
• D. Keeping all the records

19. What caused the ro-ro passenger ship Estonia to sink in 1994?

• A. Grounding
• B. Collision with another vessel
• C. Collision with ice
• D. Failure of the bow visor and ramp door

20. What is the general emergency alarm signal sounded on the ship's whistle and alarm bells?

• A. A series of long blasts
• B. A series of short blasts
• C. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
• D. Continuous sounding of the whistle and alarm bells

21. How often must each crew member take part in an abandon ship drill?

• A. Once a month
• B. Once every six months
• C. Once a quarter
• D. Once a year

22. What type of clothing should normally be worn by personnel working on vehicle decks during loading and discharge?

• A. Regular clothing
• B. High-visibility clothing
• C. A boiler suit marked with the company name
• D. Any comfortable clothing

23. The choice and level of detail of familiarisation for a new or newly assigned crew member will depend upon ____.

• A. The rank of the newly assigned crew member
• B. The intelligence quotient of the newly assigned crew member
• C. The individual's experience with the new assignment and the job responsibilities
• D. The age of the seafarer and the number of years at sea

24. What is a liner trade?

• A. Trade on a regular schedule between a fixed set of ports
• B. Trade between the same two ports only once
• C. Trade wherever cargo is available, changing ports each voyage
• D. Worldwide tramp trading

25. The distance measured vertically from the deck line to the centre of the load line disc is the ____.

• A. Moulded depth
• B. Winter draught
• C. Summer draught
• D. Statutory (summer) freeboard

26. If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of a passenger vessel, which action is most important for the stability of the vessel?

• A. Shutting off electricity to damaged cables
• B. Pumping firefighting water overboard
• C. Manoeuvring the vessel so the fire is on the lee side
• D. Removing burned debris from the space

27. Personnel assigned to the tasks of cargo stowage and securing should be ____.

• A. The chief officer only
• B. Any member of the crew
• C. Properly qualified and experienced
• D. Shore personnel only

28. How should a search of passenger ship accommodation be carried out?

• A. Using a checklist
• B. Reporting progress to the command station
• C. Systematically, space by space
• D. All of the above

29. Fire teams are responsible for ____.

• A. Firefighting
• B. Getting the boats ready
• C. Searching for passengers
• D. Escorting passengers

30. Under Annex IV of COLREG, which of the following may be used as a distress signal?

• A. Flag 'O'
• B. Flag 'B'
• C. Flag 'T'
• D. Continuous sounding with any fog-signalling apparatus

1. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface your message with:

• A. MAYDAY (3 times)
• B. PAN-PAN (3 times)
• C. SECURITE (3 times)
• D. SOS (3 times)

2. By day, the signal meaning 'This is the best place to land' is:

• A. Vertical motion of a red flag
• B. Vertical motion of a white flag or the arms
• C. Horizontal motion of a white flag or the arms
• D. A white star rocket

3. The signal to guide craft in distress, indicating 'This is the best place to land', at night is:

• A. Horizontal motion of a white flag
• B. Letter K in Morse code given by light
• C. Code flag S as a hoist
• D. Firing of a white star signal

4. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by ____.

• A. Heat or smoke detectors
• B. CO2 system pressure switches
• C. Remotely operated valves
• D. Fusible links

5. In a crisis management scenario involving fire, the central command team should first consider:

• A. Taking a head count of the crew
• B. Checking the readiness of firefighting equipment
• C. Identifying the source and size of the fire
• D. Limiting information to passengers

6. If you wish to remove an inflatable liferaft from its cradle under normal conditions, the best way to free it is by:

• A. Cutting the restraining strap
• B. Unscrewing the turnbuckle on the back of the cradle
• C. Lifting one end of the raft
• D. Pushing the manual release plunger on the hydrostatic release unit

7. What does EPIRB stand for?

• A. Emergency position-indicating radio buoy
• B. Emergency position-indicating radio beacon
• C. Emergency pulse-indicating radio beacon
• D. Electronic position-indicating radio buoy

8. Besides general arrangement plans, what other medium may be used to provide fire control details to officers?

• A. Microfilm
• B. A booklet
• C. Blueprints
• D. A video recording

9. Which of the following is NOT considered cargo on board a ship?

• A. The ship's provisions and stores
• B. Containers loaded for discharge at the next port
• C. Vehicles carried on the vehicle deck
• D. Packaged dangerous goods on deck

10. Under STCW Section A-V/2, personnel providing direct services to passengers in passenger spaces must be able to communicate with passengers during an emergency, taking into account which language(s)?

• A. Only the working language of the ship
• B. Only the official language of the flag State
• C. Only the language of the port of departure
• D. The language(s) appropriate to the principal nationalities of passengers carried on the particular route

11. When verbal communication with passengers is impractical during an emergency, STCW A-V/2 expects crew providing direct services to communicate by:

• A. Repeating the instructions more loudly in English only
• B. Waiting until an interpreter is located
• C. Demonstration, hand signals or calling attention to the location of instructions, muster stations, life-saving devices or evacuation routes
• D. Written notes handed to each passenger

12. Which basic language ability is expected of personnel providing direct services to passengers so that they can give simple instructions in an emergency?

• A. Fluency in at least three foreign languages
• B. Ability to translate the fire control plan
• C. Knowledge of the IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases in full
• D. Use of an elementary English vocabulary for basic instructions

13. Besides communication skills, the safety training for personnel providing direct services to passengers requires them to be able to:

• A. Navigate the ship in restricted waters
• B. Operate the main switchboard
• C. Demonstrate to passengers the use of personal life-saving appliances
• D. Carry out stability calculations for damaged conditions

14. An adult lifejacket must allow at least 75% of persons completely unfamiliar with it to don it correctly, without assistance, guidance or prior demonstration, within:

• A. 2 minutes
• B. 3 minutes
• C. 5 minutes
• D. 1 minute

15. Passenger ships must carry lifejackets suitable for children equal to at least what proportion of the number of passengers on board (or more if needed to provide one for each child)?

• A. 2.5%
• B. 25%
• C. 5%
• D. 10%

16. In addition to the lifejackets required for every person, passenger ships must carry extra lifejackets for not less than 5% of the total persons on board. Where shall these be stowed?

• A. In the engine control room
• B. Locked in the bosun's store
• C. In conspicuous places on deck or at muster stations
• D. Inside the lifeboats only

17. Where passenger lifejackets are stowed in staterooms located remote from direct routes between public spaces and muster stations, SOLAS requires additional lifejackets for those passengers to be stowed:

• A. In the staterooms only, under the berths
• B. On the navigating bridge
• C. In the public spaces, the muster stations, or on direct routes between them
• D. At the purser's office

18. Before a passenger ship departs, details of persons who have declared a need for special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be:

• A. Recorded and communicated to the master
• B. Given only to the cabin steward of that deck
• C. Entered only on the ticket
• D. Sent to the flag State after the voyage

19. Under SOLAS III/27, when must all persons on board a passenger ship be counted?

• A. Only when the ship arrives at the next port
• B. Only when an emergency is declared
• C. Prior to departure
• D. Only after the first passenger muster

20. Under STCW Regulation V/2, crowd management training is required for masters, officers, ratings and which other personnel on passenger ships?

• A. Only the ship's entertainment staff
• B. Only shore-based office staff
• C. Only personnel who hold a GMDSS certificate
• D. Other personnel designated on muster lists to assist passengers in emergency situations

21. Crisis management and human behaviour training under STCW A-V/2 is required for masters, chief engineer officers, chief mates, second engineer officers and:

• A. Only the ship security officer
• B. All passengers travelling more than 24 hours
• C. All galley ratings
• D. Any person designated on muster lists as having responsibility for the safety of passengers in emergency situations

22. According to DGS Training Circular No. 5 of 2016, STCW 95 Passenger Ship Familiarisation certificates continue to remain valid after 01.01.2017 provided the seafarer has:

• A. Passed a fresh exit examination
• B. Completed a refresher course every two years
• C. 12 months of sea service on board passenger ships within the last five years
• D. Served 6 months on any ship in the last year

23. The DG Shipping guidelines specify that the course outline and detailed teaching syllabus of the Passenger Ship Familiarisation (Crowd Management) course shall be as per:

• A. IMO Model Course 1.13
• B. IMO Model Course 2.03
• C. IMO Model Course 1.29
• D. IMO Model Course 1.28

24. Under SOLAS III/19, on-board training in the use of the ship's life-saving appliances, including survival craft equipment, shall be given to a new crew member as soon as possible but not later than:

• A. Two weeks after joining the ship
• B. Two months after joining the ship
• C. Six months after joining the ship
• D. The first port call after joining

25. On a passenger ship engaged on a voyage where passengers are scheduled to be on board for more than 24 hours, musters of newly embarked passengers shall take place:

• A. Only when the voyage exceeds 72 hours
• B. Prior to or immediately upon departure
• C. At the first weekly drill
• D. Within 24 hours of departure

26. Whenever new passengers embark on a passenger ship, a passenger safety briefing shall be given:

• A. Only on the second day of the voyage
• B. At the purser's desk on request
• C. Only to passengers who request it
• D. Immediately before sailing or immediately after sailing

27. Illustrations and instructions in appropriate languages showing passengers their muster station, essential emergency actions and the method of donning lifejackets shall be:

• A. Kept only in the purser's office
• B. Displayed only on the navigating bridge
• C. Posted in passenger cabins and conspicuously displayed at muster stations and other passenger spaces
• D. Issued only on request at the reception

28. On a passenger ship the muster list must specify the duties of crew members in relation to passengers. Which of the following is one of those listed duties?

• A. Locking all cabins after passengers leave
• B. Issuing new tickets after the emergency
• C. Collecting passengers' valuables before abandonment
• D. Keeping order in passageways and on stairways and generally controlling the movements of passengers

29. The muster list must be prepared:

• A. Before the ship proceeds to sea, and revised or replaced if a crew change requires it
• B. Only after the first emergency drill of the voyage
• C. By the flag State at the time of registry
• D. Once a year at the annual survey

30. According to SOLAS III/37, which duty towards passengers must the muster list assign so that survival craft occupants are protected from exposure?

• A. Ensuring that a supply of blankets is taken to the survival craft
• B. Ensuring that cabin keys are collected
• C. Ensuring passengers bring personal food supplies
• D. Ensuring that each passenger brings their own luggage

1. Under SOLAS II-2/13, escape routes in passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers are marked by low-location lighting or photoluminescent indicators placed not more than what height above the deck?

• A. 300 mm
• B. 1.5 m
• C. 1 m
• D. 600 mm

2. On passenger ships, all survival craft required to provide for abandonment by the total number of persons on board shall be capable of being launched with their full complement and equipment within what time of the abandon ship signal?

• A. 10 minutes
• B. 60 minutes
• C. 45 minutes
• D. 30 minutes

3. Marine evacuation systems shall be deployed from the ship on a rotational basis so that each system is deployed at least once every:

• A. Twelve months
• B. Ten years
• C. Six years
• D. Two years

4. Marine evacuation systems shall be serviced at intervals not exceeding:

• A. 5 years
• B. 12 months, extendable by the Administration to 17 months where impracticable
• C. 3 months
• D. 30 months, with no extension

5. On ro-ro passenger ships, SOLAS requires liferafts to be:

• A. Stowed only on the forecastle
• B. Carried only in the vehicle deck
• C. Served by marine evacuation systems or by launching appliances equally distributed on each side of the ship
• D. Thrown overboard by hand in all cases

6. SOLAS III/26 requires that on ro-ro passenger ships at least one of the rescue boats shall be:

• A. An open lifeboat with sails
• B. A free-fall lifeboat
• C. A totally enclosed lifeboat
• D. A fast rescue boat

7. In a passenger ship, the transitional source of emergency electrical power shall be capable of supplying the required services for a period of:

• A. 3 hours
• B. 36 hours
• C. 30 minutes
• D. 18 hours

8. Where the emergency source of electrical power is a generator, it shall be automatically started and connected to the emergency switchboard within:

• A. 10 seconds after manual start
• B. 2 minutes
• C. 45 seconds
• D. 5 minutes

9. As a minimum, the decision support system for emergency management required on passenger ships shall consist of:

• A. A printed emergency plan or plans
• B. A computer simulator for stability only
• C. A closed-circuit television system
• D. A voyage data recorder

10. On passenger ships constructed on or after 1 July 2010, the safety centre required by SOLAS II-2/23 shall be:

• A. At the main embarkation station
• B. Either part of the navigation bridge or in a separate space adjacent to and with direct access to the bridge
• C. In the purser's office
• D. In the engine control room

11. STCW Table A-V/2 requires the ability to optimise the use of resources in an emergency. This takes into account that:

• A. Resources available in an emergency may be limited, so personnel and equipment immediately available must be fully used and, if necessary, improvised
• B. Only the master's resources need be considered
• C. Shore assistance will always arrive within an hour
• D. Resources are always sufficient if the plan is followed

12. Shipboard emergency plans and procedures under the ISM Code must include:

• A. Programmes for drills and exercises to prepare for emergency actions
• B. Only the fire control plan
• C. Only the cargo securing manual
• D. Commercial booking procedures

13. STCW Table A-V/2 requires the person in charge to be able to make an initial assessment and provide an effective response to emergency situations. This response must be:

• A. Based entirely on improvisation
• B. Decided by a vote of senior officers
• C. In accordance with established emergency procedures
• D. Delayed until shore management approves

14. Under STCW Table A-V/2, which leadership quality is listed as necessary to lead and direct others in emergency situations?

• A. Avoiding decisions until all information is available
• B. Delegating all decisions to the most junior crew
• C. Setting an example and maintaining a focus on decision-making given the time constraints of the emergency
• D. Keeping the crew uninformed to prevent anxiety

15. According to STCW Table A-V/2, realistic drills on passenger ships should be organised taking into account:

• A. Only the convenience of passengers
• B. The requirements of the catering department
• C. Only the weather forecast
• D. Lessons learnt from previous accidents involving passenger ships, followed by debriefing after the drills

16. After a drill or a real emergency response on a passenger ship, the most effective way to identify shortcomings and improve future response is to:

• A. Record only the time the drill started
• B. Hold a debriefing with the participants
• C. Repeat the drill immediately without discussion
• D. Report only to the flag State

17. Passenger ships to which SOLAS Chapter I applies, trading on fixed routes, shall have on board:

• A. A plan for co-operation with appropriate search and rescue services in the event of an emergency
• B. A dedicated SAR aircraft contract
• C. A permanent helicopter on deck
• D. A coast guard officer on every voyage

18. A passenger ship has grounded. Before any attempt is made to refloat her, the master should first:

• A. Go full astern immediately
• B. Assess the damage by sounding all tanks, bilges and void spaces and check stability
• C. Pump out all ballast to lighten the ship
• D. Order passengers to the vehicle deck

19. On a passenger ship the decision to abandon ship and the order to do so is the responsibility of:

• A. The muster control team leader
• B. The chief engineer
• C. The staff captain alone
• D. The master

20. When flooding is reported on a passenger ship, an early action to limit the spread of water through the subdivision is to:

• A. Stop the bilge pumps to save power
• B. Open watertight doors to equalise the water
• C. Ensure all watertight doors are closed and determine the extent of flooding
• D. Increase speed to reduce trim

21. STCW Table A-V/2 lists general reaction patterns of passengers in emergencies. Which is one of them?

• A. Passengers never return to their cabins
• B. People always react immediately and correctly to the first alarm
• C. It generally takes some time before people accept the fact that there is an emergency
• D. Passengers always follow instructions without question

22. Which behaviour of passengers in an emergency should crew anticipate, as listed in STCW Table A-V/2?

• A. Passengers will refuse lifejackets in all cases
• B. Passengers will go directly to their survival craft without mustering
• C. Passengers will remain quietly in their cabins until called
• D. People may try to look for relatives or return to their cabins to fetch belongings

23. Some passengers in an emergency may continue with their normal activity, ignoring the alarm. In STCW A-V/2 terms this is an example of:

• A. An effective response to the emergency
• B. A reaction pattern in which people may not accept that there is an emergency
• C. Panic behaviour
• D. Proper compliance with crew instructions

24. A crew member who shows nightmares, flashbacks and avoidance of reminders weeks after a serious casualty is most likely suffering from:

• A. Acute seasickness
• B. Post-traumatic stress disorder
• C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
• D. Hypothermia

25. STCW Table A-V/2 lists the ability to deal with stress. Which statement reflects this competence?

• A. Stress always improves performance
• B. Recognising that stress affects one's own and others' performance and that stress-handling must be practised
• C. Stress can be ignored if procedures exist
• D. Stress affects passengers only, never trained crew

26. STCW Table A-V/2 stresses the importance of which type of instructions and reports during an emergency?

• A. Informal and spontaneous
• B. Detailed and technical
• C. Lengthy and repeated in writing
• D. Clear and concise

27. Besides giving instructions, Table A-V/2 requires the person in charge to encourage which of the following during an emergency?

• A. Silence from all crew until the emergency ends
• B. Communication only through the bridge
• C. Exchange of information with, and feedback from, passengers and other personnel
• D. Passengers to use mobile phones to call ashore

28. During an emergency, information given to passengers and other personnel should keep them apprised of:

• A. Technical details of the damage
• B. The overall situation and any action required of them
• C. Only the ship's position
• D. Only the expected arrival time at the next port

29. Under STCW Table A-V/2, emergency announcements broadcast during an emergency or drill must be in a language that:

• A. Is understood only by the deck officers
• B. Is the flag State language only
• C. Is chosen by the passengers
• D. Conveys critical guidance to passengers and facilitates crew in assisting them

30. Under SOLAS V/14, the working language of the ship shall be established by the company and:

• A. Notified only to the port State
• B. Posted only in the crew mess
• C. Changed for every voyage by the purser
• D. Recorded in the ship's log-book

1. When making an emergency announcement to passengers on the public address system, the officer should:

• A. Speak quickly to save time and avoid repetition
• B. Announce only in the ship's working language
• C. Give full technical details of the casualty
• D. Speak calmly and clearly, give brief instructions and repeat them, in the appropriate languages

2. Which statement about the public address system on passenger ships is correct?

• A. It must be clearly audible above ambient noise in all spaces and have an override so emergency messages are broadcast regardless of volume settings
• B. It is used only for entertainment announcements
• C. It is required only on the bridge and engine room
• D. It may be switched off in cabins at night

3. Passenger safety, cargo safety and hull integrity training under STCW A-V/2 is required on ro-ro passenger ships for senior officers and any person assigned immediate responsibility for:

• A. Embarking and disembarking passengers, loading, discharging or securing cargo, or closing hull openings
• B. Entertainment and shore excursions
• C. Navigational watchkeeping only
• D. Catering and housekeeping services

4. Vehicles and cargo units on a ro-ro passenger ship shall be stowed and secured throughout the voyage in accordance with:

• A. The passenger safety briefing
• B. The Cargo Securing Manual approved by the Administration
• C. The bridge procedures manual
• D. The ship's fire control plan

5. A 'special category space' on a passenger ship is an enclosed vehicle space above or below the bulkhead deck into and from which vehicles can be driven and:

• A. To which passengers have access
• B. Which carries only empty containers
• C. Which is used only for dangerous goods
• D. Which is permanently unmanned

6. In special category spaces on passenger ships, SOLAS II-2/20 requires, in addition to fire detection arrangements:

• A. An efficient patrol system to be maintained
• B. The space to be kept locked and unvisited at sea
• C. Passengers to remain in their vehicles
• D. Ventilation to be stopped throughout the voyage

7. A ro-ro passenger ship carrying dangerous goods must have on board a detailed stowage plan or a special list or manifest that:

• A. Lists only the passengers' names
• B. Shows only the deck cargo lashings
• C. Contains the cargo invoices
• D. Identifies by class the dangerous goods on board and their location

8. Before a ship may carry dangerous goods in packaged form in ro-ro and vehicle spaces, it must hold:

• A. An International Tonnage Certificate
• B. A Ship Sanitation Control Certificate
• C. A Safety Management Certificate only
• D. A Document of Compliance with the special requirements for ships carrying dangerous goods

9. Once a private car has been parked in position on a ro-ro deck for the voyage, which action is correct?

• A. Driver remains in the vehicle throughout the voyage
• B. Engine switched off, parking brake applied, vehicle left in gear and lashed as required
• C. Parking brake released so the car can move with the ship
• D. Engine left idling to keep the battery charged

10. During loading of a ro-ro passenger ship, shear forces and bending moments are kept within permissible limits by:

• A. Loading all heavy vehicles at the bow first
• B. Relying on the draft readings after sailing
• C. Stowing heavy vehicles on the upper decks
• D. Checking the loading condition with the approved loading manual or loading instrument

11. On ro-ro passenger ships, indicators on the navigation bridge for bow, stern and shell doors whose opening could flood a ro-ro space must be designed on which principle?

• A. Audible alarm only after the ship has sailed
• B. Indication only in the engine control room
• C. Fail-safe, giving an alarm if a door is not fully closed or its securing arrangements are not in place
• D. Manual check only by the deck patrol

12. The bridge indicator panel for shell doors on a ro-ro passenger ship is provided with a mode selection function so that an audible alarm sounds if the ship leaves harbour with any shell door not closed. The modes are:

• A. Day and night
• B. Manual and automatic steering
• C. Harbour and sea voyage
• D. Loading and discharging

13. Leakage through inner and outer bow doors, stern doors or other shell doors of a ro-ro passenger ship must be indicated on the bridge and in the engine control station by:

• A. Television surveillance and a water leakage detection system
• B. A sounding pipe checked once a day
• C. The voyage data recorder
• D. The fire detection system

14. Documented operating procedures for closing and securing the bow, stern and side shell doors of a ro-ro passenger ship shall be:

• A. Kept with the port agent
• B. Kept on board and posted at an appropriate place
• C. Issued to passengers on embarkation
• D. Kept only in the company office

15. The ro-ro passenger ferry Herald of Free Enterprise capsized off Zeebrugge in 1987 mainly because:

• A. She grounded on a sandbank
• B. Her bow visor was torn off in heavy weather
• C. She sailed with her inner and outer bow doors open, flooding the vehicle deck
• D. A fire started on the vehicle deck

16. Closed ro-ro and vehicle spaces of passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers shall have a ventilation system capable of at least how many air changes per hour?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 10
• D. 20

17. In closed vehicle and ro-ro spaces, electrical equipment that is not of a certified safe type must be installed at least what height above the deck?

• A. 2 m
• B. 150 mm
• C. 1 m
• D. 450 mm

18. Which atmospheric hazard is particularly associated with vehicles running their engines on an enclosed ro-ro deck during loading and discharging?

• A. Build-up of carbon monoxide from exhaust gases
• B. Release of nitrogen from inert gas systems
• C. Build-up of hydrogen sulphide from cargo tanks
• D. Oxygen enrichment from ventilation fans

19. Under SOLAS II-1/23, special category spaces and ro-ro spaces of ro-ro passenger ships shall be:

• A. Visited only at the start and end of the voyage
• B. Continuously patrolled or monitored by effective means such as television surveillance during the voyage
• C. Monitored only from the engine room by temperature readings
• D. Left unattended to avoid disturbing passengers

20. The times of closing of shell doors and loading doors of a passenger ship before the voyage commences shall be:

• A. Recorded only if a door fails to close
• B. Reported only to the port agent
• C. Recorded only on the first voyage of the year
• D. Entered in the log-book as prescribed by the Administration