Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home PSSR sets
Answer Key

PSSR exit exam questions and answers — Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities

All 786 questions from the Personal Safety & Social Responsibilities (PSSR) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these PSSR questions PSSR mock exit exam, 30 marks PSSR exit exam sets and syllabus

786 of 786 shown

Nothing in this key matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 1 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. How can information regarding a sick person or injured person be disseminated to the CIRM?

  • A. By passing on medical examination report from the company
  • B. By using the appropriate reporting form
  • C. By contacting the family doctor of the sick person
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — By using the appropriate reporting form
CIRM (Centro Internazionale Radio Medico) or similar telemedical assistance services require specific medical reporting forms to provide accurate diagnosis and treatment advice for sick or injured personnel.

2. If you saw wisps of smoke coming out under the engine room door, you immediately:

  • A. Activate the fixed fire fighting system
  • B. Raise the alarm
  • C. Close the air vents
  • D. Shut off the main fuel supply
Answer: B — Raise the alarm
Raising the alarm is the mandatory first step to initiate emergency response procedures, ensuring the bridge, engine room, and crew are alerted to the situation immediately.

3. Life jacket should be marked with the:

  • A. Stowage space assigned
  • B. Vessel's name
  • C. Vessel's home port
  • D. Maximum weight allowed
Answer: B — Vessel's name
SOLAS requires that life-saving appliances, including life jackets, are clearly marked with the vessel's name to ensure identification and return to the parent ship during rescue operations.

4. What is the life-saving signal at day for "you are seen-assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

  • A. Orange smoke signal
  • B. Green star rocket
  • C. Horizontal motion of a flag
  • D. Red star rocket
Answer: A — Orange smoke signal
Orange smoke signals are recognized international life-saving signals used during the day to indicate that the survivor has been spotted and assistance is underway.

5. Empathetic listening helps you to:

  • A. Improve mutual understanding and trust
  • B. Improve mutual understanding
  • C. Improve mutual understanding and feeling
  • D. Improve trust and friendship
Answer: A — Improve mutual understanding and trust
Empathetic listening involves active engagement with the speaker, which fosters trust and improves mutual understanding between crew members, enhancing effective teamwork.

6. What is discrimination?

  • A. Making judgments or statements based upon comparison
  • B. Making hateful content
  • C. Judging people discriminately
  • D. Making false statements about others
Answer: A — Making judgments or statements based upon comparison
Discrimination refers to the act of making unjust or prejudicial distinctions between people based on characteristics, which is prohibited in a professional maritime environment.

7. What governs safe procedures at work?

  • A. The Code of Safe Working Practices
  • B. International Safety Management (ISM) Code
  • C. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  • D. The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification, and Watchkeeping (STCW)
Answer: A — The Code of Safe Working Practices
The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers (COSWP) is the primary document providing guidance on safety management and safe work procedures on board ships.

8. "Human elements" in a ship means:

  • A. Human behavior
  • B. Human relationship
  • C. Human interaction
  • D. Human error
Answer: D — Human error
Human elements refer to the study of factors, including human error, that influence the performance and safety of personnel working within a technical and high-pressure environment.

9. The windlass is located at:

  • A. The engine room
  • B. Amidships
  • C. The forecastle of the ship
  • D. The stern of the ship
Answer: C — The forecastle of the ship
The windlass is the heavy-duty machinery located on the forecastle (foredeck) of the ship, used for operating the anchors and mooring lines.

10. Displacement refers to the:

  • A. Cubic capacity of a vessel
  • B. Gross tonnage of a vessel
  • C. Number of long tons of water displaced by a vessel afloat
  • D. Deadweight carrying capacity of a vessel
Answer: C — Number of long tons of water displaced by a vessel afloat
Displacement is defined by Archimedes' principle as the weight of the water displaced by the hull of a vessel, which is equivalent to the ship's total weight.

11. What term indicates an inward curvature of the ship's hull above the waterline?

  • A. Deadrise
  • B. Flare
  • C. Tumblehome
  • D. Camber
Answer: C — Tumblehome
Tumblehome describes a ship's hull design where the beam decreases as one moves upward from the waterline toward the deck, creating an inward curvature.

12. Compared to oil tankers, chemical tankers are:

  • A. As large as oil tankers
  • B. More complex to operate
  • C. Less complex to operate
  • D. Capable of carrying only one grade of chemical
Answer: B — More complex to operate
Chemical tankers are more complex to operate due to the specialized requirements for cargo compatibility, stringent safety protocols, and the hazardous nature of various chemicals carried.

13. In the concept of ship handling, what would be the definition of shallow water?

  • A. Under keel clearance of less than 10 feet
  • B. Water depth of less than twice a vessel's draft
  • C. Water depth of less than 1-1/2 times a vessel's draft
  • D. Under keel clearance of twice a vessel's draft
Answer: C — Water depth of less than 1-1/2 times a vessel's draft
In maritime ship handling, shallow water is generally defined as a depth less than 1.5 times the ship's draft, where hydrodynamic effects like squat become significant.

14. Which engineering staff is in charge of engine room maintenance?

  • A. Master
  • B. 2nd engineer
  • C. 3rd engineer
  • D. Chief engineer
Answer: B — 2nd engineer
The Second Engineer is typically responsible for the day-to-day maintenance of engine room machinery, under the overall supervision of the Chief Engineer.

15. Physical stress:

  • A. Is often a symptom of emotional stress
  • B. Is often found in people who exercise regularly
  • C. Rarely is connected to diet
  • D. Rarely causes emotional stress
Answer: A — Is often a symptom of emotional stress
Physical stress is often the physiological manifestation of unresolved emotional or psychological strain. When the body undergoes prolonged stress, it triggers symptoms like tension headaches, fatigue, or high blood pressure, effectively acting as an indicator of underlying emotional stressors.

16. Self-induced stress is mainly due to:

  • A. Personality
  • B. Family
  • C. Economy
  • D. Health
Answer: A — Personality
Self-induced stress arises from an individual's internal psychological makeup, including their personality traits, perception of events, and behavioral patterns. Unlike external factors like economy or family, these are internalized responses that determine how one reacts to challenges.

17. Balancing life goals, taking control of thoughts and emotions, and managing schedules are all components of:

  • A. Being practical
  • B. Coping with stress
  • C. Identifying sources of stress
  • D. Taking control
Answer: D — Taking control
Taking control involves proactive management of one's environment and internal state. By organizing schedules, balancing goals, and regulating emotional responses, an individual asserts agency over their stress levels rather than being a passive recipient of external pressures.

18. One of the most important factors determining the success of an organization is:

  • A. Performance of its employees
  • B. Effective management
  • C. Methods to combat internal personnel stress
  • D. Continuous and positive profits
Answer: A — Performance of its employees
An organization's success is fundamentally built upon its human capital. While management and profit are essential, the performance, dedication, and competence of the employees are the primary drivers of operational excellence and organizational goals.

19. Direct blood contact can occur through all except:

  • A. Needle sharing
  • B. Transfusion
  • C. Accident in healthcare settings
  • D. Sharing of beds
Answer: D — Sharing of beds
Direct blood contact usually requires a vector like needles or open wounds. Sharing a bed does not involve the direct exchange of bodily fluids required for bloodborne pathogen transmission, making it an incorrect method of direct blood contact.

20. When fuel oil is being topped off during bunkering operations, the tank valve should be closed:

  • A. Rapidly to prevent overflow
  • B. Slowly to prevent surge stresses
  • C. After the shore pumps are stopped
  • D. To prevent gas from escaping through the pressure-vacuum relief valves
Answer: B — Slowly to prevent surge stresses
Closing valves slowly is critical during the final stages of bunkering to prevent 'surge' or 'water hammer' effects. Rapidly closing valves against high-velocity flow can cause pipe ruptures or mechanical damage due to pressure spikes.

21. Oil pollution regulations require any transfer or discharge of oil or oily mixtures to be recorded in the:

  • A. Master's log
  • B. Bridge log
  • C. Oil record book
  • D. Pollution control record
Answer: C — Oil record book
Under MARPOL Annex I, all oil-related operations, including bunker transfers, ballast, and cleaning, must be documented in the Oil Record Book. This is a legal requirement for demonstrating compliance with international pollution prevention standards.

22. What is the primary safety duty for an individual crew member on board a vessel?

  • A. Ensure the absolute safety of personal equipment only
  • B. Minimize personal workload to avoid exhaustion
  • C. Report faults only during official safety committee meetings
  • D. Follow safe working practices and look out for the safety of fellow crew members
Answer: D — Follow safe working practices and look out for the safety of fellow crew members
The primary duty of every seafarer under safety management systems is personal vigilance and the protection of colleagues. Creating a safe work environment requires individual accountability and looking out for the welfare of the team to prevent incidents.

23. When finding yourself working in a noise-heavy engine room environment, what protective equipment is considered most necessary?

  • A. High-visibility safety vest
  • B. Fire-retardant safety suit
  • C. Eye protection goggles
  • D. Ear muffs or ear plugs
Answer: D — Ear muffs or ear plugs
Noise-heavy environments like engine rooms present a risk of long-term occupational hearing loss. Ear muffs or ear plugs (Personal Protective Equipment) are mandatory to mitigate acoustic damage and comply with noise control regulations.

24. If you discover a fire in the engine room or galley space, what should your immediate first step be?

  • A. Report the situation and sound the emergency fire alarm
  • B. Evacuate directly to the lifeboat station without notifying anyone
  • C. Locate and read the emergency instruction manual
  • D. Attempt to extinguish the fire entirely on your own
Answer: A — Report the situation and sound the emergency fire alarm
In any emergency, the primary rule is to notify others immediately by sounding the alarm to activate the ship's emergency response team. Attempting to fight a fire alone without assistance is dangerous and violates standard emergency procedures.

25. Under Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) standards, what document must be signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner (or representative) outlining employment terms?

  • A. Ship's Official Log Book
  • B. Vessel Safety Management Certificate
  • C. Seafarer’s Employment Agreement (SEA)
  • D. Port State Control Clearance
Answer: C — Seafarer’s Employment Agreement (SEA)
The Seafarer’s Employment Agreement (SEA) is a mandatory requirement under the Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) 2006. It ensures that the terms of employment, including wages, hours of work, and repatriation rights, are transparently agreed upon by both parties.

26. According to international MARPOL regulations designed to control marine pollution, which of the following records is mandatory to log oil-related machinery space operations?

  • A. Cargo Manifest Log
  • B. Oil Record Book (Part 1)
  • C. Deck Movement Log
  • D. Garbage Record Book
Answer: B — Oil Record Book (Part 1)
MARPOL Annex I requires that every ship of 400 gross tonnage and above carry an Oil Record Book (Part I - Machinery Space Operations). This document records all movements of oil or sludge to verify compliance with international discharge standards.

27. To ensure safety and prevent onboard transmission of pathogens, how should specialized bio-medical waste or clinical sharps generated on board be managed?

  • A. Flushed directly into the sewage treatment plant
  • B. Discarded openly along with general domestic galley waste
  • C. Thrown directly overboard outside of special areas
  • D. Stored securely in dedicated, marked containers for safe disposal shore-side
Answer: D — Stored securely in dedicated, marked containers for safe disposal shore-side
Bio-medical waste poses a high infection risk and cannot be treated as general waste. It must be segregated, labeled, and stored in dedicated, secure containers on board until it can be safely disposed of at an authorized shore facility.

28. Under the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping (STCW), what is the minimum mandatory period of rest required for watchkeeping personnel in any 24-hour period?

  • A. 12 hours
  • B. 6 hours
  • C. 8 hours
  • D. 10 hours
Answer: D — 10 hours
Under STCW 2010 regulations, seafarers must have at least 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period, and 77 hours in any 7-day period. These limits are designed to prevent fatigue, which is a leading cause of maritime accidents.

29. What is the standard spoken emergency distress signal used over a VHF radio to indicate a vessel is in imminent danger?

  • A. Security
  • B. Mayday
  • C. Pan-Pan
  • D. Red Alert
Answer: B — Mayday
Mayday is the internationally recognized distress signal used in voice communications to indicate that a vessel is in grave and imminent danger. It signals the need for immediate assistance from nearby vessels or authorities.

30. When rescuing a person from a confined space, what is the absolute priority required to consider the space safe for entry?

  • A. Fire retardant gear
  • B. Presence of oxygen (safe atmospheric level)
  • C. Eye protection
  • D. Safety lights
Answer: B — Presence of oxygen (safe atmospheric level)
Before entering a confined space, the atmosphere must be verified safe for life support. Oxygen levels, as well as the presence of toxic or flammable gases, must be tested to ensure the space is safe for entry.

Set 2 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. A negative attitude, inability to manage time, and low self-esteem are personal factors that add to seafarer stress. These fall under:

  • A. Environmental factors
  • B. Personality factors
  • C. Community factors
  • D. Emotional factors
Answer: B — Personality factors
A negative attitude and low self-esteem are internal psychological attributes. Because these factors originate from within the individual's mental and behavioral framework, they are classified as personality factors that exacerbate stress.

2. High concentrations of Hydrogen Sulfide ($H_2S$) gas are extremely dangerous to personnel because they can:

  • A. Paralyze your breathing system
  • B. Cause dizziness
  • C. Cause involuntary skeletal muscle contractions
  • D. Cause eye inflammation
Answer: A — Paralyze your breathing system
Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) is a highly toxic, lethal gas. At high concentrations, it acts as a respiratory paralyzer by inhibiting cellular respiration, which can lead to instant collapse and death for the unsuspecting person.

3. What must the watchstanding engineer do periodically while on an operational engine room watch?

  • A. Take routine rounds of the engine room
  • B. Conduct major overhaul repairs of equipment
  • C. Stand idle at the control station
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Take routine rounds of the engine room
Routine rounds are vital for the watchkeeping engineer to identify abnormalities such as leaks, vibration, or temperature spikes. Constant monitoring ensures that equipment is performing within normal parameters to prevent potential failures.

4. What is the fundamental difference between listening and hearing?

  • A. Listening is conscious and hearing is effortless
  • B. Listening is natural and hearing is physical
  • C. Listening is conscious and hearing is mechanical
  • D. Listening is mechanical and hearing is normal
Answer: C — Listening is conscious and hearing is mechanical
Hearing is a physiological process of detecting sound vibrations, whereas listening is a conscious, active process of interpreting and understanding those sounds. Effective communication requires listening, not just the physical act of hearing.

5. In survival situations, which of the following visual distress signals is explicitly acceptable for daylight use only?

  • A. Orange smoke signals
  • B. Rocket parachute flares
  • C. Handheld red flares
  • D. Red aerial stars
Answer: A — Orange smoke signals
Orange smoke signals provide high visibility against the blue sea during daylight. Because they are not luminous, they are ineffective at night, unlike parachute flares, which are designed for both day and night use.

6. If you observe a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer (bunkering) operations, what is your immediate first action?

  • A. Wait for the person in charge to act
  • B. Sound the fire alarm
  • C. Notify the ballast control operator
  • D. Shut down the transfer operation
Answer: D — Shut down the transfer operation
Safety is the highest priority during any transfer operation. If a hazard is spotted, the immediate, mandatory step is to stop the transfer flow to prevent the hazard from escalating into a spill or fire.

7. The signal "Pan-Pan" repeated over the radiotelephone indicates what type of message?

  • A. Safety
  • B. Urgency
  • C. Distress
  • D. All Clear
Answer: B — Urgency
The Pan-Pan signal is used to alert maritime authorities of an 'urgency' situation that does not rise to the level of immediate distress (Mayday). It indicates that the ship has a problem that requires urgent but not life-saving help.

8. In order to comply with safety policies and procedures, ship crew and officers must:

  • A. Focus on delivering ship and cargo at all costs
  • B. Minimize the use of alcohol on board
  • C. Stop unsafe practices which may cause accidents, injury, or environmental pollution
  • D. Focus only on commercial requirements
Answer: C — Stop unsafe practices which may cause accidents, injury, or environmental pollution
Safety policies require that all personnel actively stop unsafe practices. This is a core component of the safety management system, ensuring that risks are mitigated before they manifest as injury, damage, or pollution.

9. We use gestures in our non-verbal communication in order to convey a message and:

  • A. Impress ourselves
  • B. Suppress ourselves
  • C. Express ourselves
  • D. All of the above
Answer: C — Express ourselves
Gestures are a form of non-verbal communication that adds emphasis or clarity to a spoken message. They serve as an extension of one's thoughts, helping to express meaning more effectively to the listener.

10. If you tend to give lengthy explanations for simple things, your communication message lacks:

  • A. Conciseness
  • B. Correctness
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Consistency
Answer: A — Conciseness
Conciseness in communication means conveying the necessary information using the fewest words possible. Lengthy explanations often dilute the main point, leading to confusion and potential loss of critical information during an emergency.

11. Which of the following statements regarding primary battery cells used on board is correct?

  • A. Used primary cells can be fully recharged
  • B. Used primary cells must be discarded after use
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Used primary cells can be refilled and reused
Answer: B — Used primary cells must be discarded after use
Primary battery cells are non-rechargeable electrochemical units. Once their chemical potential is depleted, they cannot be restored through charging or refilling and must be disposed of according to the ship's waste management plan.

12. Most minor oil product spills occurring during shipboard operations are caused by:

  • A. Unforeseeable weather conditions
  • B. Equipment failure
  • C. Human error
  • D. Major casualties
Answer: C — Human error
Most minor spills result from human error—such as forgetting to close a valve or failing to monitor gauges—rather than catastrophic equipment failure. Vigilance and adherence to procedures are the best preventions against these spills.

13. Compared directly to standard crude oil tankers, chemical tankers are generally:

  • A. Capable of carrying only one grade of oil
  • B. As large as standard oil tankers
  • C. Less complex to operate
  • D. More complex to operate
Answer: D — More complex to operate
Chemical tankers carry specialized, hazardous liquid cargoes that require complex systems for temperature control, segregation, and tank cleaning. Consequently, their operation is significantly more complex than that of standard crude oil tankers.

14. Which code or document directly governs safe working procedures and routines at work on board a vessel?

  • A. ISM Code
  • B. Code of Safe Working Practices (COSWP)
  • C. Occupational Health Act
  • D. STCW Code
Answer: B — Code of Safe Working Practices (COSWP)
The Code of Safe Working Practices (COSWP) is the definitive manual for safety procedures and routines for merchant seafarers. It provides the standardized, industry-accepted practices for working safely on deck and in machinery spaces.

15. What does the operational maritime acronym RADAR stand for?

  • A. Radio Direction and Ranging
  • B. Radio Detection and Ranging
  • C. Radium Direction and Ranging
  • D. Radio Distance and Ranging
Answer: B — Radio Detection and Ranging
RADAR is an acronym for Radio Detection and Ranging. It uses radio waves to determine the bearing, range, and relative speed of objects, which is critical for navigation and collision avoidance at sea.

16. The problem of misunderstanding during operational training can be drastically eliminated by providing:

  • A. Physical material samples
  • B. Complex theory
  • C. Practical examples
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — Practical examples
Practical examples bridge the gap between theory and application. By showing the crew how to handle equipment or procedures in real-world scenarios, the potential for misunderstanding is minimized through experiential learning.

17. When scuppers are plugged and an oil spill occurs on deck during fuel transfer, you should:

  • A. Use absorbent material such as sawdust or pads to clean up the spill
  • B. Remove scuppers and wash the fuel overboard with chemical solvents
  • C. Remove the plug from scuppers to allow it to run overboard
  • D. Sound the general emergency alarm immediately
Answer: A — Use absorbent material such as sawdust or pads to clean up the spill
Absorbent materials are the primary defense for containing a minor spill on deck. By preventing the oil from entering the scuppers, you stop the pollutant from entering the marine environment, which is the immediate priority.

18. How many total technical annexes does the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) contain?

  • A. Six
  • B. Eight
  • C. Three
  • D. Four
Answer: A — Six
MARPOL (International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) consists of six technical annexes, each addressing different forms of ship-generated pollution such as oil, chemicals, sewage, garbage, and air emissions.

19. In what ways can interpersonal relationships be improved among crew members on board?

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Mutually helping out others during intense workloads
  • C. Maintaining good communication lines
  • D. Developing empathy and understanding with each other
Answer: A — All of the above
Interpersonal relationships are strengthened by empathy, good communication, and teamwork. Fostering a supportive environment reduces social isolation and improves collective morale, which is vital for long-term crew cohesion.

20. Meteorological warning reports transmitted to the ship consist of one of the following:

  • A. Weather information or severe storm warnings
  • B. Vessel on fire or sinking tracking
  • C. Floating debris location
  • D. Iceberg movement information
Answer: A — Weather information or severe storm warnings
Meteorological warnings transmitted via GMDSS/radio provide crucial data about weather patterns and severe storms. This information allows the bridge team to alter course or prepare for heavy weather to ensure vessel safety.

21. What is the immediate first action to be taken when you encounter an emergency situation on board?

  • A. Try to fight the emergency completely on your own
  • B. Muster the crew in the designated area
  • C. Wait at your position for instructions
  • D. Sound the ship's emergency alarm
Answer: D — Sound the ship's emergency alarm
The ship's emergency alarm is the universal signal to notify the crew of a critical situation. It ensures that everyone is alerted immediately, allowing for a structured response and muster rather than disjointed, individual efforts.

22. Which logbook is explicitly used to record all mandatory and important radio safety/distress communications on board?

  • A. Garbage Record Book
  • B. Deck Log Book
  • C. Engine Log Book
  • D. GMDSS Log Book
Answer: D — GMDSS Log Book
The GMDSS (Global Maritime Distress and Safety System) logbook is the official record for all radio communications concerning safety and distress. It must be maintained as required by the SOLAS convention.

23. Which of the following jobs on board explicitly requires a Hot Work Permit before execution?

  • A. Mopping the accommodation deck
  • B. All of the above
  • C. Normal cooking operations in the galley
  • D. Gas cutting or welding operations on deck
Answer: D — Gas cutting or welding operations on deck
Hot work, such as welding or gas cutting, involves high-temperature sources capable of igniting vapors or materials. A permit-to-work system is mandatory to ensure all safety precautions are met before starting the work.

24. As per STCW 2010 regulations, what is the maximum validity period of a seafarer's medical fitness certificate?

  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 years
  • C. 3 years
  • D. 4 years
Answer: B — 2 years
Under the STCW convention, a medical fitness certificate for seafarers is generally valid for a maximum period of two years. This ensures that the seafarer's health remains consistent with the physical demands of their duties.

25. Which is clinically considered the most frequently abused drug/substance globally across maritime and shore sectors?

  • A. Heroin
  • B. Opiates
  • C. Alcohol
  • D. Cocaine
Answer: C — Alcohol
Alcohol is the most prevalent substance of abuse globally and within the maritime industry. Its effect on cognitive performance and alertness makes it a significant hazard, leading to strict 'zero tolerance' policies on most vessels.

26. What are the common contributing causes of physical and mental fatigue among seafarers on board?

  • A. High emotional stress
  • B. Lack of continuous sleep
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Excessive occupational workload
Answer: C — All of the above
Fatigue in the maritime industry is multifactorial. Lack of sleep, high mental strain, and heavy workloads combined, create an environment where exhaustion becomes a significant risk factor for accidents.

27. In risk management and safety assessments on board, what does the acronym ALARP stand for?

  • A. All Living Areas and Recreation Places
  • B. None of the above
  • C. Alarm Points on Ships
  • D. As Low As Reasonably Practicable
Answer: D — As Low As Reasonably Practicable
ALARP (As Low As Reasonably Practicable) is a foundational principle in safety management. It requires that risks must be reduced until the cost of further reduction would be grossly disproportionate to the benefit gained.

28. Which of the following conditions is considered an immediate slip, trip, or safety hazard on board?

  • A. An unsecured load suspended high on a crane hook
  • B. Water accumulated on an internal staircase
  • C. None of the above
  • D. Both A and B are correct
Answer: D — Both A and B are correct
Accumulated water and unsecured heavy loads are immediate physical hazards. Slippery surfaces cause falls, while suspended loads pose a risk of crushing injuries, both of which are common triggers for maritime accidents.

29. Which organ of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) consists of representatives from all member states?

  • A. The Council
  • B. The Secretariat
  • C. The Legal Committee
  • D. The Assembly
Answer: D — The Assembly
The IMO Assembly is the highest governing body and consists of representatives from all member states. It meets biennially to approve the budget, work program, and elect the council members.

30. What is the parent international instrument or convention that makes the ISM Code mandatory for ships?

  • A. STCW Chapter VIII
  • B. SOLAS Chapter IX
  • C. Loadline Convention
  • D. MARPOL Chapter V
Answer: B — SOLAS Chapter IX
SOLAS Chapter IX (Management for the Safe Operation of Ships) mandates the implementation of the International Safety Management (ISM) Code, which is crucial for standardizing safety culture across the global shipping industry.

Set 3 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Under SOLAS and the FSS Code, what is the general requirement for fire detection and alarm system initialization?

  • A. Alarms must be visible only inside the engine workshop
  • B. Audible and visual alarms must initiate directly on the Navigation Bridge and Cargo Control Room (CCR)
  • C. Only a text notification to the Chief Engineer's cabin is required
  • D. Alarms should only sound in the galley area
Answer: B — Audible and visual alarms must initiate directly on the Navigation Bridge and Cargo Control Room (CCR)
SOLAS and FSS Code requirements stipulate that fire alarms must alert the bridge and the engine control room, as these locations are manned 24/7. This ensures immediate notification and response to any fire detection signal.

2. Liability and compensation for damage suffered by a passenger onboard a cruise or passenger vessel is governed by which convention?

  • A. Fund Convention
  • B. Athens Convention
  • C. Basel Convention
  • D. Civil Liability Convention (CLC)
Answer: B — Athens Convention
The Athens Convention relating to the Carriage of Passengers and their Luggage by Sea sets out the liability regime for cruise ship operators regarding death or injury of passengers during the voyage.

3. A muster list or emergency station list must be prominently displayed on any vessel operating with more than how many crew members?

  • A. 4 crew members
  • B. 3 crew members
  • C. 2 crew members
  • D. 5 crew members
Answer: A — 4 crew members
SOLAS regulations require the muster list to be posted in conspicuous places, including the bridge, engine room, and crew accommodation, for all vessels to ensure crew members are aware of their emergency duties.

4. A general emergency situation developing on board a merchant vessel could be caused by:

  • A. Total main engine failure
  • B. Severe fire or explosion
  • C. Hull breaching and flooding
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A general emergency is defined by any event that compromises the safety of the vessel or crew. Fire, explosion, and hull damage are major critical emergencies requiring immediate mustering, while main engine failure can lead to loss of maneuverability in hazardous areas, all necessitating a coordinated response.

5. Shipboard contingency plans prepared for emergencies must identify hazards and systematically include:

  • A. Immediate actions to be taken to regain control of the situation
  • B. Communication methods within the ship and to outside authorities
  • C. Allocation of specific emergency duties and responsibilities
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Effective emergency management relies on a structured approach as mandated by the ISM Code. Contingency plans must define roles to avoid confusion, outline immediate mitigation steps to prevent escalation, and provide clear communication protocols for internal coordination and external reporting (e.g., to the shore, MRCC).

6. Emergency drills must be held within how many hours of sailing if more than 25% of the ship's crew has changed at the last port?

  • A. 48 hours
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 72 hours
  • D. 12 hours
Answer: B — 24 hours
SOLAS requirements state that if more than 25% of the crew has not participated in drills on that specific ship within the previous month, an abandon ship and fire drill must be held within 24 hours of the ship leaving port to ensure everyone is familiar with their duties.

7. Onboard safety familiarization for any newly joining seafarer must be conducted within:

  • A. 1 week of joining the vessel
  • B. 2 weeks of joining the vessel
  • C. The first month of the voyage
  • D. 24 hours of joining the vessel
Answer: D — 24 hours of joining the vessel
Safety familiarization is critical for ensuring that any crew member joining the ship can safely respond to emergencies. Per STCW and SOLAS regulations, this instruction must be provided to every seafarer before they are assigned any shipboard duties, which is legally defined as within 24 hours of joining.

8. As per SOLAS requirements, crew members must be fully trained in life-saving appliances (LSA) and firefighting equipment (FFE) as soon as possible, but not later than:

  • A. 1 month after joining
  • B. 2 weeks after joining
  • C. 1 week after joining
  • D. 24 hours after joining
Answer: B — 2 weeks after joining
SOLAS Ch III Regulation 6 dictates that all crew members must receive instruction on the use of life-saving appliances and firefighting equipment. This training must be completed as soon as possible, but no later than two weeks after a crew member joins the vessel.

9. To comply with performance standards, manufactured lifebuoys are subjected to which type of testing?

  • A. Flotation capability test
  • B. Direct fire test
  • C. Height drop test
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
To ensure they survive the harsh marine environment, lifebuoys must meet rigorous standards under the LSA Code. This includes drop tests from the required height, fire testing to ensure self-extinguishing properties, and flotation tests to confirm they can support a person in the water for extended periods.

10. The correct operation and use of shipboard life-saving appliances must be demonstrated to crew members not later than:

  • A. 2 weeks
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 1 week
  • D. 3 weeks
Answer: A — 2 weeks
Regulation 6 of SOLAS Chapter III mandates that the training of crew members in the correct operation and use of LSA and FFE must be demonstrated. This familiarization and training must be completed within two weeks of joining the vessel to ensure readiness for any emergency.

11. A continuous, uninterrupted ringing of the ship’s alarm bells indicates which specific emergency?

  • A. Machinery Space Flooding
  • B. Man Overboard
  • C. General Emergency / Abandon Ship
  • D. Fire Emergency
Answer: D — Fire Emergency
In accordance with standard Muster List requirements, a continuous, uninterrupted sounding of the ship’s alarm or siren is the designated signal for fire emergency, alerting the crew to take pre-planned stations for firefighting duties as specified in the muster list.

12. The standard General Emergency Alarm signal consists of:

  • A. Continuous ringing of the bell for 10 minutes
  • B. One long blast followed by one short blast
  • C. Three short blasts repeated periodically
  • D. Seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast on the ship's whistle/horn
Answer: D — Seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast on the ship's whistle/horn
The General Emergency Alarm (GEA) is standardized to prevent confusion during crises. It consists of at least seven or more short blasts followed by one prolonged blast on the ship’s whistle/siren and the same signal on the alarm bells, as required by the LSA Code.

13. What is the internationally recognized sound signal for a Man Overboard (MOB) emergency?

  • A. Seven short blasts
  • B. Continuous short rings on the bell
  • C. Two prolonged blasts on the horn
  • D. Three long blasts on the ship's whistle
Answer: D — Three long blasts on the ship's whistle
The Man Overboard (MOB) signal is three long blasts on the ship's whistle or horn (the Morse signal for the letter 'O'), which alerts the bridge and crew to an emergency where immediate maneuvering is required to rescue a person from the sea.

14. What should you do immediately if you witness a crew member fall completely overboard into the sea?

  • A. Release the nearest lifebuoy immediately on the side the person has fallen
  • B. Shout down to the engine room to stop the engines
  • C. Run to the bridge to inform the captain first
  • D. Look for a throwing line in the deck locker
Answer: A — Release the nearest lifebuoy immediately on the side the person has fallen
When a person falls overboard, the immediate priority is to mark their position and aid their buoyancy. Releasing the lifebuoy (which usually features a smoke signal and light) provides a visual reference for the bridge and a life-saving aid for the survivor.

15. Which of the following is a recognized vessel maneuvering pattern used specifically to return a ship back to its original path to rescue a man overboard?

  • A. Williamson turn
  • B. Scharnow turn
  • C. U-turn
  • D. Round turn
Answer: A — Williamson turn
The Williamson turn is the standard maneuver used when the target is not in sight or significant time has elapsed since the fall, as it brings the vessel back to the exact location on a reciprocal course, accounting for the ship's turning circle.

16. According to safety regulations, which of the following is NOT strictly required to be part of the general onboard instructions for routine LSA maintenance?

  • A. Checklist for periodic safety inspections
  • B. Operating instructions for survival craft
  • C. Lubrication requirements for davits
  • D. Detailed tool lists for overhauling engines
Answer: D — Detailed tool lists for overhauling engines
SOLAS III/36 lists inspection checklists, maintenance instructions, schedules and lubrication diagrams for LSA. Tool lists for overhauling engines are not required.

17. The international maritime distress, safety, and calling frequency channel on a standard Marine VHF radio is:

  • A. Channel 13
  • B. Channel 16
  • C. Channel 06
  • D. Channel 70
Answer: B — Channel 16
VHF Channel 16 is the internationally designated channel for distress, safety, and calling, continuously monitored by ships and coastal stations to ensure immediate response to emergencies at sea under the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS).

18. Regulations state that lifeboats and rescue boats must be fully launched into the water and operated at least once every:

  • A. 2 months
  • B. 6 months
  • C. 3 months
  • D. 1 month
Answer: C — 3 months
To ensure the mechanical readiness of survival craft and the proficiency of the crew, SOLAS requires that every lifeboat and rescue boat be launched into the water and maneuvered at least once every three months.

19. A formal Safety Committee Meeting consisting of department heads and crew representatives must be held on board at least:

  • A. Every two months
  • B. Every month
  • C. Once per voyage
  • D. Every week
Answer: B — Every month
Safety Committee Meetings are formal requirements intended to discuss hazards, near-misses, and safety compliance. To maintain a proactive safety culture, the Code of Safe Working Practices and ISM guidelines require these meetings to be held at least monthly.

20. Shipboard waste management and the operational dumping of garbage or refuse at sea is strictly controlled by which international convention?

  • A. STCW 95
  • B. Load Line 1966
  • C. MARPOL 73/78
  • D. SOLAS 74
Answer: C — MARPOL 73/78
MARPOL 73/78 (The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships) is the primary framework regulating the discharge of garbage, oil, sewage, and harmful substances, with Annex V specifically addressing the discharge of shipboard garbage.

21. Under MARPOL Annex I, a "Special Area" is geographically defined as an ocean space where:

  • A. Fishing activities are permanently prohibited
  • B. Only military vessels are allowed to discharge bilge water
  • C. No navigation is permitted at any time
  • D. Special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution by oil are adopted due to oceanographic conditions
Answer: D — Special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution by oil are adopted due to oceanographic conditions
A 'Special Area' under MARPOL is a sea area where, due to recognized technical reasons, oceanographic and ecological conditions, the adoption of special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution is required to protect the marine environment.

22. Under MARPOL Annex I regulations, a "Combination Carrier" type vessel is defined as a ship designed to carry:

  • A. Containers and heavy machinery on deck simultaneously
  • B. Either oil or solid bulk cargoes in its cargo spaces
  • C. Liquefied gases and chemical compounds in independent tanks
  • D. General break-bulk cargo and passengers together
Answer: B — Either oil or solid bulk cargoes in its cargo spaces
A combination carrier (such as an OBO - Ore-Bulk-Oil carrier) is a vessel specifically designed to be flexible, allowing it to carry either liquid cargoes like oil or solid bulk cargoes like ore in the same cargo spaces, depending on operational needs.

23. MARPOL Annex II contains regulations specifically for controlling pollution from which substances carried in bulk?

  • A. Refined petroleum products
  • B. Harmful substances in packaged forms
  • C. Raw domestic sewage
  • D. Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS)
Answer: D — Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS)
MARPOL Annex II governs the control of pollution by Noxious Liquid Substances (NLS) carried in bulk. It classifies substances based on their hazard to the marine environment and mandates strict procedures for tank washing and discharge.

24. Which specific type of shipboard pollution or hazardous substance does MARPOL Annex III deal with?

  • A. Heavy fuel oil sludge from purifiers
  • B. Harmful substances carried at sea in packaged form
  • C. Exhaust gas emissions from main engines
  • D. Raw sewage generated from accommodations
Answer: B — Harmful substances carried at sea in packaged form
MARPOL Annex III contains regulations for the prevention of pollution by harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form, including containers, portable tanks, or road/rail tank wagons, focusing on identification and proper stowage.

25. MARPOL Annex IV deals with shipboard sewage. How do current international regulations affect everyday processing and treatment systems?

  • A. Discharge is completely unregulated globally
  • B. Treatment plants are only required on tugboats
  • C. Regulations are not yet universally enforced by every minor state, but many countries have adopted strict, stringent domestic rules for territorial waters
  • D. Sewage can be freely dumped inside ports anywhere
Answer: C — Regulations are not yet universally enforced by every minor state, but many countries have adopted strict, stringent domestic rules for territorial waters
While international sewage regulations (Annex IV) have become stricter, global enforcement remains dependent on national adoption and port state requirements. Many jurisdictions impose additional stringent regulations within their territorial waters for sewage treatment and discharge.

26. Under MARPOL Annex I, crude oil tankers of 20,000 tons deadweight (DWT) and above delivered after June 1, 1982, must be fitted with a tank cleaning system known as:

  • A. High-Pressure Steam Scubbing (HPSS)
  • B. Crude Oil Washing (COW)
  • C. Water Washing (WW)
  • D. Chemical Solvent Flushes (CSF)
Answer: B — Crude Oil Washing (COW)
Crude Oil Washing (COW) is a system of cleaning cargo tanks by using the crude oil cargo itself through fixed tank cleaning machines, which helps prevent sludge build-up and reduces the amount of oily waste generated.

27. Which of the following precautions must be strictly observed when taking on diesel fuel during bunkering?

  • A. Keep all accommodation doors wide open
  • B. Speed up the transfer rate to maximum right at the start
  • C. Prohibit smoking and open flames in the operational area
  • D. Keep deck lighting completely switched off
Answer: C — Prohibit smoking and open flames in the operational area
Bunkering is a high-risk operation. Prohibiting smoking and open flames is a fundamental safety precaution to prevent the ignition of flammable fuel vapors, which can be present during the transfer of petroleum products.

28. Onboard incineration of which plastic compound material is strictly prohibited unless processed in a type-approved high-temperature shipboard incinerator?

  • A. Low-density polyethylene
  • B. Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)
  • C. High-density polystyrene
  • D. Natural rubber compounds
Answer: B — Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)
Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC) releases harmful dioxins and other toxins when burned. MARPOL Annex V prohibits the incineration of plastics containing toxic or heavy metal residues unless processed in specific high-temperature equipment designed to handle them safely.

29. To prevent biological cross-contamination, ballast water exchange maneuvers should be carried out in ocean waters with a depth of at least:

  • A. 100 meters
  • B. 500 meters
  • C. 50 meters
  • D. 200 meters
Answer: D — 200 meters
To minimize the transfer of invasive aquatic species, IMO ballast water management guidelines recommend performing ballast water exchange in deep ocean waters, specifically at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in water at least 200 meters deep.

30. Which of the following is true regarding the maintenance and logging of the Oil Record Book Part II?

  • A. It maintains comprehensive details of oil cargo loading and unloading operations
  • B. It must be maintained specifically by oil tankers in addition to Part I
  • C. All of the above
  • D. It must be safely retained on board the vessel for at least three years from the last entry
Answer: C — All of the above
The Oil Record Book Part II is mandatory for oil tankers to track all cargo and ballast operations involving oil. It must be maintained accurately and kept on board for three years, as it is subject to inspection by port state control.

Set 4 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Standard structural and operational precautions to prevent accidental oil pollution on a vessel include:

  • A. Executing transfer and discharge of oil cargo strictly as per the vessel's manuals
  • B. Regular visual inspections of oil pipelines, associated valves, and manifold structures
  • C. Regular training of the crew via oil pollution response and SOPEP drills
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A comprehensive approach to pollution prevention includes procedural compliance, proactive maintenance of transfer infrastructure, and the continuous drilling of the crew in SOPEP (Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan) to ensure a rapid, correct response.

2. A specialized record book used to log complete details of all garbage disposal operations from a ship to a shore reception facility or via sea discharge is the:

  • A. Cargo Record Book
  • B. Deck Official Log Book
  • C. Master’s Safety Manifest
  • D. Garbage Record Book
Answer: D — Garbage Record Book
The Garbage Record Book is a mandatory document under MARPOL Annex V used to record every disposal, discharge, or incineration operation involving shipboard garbage to ensure compliance with regional and international discharge regulations.

3. The safe disposal of used or expired chemical containers on a vessel should be carried out by:

  • A. Throwing them overboard far out at sea
  • B. Mixing them with general food waste
  • C. Disposing of them strictly as per the chemical Maker's instructions
  • D. Burning them openly on the deck space
Answer: C — Disposing of them strictly as per the chemical Maker's instructions
Disposal of chemical waste is strictly regulated and must be handled according to the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) and the chemical manufacturer's specific instructions, which prioritize environmental safety and regulatory compliance.

4. Under MARPOL Annex VI, SECA stands for Sulfur Oxide ($SO_x$) Emission Control Area. Which regions are designated SECAs?

  • A. Both A and B are correct
  • B. None of the above
  • C. The North Sea area and the English Channel
  • D. The Baltic Sea area
Answer: A — Both A and B are correct
Sulfur Oxide Emission Control Areas (SECAs) have been designated in specific regions to limit $SO_x$ emissions from ships. The Baltic Sea, the North Sea, and the English Channel are recognized SECAs where ships must use low-sulfur fuel or exhaust gas cleaning systems.

5. To prevent alcohol abuse under STCW watchkeeping regulations, the maximum blood alcohol concentration (BAC) limit for watchkeeping personnel is set to not exceed:

  • A. 0.08% blood alcohol content
  • B. 0.10% blood alcohol content
  • C. 0.05% blood alcohol content
  • D. 0.01% blood alcohol content
Answer: C — 0.05% blood alcohol content
STCW Code A-VIII/1 limits watchkeepers to not more than 0.05 % blood alcohol (BAC) or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in breath, or a quantity of alcohol leading to such concentration.

6. A permit-to-work (PTW) system is highly necessary on board a vessel for:

  • A. Any of the above
  • B. Ensuring proper tool and resource utilization
  • C. Ensuring the quality and structural integrity of the work executed
  • D. Ensuring the occupational safety of working personnel
Answer: A — Any of the above
A Permit to Work (PTW) is a formal document designed to ensure that high-risk tasks are thoroughly assessed, hazards are identified, and control measures are implemented to protect personnel and the vessel's integrity during maintenance or repair activities.

7. What permits are required when a technician needs to execute electric welding on a pressurized hydraulic pipeline located inside an empty fresh water tank?

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Permit to work on pressurized systems
  • C. Enclosed Space Entry Permit
  • D. Hot Work Permit
Answer: A — All of the above
Welding is 'Hot Work', the pipeline is 'Pressure/Hydraulic' work, and the tank is a 'Confined Space'. Each of these conditions poses unique risks, requiring specific permits, risk assessments, and isolation procedures to ensure safety before work commences.

8. Which of the following high-risk shipboard work activities strictly requires the issuance of a formal Permit to Work?

  • A. Working aloft on the mast or funnel structures
  • B. Working outboard over the side of the hull structure
  • C. All of the above
  • D. Working on live, high-voltage electrical circuits
Answer: C — All of the above
Working aloft, working on high-voltage circuits, and working outboard are all high-risk activities where the consequences of an error are severe. A permit-to-work system ensures these tasks are supervised and safely executed.

9. What is the maximum standard operational validity period of an issued shipboard Permit to Work before it must be revalidated?

  • A. 4 hours
  • B. 8 hours
  • C. 12 hours
  • D. 24 hours
Answer: C — 12 hours
Permits to Work are valid for a specified time to ensure that the work conditions haven't changed. A 12-hour period is the standard maximum, requiring a new risk assessment and re-authorization to ensure safety if the task continues beyond a single shift.

10. Which personnel should NOT be authorized or allowed to carry out dangerous afloat or high-risk structural work?

  • A. Personnel with a physical handicap that restricts movement or safety compliance
  • B. Personnel who are clinically overweight for the harness limits
  • C. All of the above
  • D. seafarer who is overly tired, fatigued, or has not received mandated rest hours
Answer: C — All of the above
Safety is paramount when performing dangerous tasks. Any physical or mental impairment, including excessive fatigue, can significantly increase the risk of an accident; therefore, such personnel must not be assigned to high-risk structural or maintenance duties.

11. To ensure safe human respiration, continuous work inside an enclosed space requires a constant oxygen level of:

  • A. 18% oxygen concentration
  • B. 25% oxygen concentration
  • C. 16% oxygen concentration
  • D. 21% oxygen concentration
Answer: D — 21% oxygen concentration
Standard atmospheric oxygen levels are approximately 21%. When working in enclosed spaces, any deviation from this level (e.g., lower due to consumption/rusting, or higher/lower due to gases) poses a health risk; 21% is the requirement for safe breathing.

12. What type of clear safety warning signs should be placed directly around manholes leading into unventilated void spaces?

  • A. Breathing apparatus mandatory sign / Confined space danger sign
  • B. Flammable gas warning sign only
  • C. High-voltage hazard warning sign
  • D. No entry for cargo personnel sign
Answer: A — Breathing apparatus mandatory sign / Confined space danger sign
Enclosed spaces are potentially lethal due to oxygen deficiency or the presence of toxic gases. Mandatory signage (e.g., 'Entry by Permit Only', 'Danger', 'Breathing Apparatus Required') is essential to prevent unauthorized or unprotected entry.

13. To enforce company drug and alcohol policies, the Master may conduct random, unannounced alcohol breath tests on the crew at least:

  • A. Weekly
  • B. Annually
  • C. Quarterly
  • D. Monthly
Answer: D — Monthly
To ensure compliance with safety management systems and international regulations (STCW), it is standard practice for the Master to implement random, unannounced drug and alcohol testing to maintain a sober working environment.

14. If your vessel has been involved in a collision and you cannot immediately confirm if the hull is structurally sinking or stable, you should:

  • A. Go to your cabin to pack all personal belongings
  • B. Pump all ballast water out blindly
  • C. Abandon the vessel immediately without checking anything else
  • D. Search for missing persons, continuously monitor the structural situation, and prepare life-saving appliances for abandonment in case it becomes necessary
Answer: D — Search for missing persons, continuously monitor the structural situation, and prepare life-saving appliances for abandonment in case it becomes necessary
In a collision, the safety of the vessel and crew is the priority. The response must be methodical: stabilize the situation, assess damage, account for all personnel, and only abandon the ship if it is declared unsafe by the Master.

15. What is the primary reason for positioning a dedicated standby person immediately outside an enclosed space while work is occurring inside?

  • A. To assist with tool cleaning on deck
  • B. To keep a record of time for payroll purposes
  • C. To handle communication with shore commercial agents
  • D. To initiate and get the emergency rescue plan underway immediately if a hazard develops inside
Answer: D — To initiate and get the emergency rescue plan underway immediately if a hazard develops inside
A standby person is essential for confined space entry to monitor the conditions inside, communicate with the team, and provide immediate notification or assistance if an emergency occurs, as they are the vital link for rescue initiation.

16. Under MARPOL Annex I, what is the maximum allowable oil content of discharge from the bilge of a ship outside special areas while en route?

  • A. 15 parts per million (ppm)
  • B. 50 parts per million (ppm)
  • C. 100 parts per million (ppm)
  • D. 0 parts per million (ppm)
Answer: A — 15 parts per million (ppm)
MARPOL Annex I regulations specify that oily water discharge from machinery space bilges must pass through a 15 ppm oil filtering equipment with automatic stopping device.

17. What permit is mandatory before any work involving naked flames, welding, or spark-producing tools can be carried out outside the workshop?

  • A. Hot Work Permit
  • B. Enclosed Space Entry Permit
  • C. Cold Work Permit
  • D. Working at Height Permit
Answer: A — Hot Work Permit
A Hot Work Permit is required to ensure gas-free conditions and fire watch precautions are established prior to high-temperature or flame work.

18. Prior to entering an enclosed space, what is the minimum required oxygen content percentage by volume?

  • A. 16.0%
  • B. 18.0%
  • C. 20.9%
  • D. 23.5%
Answer: C — 20.9%
Normal atmospheric oxygen concentration is 20.9% by volume. Enclosed space entry requires testing for 20.9% O2, 0% LFL flammable gas, and zero toxic vapors.

19. What safety precaution must be taken when a seafarer is working at height above 2 meters over an open deck or over the side?

  • A. Wear a safety harness attached to a secured fall-arrest lifeline
  • B. Wear heavy leather gloves only
  • C. Ensure a lifebuoy with line is thrown over first
  • D. Hold onto the railing with one hand at all times
Answer: A — Wear a safety harness attached to a secured fall-arrest lifeline
Working at height requires a full-body safety harness hooked to an approved inertia reel or lifeline, along with a safety helmet with chin strap.

20. What is the primary objective of Lockout / Tagout (LOTO) procedures on board?

  • A. To prevent accidental energy isolation
  • B. To isolate energy sources and prevent unexpected startup of machinery during maintenance
  • C. To speed up routine engine room operations
  • D. To mark defective tools for disposal
Answer: B — To isolate energy sources and prevent unexpected startup of machinery during maintenance
LOTO ensures electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic, and mechanical energy sources are physically locked and tagged to protect crew from sudden energization.

21. What general emergency alarm signal is sounded on a ship's whistle and internal alarm system?

  • A. One long blast followed by one short blast
  • B. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
  • C. Three long blasts continuously
  • D. Five short rapid blasts
Answer: B — Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
The SOLAS general emergency alarm signal consists of 7 or more short blasts followed by 1 long blast on the ship's whistle and alarm bells.

22. Which MARPOL Annex regulates the prevention of pollution by garbage from ships?

  • A. Annex I
  • B. Annex III
  • C. Annex V
  • D. Annex VI
Answer: C — Annex V
MARPOL Annex V deals with garbage management, prohibiting the discharge of plastics anywhere into the sea and restricting food/cargo residue disposal.

23. What safety document provides essential health, hazard, and emergency response information for chemicals handled on board?

  • A. Safety Data Sheet (SDS / MSDS)
  • B. Bill of Lading
  • C. Oil Record Book
  • D. Garbage Record Book
Answer: A — Safety Data Sheet (SDS / MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) contain chemical identification, hazard classification, protective equipment requirements, and emergency first aid guidance.

24. What action must be taken immediately if a crew member witnesses someone falling overboard?

  • A. Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke signal, and inform the bridge
  • B. Jump into the water immediately to assist
  • C. Run to the engine room to stop the propeller
  • D. Look for a ladder before raising the alarm
Answer: A — Shout 'Man Overboard', throw a lifebuoy with light/smoke signal, and inform the bridge
The immediate actions for Man Overboard are: raise alarm loud and clear, throw nearest lifebuoy with light/smoke to mark position, keep eyes on the casualty, and notify the bridge.

25. Under MARPOL Annex VI, what is the global maximum allowable sulfur content in marine fuel oil outside Emission Control Areas (ECAs) as of 2020?

  • A. 0.10% m/m
  • B. 0.50% m/m
  • C. 1.00% m/m
  • D. 3.50% m/m
Answer: B — 0.50% m/m
The 2020 IMO Global Sulfur Cap restricts fuel oil sulfur content to 0.50% m/m worldwide (and 0.10% m/m inside designated ECAs).

26. What is the primary function of an Oily Water Separator (OWS) 15 ppm bilge alarm sensor?

  • A. To automatically divert discharge back to the bilge holding tank if oil exceeds 15 ppm
  • B. To heat the bilge water before overboard pumping
  • C. To inject chemical dispersant into the discharge pipe
  • D. To measure bilge pump pressure
Answer: A — To automatically divert discharge back to the bilge holding tank if oil exceeds 15 ppm
The 15 ppm bilge monitor continuously monitors effluent oil content and trips a 3-way solenoid valve to stop overboard discharge if oil exceeds 15 ppm.

27. What safety equipment must always be rigged and tested before embarking or disembarking via a pilot ladder?

  • A. Lifebuoy with self-igniting light, heaving line, and manropes if required
  • B. Portable fire extinguisher
  • C. Emergency fire pump
  • D. Deck washing hose
Answer: A — Lifebuoy with self-igniting light, heaving line, and manropes if required
Pilot transfer arrangements require illumination, a lifebuoy with self-igniting light, a heaving line, and proper securement of the pilot ladder.

28. When handling heavy equipment on deck or in the engine room, what lifting technique helps prevent spinal injury?

  • A. Bend knees, keep back straight, lift with leg muscles close to body
  • B. Keep legs straight and bend at the waist
  • C. Twist torso while lifting heavy loads
  • D. Lift rapidly using arm muscles alone
Answer: A — Bend knees, keep back straight, lift with leg muscles close to body
Ergonomic lifting requires bending legs, keeping back vertical, holding load close to body, and using powerful leg muscles.

29. What does the abbreviation 'SMCP' stand for in maritime communications?

  • A. Standard Marine Communication Phrases
  • B. Ship Management Cargo Protocol
  • C. Safety Maritime Control Procedure
  • D. SOLAS Marine Code Provision
Answer: A — Standard Marine Communication Phrases
IMO Standard Marine Communication Phrases (SMCP) standardizes maritime English vocabulary to avoid misunderstandings between bridge, engine, and port authorities.

30. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory when operating grinding machines or lathe tools?

  • A. Safety impact goggles / face shield
  • B. Loose canvas gloves
  • C. Dust mask only
  • D. Earplugs only
Answer: A — Safety impact goggles / face shield
Grinding and machining generate high-speed metal/abrasive flying debris requiring approved impact-resistant safety goggles or a full face shield.

Set 5 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the key purpose of conducting regular Safety Committee Meetings on board ships?

  • A. To review safety performance, investigate near-misses, and improve onboard safety culture
  • B. To assign daily maintenance work schedules
  • C. To inspect engine room logbook entries
  • D. To calculate overtime payments
Answer: A — To review safety performance, investigate near-misses, and improve onboard safety culture
Safety Committee meetings involve crew representatives and officers to analyze hazard reports, review near-miss incidents, and enhance safety awareness.

2. Under the Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers (COSWP), how should portable electrical tools be protected against shock?

  • A. Operated with double insulation or connected to a Residual Current Device (RCD / GFCI)
  • B. Connected directly to high-voltage main switchboard
  • C. Grounded using uninsulated copper wire held by hand
  • D. Wired without fuses to avoid tripping
Answer: A — Operated with double insulation or connected to a Residual Current Device (RCD / GFCI)
Portable power tools must be double-insulated or supplied through a sensitive RCD (30mA trip) and inspected for cord insulation defects before use.

3. What action is required under MARPOL Annex V regarding disposal of food waste into the sea outside special areas?

  • A. Comminuted food waste (passing through 25 mm screen) may be discharged beyond 3 nautical miles from land
  • B. Food waste can be dumped anywhere without restriction
  • C. Food waste must never be discharged under any circumstances
  • D. Food waste must be mixed with plastic before disposal
Answer: A — Comminuted food waste (passing through 25 mm screen) may be discharged beyond 3 nautical miles from land
MARPOL Annex V allows comminuted food waste (<25mm) to be discharged beyond 3 NM from land outside special areas (uncomminuted beyond 12 NM).

4. What is the primary danger associated with hydrogen sulfide (H2S) gas in cargo tanks or sewage systems?

  • A. It is highly toxic, paralyzes the sense of smell instantly at high ppm, and is flammable
  • B. It supports combustion without flame
  • C. It is odorless and heavier than air but completely non-toxic
  • D. It causes immediate skin freezing
Answer: A — It is highly toxic, paralyzes the sense of smell instantly at high ppm, and is flammable
H2S is an extremely deadly toxic gas produced by decomposing organic matter or sour crude oil. It deadens olfactory nerves quickly, causing collapse and death.

5. What is the main requirement for an Enclosed Space Entry Standby Person?

  • A. Must remain outside the entrance, maintain communication, and never enter without assistance and SCBA
  • B. Must enter the space periodically to inspect work
  • C. Must operate the cargo crane while monitoring
  • D. Can leave the entrance unattended for short tea breaks
Answer: A — Must remain outside the entrance, maintain communication, and never enter without assistance and SCBA
The standby attendant must remain outside the space at all times, keep continuous radio/verbal contact, and raise alarm if an emergency occurs.

6. Which SOLAS regulation mandates the ISM Code (International Safety Management Code)?

  • A. Chapter IX
  • B. Chapter II-2
  • C. Chapter V
  • D. Chapter XI-2
Answer: A — Chapter IX
SOLAS Chapter IX (Management for the Safe Operation of Ships) makes compliance with the ISM Code mandatory for shipping companies and vessels.

7. What document must be completed on board every vessel to record all cargo, ballast, and engine room fuel/oil transfers?

  • A. Oil Record Book Part I (Machinery Space) and Part II (Cargo/Ballast)
  • B. Deck Logbook only
  • C. Garbage Management Plan
  • D. Official Chief Engineer's Diary
Answer: A — Oil Record Book Part I (Machinery Space) and Part II (Cargo/Ballast)
MARPOL Annex I mandates the Oil Record Book Part I for machinery space operations and Part II for oil tanker cargo/ballast operations.

8. What is the primary danger of static electricity during tank cleaning or flammable liquid transfer?

  • A. Spark generation capable of igniting explosive vapor-air mixtures
  • B. Corrosion of steel bulkhead plates
  • C. Overheating of ballast pump bearings
  • D. Freezing of tank washing nozzles
Answer: A — Spark generation capable of igniting explosive vapor-air mixtures
High-velocity fluid flow or washing jets generate static charges; without proper bonding and grounding, electrostatic sparks can ignite cargo vapors.

9. What is the correct procedure before using any personal fall arrest system (harness and lanyard)?

  • A. Inspect webbing, stitching, D-rings, and snap hooks for fraying, cracks, or distortion
  • B. Wash lanyard with petrol
  • C. Test load by dropping heavy anvil attached to harness
  • D. Coat webbing with grease to increase flexibility
Answer: A — Inspect webbing, stitching, D-rings, and snap hooks for fraying, cracks, or distortion
Pre-use visual and tactile inspection of fall protection equipment ensures stitch integrity, proper locking latch operation, and absence of chemical damage.

10. Which of the following is considered a 'near-miss' incident on board?

  • A. An unplanned event that did not cause injury or damage, but had the potential to do so
  • B. A serious fire causing severe structural damage
  • C. An oil spill of over 100 metric tons
  • D. A planned routine lifeboat drill
Answer: A — An unplanned event that did not cause injury or damage, but had the potential to do so
A near-miss is a hazardous event that could have resulted in harm or damage under slightly different circumstances; reporting near-misses prevents future accidents.

11. What type of fire extinguisher should NEVER be used on electrical switchboards or live wiring?

  • A. Water or Foam fire extinguisher
  • B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) extinguisher
  • C. Dry Chemical Powder (DCP) extinguisher
  • D. Clean Agent / FM-200 extinguisher
Answer: A — Water or Foam fire extinguisher
Water and foam conduct electrical current, posing severe electrocution risks to firefighters if applied to energized electrical gear.

12. What is the purpose of a Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP)?

  • A. To guide the master and crew in responding safely and effectively to oil spill incidents
  • B. To schedule main engine overhauls
  • C. To record daily fuel oil consumption
  • D. To calculate vessel cargo deadweight
Answer: A — To guide the master and crew in responding safely and effectively to oil spill incidents
SOPEP (required under MARPOL Annex I Reg 37) contains reporting procedures, mitigation actions, and contact lists for oil pollution emergencies.

13. What precaution must be taken when handling synthetic fiber mooring ropes under heavy load?

  • A. Stay clear of snap-back zones and never stand in bights of rope
  • B. Stand directly in line with tensioned line
  • C. Step on line to check tension
  • D. Lubricate synthetic lines with oil
Answer: A — Stay clear of snap-back zones and never stand in bights of rope
Synthetic ropes stretch under tension and store kinetic energy; if a line parts, it snaps back violently toward fixed points, causing fatal injuries to anyone in snap-back zones.

14. What health hazard is caused by prolonged exposure to high noise levels (>85 dB) in engine rooms without hearing protection?

  • A. Irreversible Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL)
  • B. Temporary eye strain
  • C. Skin rashes
  • D. Loss of balance only while walking
Answer: A — Irreversible Noise-Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL)
Continuous high noise damages auditory nerve hair cells in the cochlea, leading to permanent hearing loss unless ear defenders or earplugs are worn.

15. What is the purpose of Risk Assessment before carrying out non-routine shipboard tasks?

  • A. To identify hazards, assess risk levels, and implement control measures to reduce risk to acceptable levels
  • B. To eliminate the need for work permits
  • C. To determine how fast the task can be completed
  • D. To assign financial cost to equipment repairs
Answer: A — To identify hazards, assess risk levels, and implement control measures to reduce risk to acceptable levels
Formal Risk Assessment evaluates potential hazards and establishes control barriers (PPE, permits, supervision) before work begins.

16. Under MARPOL Annex IV, what is the requirement for discharging sewage from an approved sewage treatment plant into the sea?

  • A. May be discharged at any distance from land provided effluent shows no visible floating solids or discoloration
  • B. Must be discharged at least 50 NM from land
  • C. Can only be discharged in port
  • D. Must be incinerated on deck
Answer: A — May be discharged at any distance from land provided effluent shows no visible floating solids or discoloration
Effluent from an IMO-approved Sewage Treatment Plant (Annex IV) can be discharged anywhere without distance restrictions if non-discolored and free of floating solids.

17. What safety device is fitted on gas cylinders to prevent overpressure explosion in a fire?

  • A. Bursting disc or fusible plug
  • B. Non-return flapper valve
  • C. Sight glass indicator
  • D. Rubber drain plug
Answer: A — Bursting disc or fusible plug
Compressed gas cylinders incorporate pressure relief devices such as bursting discs or fusible plugs that melt at elevated temperatures to vent gas safely.

18. What precaution must be taken before opening steam lines or boiler blowdown valves?

  • A. Drain condensate thoroughly to prevent water hammer
  • B. Open main valve rapidly at full speed
  • C. Fill line with cold sea water first
  • D. Insulate valves with wet cotton waste
Answer: A — Drain condensate thoroughly to prevent water hammer
Trapped condensate in steam lines causes destructive water hammer when high-pressure steam pushes liquid slugs against bends and closed valves.

19. What color coding is universally used on ships to identify Emergency Fire Fighting Equipment locations?

  • A. Red
  • B. Green
  • C. Yellow
  • D. Blue
Answer: A — Red
ISO and IMO safety sign standards assign Red to fire protection and firefighting equipment marking.

20. What precaution is required when storing oxygen and acetylene cylinders in gas welding stations?

  • A. Store in well-ventilated dedicated lockers, secured upright, with oxygen and acetylene separated by a fire-resistant bulkhead
  • B. Store together inside engine room bilge space
  • C. Store horizontally near main switchboard
  • D. Keep valves open for continuous pressure check
Answer: A — Store in well-ventilated dedicated lockers, secured upright, with oxygen and acetylene separated by a fire-resistant bulkhead
Gas cylinders must be secured upright in ventilated deck lockers, away from heat sources, with fuel gas and oxygen separated.

21. What action must a seafarer take if a piece of power machinery exhibits abnormal vibration or strange noise?

  • A. Stop the machinery safely, inform the officer in charge, and investigate cause
  • B. Increase speed to smooth out vibration
  • C. Ignore it until watch handover
  • D. Pour water over electric motor housing
Answer: A — Stop the machinery safely, inform the officer in charge, and investigate cause
Unusual noise or vibration indicates mechanical failure, bearing seizure, or imbalance; prompt stopping prevents catastrophic failure.

22. Under the Maritime Labour Convention (MLC 2006), what fundamental right is guaranteed to all seafarers?

  • A. Safe and hygienic working environment, decent working and living conditions, and health protection
  • B. Free unlimited luxury accommodation
  • C. Exemption from all shipboard drills
  • D. Right to navigate vessel without officer supervision
Answer: A — Safe and hygienic working environment, decent working and living conditions, and health protection
MLC 2006 (Seafarers' Bill of Rights) guarantees fair employment terms, decent living conditions, occupational health protection, and medical care.

23. What safety equipment is required when handling battery banks containing liquid sulfuric acid?

  • A. Chemical safety goggles, face shield, rubber apron, and rubber gloves
  • B. Cotton gloves and dust mask
  • C. Thermal oven mitts
  • D. Leather welding apron only
Answer: A — Chemical safety goggles, face shield, rubber apron, and rubber gloves
Battery electrolyte (sulfuric acid) causes severe chemical burns and eye blindness; full chemical-resistant PPE and an eye-wash station are mandatory.

24. What is the primary danger of using carbon dioxide (CO2) in a fixed engine room fire extinguishing system?

  • A. CO2 displaces oxygen rapidly, causing fatal asphyxiation to anyone inside
  • B. CO2 causes immediate steel corrosion
  • C. CO2 explodes upon contact with diesel oil
  • D. CO2 is highly toxic to touch
Answer: A — CO2 displaces oxygen rapidly, causing fatal asphyxiation to anyone inside
Fixed CO2 systems smother fire by reducing O2 below 15%; total flooding will cause rapid unconsciousness and death to personnel who fail to evacuate.

25. What document authorizes entry into ballast tanks, cofferdams, or double bottoms after gas testing?

  • A. Enclosed Space Entry Permit
  • B. Hot Work Permit
  • C. Bunker Transfer Permit
  • D. Garbage Disposal Certificate
Answer: A — Enclosed Space Entry Permit
Enclosed space entry permits confirm atmosphere testing (O2, toxic, flammable), ventilation, illumination, and rescue gear deployment before entry.

26. When pitching or rolling heavily in rough seas, how should un-bagged or un-palletized spares be secured in ship store rooms?

  • A. Lashed securely to structural frames using ropes, chains, or lashing straps
  • B. Stacked loose on top shelves
  • C. Left on deck plates near doorways
  • D. Tied with light cotton string to light fixtures
Answer: A — Lashed securely to structural frames using ropes, chains, or lashing straps
Heavy spares and equipment shifting in rough weather cause severe vessel damage and injury; items must be lashed to heavy structural padeyes.

27. What precaution must be taken before working on high-voltage (1000V+) electrical machinery on ships?

  • A. Isolation, earthing (grounding) of high-voltage conductors, and issuance of a High Voltage Permit to Work
  • B. Wiping casing with wet rag
  • C. Wearing cotton socks only
  • D. Standing on wet steel grating
Answer: A — Isolation, earthing (grounding) of high-voltage conductors, and issuance of a High Voltage Permit to Work
High Voltage (HV) systems require certified HV key isolation, physical grounding of conductors to discharge residual capacitive energy, and HV permits.

28. What is the function of a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) positive pressure demand valve?

  • A. Maintains positive pressure inside face mask so toxic ambient gas cannot leak inward
  • B. Increases cylinder pressure automatically
  • C. Filters carbon monoxide from surrounding room air
  • D. Heats incoming breathing air to 50 degrees C
Answer: A — Maintains positive pressure inside face mask so toxic ambient gas cannot leak inward
Positive-pressure SCBA facepieces maintain internal air pressure slightly higher than atmosphere, ensuring outward leakage only if seal breaks.

29. Under MARPOL Annex II, what category of Noxious Liquid Substances poses the major hazard to marine resources or human health?

  • A. Category X
  • B. Category Y
  • C. Category Z
  • D. OS (Other Substances)
Answer: A — Category X
Category X noxious liquids present major hazards, prohibiting any discharge into the marine environment.

30. What safety step must be performed before starting a positive displacement pump (e.g. gear pump or reciprocating pump)?

  • A. Ensure discharge valve is FULLY OPEN to prevent extreme overpressure
  • B. Close discharge valve tightly
  • C. Close suction valve completely
  • D. Remove relief valve
Answer: A — Ensure discharge valve is FULLY OPEN to prevent extreme overpressure
Positive displacement pumps deliver fixed volume per revolution; starting against a closed discharge valve causes rapid catastrophic pipe bursting.

Set 6 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the primary objective of bridge-engine room watchkeeping handover procedures?

  • A. To ensure relief officer is fully briefed on vessel status, machinery parameters, weather, and traffic before assuming watch
  • B. To allow watchkeepers to leave 30 minutes early
  • C. To reset all alarm parameters to zero
  • D. To turn off navigation lights
Answer: A — To ensure relief officer is fully briefed on vessel status, machinery parameters, weather, and traffic before assuming watch
Formal watch handover verifies that the relieving watchkeeper is fit, alert, and fully informed on operational conditions, orders, and potential hazards.

2. What safety device is fitted on crankcases of medium and large marine diesel engines to relieve explosion pressure?

  • A. Crankcase explosion relief valves with flame traps
  • B. Manual drain cocks
  • C. Plastic inspection windows
  • D. Rubber expansion joints
Answer: A — Crankcase explosion relief valves with flame traps
Hot spot ignition of oil mist causes crankcase explosions; spring-loaded relief valves release overpressure while internal flame traps prevent secondary atmospheric fires.

3. What action should be taken if a seafarer experiences symptoms of severe fatigue while on watch?

  • A. Report to the Officer of the Watch (OOW) or Chief Engineer so relief can be arranged safely
  • B. Sleep on floor behind switchboard
  • C. Drink energy drinks and conceal symptoms
  • D. Turn off alarm panel bells
Answer: A — Report to the Officer of the Watch (OOW) or Chief Engineer so relief can be arranged safely
Fatigue severely impairs judgment and reaction time; seafarers must inform supervisors so watch duties can be safely reassigned under STCW rest rules.

4. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) protects against chemical splashes when handling concentrated degreasers or acids?

  • A. Chemical splash goggles and full face shield
  • B. Clear prescription spectacles
  • C. Sunglasses
  • D. Dust visor
Answer: A — Chemical splash goggles and full face shield
Chemical liquids can splash around lens margins; splash-proof indirect-ventilation goggles combined with a full face shield provide complete eye/face protection.

5. What safety step is mandatory before carrying out maintenance on hydraulic deck machinery?

  • A. Depressurize hydraulic accumulators and lines, isolate power, and lock out controls
  • B. Loosen hose fittings under full hydraulic pressure
  • C. Start hydraulic pump at maximum RPM
  • D. Fill reservoir to overflowing
Answer: A — Depressurize hydraulic accumulators and lines, isolate power, and lock out controls
High-pressure hydraulic fluid pinhole leaks can penetrate human skin, causing gangrene and severe tissue necrosis; lines must be completely depressurized first.

6. What is the purpose of an emergency towing arrangement fitted on tankers of 20,000 DWT and above?

  • A. To allow rapid, safe towing connection at bow and stern in emergency disablement scenarios
  • B. To tow harbor tugboats
  • C. To secure vessel to quay without winches
  • D. To deploy anchors in deep water
Answer: A — To allow rapid, safe towing connection at bow and stern in emergency disablement scenarios
SOLAS II-1/3-4 mandates emergency towing arrangements on tankers so disabled vessels can be quickly taken in tow under adverse sea conditions.

7. What precaution must be taken when disposing of oily rags used in engine room cleaning?

  • A. Deposit in closed metal oily rag bins to prevent spontaneous combustion
  • B. Throw into open cardboard boxes under stairs
  • C. Leave piled in hot exhaust casing corners
  • D. Throw overboard immediately
Answer: A — Deposit in closed metal oily rag bins to prevent spontaneous combustion
Oils undergo slow oxidation in piled rags, generating heat that cannot escape, leading to spontaneous ignition; sealed metal containers prevent air contact.

8. Under MARPOL Annex III, how must packaged harmful substances be identified and stowed?

  • A. Durable marine pollutant marking/labeling and stowed safely according to IMDG Code
  • B. Unlabeled in general crew mess rooms
  • C. Stowed loose on open poop deck
  • D. Mixed with fresh provisions
Answer: A — Durable marine pollutant marking/labeling and stowed safely according to IMDG Code
MARPOL Annex III and the IMDG Code mandate proper durable labeling, documentation, and segregation of stowed marine pollutants.

9. What action should be taken if a shipboard emergency fire alarm sounds during off-duty hours?

  • A. Dress warmly, put on lifejacket and required PPE, and report promptly to muster station
  • B. Remain in cabin and wait for phone call
  • C. Go to galley for meal
  • D. Ignore alarm if off-watch
Answer: A — Dress warmly, put on lifejacket and required PPE, and report promptly to muster station
All crew members must respond immediately to general emergency alarms by donning proper clothing, lifejackets, and proceeding to designated muster stations.

10. What is the primary danger of static electricity when refueling or bunkering flammable fuel?

  • A. Ignition of fuel vapor at sampling points or hose connections
  • B. Fuel line freezing
  • C. Clogging of fuel filters
  • D. Incorrect volumetric meter reading
Answer: A — Ignition of fuel vapor at sampling points or hose connections
Bounding and grounding bunker hoses ensures electrical continuity, preventing static spark discharge near fuel vapor vents.

11. What requirement applies to portable ladder usage on board according to maritime safety standards?

  • A. Place at 4:1 slope angle (approx 75 deg), secure top and bottom, and maintain 3 points of contact
  • B. Place flat against vertical bulkhead at 90 deg
  • C. Stand on top rungs without handhold
  • D. Use aluminum ladders near open live electrical switchboards
Answer: A — Place at 4:1 slope angle (approx 75 deg), secure top and bottom, and maintain 3 points of contact
Safe ladder usage requires proper footing angle (75 degrees), lashings at top/bottom, extending 1m above landing, and maintaining 3 points of contact.

12. What safety practice prevents musculoskeletal injuries when standing long watch periods on hard steel decks?

  • A. Wearing safety footwear with impact-absorbing cushioned insoles and taking short mobility stretches
  • B. Standing motionless for 4 hours
  • C. Wearing un-cushioned wooden clogs
  • D. Leaning heavily against un-guarded rotating shafts
Answer: A — Wearing safety footwear with impact-absorbing cushioned insoles and taking short mobility stretches
Anti-fatigue footwear insoles and periodic weight distribution shifts mitigate lower back and joint stress caused by rigid steel deck impact.

13. How should steam pipes be protected in machinery spaces?

  • A. They should be painted in different colours
  • B. They should have placards to warn personnel
  • C. They should be lagged
  • D. They should be kept wet to cool them
Answer: C — They should be lagged
Steam pipes are lagged (insulated) to protect personnel from burns, reduce heat loss and keep hot surfaces away from oil leaks. SOLAS II-2/4.2 requires hot surfaces over 220°C that could be contacted by oil to be insulated.

14. What is the bare minimum that should be done before working on electrical equipment?

  • A. Complete the electrical isolation checklist
  • B. Switch off the mains and start working
  • C. Open the equipment and commence work
  • D. Inform the bridge and start working
Answer: A — Complete the electrical isolation checklist
Before electrical work the circuit must be isolated, locked and tagged out, and proved dead under the permit and isolation checklist. Simply switching off is not enough, as the supply could be restored by someone else or another feed may exist.

15. What precaution should be taken while lifting heavy loads in the engine room?

  • A. All personnel should stand under the load
  • B. All personnel should stand clear of the load being lifted
  • C. All personnel should operate the controls
  • D. Personnel should steady the load by holding it from below
Answer: B — All personnel should stand clear of the load being lifted
No one should stand under or near a suspended load, because a failure of slings, shackles or the lifting appliance could cause it to fall or swing. Only the signaller and operator are needed, and tag lines are used to steady the load.

16. What marking must be clearly visible on a crane?

  • A. Manufacturer's logo
  • B. Safe working load
  • C. Make of the crane
  • D. Name of the ship operator
Answer: B — Safe working load
The safe working load must be clearly marked on cranes and all lifting appliances (SOLAS II-1/3-1 and ILO Convention 152), so that operators never exceed the load for which the appliance was tested and certified.

17. What is the least you must do before entering a cofferdam in the engine room?

  • A. Open up the manhole and enter the cofferdam
  • B. Complete an enclosed space entry checklist
  • C. Enter the cofferdam and simultaneously start ventilation
  • D. Put on a dust mask and enter
Answer: B — Complete an enclosed space entry checklist
A cofferdam is an enclosed space. SOLAS XI-1/7, IMO Res. A.1050(27) and the SMS require an entry permit and checklist covering ventilation, atmosphere testing, isolation and rescue arrangements before anyone enters.

18. What should be prohibited in the vicinity of battery rooms?

  • A. Painting
  • B. Smoking
  • C. Washing
  • D. Drinking water
Answer: B — Smoking
Lead-acid batteries give off hydrogen when charging, which forms flammable mixtures with air. Smoking and naked lights are therefore prohibited near battery rooms, which must be well ventilated and fitted with certified safe electrical equipment.

19. What is the least a person should do before entering machinery spaces?

  • A. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
  • B. Inform the bridge
  • C. Inform his superiors
  • D. Remove his safety shoes
Answer: A — Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
Machinery spaces involve noise, heat, rotating parts and slippery surfaces. As a minimum, anyone entering must wear suitable PPE such as a boiler suit, safety shoes, helmet and ear protection, as required by the Code of Safe Working Practices.

20. What precautions must be taken in the vicinity of the engine room bilges?

  • A. They should be kept clear of rubbish
  • B. They should be covered with muck and debris
  • C. They should be allowed to corrode
  • D. They should be kept partly filled with oily water
Answer: A — They should be kept clear of rubbish
Bilges must be kept clean and free of rubbish, oil and debris. Accumulated oily waste is a fire hazard, blocks strainers and bilge suctions, and can lead to MARPOL Annex I violations if pumped overboard.

21. Red parachute flares are classed as

  • A. Flare technics
  • B. Pyrotechnics
  • C. Light technics
  • D. Fire technics
Answer: B — Pyrotechnics
Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals are all pyrotechnic distress signals, which use a chemical composition that burns to produce light or smoke. They are required under SOLAS III and the LSA Code Chapter III.

22. The signal to guide craft in distress, indicating 'This is the best place to land', at night is:

  • A. Horizontal motion of a white flag
  • B. Letter K in Morse code given by light
  • C. Code flag S as a hoist
  • D. Firing of a white star signal
Answer: B — Letter K in Morse code given by light
At night, 'This is the best place to land' is shown by vertical motion of a white light or flare, or by the letter K in Morse code by light or sound. A green star signal may also be used; horizontal motion and letter S mean landing is dangerous.

23. The radiotelephone urgency message concerning the safety of a person would be prefixed by the words ____.

  • A. MAYDAY
  • B. PAN-PAN
  • C. SECURITE
  • D. INTERCO
Answer: B — PAN-PAN
PAN-PAN is the urgency signal, used when the calling station has a very urgent message about the safety of a ship, aircraft or person, such as a medical emergency or man overboard, that does not require a distress call.

24. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up by a lifeboat. If the person appears to be in danger of drowning, the lifeboat should make:

  • A. An approach across the wind
  • B. The most direct approach
  • C. An approach from windward
  • D. An approach from leeward
Answer: B — The most direct approach
Normally a boat approaches a person in the water head to wind or sea for control. If the person seems about to drown, speed matters most and the most direct approach is made, taking care not to run the person down.

25. What protects the face from sparks generated during welding and grinding?

  • A. Goggles
  • B. Nose mask
  • C. Helmet
  • D. Face shield
Answer: D — Face shield
A face shield covers the whole face and protects it from flying sparks and particles during grinding. For welding, a welding shield with the correct filter lens is used. Goggles protect only the eyes.

26. Your vessel is equipped with totally enclosed lifeboats with a self-contained air support system. Which statement is true when the boat is enveloped in flames?

  • A. The engine takes its air supply from outside the lifeboat to prevent asphyxiation of the crew
  • B. An air supply provides about ten minutes of air for the occupants and the engine
  • C. The ventilators close automatically by the action of fusible links
  • D. The water spray system to cool the outside of the boat is operated by a high-volume manual pump
Answer: B — An air supply provides about ten minutes of air for the occupants and the engine
LSA Code 4.8 requires a lifeboat with a self-contained air support system to provide safe air for the occupants and the engine for at least 10 minutes with hatches closed. The fire-protecting water spray is driven by the engine pump.

27. What is a muster list?

  • A. A list which specifies victualling requirements for the forthcoming voyage
  • B. A list that specifies the details of the general emergency alarm, the action to be taken by the crew and how the order to abandon ship will be given
  • C. A list which specifies the environmental protection and emergency duties of senior officers only
  • D. A crew list prepared prior to arrival in port giving full details of all persons on board
Answer: B — A list that specifies the details of the general emergency alarm, the action to be taken by the crew and how the order to abandon ship will be given
SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require a muster list showing the general emergency alarm and public address details, the action to be taken by crew and passengers, how the order to abandon ship is given and each crew member's duties.

28. In heavy seas, the helmsman should steer the survival craft:

  • A. Into the seas
  • B. Broadside to the seas
  • C. In a series of figures of eight
  • D. In the same direction as the seas
Answer: A — Into the seas
Keeping the bow into the seas, helped by a sea anchor if needed, gives the most control and the least risk of broaching or capsizing. Lying broadside to heavy seas or running before them is much more dangerous for a small craft.

29. A person shall not be allowed to work aloft if he or she is:

  • A. Not medically fit, for example due to obesity
  • B. Suffering from acrophobia (fear of heights)
  • C. Not well rested
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Work aloft is permit-controlled work. Only persons who are physically fit, alert and rested, and comfortable working at height should be assigned, because illness, fatigue or fear of heights greatly increases the risk of a fall.

30. What is a ship's contingency plan?

  • A. The plan for the next voyage
  • B. The loading plan for hazardous cargo
  • C. The plan for safety and emergency preparedness
  • D. The plan for maintenance and repair of safety equipment
Answer: C — The plan for safety and emergency preparedness
ISM Code element 8 requires the company to identify potential shipboard emergencies and set out procedures to respond to them. These contingency plans, practised in drills, form the ship's emergency preparedness.

Set 7 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The displacement of a vessel is:

  • A. The weight of water displaced by the vessel when afloat
  • B. The cubic capacity of the vessel
  • C. The gross tonnage of the vessel
  • D. The deadweight carrying capacity of the vessel
Answer: A — The weight of water displaced by the vessel when afloat
By Archimedes' principle a floating ship displaces a weight of water equal to its own weight. Displacement, in tonnes, is therefore the total weight of the ship and everything on board, unlike gross tonnage, which is a volume measure.

2. What is the appropriate time for using distress flares and rockets?

  • A. Only at night
  • B. Only in the evening
  • C. At one-hour intervals
  • D. Only when there is a chance of being seen by SAR units or a passing ship
Answer: D — Only when there is a chance of being seen by SAR units or a passing ship
Survival craft carry a limited number of pyrotechnics, so they must be used only when a rescue unit or ship is close enough to see them. Firing them at random wastes signals that may be needed when rescuers are actually in sight.

3. Communication between members of a fire-fighting team must be:

  • A. Clear, concise, acknowledged and timely
  • B. Impossible when using breathing apparatus
  • C. By hand signals only, to avoid smoke inhalation
  • D. Clear, detailed, acknowledged and timely
Answer: A — Clear, concise, acknowledged and timely
In fire fighting, messages must be short and clear, acknowledged by the receiver and passed without delay. Long detailed messages waste air and time and are easily misheard through BA masks and radio noise.

4. The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which the liquid:

  • A. Gives off flammable vapours that can be ignited
  • B. Will burn steadily
  • C. Will explode
  • D. Must be heated before it will flow readily
Answer: A — Gives off flammable vapours that can be ignited
Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to form a flammable mixture with air that ignites momentarily when a flame is applied. Sustained burning occurs at the higher fire point.

5. Fuel oil tank vents are fitted with corrosion-resistant screens to prevent:

  • A. Flames entering the tank through the vent
  • B. Escape of flammable vapours
  • C. Corrosion in the tank vent
  • D. Damage to the ball check
Answer: A — Flames entering the tank through the vent
Vent pipe heads of fuel oil tanks are fitted with corrosion-resistant wire gauze flame screens. The fine mesh absorbs heat and stops an external flame from passing back into the tank and igniting the vapour space.

6. When using a hand-held smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal:

  • A. On the upwind side of the craft
  • B. Inside the craft
  • C. At the stern of the craft
  • D. On the downwind side of the craft
Answer: D — On the downwind side of the craft
A buoyant or hand-held smoke signal should be activated and held on the downwind (leeward) side so that the smoke and any hot particles blow away from the craft and its occupants rather than over them.

7. The volatility of a liquid is the tendency of the liquid to:

  • A. Percolate
  • B. Explode
  • C. Asphyxiate
  • D. Vaporize
Answer: D — Vaporize
Volatility describes how readily a liquid evaporates or vaporizes. Highly volatile liquids such as petrol give off large quantities of vapour even at low temperatures, which increases fire and health hazards.

8. The amount of expansion space to be left in a fuel tank when fuel oil is being received is determined by the:

  • A. Quantity of fuel to be received
  • B. Flash point of the fuel as received
  • C. Fuel temperature as it is received
  • D. Viscosity of the fuel being received
Answer: C — Fuel temperature as it is received
Fuel oil expands as its temperature rises. Ullage left in a tank during bunkering depends on the temperature of the oil received and the temperature it may later reach, to prevent overflow and spillage through vents.

9. The vapours given off by heated fuel oil are heavier than air and are:

  • A. Odourless
  • B. Explosive
  • C. Non-toxic
  • D. Visible
Answer: B — Explosive
Heated fuel oil releases hydrocarbon vapours which are heavier than air, collect in low places and can form an explosive mixture with air. This is why fuel tanks and bilges must be ventilated and ignition sources controlled.

10. The high-level tank overfill alarm installed in the onboard monitoring system must:

  • A. Operate in unison with other alarms
  • B. Be both audible and visual
  • C. Be the same as the overfill alarm
  • D. Sound when the tank is 90% full
Answer: B — Be both audible and visual
A high-level or overfill alarm must give both an audible and a visual warning so that it is noticed even in noisy machinery spaces or when the operator is not watching the panel, allowing transfer to be stopped in time.

11. ALARP stands for:

  • A. Alarm Points on Ships
  • B. All Living Areas and Recreation Places
  • C. As Low As Reasonably Practicable
  • D. Automatic Level Alarm and Relief Point
Answer: C — As Low As Reasonably Practicable
ALARP means As Low As Reasonably Practicable. In risk assessment, risks are reduced until the cost or effort of further reduction is grossly disproportionate to the benefit gained.

12. What are the causes of fatigue?

  • A. Lack of sleep
  • B. Stress
  • C. Excessive workload
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
IMO fatigue guidelines (MSC.1/Circ.1598) identify lack of quality sleep, stress and excessive workload as major causes of fatigue. All of these reduce alertness and increase the risk of accidents on board.

13. Which is the most frequently abused drug in the world?

  • A. Cocaine
  • B. Heroin
  • C. Opiates
  • D. Alcohol
Answer: D — Alcohol
Alcohol is legally and widely available, which makes it the most commonly abused drug worldwide. Its effects on judgement and reaction time are why STCW and company policies set strict limits for watchkeepers.

14. As per STCW 2010, what is the maximum validity of a medical certificate for seafarers?

  • A. 1 year
  • B. 2 years
  • C. 3 years
  • D. 4 years
Answer: B — 2 years
STCW Regulation I/9 limits the validity of a medical fitness certificate to a maximum of two years, or one year if the seafarer is under 18. Colour vision certificates may be valid for up to six years.

15. Which of the following jobs on board requires a hot work permit?

  • A. Mopping the deck
  • B. Cutting or welding on deck
  • C. Cooking in the galley
  • D. All of the above
Answer: B — Cutting or welding on deck
Hot work such as welding, cutting and grinding outside the approved workshop produces heat and sparks that can ignite flammable materials, so it must be controlled by a hot work permit with gas testing and fire precautions.

16. Which of the following is used to log all important radio communications on board?

  • A. Garbage record book
  • B. Deck log book
  • C. Engine log book
  • D. GMDSS radio log book
Answer: D — GMDSS radio log book
SOLAS Chapter IV Regulation 17 requires a record of all radio communication incidents connected with safety of life at sea, including distress, urgency and safety traffic, to be kept in the GMDSS radio log.

17. Meteorological warnings consist of:

  • A. Iceberg movement information
  • B. Floating debris reports
  • C. Reports of a vessel on fire or sinking
  • D. Weather information, gale and storm warnings
Answer: D — Weather information, gale and storm warnings
Meteorological warnings broadcast through NAVTEX and SafetyNET give gale, storm and tropical cyclone warnings and weather forecasts. Ice, wreck and debris reports are navigational warnings, while a vessel in distress is distress traffic.

18. How many annexes does the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL) have?

  • A. Three
  • B. Four
  • C. Eight
  • D. Six
Answer: D — Six
MARPOL has six technical annexes: I oil, II noxious liquid substances in bulk, III harmful substances in packaged form, IV sewage, V garbage and VI air pollution.

19. What does the word RADAR stand for?

  • A. Radio Detection and Ranging
  • B. Radio Directions and Ranging
  • C. Radio Detection and Range
  • D. Radium Detection and Ranging
Answer: A — Radio Detection and Ranging
RADAR is an acronym for Radio Detection And Ranging. It transmits radio pulses and measures the echo to detect targets and determine their range and bearing.

20. Most minor spills of oil products are caused by:

  • A. Equipment failure
  • B. Human error
  • C. Major casualties
  • D. Unforeseeable conditions
Answer: B — Human error
Most small operational spills during bunkering and transfers result from human error such as overfilling, wrong valve settings or poor monitoring. Major casualties cause fewer but larger spills.

21. Which of these statements is correct?

  • A. Used primary cells are to be discarded
  • B. Used primary cells can be recharged
  • C. Used primary cells can be refilled and used
  • D. Used primary cells can be reused after warming
Answer: A — Used primary cells are to be discarded
Primary cells such as dry cells produce electricity by an irreversible chemical reaction and cannot be recharged or refilled. Once exhausted they must be discarded safely, unlike secondary cells such as lead-acid batteries.

22. What must the watchkeeping engineer do periodically while on watch?

  • A. Take routine rounds of the engine room
  • B. Remain at the control console only
  • C. Conduct repairs of any damaged equipment
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Take routine rounds of the engine room
STCW Code A-VIII/2 requires the engineering watch to include regular inspections of machinery and steering gear spaces. Periodic rounds let the engineer detect leaks, abnormal noises, temperatures and fire hazards early.

23. A negative attitude, inability to manage time and low self-esteem are examples of which factor that can add to personal stress?

  • A. Environmental factors
  • B. Emotional factors
  • C. Community factors
  • D. Personality factors
Answer: D — Personality factors
Personal traits such as a negative attitude, poor time management and low self-esteem are personality factors. They influence how a seafarer copes with pressure and can increase personal stress.

24. When rescuing a person in a confined space, what must be confirmed before the space can be considered safe to enter?

  • A. Safety lights
  • B. Eye protection
  • C. Fire-retardant gear
  • D. Adequate oxygen in the atmosphere
Answer: D — Adequate oxygen in the atmosphere
A confined space is safe to enter only when its atmosphere has been tested and shows sufficient oxygen (21% by volume) and no toxic or flammable gases. Otherwise rescuers must wear breathing apparatus to avoid becoming casualties.

25. What is the spoken distress signal used over VHF radio?

  • A. Red Alert
  • B. Securite
  • C. Mayday
  • D. Pan Pan
Answer: C — Mayday
MAYDAY spoken three times is the radiotelephone distress signal for grave and imminent danger. PAN PAN is the urgency signal and SECURITE the safety signal.

26. When two vessels collide and remain embedded in each other, what are the greatest risks?

  • A. Fire due to sparks while separating from the other vessel
  • B. Flooding
  • C. Listing
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Separating embedded vessels can produce sparks that ignite oil or vapours, while withdrawing the bow can open the damage to the sea causing sudden flooding and list. All these risks must be assessed before separating.

27. Who is responsible for paying a fine imposed on the vessel after a crew member is caught abusing drugs?

  • A. Company
  • B. P&I Club
  • C. RPSL company
  • D. The crew member
Answer: D — The crew member
Company drug and alcohol policies and the employment agreement make the individual seafarer liable for fines and penalties arising from his own drug abuse, in addition to dismissal and possible criminal prosecution.

28. What are the hazards of working aloft?

  • A. Falling from height causing injury
  • B. Tools falling from height and injuring personnel below
  • C. Sunburn only
  • D. Both falling from height and falling tools injuring personnel below
Answer: D — Both falling from height and falling tools injuring personnel below
Working aloft exposes the worker to falls from height and also endangers people below from dropped tools or materials. Safety harnesses, tool lanyards and barriers below are required under the Code of Safe Working Practices.

29. The first person who notices a fire in any part of the ship should:

  • A. Sound the fire alarm using the nearest fire alarm call point
  • B. Run to the bridge and alert the duty officer
  • C. Run to the Master's cabin
  • D. Go to the mess room and inform others
Answer: A — Sound the fire alarm using the nearest fire alarm call point
Raising the alarm immediately at the nearest manual call point alerts the whole ship and the bridge at once. Running to inform people in person wastes valuable time while the fire spreads.

30. Crew competency means:

  • A. Proper maintenance of equipment
  • B. Proper hygienic conditions maintained
  • C. Well-trained personnel with proper certification
  • D. Medical fitness certification
Answer: C — Well-trained personnel with proper certification
Competency under STCW means seafarers have the knowledge, skills and training required for their duties and hold the appropriate certificates. Equipment upkeep, hygiene and medical fitness are separate requirements.

Set 8 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. A seafarer has the right to:

  • A. A correct contract as per the flag-state approved form
  • B. Proper accommodation as specified by ILO/MLC
  • C. Report grievances on board to higher authorities
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
The Maritime Labour Convention 2006 gives seafarers the right to a signed employment agreement, accommodation and recreational facilities meeting Title 3 standards, and access to on-board and onshore complaint procedures.

2. A seafarer's employment contract when joining a ship:

  • A. Can be verbal, as verbal agreements are binding
  • B. Is a written agreement signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner
  • C. Is an agreement signed only by the seafarer
  • D. Is an agreement signed only by the owner
Answer: B — Is a written agreement signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner
MLC 2006 Standard A2.1 requires a Seafarers' Employment Agreement in writing, signed by both the seafarer and the shipowner or representative, with a copy kept by the seafarer.

3. A seafarer's responsibilities on board include:

  • A. Identifying potential emergency situations
  • B. Observing safe working practices to eliminate personal injuries
  • C. Maintaining a good atmosphere and social relationships among shipmates
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Seafarers contribute to safety by recognising hazards and potential emergencies, following safe working practices and maintaining good relationships, all of which are covered in the PSSR course.

4. What are the effects of drug and alcohol abuse on board?

  • A. It affects the individual's performance
  • B. Criminal proceedings against the individual
  • C. Detention of the vessel
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Drug and alcohol abuse impairs judgement and performance and can lead to accidents. It may also lead to prosecution of the individual and detention or delay of the vessel by port or customs authorities.

5. General emergencies on board could include:

  • A. Fire or explosion
  • B. Flooding
  • C. Main engine failure
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Shipboard contingency plans under ISM Code element 8 cover fire and explosion, flooding, and loss of propulsion or steering, since any of these can endanger the ship, crew and environment.

6. Continuous working in enclosed spaces requires:

  • A. 18% oxygen continuously
  • B. 19% oxygen continuously
  • C. No oxygen check, as the blowers run continuously
  • D. 21% oxygen continuously
Answer: D — 21% oxygen continuously
IMO Recommendations for entering enclosed spaces (Res. A.1050(27)) require a steady oxygen reading of 21% by volume, with continuous ventilation and periodic or continuous monitoring while people are inside.

7. Before entering an enclosed space, the checks have to be done by:

  • A. A responsible officer
  • B. The person entering the space
  • C. The Master only
  • D. Both a responsible officer and the person entering the space
Answer: D — Both a responsible officer and the person entering the space
The responsible officer verifies the permit, atmosphere tests and precautions, but each person entering must also satisfy himself that the space is safe. Entry procedures require both to confirm the checklist.

8. A permit-to-work system is necessary for:

  • A. Ensuring the safety of personnel
  • B. Ensuring the quality of work
  • C. Ensuring resource utilisation
  • D. Reducing paperwork on board
Answer: A — Ensuring the safety of personnel
A permit-to-work system is a formal safety control that ensures hazards are identified and precautions are in place before high-risk work starts, protecting the people doing the job and others nearby.

9. The duties of crew on board vessels include ensuring:

  • A. Their own health and safety and that of other persons
  • B. Use of personal protective equipment
  • C. Safe working practices
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Every seafarer must take care of his own health and safety and that of others, use the PPE provided and follow safe working practices, as stated in the Code of Safe Working Practices and company SMS.

10. The Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) 2006 entered into force on:

  • A. 1 August 2010
  • B. 1 August 2012
  • C. 20 August 2013
  • D. 10 August 2011
Answer: C — 20 August 2013
MLC 2006 reached its ratification threshold on 20 August 2012 and entered into force twelve months later, on 20 August 2013.

11. What is the most likely cause of suffocation?

  • A. Electrical equipment
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Lack of oxygen
Answer: D — Lack of oxygen
Suffocation occurs when the body is deprived of oxygen, for example in enclosed spaces where oxygen has been consumed or displaced by inert gas, rust formation or cargo vapours.

12. Which of the following personnel shall not be allowed to carry out work aloft?

  • A. An overweight person
  • B. A person with acrophobia
  • C. A person who is not well rested
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Persons unfit for working at height include those with fear of heights, those who are fatigued and those whose weight or physical condition makes safe climbing and harness use difficult. Fitness must be assessed before work aloft.

13. Prevention of oil pollution on board is achieved through:

  • A. Use of oil filtering equipment in machinery spaces of all ships
  • B. Use of the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System (ODMCS) on tankers
  • C. Incineration of oil waste and sludge, or its disposal ashore
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
MARPOL Annex I requires oil filtering equipment for machinery bilges, ODME on tankers for cargo-area discharges, and sludge tanks with incineration or shore disposal. Together these control operational oil discharges.

14. A Suezmax crude carrier is generally considered to be of the size:

  • A. 80,000 to 119,999 DWT
  • B. 200,000 to 319,999 DWT
  • C. 120,000 to 199,999 DWT
  • D. 55,000 to 79,999 DWT
Answer: C — 120,000 to 199,999 DWT
Suezmax tankers, the largest that can transit the Suez Canal laden, are about 120,000 to 200,000 DWT. Aframax are about 80,000 to 120,000 DWT and VLCCs 200,000 to 320,000 DWT.

15. Who among the following is a support-level member?

  • A. Officer under training (cadet)
  • B. Electrical officer
  • C. Second officer
  • D. Chief officer
Answer: A — Officer under training (cadet)
STCW defines management, operational and support levels. Chief and second officers and electro-technical officers hold operational or management-level certificates, while a trainee cadet works at the support level under supervision.

16. What does Annex III of MARPOL 73/78 deal with?

  • A. Harmful substances carried in packaged form
  • B. Sewage
  • C. Noxious liquid substances in bulk
  • D. Air pollution
Answer: A — Harmful substances carried in packaged form
MARPOL Annex III covers prevention of pollution by harmful substances carried by sea in packaged form, including packing, marking, labelling, documentation and stowage requirements linked with the IMDG Code.

17. As per SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19 on drills, which of the following is correct?

  • A. Every crew member shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month
  • B. Drills shall be held within 24 hours of leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in drills on board in the previous month
  • C. Drills shall be held before sailing when a ship enters service for the first time, after a major modification or when a new crew is engaged
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
SOLAS III/19.3 requires monthly abandon ship and fire drills for every crew member, drills within 24 hours of departure if over 25% of crew have not taken part in the previous month, and drills before sailing for new or modified ships or new crews.

18. What method should be used when hauling survivors out of the sea when their condition is critical?

  • A. Using a lifebuoy
  • B. Using a heaving line
  • C. Using the painter
  • D. Using nets or a horizontal lifting device
Answer: D — Using nets or a horizontal lifting device
Hypothermic survivors lifted vertically can suffer circulatory collapse. Scrambling nets, rescue nets or slings allowing a horizontal or near-horizontal lift are recommended in the IAMSAR Manual for recovering critically weak survivors.

19. Your vessel has been in a collision and you are not sure whether she is sinking. How will you handle the situation?

  • A. Abandon the vessel and stay at least 5 nautical miles away
  • B. Search for missing persons and continue to monitor the situation
  • C. Make sure the lifeboat carries as much fuel as possible
  • D. Wait and see how the situation develops
Answer: B — Search for missing persons and continue to monitor the situation
After a collision the crew should be mustered and missing persons searched for, while damage, soundings and stability are monitored continuously. The ship should not be abandoned prematurely, as she is often the safest survival craft.

20. What is the main danger when working beneath falling objects?

  • A. Head injury
  • B. Falls
  • C. Burns
  • D. Eye injury
Answer: A — Head injury
Tools or materials dropped from above most commonly strike the head, which is why safety helmets are mandatory when working below overhead work or in holds and engine rooms.

21. At sea, if someone falls overboard and you do not know over which side the person fell, you should:

  • A. Immediately reverse the engines
  • B. Stop the propeller from turning and throw a lifebuoy over the side
  • C. Increase to full speed to get the vessel away from the person
  • D. First put the rudder hard over in either direction
Answer: B — Stop the propeller from turning and throw a lifebuoy over the side
If the side is unknown, swinging the stern could drive the propeller towards the person. Stopping the propeller protects the casualty, and a lifebuoy dropped immediately gives flotation and marks the position.

22. If you are in charge of a fire team, what is the minimum number of persons wearing BA sets that you will allow to enter a smoke-filled compartment?

  • A. Three persons
  • B. Two persons
  • C. One person
  • D. Four persons
Answer: B — Two persons
BA wearers must always work in pairs so that each can watch and assist the other. A single wearer entering a smoke-filled space has no immediate help if his set fails or he is injured.

23. In case of injury to personnel, which of the following actions may be taken?

  • A. Give first aid
  • B. Obtain radio medical advice
  • C. Request helicopter assistance if required
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Immediate first aid is given on board, radio medical advice is obtained through TMAS for guidance, and for serious cases medical evacuation by helicopter may be arranged. The response depends on the severity of the injury.

24. What is the most likely cause of a particle in the eye?

  • A. Flying dust
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Lack of oxygen
Answer: A — Flying dust
Dust, rust and chips thrown up by wind, chipping or grinding are the commonest cause of foreign bodies in the eye. Safety goggles must be worn during such work.

25. Which of the following is a man-overboard manoeuvre?

  • A. Neil Robertson turn
  • B. Williamson turn
  • C. Hard to port
  • D. Hard to starboard
Answer: B — Williamson turn
The Williamson turn brings the ship back onto its original track on a reciprocal course, which makes it effective for recovering a person who fell overboard some time ago. A Neil Robertson is a stretcher, not a manoeuvre.

26. Your vessel has been in collision with another vessel and is taking in water. How will you act?

  • A. Jump overboard immediately and be ready
  • B. Collect your own personal belongings
  • C. Assist your friends to collect their personal belongings
  • D. Send a distress message and collect the immersion suits and thermal protective aids
Answer: D — Send a distress message and collect the immersion suits and thermal protective aids
A distress alert must be sent early so that help is on its way, and immersion suits and thermal protective aids should be collected in preparation for possible abandonment. Personal belongings waste time.

27. Which of the following affects good communication on board?

  • A. Seafarers come from different countries and cultures
  • B. Knowledge of English may not be the same for everyone
  • C. Verbal communication in a noisy engine room
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Multinational crews, varying English proficiency and noisy environments are all barriers to effective communication. Recognising them helps use closed-loop communication and standard phrases to avoid misunderstanding.

28. Contingency plans should identify the various types of emergencies which may arise on a particular ship and may include:

  • A. Allocation of duties and responsibilities
  • B. Action to be taken to regain control of the situation
  • C. Communication methods within and outside the ship
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Under ISM Code element 8 and its guidelines, emergency plans assign duties, describe actions to regain control and set out internal and external communication, including contact with the company.

29. What is the most likely cause of cuts?

  • A. Flying dust
  • B. Fall
  • C. Sharp objects
  • D. Too much noise
Answer: C — Sharp objects
Cuts and lacerations are caused mainly by sharp edges, knives, broken glass and sheet metal. Suitable gloves and proper handling of tools reduce the risk.

30. Which of the following is NOT a relevant precaution when entering dangerous spaces?

  • A. A risk assessment must be completed after identifying the hazards
  • B. The atmosphere should be tested
  • C. Communication need not be checked
  • D. A permit-to-work system should be used
Answer: C — Communication need not be checked
Enclosed space entry procedures require risk assessment, atmosphere testing, a permit and an agreed, tested communication system between the entrants and the attendant. Neglecting communications is never an acceptable practice.

Set 9 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Which work activities require a permit to work?

  • A. Working aloft
  • B. Working on electrical circuits or high voltage
  • C. Working outboard or overside
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Work aloft, overside work and work on live or high-voltage electrical equipment are high-risk activities that the Code of Safe Working Practices and company SMS control through permits to work.

2. What kind of safety signs need to be placed when work is being done in the radar mast?

  • A. A sign on all doors to the bridge
  • B. No particular sign
  • C. A sign in the engine control room
  • D. A sign fixed on each radar while work is in progress in the mast
Answer: D — A sign fixed on each radar while work is in progress in the mast
Radar must not be switched on while people work near the scanner, as rotating antennae and microwave radiation are dangerous. Warning notices are placed on the radar sets, and they are isolated until the work is complete.

3. Which of the following are qualities of a good team member?

  • A. Good judgement, common sense, logic and a positive attitude
  • B. Ability to plan and organise
  • C. Being responsible and co-operative
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
An effective team member combines sound judgement and a positive attitude with planning ability and a responsible, co-operative approach, all of which support safe shipboard operations.

4. Which book is used for maintaining complete records of oil transfers?

  • A. Deck log book
  • B. Oil Record Book
  • C. Garbage Record Book
  • D. Sounding log
Answer: B — Oil Record Book
MARPOL Annex I Regulations 17 and 36 require the Oil Record Book to record bunkering, internal transfers, sludge disposal, bilge discharges and, on tankers, cargo and ballast operations.

5. Precautions to prevent oil pollution include, but are not limited to:

  • A. Loading, carriage and discharge of oil cargo as per the manual
  • B. Regular inspection of oil piping and associated equipment
  • C. Regular training of crew in oil pollution drills
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Pollution prevention depends on following approved procedures, maintaining and inspecting pipelines and equipment, and drilling the crew in SOPEP response so that leaks are prevented and quickly contained.

6. What permits are required for welding on a hydraulic pipeline inside a fresh water tank?

  • A. Hot work permit
  • B. Permit to work on a pressurised system
  • C. Enclosed space entry permit
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
The job combines three high-risk activities: entering a tank (enclosed space entry), breaking into a hydraulic system (pressurised system isolation) and welding (hot work). Each hazard needs its own permit.

7. Your vessel is a tanker in ballast and the two vessels are interlocked after a collision. All persons are accounted for and you will try to separate the vessels. What should be your greatest concern?

  • A. Sinking of the vessel due to flooding
  • B. Loss of money
  • C. Sparks caused by the separation igniting oil or flammable vapours
  • D. None of these
Answer: C — Sparks caused by the separation igniting oil or flammable vapours
A tanker in ballast has gas-filled cargo tanks that may be in the explosive range. Steel scraping during separation can generate sparks that ignite the vapours, so fire precautions must be taken before separating.

8. Which of the following sea areas is designated a special area under MARPOL?

  • A. Andaman Sea
  • B. Bay of Bengal
  • C. North Sea
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — North Sea
The North West European waters including the North Sea are a special area under MARPOL Annexes I and V, and the North Sea is also an Emission Control Area under Annex VI. The Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea are not special areas.

9. Which book is used for maintaining complete daily records of the ship?

  • A. Garbage Record Book
  • B. Oil Record Book
  • C. Maintenance book
  • D. Log book
Answer: D — Log book
The deck and engine log books provide the daily record of the ship's navigation, watches, events, drills and machinery operation, whereas the Oil and Garbage Record Books cover specific pollution-related operations.

10. What is the main reason for having a person positioned immediately outside a confined space while work is taking place inside it?

  • A. To get the rescue plan under way in an emergency
  • B. To supervise the work taking place inside the confined space
  • C. To check compliance with the method statement
  • D. To carry out a risk assessment for the work
Answer: A — To get the rescue plan under way in an emergency
The attendant keeps communication with the entrants, monitors conditions and, if anything goes wrong, raises the alarm and starts the rescue plan. He must never enter the space himself without proper support and BA.

11. When is a toolbox talk conducted?

  • A. Every week
  • B. Every day
  • C. Before every job
  • D. Every month
Answer: C — Before every job
A toolbox talk is a short safety briefing held at the work site before a job starts, so that everyone understands the task, hazards, precautions and individual responsibilities.

12. The maximum permissible blood alcohol content generally adopted for seafarers on duty under company/OCIMF guidelines is:

  • A. 400 mg/100 ml
  • B. 40 mg/100 ml
  • C. 4 mg/100 ml
  • D. None of these
Answer: B — 40 mg/100 ml
OCIMF guidelines recommend a limit of 0.04% blood alcohol content, which is 40 mg per 100 ml, and most shipping companies adopt it. STCW Code A-VIII/1 sets an outer limit of 0.05% BAC for watchkeepers.

13. The Master must ensure all crew participate in monthly emergency drills. If more than 25% of the crew have not participated in such drills on board during the previous month, within what time must the drills be held after the vessel has left port?

  • A. Within 12 hours
  • B. Within a week
  • C. Within 2 hours
  • D. Within 24 hours
Answer: D — Within 24 hours
SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19.3.2 requires abandon ship and fire drills to be held within 24 hours of the ship leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in drills on board that ship in the previous month.

14. The designated SOx Emission Control Areas (SECA) include:

  • A. The North Sea and English Channel
  • B. The Baltic Sea
  • C. The Mediterranean Sea only
  • D. Both the North Sea/English Channel and the Baltic Sea
Answer: D — Both the North Sea/English Channel and the Baltic Sea
Under MARPOL Annex VI, the Baltic Sea and the North Sea including the English Channel are designated SOx Emission Control Areas, together with the North American and US Caribbean ECAs.

15. Safety helmets are to be used during work to protect the:

  • A. Legs
  • B. Tools
  • C. Chest
  • D. Head
Answer: D — Head
A safety helmet protects the head from falling objects and from striking low overhead structures, which is why it is required on deck, in holds and in engine rooms.

16. How often is the safety committee meeting normally held on board?

  • A. Every week
  • B. Every 3 months
  • C. Every month
  • D. None of these
Answer: C — Every month
Under most company safety management systems, the shipboard safety committee meets monthly to review accidents, near misses, drills and safety concerns raised by the crew.

17. Instruction in the correct use of the ship's life-saving appliances should be given to new crew as soon as possible, but not later than:

  • A. 20 weeks after joining
  • B. 5 weeks after joining
  • C. 2 weeks after joining
  • D. None of these
Answer: C — 2 weeks after joining
SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19.4.1 requires on-board training in the use of the ship's life-saving appliances, including survival craft equipment, as soon as possible but not later than two weeks after a crew member joins the ship.

18. Boiler suits or overalls are provided to protect the:

  • A. Head
  • B. Legs only
  • C. Hands
  • D. Skin and body
Answer: D — Skin and body
Boiler suits cover the body and protect the skin against dirt, oil, hot surfaces, sparks and minor abrasions. Head, hands and feet need their own PPE such as helmets, gloves and safety shoes.

19. Damage suffered by a passenger on a passenger vessel is covered under the:

  • A. LLMC Convention 1976
  • B. Load Line Convention 1966
  • C. Athens Convention 1974
  • D. Fund Convention 1971
Answer: C — Athens Convention 1974
The Athens Convention relating to the Carriage of Passengers and their Luggage by Sea, 1974, sets the carrier's liability for death, personal injury and loss of or damage to luggage of passengers.

20. Shipboard incineration of ____ is prohibited, except in shipboard incinerators for which IMO type approval certificates have been issued.

  • A. Fuel oil
  • B. Food waste
  • C. PVC (polyvinyl chloride)
  • D. Rags
Answer: C — PVC (polyvinyl chloride)
MARPOL Annex VI Regulation 16 prohibits incineration of polyvinyl chlorides except in incinerators type approved for burning them, because PVC releases toxic hydrogen chloride and dioxins when burnt.

21. The parent instrument for the mandatory International Safety Management (ISM) Code is:

  • A. SOLAS Chapter IV
  • B. SOLAS and MARPOL
  • C. SOLAS Chapter IX
  • D. UNCLOS
Answer: C — SOLAS Chapter IX
The ISM Code was made mandatory through SOLAS Chapter IX, Management for the Safe Operation of Ships, which entered into force in 1998 and applies to all passenger ships and cargo ships of 500 GT and above.

22. Annex II of MARPOL deals with the control of pollution by:

  • A. Harmful substances in packaged form
  • B. Sewage
  • C. Noxious liquid substances in bulk
  • D. Air pollution
Answer: C — Noxious liquid substances in bulk
MARPOL Annex II contains the regulations for the control of pollution by noxious liquid substances carried in bulk, implemented with the IBC Code for chemical tankers.

23. Which organ of IMO consists of all member states?

  • A. Council
  • B. Assembly
  • C. Facilitation Committee
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Assembly
The Assembly is the highest governing body of IMO and consists of all member states. It meets every two years and elects the 40-member Council.

24. Dumping of wastes at sea is controlled by which IMO convention?

  • A. London Convention
  • B. US Convention
  • C. India Convention
  • D. None of these
Answer: A — London Convention
The Convention on the Prevention of Marine Pollution by Dumping of Wastes and Other Matter, 1972 (London Convention) and its 1996 Protocol control deliberate dumping of wastes at sea.

25. As per MARPOL, every crude oil tanker of ____ tonnes deadweight and above delivered after 1 June 1982 shall be fitted with a cargo tank cleaning system using crude oil washing.

  • A. 200
  • B. 20,000
  • C. 2
  • D. 2,000
Answer: B — 20,000
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 33 requires every crude oil tanker of 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above delivered after 1 June 1982 to have a crude oil washing system for cargo tank cleaning.

26. What is an advantage of written communication?

  • A. It avoids the need for any verbal briefing
  • B. It can be understood by a person who cannot see
  • C. It is always faster than speaking
  • D. Highly technical topics can be presented using words and diagrams
Answer: D — Highly technical topics can be presented using words and diagrams
Written communication provides a permanent record and allows complex technical information to be explained with text, drawings and diagrams that the reader can study and refer back to.

27. A limit of ____ on the sulphur content of marine fuel oil applies in designated SOx Emission Control Areas.

  • A. 0.10%
  • B. 0.50%
  • C. 1.00%
  • D. 3.50%
Answer: A — 0.10%
MARPOL Annex VI Regulation 14 limits fuel sulphur content in Emission Control Areas to 0.10% m/m from 1 January 2015. The 0.50% limit is the global cap applicable outside ECAs since 1 January 2020.

28. Which book is used for maintaining complete records of garbage discharged to sea or delivered ashore?

  • A. Oil Record Book
  • B. Garbage Record Book
  • C. Navigation log
  • D. None of these
Answer: B — Garbage Record Book
MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10 requires ships of 400 GT and above, and ships certified for 15 or more persons, to record every garbage discharge, incineration and delivery to reception facilities in the Garbage Record Book.

29. What is the most likely cause of fractured limbs?

  • A. Fall
  • B. Climbing
  • C. Sleeping
  • D. None of these
Answer: A — Fall
Falls from height, down ladders or on slippery decks are the commonest cause of fractures on board. Good housekeeping, handrails and fall protection reduce this risk.

30. ____ shall be launched and manoeuvred in the water at least once every three months.

  • A. Every rescue boat only
  • B. Every liferaft
  • C. Every lifeboat only
  • D. Every lifeboat and rescue boat
Answer: D — Every lifeboat and rescue boat
SOLAS Chapter III Regulation 19.3.3 requires each lifeboat to be launched with its operating crew and manoeuvred in the water at least once every three months, and rescue boats to be launched monthly where reasonable, but at least every three months.

Set 10 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the most likely cause of chemical burns?

  • A. Lack of oxygen
  • B. Too much noise
  • C. Acids and alkalis
  • D. Welding
Answer: C — Acids and alkalis
Chemical burns are caused by contact with corrosive substances such as acids, alkalis and some cleaning chemicals. Affected skin or eyes should be flushed with plenty of clean water immediately.

2. What is the danger when working with sharp tools?

  • A. Head injury
  • B. Cuts
  • C. Falls
  • D. Suffocation
Answer: B — Cuts
Knives, chisels and other sharp tools can easily cause cuts and lacerations. Tools should be kept in good condition, used with suitable gloves and stored safely after use.

3. In a distress situation, for how long should the general emergency alarm signal be sounded?

  • A. Three times only
  • B. For 3 minutes
  • C. Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their muster stations
  • D. Until the emergency is over
Answer: C — Until all crew members and passengers have reported to their muster stations
The general emergency alarm, seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast, is continued until everyone on board has responded and reported to their muster stations, as required by SOLAS III and the LSA Code.

4. If you notice that a piece of equipment is broken, what should you do?

  • A. Report it to the officer on watch
  • B. Get another AB to help you fix it
  • C. Try to fix it yourself
  • D. Pretend that you have not noticed that anything is broken
Answer: A — Report it to the officer on watch
Defects must be reported so the responsible officer can assess the hazard, isolate or tag the equipment and arrange repair under the ship's safety management system. Unauthorised repairs or ignoring the fault can lead to accidents.

5. Life jackets are kept

  • A. In overhead lockers
  • B. Out of harm's way in the wheelhouse
  • C. In plastic bags to prevent mould
  • D. Where they can be easily seen and accessed
Answer: D — Where they can be easily seen and accessed
SOLAS Chapter III requires lifejackets to be stowed so that they are readily accessible, with their positions plainly indicated, so that everyone can find and don them quickly in an emergency.

6. Body language includes a person's eye contact, smile, frown, etc., that convey ____.

  • A. Messages
  • B. Information
  • C. Content
  • D. None of the above
Answer: A — Messages
Body language is a form of non-verbal communication; gestures, facial expressions and eye contact convey messages and feelings to the receiver, often reinforcing or contradicting the spoken words.

7. Warning signage information for restricted areas and emergency procedures

  • A. Only applies to passengers
  • B. Should be known and implemented
  • C. Can be removed if it is in the way
  • D. Is found in every compartment of the vessel
Answer: B — Should be known and implemented
Safety signs and emergency instructions apply to everyone on board. Crew must know what they mean and follow them; signs must never be removed or obscured, as they guide people during emergencies and keep them out of hazardous areas.

8. Reporting of near misses is encouraged under which maritime instrument?

  • A. Code of Safe Working Practices
  • B. ISM Code
  • C. SOLAS Chapter II
  • D. All of the above
Answer: B — ISM Code
ISM Code section 9 requires the safety management system to include procedures for reporting accidents, hazardous situations and near misses to the company, so that they are investigated and corrective action is taken to prevent recurrence.

9. Which of the following is considered to be the safest protection from static electric discharge when connecting or disconnecting cargo hoses and metal arms?

  • A. Ship-shore bonding cable
  • B. Switching off ICCP
  • C. Insulating flange or a length of non-conducting hose
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — Insulating flange or a length of non-conducting hose
ISGOTT recommends an insulating flange or a single length of non-conducting hose in each hose string or arm to break electrical continuity between ship and shore. Ship-shore bonding cables are no longer recommended because they can cause incendive sparks.

10. Where would you find details of your tasks and duties in case of an emergency?

  • A. In the muster list
  • B. On posters at the lifeboat station
  • C. In notices posted in mess rooms, recreation rooms, etc.
  • D. In notices posted in the crew's cabins
Answer: A — In the muster list
SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require a muster list showing the duties assigned to each crew member in an emergency, the emergency signals and the muster stations. It is posted at conspicuous places including the bridge, engine room and crew accommodation.

11. Safety equipment is checked by the crew

  • A. Before and during each voyage
  • B. Only at annual surveys
  • C. It is not the responsibility of the crew
  • D. Only if it is damaged
Answer: A — Before and during each voyage
SOLAS III/20 requires life-saving appliances to be in working order and ready for immediate use before the ship leaves port and at all times during the voyage, with weekly and monthly inspections carried out by the crew.

12. Information on safety and hazard control policies and procedures on a vessel is described in

  • A. Your employment contract
  • B. The vessel's log book
  • C. The instructions written on lifebuoys
  • D. The vessel's safety management manual
Answer: D — The vessel's safety management manual
Under the ISM Code, the company's safety and environmental protection policy, procedures and instructions are documented in the safety management system manual kept on board, which all crew should be familiar with.

13. What is the signal commonly used on board for man overboard?

  • A. Repeated raising and lowering of arms
  • B. Three short blasts on the whistle
  • C. Three long blasts followed by three short blasts on the whistle
  • D. Three long blasts on the whistle
Answer: D — Three long blasts on the whistle
Three prolonged blasts on the ship's whistle, often supplemented by the letter O by flags or sound, is the man overboard signal shown on most muster lists, alerting all crew to take up their MOB stations.

14. The revolving drum of a windlass which is used to handle mooring lines is called a ____.

  • A. Warping drum
  • B. Lines drum
  • C. Dog clutch
  • D. Gypsy
Answer: A — Warping drum
The warping drum (warping end) is the smooth barrel on the windlass shaft used to heave on mooring ropes. The gypsy is the sprocketed wheel that grips the anchor cable, and the dog clutch engages or disengages it.

15. Distress flares need to be renewed every

  • A. Five years from the date of manufacture
  • B. Seven years from the date of manufacture
  • C. One year from the date of manufacture
  • D. Three years from the date of manufacture
Answer: D — Three years from the date of manufacture
Pyrotechnics carry an expiry date set by the manufacturer, normally three years from manufacture, after which their reliability cannot be guaranteed. Expired flares must be replaced and disposed of safely.

16. You are in a survival craft broadcasting a distress message. What information would be essential to your rescuers?

  • A. The nature of the distress
  • B. The time of day
  • C. Your radio call sign
  • D. Your position by latitude and longitude
Answer: D — Your position by latitude and longitude
Search and rescue units must know where to search, so position is the most essential element of any distress message. Without an accurate position, other details such as nature of distress or identity cannot lead to a rescue.

17. Spaces containing batteries require good ventilation because ____.

  • A. Less electrolyte is required to maintain the battery's charge
  • B. Ventilation supplies more oxygen for charging the battery
  • C. Ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
  • D. Ventilation avoids CO build-up
Answer: C — Ventilation avoids flammable gas accumulation
Lead-acid batteries give off hydrogen during charging. Hydrogen is highly flammable and explosive over a wide range in air, so battery rooms must be well ventilated and kept free of ignition sources.

18. What should you do when you hear the ship's emergency signal?

  • A. Put on warm clothes and your lifejacket
  • B. Ignore the signal unless you have been told there will be a drill
  • C. Report to your muster station
  • D. Telephone the bridge for advice
Answer: C — Report to your muster station
On hearing the general emergency alarm every person must go to their assigned muster station as shown on the muster list, taking lifejackets and warm clothing on the way, where they will receive instructions.

19. Which is the life-saving signal for 'This is the best place to land'?

  • A. Orange smoke signal
  • B. Red star rocket
  • C. Horizontal motion of a flag
  • D. Green star rocket
Answer: D — Green star rocket
In the SOLAS life-saving signals table, landing signals for guidance of small boats include vertical motion of a white flag or arms, or a green star signal or green light, meaning this is the best place to land. Red or horizontal motion means landing is dangerous.

20. You are standing the wheel watch when you hear the cry 'Man overboard starboard side'. You should instinctively ____.

  • A. Give full right rudder
  • B. Give full left rudder
  • C. Put the rudder amidships
  • D. Throw a life ring to mark the spot
Answer: A — Give full right rudder
Putting the rudder hard over to the side on which the person fell swings the stern and propeller away from them and starts a recovery manoeuvre such as the Williamson turn. The lookout throws the lifebuoy.

21. Under STCW, what must each new crew member do before commencing assigned duties?

  • A. Locate his working area and working clothes
  • B. Read all posted notices and regulations carefully
  • C. Be familiar with safety procedures
  • D. Report to the master for signing on the ship's articles
Answer: C — Be familiar with safety procedures
STCW Regulation VI/1 and Section A-VI/1 require all seafarers to receive safety familiarization training or instruction before being assigned shipboard duties, so they know emergency procedures, alarms and their own duties.

22. An immersion suit can be unpacked and donned within ____.

  • A. 2 minutes
  • B. 3 minutes
  • C. 4 minutes
  • D. 5 minutes
Answer: A — 2 minutes
The LSA Code (2.3.1.3) requires that an immersion suit can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes, taking into account any associated clothing and a lifejacket if required.

23. When firing, the line-throwing apparatus should be held at

  • A. 30 degrees to the horizontal
  • B. 45 degrees to the horizontal
  • C. 60 degrees to the horizontal
  • D. 75 degrees to the horizontal
Answer: B — 45 degrees to the horizontal
A line-throwing rocket gives its greatest range when fired at about 45 degrees elevation. It should be aimed slightly upwind of the target, as the LSA Code requires a range of at least 230 m in calm weather.

24. How many VHF survival craft two-way radiotelephone apparatus are required aboard passenger ships?

  • A. 2
  • B. 3
  • C. 4
  • D. 5
Answer: B — 3
SOLAS Chapter III/6.2.1 requires at least three two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus on every passenger ship and every cargo ship of 500 GT and upwards; cargo ships of 300 to 500 GT need at least two.

25. Most enclosed lifeboats will automatically right themselves if they capsize. This will occur when which of the following conditions exists?

  • A. The lower ballast tanks are filled with water
  • B. The fuel tanks are not less than half full
  • C. The passengers are strapped into their seats
  • D. The sea anchor is deployed to windward
Answer: C — The passengers are strapped into their seats
The LSA Code requires a totally enclosed lifeboat to be self-righting when fully or partially loaded with all entrances closed and all occupants secured with seat belts, so that weight distribution stays as designed during capsize.

26. After being launched, a totally enclosed lifeboat which has been afloat over a long period of time requires ____.

  • A. Frequent opening of hatches to permit entry of fresh air
  • B. Regular checks and pumping out of the bilge
  • C. Use of ear plugs to dampen engine noise
  • D. Frequent flushing of the water spray system with fresh water
Answer: B — Regular checks and pumping out of the bilge
Water accumulating in the bilge from leaks, spray and condensation reduces stability and freeboard, so the bilge should be checked regularly and pumped out with the manual bilge pump.

27. After having activated the emergency position-indicating radio beacon (EPIRB), you should ____.

  • A. Turn it off for five minutes every half hour
  • B. Turn it off and on at five-minute intervals
  • C. Turn it off during daylight hours
  • D. Leave it on continuously
Answer: D — Leave it on continuously
An EPIRB must be left transmitting continuously so that the satellite system can locate it and homing aircraft can find the survivors. Switching it off interrupts detection and position fixing.

28. In the event of a small rubbish bin fire in the accommodation, you would

  • A. Shout 'Fire, fire' so all the passengers in the cabin hear you
  • B. Go to see the skipper to ask his advice
  • C. Pick it up and run with it to the outer deck
  • D. Cover it with a fire blanket
Answer: D — Cover it with a fire blanket
A small contained fire can be extinguished by smothering it with a fire blanket, which cuts off the oxygen supply. Carrying a burning bin spreads fire and causes burns, and delay lets the fire grow.

29. In the event of a person falling overboard, you would

  • A. Encourage passengers to jump in to rescue the person
  • B. Ask passengers to stand back to allow the crew to manage the emergency
  • C. Jump overboard to rescue the person
  • D. Push the passengers into the cabin and lock the door
Answer: B — Ask passengers to stand back to allow the crew to manage the emergency
Keeping passengers clear lets the trained crew carry out the man overboard procedure safely. Untrained people jumping in creates more casualties, and locking people in cabins is dangerous.

30. The person responsible for ensuring that the required drills are carried out is

  • A. The local waterways inspector
  • B. The master, skipper or designated person
  • C. The engineer on board
  • D. The owner
Answer: B — The master, skipper or designated person
SOLAS III/19 places the responsibility for conducting musters and drills on board with the master, who may delegate their organisation to a designated officer, and drills must be recorded in the log book.

Set 11 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The safe and efficient use of the face piece of a demand-type self-contained breathing apparatus is directly influenced by

  • A. The donning of the face piece
  • B. The stowage of the face piece
  • C. The maintenance of the face piece
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A face mask that is incorrectly donned leaks, one stowed badly may be distorted, and a poorly maintained one may have perished seals or valves. All three affect the seal and safe operation of the SCBA.

2. Personal protective equipment is required when

  • A. An employer suffers an injury
  • B. An employee suffers an injury
  • C. An employee asks for it
  • D. Engineering, work practice and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against hazards
Answer: D — Engineering, work practice and administrative controls do not provide sufficient protection against hazards
In the hierarchy of controls, PPE is the last line of defence, used when elimination, substitution, engineering and administrative controls cannot reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

3. Which of the following types of gloves should you wear when working with chemicals?

  • A. Butyl rubber gloves
  • B. Fabric gloves
  • C. Leather gloves
  • D. Both fabric and leather gloves
Answer: A — Butyl rubber gloves
Chemical-resistant gloves such as butyl rubber, nitrile or neoprene prevent chemicals reaching the skin. Fabric and leather gloves absorb liquids and hold chemicals against the skin, so they are unsuitable.

4. Eye protection is required for which of the following hazards?

  • A. Flying particles
  • B. Liquid chemicals, acids or caustic liquids
  • C. Chemical gases or vapours
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Goggles, safety glasses or face shields protect the eyes from impact by flying particles, chemical splashes and irritating gases or vapours. The type of protection is chosen to suit the hazard identified in the risk assessment.

5. A person who sees someone fall overboard should ____.

  • A. Go to the bridge for the distress flares
  • B. Run to the radio room to send an emergency message
  • C. Call for help and keep the individual in sight
  • D. Immediately jump into the water to assist the individual
Answer: C — Call for help and keep the individual in sight
The person who sees a man overboard must raise the alarm, throw a lifebuoy if possible and keep pointing at the casualty, never losing sight of them, since relocating a person in the water is very difficult.

6. You have heard the signal of seven short blasts followed by one prolonged blast. You should

  • A. Report directly to your muster station with your suitcase
  • B. Jump overboard
  • C. Collect your lifejacket and warm clothing and proceed to your muster station
  • D. Seek out other passengers to find out the nature of the problem
Answer: C — Collect your lifejacket and warm clothing and proceed to your muster station
Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast is the general emergency alarm under SOLAS III/6.4.2 and the LSA Code. Everyone collects lifejackets and warm clothing and goes to their muster station; luggage must not be taken.

7. After being called to muster stations, if some time will elapse before abandonment, the master should ensure that all passengers and crew

  • A. Have a glass of whisky to keep them warm
  • B. Go to the toilet before abandoning
  • C. Choose the life raft they want to go into
  • D. Have a good drink of water and collect grab bags and warm clothing
Answer: D — Have a good drink of water and collect grab bags and warm clothing
Drinking water before abandoning reduces dehydration in the early survival period, and warm clothing and grab bags improve survival chances. Alcohol increases heat loss and should never be taken.

8. Lifebuoys are subjected to which of the following tests?

  • A. Drop test
  • B. Fire test
  • C. Flotation test
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
The LSA Code requires lifebuoys to withstand a drop into water from their stowage height or 30 m, not sustain burning after being enveloped in fire for 2 seconds, and support at least 14.5 kg of iron in fresh water for 24 hours.

9. You are evacuating crew members from a survival craft that has been adrift in the North Atlantic for several days. What could occur if a person suffering from hypothermia is lifted vertically in a rescue sling to the helicopter?

  • A. A decrease in the symptoms of hypothermia
  • B. Temporary blindness from the altitude change
  • C. Severe shock or cardiac arrest
  • D. Frostbite on exposed areas
Answer: C — Severe shock or cardiac arrest
Lifting a hypothermic casualty vertically lets blood pool in the legs and reduces return to the heart, which can cause circulatory collapse or cardiac arrest. Such casualties should be lifted horizontally in a stretcher or double strop.

10. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of

  • A. 12 hours
  • B. 18 hours
  • C. 24 hours
  • D. 36 hours
Answer: C — 24 hours
The LSA Code (4.4.6.8) requires the lifeboat to carry sufficient fuel, suitable for the temperature range expected, to run fully loaded at a speed of 6 knots for not less than 24 hours.

11. A muster list includes

  • A. The place of emergency assembly
  • B. The list of cargo carried
  • C. The allocation of lifeboats for passengers only
  • D. The allowance of personal property you can take
Answer: A — The place of emergency assembly
SOLAS III/37 requires the muster list to specify the general emergency alarm signal, actions to be taken and the muster stations where crew and passengers assemble, along with each crew member's duties.

12. If it was required to abandon ship, you should

  • A. Push all passengers to slip into the water or life raft
  • B. Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
  • C. Get all passengers off before inflating the life raft
  • D. Jump into the water first to encourage them
Answer: B — Assist the passengers to slip into the water or life raft
Crew should calmly assist passengers into the life raft or water to prevent panic and injury. The raft must be inflated before people leave the ship, and pushing or leading by jumping risks injury.

13. If more than one liferaft is manned after the vessel has sunk, what action will aid in your rescue?

  • A. Each raft should go in a different direction in search of land
  • B. Spread out to increase the chance of a search aircraft finding you
  • C. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
  • D. Reduce the number of liferafts
Answer: C — Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group
Survival craft tied together form a larger target that is easier to detect, share equipment and resources, and remain near the distress position where search units will look first.

14. The international distress, safety and calling frequency is VHF channel ____.

  • A. 16
  • B. 18
  • C. 22
  • D. 13
Answer: A — 16
VHF channel 16 (156.8 MHz) is the international distress, safety and calling frequency. Channel 13 is used for bridge-to-bridge navigation safety and channel 70 for DSC.

15. The poop deck is located

  • A. At the aft end, above the steering flat
  • B. At the fore part of the ship
  • C. Above the bridge
  • D. Above the engine room
Answer: A — At the aft end, above the steering flat
The poop is the raised deck at the stern of the ship, and the steering gear compartment (steering flat) is located beneath it at the after end above the rudder stock.

16. The ISM Code requires work procedures which ensure ____ performance.

  • A. Superior
  • B. Profitable
  • C. Safe
  • D. Excellent
Answer: C — Safe
The objectives of the ISM Code are to ensure safety at sea, prevention of injury or loss of life and avoidance of damage to the environment, so the SMS must establish safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment.

17. By day, the answering signal made by life-saving stations on seeing signals from a ship is

  • A. Orange smoke signal
  • B. Red parachute rocket
  • C. Hand flare
  • D. Red star signal
Answer: A — Orange smoke signal
Under the SOLAS life-saving signals, replies from life-saving stations or rescue units to distress signals by day are an orange smoke signal or combined light and sound signal; by night a white star rocket is used.

18. During a fuelling operation, which precaution should be taken when topping off fuel tanks?

  • A. Reduce the pumping rate by closing the deck filling valve
  • B. Close all overflow valves
  • C. Place 5-gallon containers under all flange connections in the fuel line
  • D. Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
Answer: D — Reduce the pumping rate and sound tanks frequently
When topping off, the bunker rate is reduced and tank levels are sounded frequently to avoid overflow and oil pollution. Throttling against a closed deck valve can over-pressurise hoses, and overflow arrangements must remain open.

19. Ground garbage which will be discharged into the sea must be able to pass through a screen with openings no larger than ____.

  • A. 25 millimetres
  • B. 50 millimetres
  • C. 75 millimetres
  • D. 100 millimetres
Answer: A — 25 millimetres
MARPOL Annex V requires comminuted or ground food waste to be capable of passing through a screen with openings no greater than 25 mm before it may be discharged at sea under the permitted conditions.

20. In the verbal communication process, the direct exchange of ____ occurs between the sender and the receiver.

  • A. Mails
  • B. Words
  • C. Gestures
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Words
Verbal communication uses spoken words to carry the message directly from sender to receiver. Gestures belong to non-verbal communication and mail is a written channel.

21. Speech rate is usually much ____ than the rate at which we think.

  • A. More tedious
  • B. Slower
  • C. Faster
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Slower
People think several times faster than they speak, so a listener has spare mental capacity while listening. This gap allows the mind to wander, which is why active listening requires conscious concentration.

22. The problem of misunderstanding can be reduced by providing ____ to the listeners while explaining a process.

  • A. Theories
  • B. Examples
  • C. Samples
  • D. Mathematics
Answer: B — Examples
Concrete examples link a new idea to something the listener already understands, making the explanation clearer and reducing the chance that the message is misinterpreted.

23. If the receiver misunderstood the sender's message,

  • A. This could lead to effective communication
  • B. This could create a barrier to effective communication
  • C. This could lead to wonderful communication
  • D. None of these
Answer: B — This could create a barrier to effective communication
Communication is effective only when the receiver understands the message as the sender intended. Misunderstanding is itself a barrier, and on board it can lead to wrong actions and accidents, which is why closed-loop communication is used.

24. Which of the following is a disadvantage of written communication?

  • A. The preparation of written documents is time consuming
  • B. It provides a permanent record
  • C. It can be referred to later
  • D. None of these
Answer: A — The preparation of written documents is time consuming
Written communication gives a permanent record that can be referred to later, but it takes time to prepare, and feedback is slower than in face-to-face communication.

25. On many vessels, a continuous ringing of the ship's bell indicates

  • A. Change of watch
  • B. A fire emergency
  • C. Dinner is ready
  • D. Arrival in port
Answer: B — A fire emergency
The fire alarm on many vessels is a continuous ringing of the bell or fire alarm bells, as shown on the muster list. The general emergency alarm is different: seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast.

26. Before sailing, gastight doors and access hatches should be

  • A. Opened before sailing and kept open throughout the voyage
  • B. Closed and secured, and opened only when required and closed again after use
  • C. Removed to allow free access
  • D. Left unlatched so that they can swing freely
Answer: B — Closed and secured, and opened only when required and closed again after use
Gastight and weathertight closures maintain the integrity of spaces against gas ingress, water and fire spread. They must be closed and secured before sailing and only opened when necessary, being closed again immediately after use.

27. Under MARPOL Annex II, operational discharge of noxious liquid substance residues is permitted only

  • A. While the ship is en route at sea, at least 12 nm from the nearest land, in water at least 25 m deep
  • B. When alongside in port
  • C. When at anchor in a harbour
  • D. In any sea area without conditions
Answer: A — While the ship is en route at sea, at least 12 nm from the nearest land, in water at least 25 m deep
MARPOL Annex II regulation 13 allows discharge of NLS residues only while en route at a minimum speed of 7 knots, below the waterline through underwater outlets, at least 12 nautical miles from land and in water at least 25 m deep.

28. Which of the following form part of an abandon ship drill?

  • A. Checking that passengers and crew are suitably dressed
  • B. Checking that lifejackets are correctly donned
  • C. Starting and operating the lifeboat engine
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
SOLAS III/19.3.3 requires each abandon ship drill to include summoning persons to muster stations, checking they are suitably dressed and that lifejackets are correctly donned, lowering at least one lifeboat, and starting and operating its engine.

29. The general emergency alarm signal consists of

  • A. Continuous ringing of the bell
  • B. Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
  • C. Three long blasts
  • D. One prolonged blast repeated every two minutes
Answer: B — Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast
SOLAS III/6.4.2 and the LSA Code define the general emergency alarm as seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle or siren, supplemented by an electric bell or klaxon system.

30. Freeing ports on deck should be

  • A. Kept clear of loose gear so that water can drain freely
  • B. Blocked with loose gear lashed in front of them
  • C. Welded shut for heavy weather
  • D. Covered with tarpaulins at sea
Answer: A — Kept clear of loose gear so that water can drain freely
Freeing ports allow water shipped on deck to drain quickly overboard. The Load Line rules require them to be kept clear; obstructing them traps water on deck, which reduces stability and freeboard.

Set 12 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. When securing the accommodation for sea, lockers and drawers should be

  • A. Closed and secured, even when empty
  • B. Left open if they are empty
  • C. Removed from the cabins
  • D. Left open for ventilation
Answer: A — Closed and secured, even when empty
Unsecured locker doors and drawers swing and slam as the ship rolls, causing injuries and damage. Everything, including empty lockers, should be closed and secured before the ship goes to sea.

2. Hearing protection is required when you are exposed to a noise level of ____ or higher over an 8-hour period.

  • A. 60 dB(A)
  • B. 70 dB(A)
  • C. 85 dB(A)
  • D. 120 dB(A)
Answer: C — 85 dB(A)
The IMO Code on Noise Levels on Board Ships and occupational standards require hearing protection where exposure reaches 85 decibels (A-weighted) over an 8-hour period. Spaces above this level should be marked with warning signs.

3. On board ship, smoking is permitted

  • A. Only in designated smoking areas
  • B. In the galley between meals
  • C. Anywhere on the open deck during cargo operations
  • D. In your bunk before sleeping
Answer: A — Only in designated smoking areas
Smoking is restricted to designated smoking areas approved by the master, especially on tankers under ISGOTT. Smoking in bed and in unauthorised places is a major cause of shipboard fires.

4. The thermal protective aid does NOT provide

  • A. Reduction of body heat loss
  • B. Flotation
  • C. Protection against wind chill
  • D. Cover for the whole body except the face
Answer: B — Flotation
A thermal protective aid is a bag or suit of waterproof material of low thermal conductance that reduces body heat loss by convection and evaporation (LSA Code 2.5). It has no inherent buoyancy, so it does not provide flotation.

5. The self-activating smoke signal of a lifebuoy burns for not less than

  • A. 9 minutes
  • B. 12 minutes
  • C. 15 minutes
  • D. 18 minutes
Answer: C — 15 minutes
The LSA Code (2.1.3) requires a lifebuoy self-activating smoke signal to emit smoke of a highly visible colour at a uniform rate for not less than 15 minutes when floating in calm water.

6. During an abandonment or drill, the first person to arrive at the survival craft should ____.

  • A. Pass out food and water to personnel
  • B. Open the doors and start the sprinkler system
  • C. Activate the emergency release handle
  • D. Open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
Answer: D — Open the doors and prepare the craft for boarding
The first to arrive opens the entrances and prepares the craft so others can board without delay. Releasing the craft or starting the sprinkler before boarding is premature, and rations are issued only later.

7. The distress signals required to be kept in a lifeboat are

  • A. Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals
  • B. Rocket parachute flares and hand flares
  • C. Hand flares only
  • D. Smoke signals and line-throwing apparatus
Answer: A — Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals
The LSA Code (4.1.5) lifeboat equipment includes four rocket parachute flares, six hand flares and two buoyant smoke signals. Line-throwing appliances are ship's equipment, not lifeboat equipment.

8. Every lifebuoy shall have an outer diameter of not more than

  • A. 500 mm
  • B. 600 mm
  • C. 700 mm
  • D. 800 mm
Answer: D — 800 mm
The LSA Code (2.1.1.1) requires a lifebuoy to have an outer diameter of not more than 800 mm and an inner diameter of not less than 400 mm, with a mass of not less than 2.5 kg.

9. The lifeboat searchlight's power source must be capable of operating the light without charging or recharging for not less than

  • A. 3 hours of continuous operation
  • B. 5 hours of continuous operation
  • C. 4 hours of continuous operation
  • D. 6 hours of continuous operation
Answer: A — 3 hours of continuous operation
The LSA Code (4.4.8) requires a lifeboat searchlight with a horizontal and vertical sector of at least 6 degrees and luminous intensity of 2500 cd that can work continuously for not less than 3 hours.

10. If you wished to transmit a voice message concerning the safety of navigation, you would preface it with the word ____.

  • A. Mayday
  • B. Pan-pan
  • C. Securite
  • D. Safety
Answer: C — Securite
Under radio regulations, 'Securite' repeated three times introduces a safety message such as a navigational or meteorological warning. Mayday is for distress and Pan-pan for urgency.

11. When activated, a man overboard marker emits

  • A. Yellow smoke for 15 minutes
  • B. Orange smoke for 3 minutes
  • C. Orange smoke for 15 minutes
  • D. Yellow smoke for 3 minutes
Answer: C — Orange smoke for 15 minutes
The bridge-wing lifebuoy MOB marker combines a self-igniting light and a self-activating smoke signal which, under the LSA Code, emits highly visible orange smoke for at least 15 minutes to mark the position.

12. A telephone in poor working condition creates

  • A. Subjective stress
  • B. Environmental stress
  • C. A mechanical barrier
  • D. Ignorance of media
Answer: C — A mechanical barrier
Faults in the channel or equipment used to send a message, such as a poor telephone line or noisy radio, are mechanical (physical) barriers to communication because they distort or interrupt the message.

13. A ____ look conveys that the person is in a serious mood.

  • A. Stern
  • B. Cheerful
  • C. Stubborn
  • D. Angered
Answer: A — Stern
A stern look is a severe, unsmiling facial expression that shows seriousness or disapproval. Facial expression is an important part of non-verbal communication, alongside gestures and eye contact.

14. Fill in the correct word: I was ____ the television when the bell rang.

  • A. Seeing
  • B. Looking at
  • C. Watching
  • D. Visualising
Answer: C — Watching
In English we 'watch' television, a programme or a moving event, giving continued attention over time. 'See' and 'look at' are not used with television in this sense.

15. Who ensures that the necessary precautions are taken in the engine room?

  • A. Chief Officer
  • B. Chief Engineer
  • C. Second Engineer
  • D. Cadets
Answer: B — Chief Engineer
The Chief Engineer is responsible to the master for the operation and safety of the machinery spaces and ensures that safe working practices and precautions are followed in the engine room.

16. The engine room must be kept ____ for manoeuvring preparations.

  • A. Manned
  • B. Cleaned
  • C. Opened
  • D. Closed
Answer: A — Manned
During standby and manoeuvring the engine room must be manned by engineers so that engine orders can be executed immediately and machinery is monitored, even on ships with UMS notation.

17. A speaker's ____ mannerisms can be distracting for the listener.

  • A. Questioning
  • B. Clarifying
  • C. Responding
  • D. Fidgeting
Answer: D — Fidgeting
Fidgeting, such as playing with a pen or shifting about, is a distracting non-verbal mannerism that draws the listener's attention away from the message. Questioning and clarifying aid communication.

18. Which trait helps speakers to understand that they are being listened to?

  • A. Asking inappropriate questions
  • B. Maintaining eye contact
  • C. Looking at your watch
  • D. Interrupting frequently
Answer: B — Maintaining eye contact
Maintaining eye contact is the main non-verbal sign of attentive listening and reassures the speaker that the listener is engaged and following the message, encouraging them to continue.

19. Why is it necessary to prepare a comprehensive repair specification?

  • A. To give the shipyard the inputs needed to correctly estimate cost and time for their offer and carry out the repairs
  • B. To give ship staff inputs to requisition additional crew for supervising the project
  • C. To give the classification society inputs to depute a suitable surveyor
  • D. To give the shipyard inputs to prepare work completion certificates
Answer: A — To give the shipyard the inputs needed to correctly estimate cost and time for their offer and carry out the repairs
A detailed drydock or repair specification allows yards to quote accurately on cost and duration, lets the company compare offers on the same basis, and reduces extras and delays during the repair period.

20. In severe weather a ship should

  • A. Increase speed and alter course
  • B. Slow down and not alter course
  • C. Slow down or alter course
  • D. Increase speed and not alter course
Answer: C — Slow down or alter course
In heavy weather the master reduces speed and/or alters course to ease pounding, slamming and heavy rolling, avoiding resonance and damage to hull, cargo and crew.

21. When thoughts and ideas are expressed clearly and succinctly in writing,

  • A. The reader learns writing easily
  • B. The reader finds difficulty in reading
  • C. The reader cannot understand the message
  • D. The reader is able to understand the message and the intent of the writer
Answer: D — The reader is able to understand the message and the intent of the writer
Clear, concise writing removes ambiguity, so the reader grasps both the content and the purpose of the message without having to guess, which is essential for instructions and reports on board.

22. The Third Officer informs the ____ to lift the gangway clear of the jetty.

  • A. Third Mate
  • B. Third Engineer
  • C. Chief Officer
  • D. Bosun
Answer: D — Bosun
Before unmooring, the officer in charge tells the bosun, who leads the deck ratings, to heave the gangway clear of the jetty and secure it for sea.

23. What is the basic duty of a bridge watchkeeper?

  • A. To keep track of other ships
  • B. To keep a proper lookout
  • C. To keep sight of the sea
  • D. To keep track by hearing
Answer: B — To keep a proper lookout
COLREG Rule 5 and STCW Section A-VIII/2 require a proper lookout by sight and hearing and all available means at all times. Maintaining a proper lookout is the fundamental duty of the officer of the watch.

24. At what speed should a ship proceed to comply with COLREG?

  • A. A safe speed at all times
  • B. A safe speed at some times
  • C. A safe speed only when the ship starts
  • D. A safe speed only on departure
Answer: A — A safe speed at all times
COLREG Rule 6 requires every vessel to proceed at all times at a safe speed, so that she can take proper and effective action to avoid collision and be stopped within a distance appropriate to the prevailing circumstances.

25. What does PPE stand for?

  • A. Personal Protection Eyewear
  • B. Personal Padded Equipment
  • C. Personal Protective Equipment
  • D. Protection for Personal Equipment
Answer: C — Personal Protective Equipment
PPE means personal protective equipment, such as helmets, safety shoes, gloves, goggles and hearing protection, worn to protect the individual from workplace hazards when other controls are insufficient.

26. What is the primary risk when working in enclosed spaces?

  • A. Hypothermia
  • B. Lack of oxygen
  • C. Claustrophobia
  • D. Difficult egress from the space
Answer: B — Lack of oxygen
Enclosed spaces may be oxygen deficient due to rusting, cargo or inerting, and may contain toxic or flammable gases. IMO Resolution A.1050(27) requires atmosphere testing for at least 21% oxygen before entry.

27. What does the sound of an alarm signify to a watchkeeper?

  • A. Pre-warning of an abnormality
  • B. Man overboard
  • C. Fire on board
  • D. Drill
Answer: A — Pre-warning of an abnormality
Machinery and navigation alarms warn the watchkeeper that a parameter is moving outside its normal range, allowing corrective action before a failure or dangerous situation develops.

28. Freeboard is measured from the upper edge of the ____.

  • A. Bulwark
  • B. Deck line
  • C. Gunwale bar
  • D. Sheer strake
Answer: B — Deck line
Under the Load Line Convention, freeboard is the vertical distance measured amidships from the upper edge of the deck line to the upper edge of the relevant load line.

29. Containers are loaded on board a gearless cellular container ship by

  • A. Union purchase
  • B. Derricks
  • C. Floating cranes
  • D. Shore gantry cranes
Answer: D — Shore gantry cranes
A gearless container ship has no cranes of her own, so containers are handled by shore container gantry cranes, which lower them into the cell guides of the holds and onto the hatch covers.

30. A vessel travelling down a narrow channel, especially if the draft is nearly equal to the depth of water, may have her bow set off the nearer bank. This effect is known as ____.

  • A. Smelling the bottom
  • B. Squatting
  • C. Bank suction
  • D. Bank cushion
Answer: D — Bank cushion
Water building up between the bow and the nearer bank creates a pressure cushion that pushes the bow away from the bank, while the stern is drawn in by bank suction. The effect increases with speed and reduced underkeel clearance.

Set 13 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The beam of a vessel refers to the ____.

  • A. Depth between decks
  • B. Internal cubic capacity
  • C. Moulded depth of the vessel
  • D. Width of the vessel
Answer: D — Width of the vessel
Beam is the breadth or width of the ship, usually measured at the widest point. Moulded depth is the vertical distance from the keel to the deck, and internal capacity is expressed as tonnage.

2. The pivoting point of a fully loaded vessel with normal trim proceeding ahead at sea speed is ____.

  • A. Right at the bow
  • B. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
  • C. About one-half of the vessel's length from the bow
  • D. About two-thirds of the vessel's length from the bow
Answer: B — About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
When making headway, the pivot point moves forward to roughly one-third of the length from the bow (about a quarter to a third). This is the point about which the ship appears to turn when the rudder is applied.

3. The upward slope of a ship's bottom from the keel to the bilge is known as ____.

  • A. Camber
  • B. Slope
  • C. Deadrise
  • D. Keel height
Answer: C — Deadrise
Deadrise, or rise of floor, is the upward slope of the bottom from the keel to the turn of the bilge. Camber is the transverse curvature of the deck, which is higher at the centreline.

4. What are the normal duty hours for a watchkeeper?

  • A. 6 hours on and 6 hours off
  • B. 4 hours on and 8 hours off
  • C. 4 hours on and 4 hours off
  • D. 8 hours on and 8 hours off
Answer: B — 4 hours on and 8 hours off
The traditional three-watch system on merchant ships divides the day into six 4-hour watches, so each watchkeeper stands 4 hours on and 8 hours off, twice a day, within STCW rest-hour limits.

5. Crude oil tankers carry

  • A. Naphtha
  • B. Crude oil
  • C. Kerosene
  • D. Chemical cargoes
Answer: B — Crude oil
Crude oil tankers carry unrefined petroleum from oil fields to refineries. Refined products such as naphtha and kerosene are carried in product tankers, and chemicals in IBC Code chemical tankers.

6. When backing down with sternway, the pivot point of a vessel is ____.

  • A. About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
  • B. At the bow
  • C. About one-third of the vessel's length from the bow
  • D. Aft of the propellers
Answer: A — About one-quarter of the vessel's length from the stern
With sternway the pivot point moves aft to about a quarter of the length from the stern, so the bow swings widely while the stern moves little when turning.

7. The forecastle is at the

  • A. Stern of the ship
  • B. Fore part of the ship
  • C. Amidships
  • D. Above the bridge
Answer: B — Fore part of the ship
The forecastle (fo'c'sle) is the raised deck structure at the bow of the ship, housing windlass, mooring equipment and stores. The poop is at the stern.

8. The cargo hold of a cellular container ship has which of the following fittings inside?

  • A. Cell guides
  • B. Pillars
  • C. Hatch boards
  • D. Tween decks
Answer: A — Cell guides
Container holds are fitted with vertical cell guides that locate and restrain stacked containers, so they need no lashings below deck. Pillars and tween decks would obstruct the cells.

9. A passenger ship is any ship which carries more than ____.

  • A. 4 passengers
  • B. 6 passengers
  • C. 9 passengers
  • D. 12 passengers
Answer: D — 12 passengers
SOLAS Chapter I, Regulation 2 defines a passenger ship as a ship which carries more than twelve passengers. Ships carrying twelve or fewer passengers are treated as cargo ships for SOLAS purposes.

10. What term indicates the outward curvature of the hull above the waterline?

  • A. Sheer
  • B. Tumble home
  • C. Deadrise
  • D. Flare
Answer: D — Flare
Flare is the outward spread of the hull sides above the waterline, mainly seen in the bow region, which helps throw spray clear and adds reserve buoyancy. Tumble home is the opposite, an inward curvature of the sides.

11. The head of the engine department is the ____.

  • A. Master
  • B. Chief Engineer
  • C. Second Engineer
  • D. Chief Officer
Answer: B — Chief Engineer
The Chief Engineer heads the engine department and is responsible to the Master for the operation and maintenance of the propulsion plant and all machinery. The Second Engineer is his deputy.

12. Ultra large crude carriers (ULCC) can carry cargo up to about ____.

  • A. 200,000 tonnes
  • B. 300,000 tonnes
  • C. 400,000 tonnes
  • D. 500,000 tonnes
Answer: D — 500,000 tonnes
ULCCs are the largest tankers, generally above about 320,000 tonnes deadweight and ranging up to around 500,000 tonnes or more. VLCCs cover the range of roughly 200,000 to 320,000 tonnes deadweight.

13. What term indicates the length measured along the summer load line from the fore side of the stem to the after side of the rudder post?

  • A. Length overall
  • B. Register length
  • C. Length between perpendiculars
  • D. Length on the waterline
Answer: C — Length between perpendiculars
Length between perpendiculars is measured on the summer load line from the forward perpendicular, where the load line meets the fore side of the stem, to the after perpendicular at the after side of the rudder post or rudder stock centre.

14. Bulk carriers are designed to transport ____.

  • A. Crude oil
  • B. Containers
  • C. Heavy lifts
  • D. Dry bulk cargo
Answer: D — Dry bulk cargo
Bulk carriers are single-deck ships with large holds designed to carry unpackaged dry bulk cargoes such as grain, coal, iron ore and cement. Crude oil is carried in tankers and containers in container ships.

15. What term indicates the curvature of the decks in a longitudinal direction?

  • A. Deadrise
  • B. Camber
  • C. Sheer
  • D. Flare
Answer: C — Sheer
Sheer is the fore-and-aft curvature of the deck, rising towards the bow and stern from amidships. It increases reserve buoyancy at the ends and helps keep the deck dry. Camber is the transverse curvature.

16. The total weight of cargo, fuel, water, stores, passengers and crew and their effects that a ship can carry is the ____.

  • A. Bale cubic
  • B. Deadweight
  • C. Gross tonnage
  • D. Loaded displacement
Answer: B — Deadweight
Deadweight is the difference between the loaded displacement and the lightship displacement, i.e. the total weight of cargo, fuel, fresh water, stores, crew, passengers and effects a ship can carry. Gross tonnage is a volume measure.

17. Accommodation space on a ship is provided ____.

  • A. On one deck only
  • B. On two decks only
  • C. On three decks only
  • D. On multiple decks depending on crew strength
Answer: D — On multiple decks depending on crew strength
The number of accommodation decks varies with ship type, size and the number of crew carried, so accommodation is arranged on as many decks as required. There is no fixed single number of decks for all ships.

18. Multipurpose ships generally have ____.

  • A. No cargo handling gear
  • B. To use shore cranes to discharge cargo
  • C. Their own cargo handling gear to discharge cargo
  • D. No high-capacity cranes
Answer: C — Their own cargo handling gear to discharge cargo
Multipurpose ships are designed to trade to ports with limited facilities and carry general, project and container cargo, so they are usually fitted with their own cranes or derricks, often of high capacity, to load and discharge cargo.

19. The highest place on a ship which houses antennas is ____.

  • A. The bridge
  • B. The monkey island
  • C. The foremast
  • D. The aft mast
Answer: B — The monkey island
The monkey island is the open deck on top of the wheelhouse, the highest accessible platform on the ship. It carries the radar scanners, radio antennas, standard compass and navigation light mast.

20. When underway and proceeding ahead, as the speed increases the pivot point tends to ____.

  • A. Move aft
  • B. Move forward
  • C. Move lower
  • D. Remain stationary
Answer: B — Move forward
When a ship gathers headway the pivot point moves forward from near amidships towards a position about one quarter to one third of the length from the bow. With sternway it moves aft towards the stern.

21. A vessel will squat when it proceeds underway ____.

  • A. Only in deep water
  • B. Only in shallow water
  • C. In all depths of water
  • D. Only in narrow channels
Answer: C — In all depths of water
Squat is the bodily sinkage and change of trim caused by increased flow velocity and reduced pressure around the hull. It occurs in all depths of water, but becomes much more pronounced in shallow water and confined channels, varying roughly with speed squared.

22. Which term refers to the transverse curvature of the deck?

  • A. Deadrise
  • B. Camber
  • C. Freeboard
  • D. Flare
Answer: B — Camber
Camber, or round of beam, is the athwartships curvature of the deck, higher at the centreline than at the sides. It allows water on deck to drain towards the scuppers and adds some strength to the deck.

23. Vehicles are loaded on to a Ro-Ro ferry through the ____.

  • A. Hatch cover
  • B. Tween deck
  • C. Bulbous bow
  • D. Ramp
Answer: D — Ramp
Ro-Ro ferries are designed so that vehicles drive on and off under their own power via bow, stern or side ramps connected to the shore. Hatch covers are used for lift-on/lift-off cargo, not wheeled cargo.

24. The upward slope of a vessel's bottom from the keel to the bilge is called ____.

  • A. Camber
  • B. Sheer
  • C. Rake
  • D. Rise of bottom
Answer: D — Rise of bottom
Rise of bottom, also called rise of floor or deadrise, is the upward slope of the bottom plating from the keel out to the turn of the bilge. Camber and sheer refer to deck curvature, and rake to the inclination of stem or masts.

25. What is the Safety Management System (SMS)?

  • A. Part of SOLAS for the safety of crew only
  • B. Part of the Company's policies and procedures for first aid
  • C. Part of the ISM Code which requires documented work procedures to ensure safe performance
  • D. Part of STCW which provides for safe manning
Answer: C — Part of the ISM Code which requires documented work procedures to ensure safe performance
The ISM Code requires every company to develop, implement and maintain a Safety Management System, a structured and documented system including procedures, instructions and checklists that ensure safe operation of ships and protection of the environment.

26. The distance a vessel moves parallel to the original course from the point where the rudder is put over to any point on the turning circle is called the ____.

  • A. Advance
  • B. Drift angle
  • C. Pivoting point
  • D. Transfer
Answer: A — Advance
Advance is the distance travelled in the direction of the original course from the moment the rudder is put over, usually quoted for a 90° change of heading. Transfer is the corresponding distance measured at right angles to the original course.

27. How does bank suction act on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel?

  • A. It pulls the stern toward the bank
  • B. It heels the vessel toward the bank
  • C. It pushes the entire vessel away from the bank
  • D. It pulls the bow toward the bank
Answer: A — It pulls the stern toward the bank
Restricted flow between the hull and a nearby bank creates a low-pressure area that draws the stern towards the bank, while the pressure build-up at the bow pushes it away (bank cushion). The vessel therefore tends to sheer away from the bank.

28. As a watchkeeper, when should you relieve the previous watchkeeper?

  • A. 15 to 30 minutes before the start of your watch
  • B. 5 minutes before your watch
  • C. Exactly on time
  • D. 1 hour before your watch starts
Answer: A — 15 to 30 minutes before the start of your watch
Good watchkeeping practice and company SMS procedures require the relieving officer to arrive about 15 to 30 minutes early to adjust night vision and be fully briefed on the ship's position, traffic, navigational situation and standing orders before taking over.

29. What international regulatory requirements govern management and organisation on board?

  • A. MARPOL
  • B. OPA 90
  • C. STCW alone
  • D. STCW and the ISM Code of the IMO
Answer: D — STCW and the ISM Code of the IMO
STCW sets the standards of training, certification and watchkeeping for personnel, while the ISM Code requires a company Safety Management System defining responsibilities, authority and procedures on board. Together they govern shipboard management and organisation.

30. What does ISM stand for in the ISM Code?

  • A. International Security Mandate
  • B. Internal Safety Management
  • C. International Safety Management
  • D. Internal Security Management
Answer: C — International Safety Management
ISM stands for International Safety Management. The ISM Code, made mandatory by SOLAS Chapter IX, provides an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention.

Set 14 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The distance a vessel moves at right angles to the original course when a turn of 180° has been completed is called the ____.

  • A. Advance
  • B. Pivoting point
  • C. Tactical diameter
  • D. Kick
Answer: C — Tactical diameter
Tactical diameter is the transfer measured when the ship's heading has altered by 180°, i.e. the perpendicular distance between the original track and the ship's position on completion of the half turn. It is a key figure on the manoeuvring data sheet.

2. Which deck officer is in charge of cargo operations?

  • A. Master
  • B. Second Officer
  • C. Third Officer
  • D. Chief Officer
Answer: D — Chief Officer
The Chief Officer is the head of the deck department under the Master and is responsible for planning and supervising cargo loading, discharging, stowage, ballasting and stability, assisted by the other deck officers on watch.

3. The figure obtained by dividing the total enclosed volume of the ship in cubic feet (after omission of exempted spaces) by 100 is the ____.

  • A. Bale cubic
  • B. Gross tonnage
  • C. Light displacement
  • D. Net tonnage
Answer: B — Gross tonnage
Under the traditional Moorsom system one register ton equals 100 cubic feet, so gross tonnage was the total enclosed volume in cubic feet divided by 100. Net tonnage further deducts non-earning spaces. The 1969 Tonnage Convention now uses a formula based on volume.

4. In relation to the turning circle of a ship, the term transfer means the distance ____.

  • A. Gained in the direction of the original course
  • B. Gained at right angles to the original course
  • C. The ship moves sideways away from the direction of the turn after the rudder is first put over
  • D. Around the circumference of the turning circle
Answer: B — Gained at right angles to the original course
Transfer is the distance the ship's centre of gravity moves at right angles to the original course, usually quoted for a 90° alteration of heading. Distance along the original course is advance, and the initial sideways movement away from the turn is kick.

5. The IAMSAR Manual provides guidelines for a common aviation and maritime approach to organising and providing ____ services.

  • A. Oil spill clean-up
  • B. Search and rescue
  • C. Salvage
  • D. Pilotage
Answer: B — Search and rescue
The International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual, jointly published by IMO and ICAO, gives guidelines for a common aviation and maritime approach to organising and providing search and rescue services. Volume III is carried on board ships.

6. What is the minimum number of two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus for survival craft required on a cargo ship of 500 GT and above?

  • A. One
  • B. Two
  • C. Three
  • D. Four
Answer: C — Three
SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 6 requires at least three two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus on every passenger ship and every cargo ship of 500 gross tonnage and above, and at least two on cargo ships of 300 to 500 gross tonnage.

7. After the receiver receives the message, he or she should give ____.

  • A. Feedback
  • B. Suggestions
  • C. Clues
  • D. Silence
Answer: A — Feedback
Communication is a two-way process: the receiver confirms understanding by giving feedback to the sender. On board, closed-loop communication with read-back of orders reduces errors, especially in bridge and engine room operations.

8. People do not understand what you are saying. This means your message lacks ____.

  • A. Clarity
  • B. Completeness
  • C. Consistency
  • D. Punctuality
Answer: A — Clarity
Clarity means the message is expressed in simple, specific language so the receiver understands exactly what is meant. If people do not understand you, the message lacks clarity, which is one of the essential qualities of effective communication.

9. Barriers to good communication result ____.

  • A. Only because of the receiver's fault
  • B. From encryption and decryption of information in the process of communication
  • C. From poor encoding and decoding of information in the process of communication
  • D. Only from the sender's choice of language
Answer: C — From poor encoding and decoding of information in the process of communication
In the communication process the sender encodes an idea into a message and the receiver decodes it. Poor encoding or decoding, due to language, noise, assumptions or emotions, creates barriers. Blame does not lie with only one party.

10. Pushing the shoulders ____ and the chest ____ demonstrates power.

  • A. Front, in
  • B. Side, tilted
  • C. Back, out
  • D. Down, in
Answer: C — Back, out
In body language, standing with shoulders back and chest out is an open, expansive posture that projects confidence, authority and power. Hunched shoulders with the chest drawn in signal insecurity or submission.

11. Non-verbal communication is an inevitable part of our ____.

  • A. Personality
  • B. Face
  • C. Body
  • D. Clothing
Answer: A — Personality
Non-verbal behaviour such as posture, gestures, facial expression and tone is continuous and largely unconscious, so it is an inseparable part of a person's personality and is always communicating something to others.

12. When you communicate with your client, always do more ____ than talking.

  • A. Reading
  • B. Writing
  • C. Listening
  • D. Gesturing
Answer: C — Listening
Effective communicators listen more than they talk. Active listening helps to understand the other person's needs and concerns, builds trust and avoids misunderstandings, whether dealing with clients, crew members or shore staff.

13. Non-verbal communication helps you to make the best first ____.

  • A. Behaviour
  • B. Mannerism
  • C. Impression
  • D. Attitude
Answer: C — Impression
People form a first impression within seconds, largely from non-verbal cues such as posture, eye contact, facial expression, dress and handshake. Using positive body language helps make that first impression a good one.

14. If the compass bearing of an approaching vessel remains steady, there is ____.

  • A. No risk of collision
  • B. A risk of collision
  • C. No change in the radar picture
  • D. A risk of collision only at night
Answer: B — A risk of collision
COLREG Rule 7 states that risk of collision shall be deemed to exist if the compass bearing of an approaching vessel does not appreciably change. A steady relative bearing on a steady course means the same, and action to avoid collision is required.

15. Non-verbal communication is the ____ of messages other than by verbal or written means.

  • A. Distribution
  • B. Transmission
  • C. Submission
  • D. Suppression
Answer: B — Transmission
Non-verbal communication is the transmission of messages through means other than spoken or written words, such as facial expressions, gestures, posture, eye contact, tone of voice and personal space.

16. When you learn to pay ____ to body language, you can understand what the other person is trying to convey.

  • A. Attention
  • B. Impression
  • C. Importance
  • D. Respect
Answer: A — Attention
Paying attention to body language, such as facial expression, posture and gestures, lets you read feelings and intentions that may not be spoken, giving a fuller understanding of the message the other person is trying to convey.

17. Non-verbal communication is the world ____ words.

  • A. Behind
  • B. Beyond
  • C. In front of
  • D. Before
Answer: B — Beyond
Non-verbal communication is often described as the world beyond words because it conveys meaning through gestures, posture, expression and tone, communicating emotions and attitudes that words alone may not express.

18. ____ denotes the capacity of an individual to record, retain and reproduce information.

  • A. Brain
  • B. Memory
  • C. Data
  • D. Intelligence
Answer: B — Memory
Memory is the mental capacity to encode (record), store (retain) and retrieve (reproduce) information. Effective note making and study techniques aim to improve these three stages of memory.

19. A smiling face indicates the friendly nature of a person's ____.

  • A. Speech
  • B. Activities
  • C. Character
  • D. Clothing
Answer: C — Character
A genuine smile is a universal non-verbal signal of warmth and approachability and is read by others as an indication of a friendly character. It helps build rapport and trust in teams on board.

20. Our bodily actions are as strong as the ____ that we use in communication.

  • A. Words
  • B. Voice
  • C. Actions
  • D. Silence
Answer: A — Words
Body language carries as much weight as the words we speak; when gestures and posture contradict the spoken words, listeners tend to believe the non-verbal message. Words and actions should therefore be consistent.

21. ____ held apart when standing indicates a relaxed pose and also signals confidence.

  • A. Arms
  • B. Hands
  • C. Legs
  • D. Fingers
Answer: C — Legs
Standing with the legs comfortably apart gives a stable, open stance that is read as relaxed and confident. Crossed legs or tightly closed stances while standing tend to signal nervousness or defensiveness.

22. Frequent interruptions on the part of the speaker can ____.

  • A. Lead to effective listening
  • B. Have importance in listening
  • C. Impede listening
  • D. Improve understanding
Answer: C — Impede listening
Frequent interruptions break the flow of the message and distract the listener, making it difficult to follow and understand what is being said. Interruptions are a common barrier to effective listening.

23. What should you maintain with your audience?

  • A. Body language
  • B. Eye contact
  • C. Communication
  • D. Silence
Answer: B — Eye contact
Maintaining eye contact with the audience shows confidence, sincerity and attention, keeps listeners engaged and lets the speaker read their reactions. It is one of the most important non-verbal skills in presentations and briefings.

24. How many departments are there on board a typical merchant vessel?

  • A. Two - ratings and officers
  • B. Two - crew and officers
  • C. Three - engine department, deck department and saloon or steward department
  • D. One - all crew under the Master
Answer: C — Three - engine department, deck department and saloon or steward department
A merchant ship is traditionally organised into three departments: the deck department under the Chief Officer, the engine department under the Chief Engineer, and the saloon or catering department under the Chief Cook or Chief Steward, all under the Master.

25. As per the MARPOL Annex I definition, a special area means ____.

  • A. A sea area where, for recognised technical reasons relating to its oceanographical and ecological condition and traffic, special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution by oil are required
  • B. Any sea area within 12 nautical miles of the nearest land
  • C. An area declared by a port State for bunkering operations only
  • D. An area where oil discharge is permitted at any rate while en route
Answer: A — A sea area where, for recognised technical reasons relating to its oceanographical and ecological condition and traffic, special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution by oil are required
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 1 defines a special area as a sea area where, for recognised technical reasons in relation to its oceanographical and ecological condition and the particular character of its traffic, the adoption of special mandatory methods for the prevention of sea pollution by oil is required.

26. As per SOLAS, onboard training of crew members in the use of the ship's life-saving and fire-extinguishing appliances shall be given as soon as possible but not later than ____ after joining the ship.

  • A. 24 hours
  • B. 1 week
  • C. 2 weeks
  • D. 1 month
Answer: C — 2 weeks
SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 19 requires onboard training in the use of the ship's life-saving appliances, including survival craft equipment, and fire-extinguishing appliances as soon as possible but not later than two weeks after a crew member joins the ship.

27. Operational discharge of noxious liquid substances (chemicals) from ships can only be carried out in accordance with which MARPOL Annex?

  • A. Annex I
  • B. Annex II
  • C. Annex III
  • D. Annex V
Answer: B — Annex II
MARPOL Annex II regulates the control of pollution by noxious liquid substances in bulk. Discharge of residues of chemicals is permitted only under its conditions, such as minimum distance from land, depth of water, ship speed and the use of approved procedures.

28. The parent instrument for the mandatory ISM Code is ____.

  • A. SOLAS Chapter IX
  • B. SOLAS Chapter XI-2
  • C. MARPOL Annex VI
  • D. STCW Chapter VIII
Answer: A — SOLAS Chapter IX
The ISM Code is made mandatory through SOLAS Chapter IX, Management for the Safe Operation of Ships. SOLAS Chapter XI-2 is the parent instrument for the ISPS Code.

29. Ballast water exchange should be carried out in water of at least ____ metres depth.

  • A. 50
  • B. 100
  • C. 200
  • D. 500
Answer: C — 200
Under the Ballast Water Management Convention, Regulation B-4, ships conducting exchange should do so at least 200 nautical miles from the nearest land and in water at least 200 metres deep, or failing that at least 50 nautical miles from land in 200 metres depth.

30. What is the main danger when working on oily surfaces?

  • A. Slipping and falling
  • B. Electric shock
  • C. Asphyxiation
  • D. Radiation exposure
Answer: A — Slipping and falling
Oil and grease on decks, ladders and engine room plates reduce friction, so slips, trips and falls are the main hazard. Spills should be cleaned at once, absorbent material used and suitable safety footwear worn.

Set 15 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Liability for damage suffered by a passenger carried on a vessel is governed by the ____.

  • A. Athens Convention
  • B. Hague-Visby Rules
  • C. Civil Liability Convention (CLC)
  • D. Salvage Convention 1989
Answer: A — Athens Convention
The Athens Convention relating to the Carriage of Passengers and their Luggage by Sea establishes the carrier's liability for death of or personal injury to passengers and loss of or damage to luggage. Hague-Visby Rules cover cargo and CLC covers oil pollution damage.

2. If you were put in charge of a fire team, what is the minimum number of men wearing BA sets that you would allow to enter a space?

  • A. 1 man
  • B. 2 men
  • C. 3 men
  • D. 4 men
Answer: B — 2 men
BA wearers should never enter a smoke-filled space alone. They work in pairs on the buddy system so that each can monitor and assist the other, maintaining communication with the BA control point outside.

3. As per the MARPOL Annex I definition, a combination carrier means a ship designed to carry ____.

  • A. Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
  • B. Oil and containers simultaneously
  • C. Only liquefied gases
  • D. Chemicals and vehicles
Answer: A — Either oil or solid cargoes in bulk
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 1 defines a combination carrier as a ship designed to carry either oil or solid cargoes in bulk, such as OBO and ore/oil carriers.

4. Strategic napping as a short-term fatigue relief technique is most effective if it is ____.

  • A. 10 to 15 minutes long
  • B. 45 to 60 minutes long
  • C. 1.5 to 2 hours long
  • D. 3 to 4 hours long
Answer: A — 10 to 15 minutes long
A short nap of about 10 to 15 minutes restores alertness without the person entering deep sleep. Longer naps risk sleep inertia, a period of grogginess and impaired performance on waking, which is hazardous when returning to watch.

5. The parent instrument of the IMO is the ____.

  • A. Convention on the International Maritime Organization, 1948
  • B. SOLAS Convention, 1974
  • C. UNCLOS, 1982
  • D. MARPOL Convention, 1973/78
Answer: A — Convention on the International Maritime Organization, 1948
The IMO was established by the Convention on the International Maritime Organization adopted in Geneva in 1948, which entered into force in 1958. SOLAS, MARPOL and other conventions are instruments adopted by the IMO, not its parent instrument.

6. Note making is difficult because ____.

  • A. Written language is different from spoken language
  • B. Speakers always speak very slowly
  • C. Notes must always be written in full sentences
  • D. Listening requires no attention
Answer: A — Written language is different from spoken language
Spoken language is fast, repetitive and informal, whereas notes must condense ideas into concise written form. Converting spoken words into organised written notes while still listening makes note making difficult.

7. Disposal of used or expired chemical containers should be done ____.

  • A. As per the manufacturer's instructions
  • B. By throwing them overboard
  • C. By burning them in the galley
  • D. By leaving them in the chemical store indefinitely
Answer: A — As per the manufacturer's instructions
Chemical containers may hold hazardous residues, so they must be handled as per the manufacturer's instructions and safety data sheet, and landed to port reception facilities in accordance with MARPOL Annex V and the ship's garbage management plan.

8. Drills must be held within ____ of leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in abandon ship and fire drills on board that ship in the previous month.

  • A. 12 hours
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 48 hours
  • D. 1 week
Answer: B — 24 hours
SOLAS Chapter III, Regulation 19.3.2 requires that if more than 25% of the crew have not participated in abandon ship and fire drills on board that particular ship in the previous month, the drills shall be held within 24 hours of the ship leaving port.

9. What is pollution?

  • A. The introduction of contaminants into the natural environment that cause adverse change
  • B. Any change in sea water temperature due to weather
  • C. The natural movement of sediment in rivers
  • D. The discharge of clean ballast water
Answer: A — The introduction of contaminants into the natural environment that cause adverse change
Pollution is the introduction by humans of substances or energy into the environment that cause harmful or adverse effects to living resources, human health or amenities. MARPOL aims to prevent such pollution from ships by oil, chemicals, sewage, garbage and air emissions.

10. The ISM Code is ____.

  • A. The standard for establishing a system for safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention
  • B. A code for the security of ships and port facilities
  • C. A code for the carriage of dangerous goods in packaged form
  • D. A standard for training and certification of seafarers
Answer: A — The standard for establishing a system for safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention
The International Safety Management Code provides an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention. Security is covered by the ISPS Code, dangerous goods by the IMDG Code and training by STCW.

11. If the engine of a lifeboat does not start, check to see ____.

  • A. That the fuel valve is open
  • B. That the sea anchor is streamed
  • C. That the painter is released
  • D. That the bilge plug is removed
Answer: A — That the fuel valve is open
A closed fuel valve is one of the most common reasons a lifeboat engine fails to start. The fuel supply, fuel level, battery and starting system should be checked during regular inspections and before attempting to start.

12. The weight of liquefied petroleum gas vapour compared to air is ____.

  • A. Heavier
  • B. Lighter
  • C. The same
  • D. Variable, always lighter at night
Answer: A — Heavier
LPG components such as propane and butane have vapour densities about 1.5 to 2 times that of air, so leaking vapour sinks and collects in low spaces such as bilges and pump rooms, creating fire and asphyxiation hazards.

13. What is a key reason for adopting the ISM Code?

  • A. It provides for safe working practices and develops a safe environment on board ship
  • B. It reduces the number of crew required on board
  • C. It replaces the need for flag State surveys
  • D. It sets freight rates for shipping companies
Answer: A — It provides for safe working practices and develops a safe environment on board ship
The ISM Code was adopted following major casualties linked to poor management. Its objectives include providing safe practices in ship operation and a safe working environment, assessing risks and establishing safeguards, and continuously improving safety management skills.

14. What is the spoken emergency signal for distress over VHF radio?

  • A. MAYDAY
  • B. PAN PAN
  • C. SECURITE
  • D. SEELONCE
Answer: A — MAYDAY
MAYDAY, spoken three times, is the radiotelephone distress signal indicating grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. PAN PAN is the urgency signal and SECURITE the safety signal.

15. The Master discusses with the ____ any issue that needs shore assistance.

  • A. Superintendent
  • B. Pilot
  • C. Ship chandler
  • D. Harbour master
Answer: A — Superintendent
The ship's superintendent in the company office is the Master's main shore contact for technical and operational matters, arranging repairs, spares, services and other shore support needed by the ship.

16. Which of the following is against MARPOL regulations?

  • A. Pumping untreated oily bilge water overboard
  • B. Landing garbage to port reception facilities
  • C. Recording operations in the Oil Record Book
  • D. Using the oily water separator with a 15 ppm alarm
Answer: A — Pumping untreated oily bilge water overboard
MARPOL Annex I prohibits discharge of oily mixtures from machinery spaces unless processed through approved oil filtering equipment with an oil content not exceeding 15 ppm, en route and outside special-area restrictions. Pumping untreated bilges overboard is a violation.

17. The most frequent incidents of tanker pollution occur during ____.

  • A. Loading and discharging
  • B. Tank cleaning at sea
  • C. Dry-docking
  • D. Crew change
Answer: A — Loading and discharging
Statistics compiled by ITOPF show that the majority of oil spills from tankers, mostly small ones, occur during routine operations such as loading, discharging and bunkering, often from hose or valve failures and overflows.

18. The maximum hours of work for a seafarer shall not exceed ____.

  • A. 72 hours in any 7-day period
  • B. 84 hours in any 7-day period
  • C. 91 hours in any 7-day period
  • D. 98 hours in any 7-day period
Answer: A — 72 hours in any 7-day period
MLC 2006 Standard A2.3 limits maximum hours of work to 14 hours in any 24-hour period and 72 hours in any 7-day period, as an alternative to minimum rest hours of 10 in 24 and 77 in 7 days.

19. When a survival craft is supplied with bottles of compressed air, they are used for ____.

  • A. An air supply for the occupants and engine
  • B. Inflating the liferafts
  • C. Operating the water spray system
  • D. Firing the line-throwing apparatus
Answer: A — An air supply for the occupants and engine
A lifeboat with a self-contained air support system has compressed air cylinders that supply safe, breathable air to the occupants and the engine for at least 10 minutes with all openings closed, as required by the LSA Code chapter IV.

20. According to COLREG Rule 5, a proper lookout must be maintained by ____.

  • A. Sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate to the circumstances
  • B. Radar only
  • C. Sight only during daylight
  • D. AIS and ECDIS only
Answer: A — Sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate to the circumstances
COLREG Rule 5 requires every vessel to maintain a proper lookout at all times by sight and hearing as well as by all available means appropriate in the prevailing circumstances, so as to make a full appraisal of the situation and the risk of collision.

21. The daily rest period may be divided into no more than two periods, ____.

  • A. One of which shall be at least 6 hours in length
  • B. Each of which shall be at least 3 hours
  • C. One of which shall be at least 4 hours
  • D. Both of which shall be at least 8 hours
Answer: A — One of which shall be at least 6 hours in length
STCW Regulation VIII/1 and MLC 2006 allow the minimum 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period to be divided into no more than two periods, one of which shall be at least 6 hours, with no more than 14 hours between consecutive rest periods.

22. How many annexes are there in MARPOL?

  • A. 4
  • B. 5
  • C. 6
  • D. 7
Answer: C — 6
MARPOL 73/78 has six annexes: I oil, II noxious liquid substances, III harmful substances in packaged form, IV sewage, V garbage and VI air pollution from ships.

23. Graceful posture is a great ____ in any profession.

  • A. Asset
  • B. Liability
  • C. Burden
  • D. Weakness
Answer: A — Asset
Good posture conveys confidence, competence and professionalism, creating a positive impression on colleagues, superiors and clients. It is therefore an asset in any profession, including at sea.

24. All seafarers have a minimum annual leave with pay calculated on the basis of ____.

  • A. 2.5 calendar days per month of employment
  • B. 1 day per month of employment
  • C. 5 days per month of employment
  • D. 15 days per year regardless of service
Answer: A — 2.5 calendar days per month of employment
MLC 2006 Standard A2.4 requires paid annual leave to be calculated on the basis of a minimum of 2.5 calendar days per month of employment, pro rata for incomplete months.

25. Your vessel is taking on fuel oil when a small leak develops in the hose and you have ordered pumping stopped. What should you do next?

  • A. Replace the hose
  • B. Tape the leak and resume pumping
  • C. Resume pumping at a reduced rate
  • D. Wash the leaked oil overboard
Answer: A — Replace the hose
A leaking bunker hose is defective and must not be used again. After stopping pumping and containing any spill on deck, the hose should be drained and replaced with a sound, tested hose before bunkering resumes. Washing oil overboard violates MARPOL.

26. Sewage which is not comminuted or disinfected cannot be discharged at a distance of less than how many nautical miles from the nearest land?

  • A. 3
  • B. 4
  • C. 12
  • D. 25
Answer: C — 12
MARPOL Annex IV Regulation 11 permits discharge of sewage which is not comminuted or disinfected only at more than 12 nautical miles from the nearest land, with the ship en route at not less than 4 knots. Comminuted and disinfected sewage may be discharged beyond 3 nautical miles.

27. When taking fuel oil, it is important to know that petroleum vapours are ____.

  • A. Heavier than air and may settle in compartments and low areas of the ship such as bilges
  • B. Lighter than air and disperse upwards quickly
  • C. The same density as air and always non-flammable
  • D. Only dangerous when visible as smoke
Answer: A — Heavier than air and may settle in compartments and low areas of the ship such as bilges
Petroleum vapours are generally denser than air, so they can accumulate in bilges, pump rooms and other low or enclosed spaces, creating fire, explosion and toxic hazards. Ventilation and avoiding ignition sources are essential during bunkering.

28. Positive recognition for job performance is ____

  • A. Used to discipline team members who make mistakes
  • B. Used to help team members feel valued and motivated to keep performing well
  • C. Only given once a year during the formal appraisal
  • D. Unnecessary if wages are paid on time
Answer: B — Used to help team members feel valued and motivated to keep performing well
Positive recognition reinforces good work and builds self-esteem and motivation, which improves morale and teamwork on board. It is an informal, ongoing tool, not a disciplinary measure and not limited to annual appraisals.

29. The oily water separator should stop discharging overboard if the oil content of the effluent exceeds ____

  • A. 100 ppm
  • B. 50 ppm
  • C. 15 ppm
  • D. 5 ppm
Answer: C — 15 ppm
MARPOL Annex I Regulation 15 limits machinery-space oily bilge discharge to an oil content not exceeding 15 ppm. The 15 ppm alarm and automatic stopping device must stop or divert the overboard discharge when this limit is exceeded.

30. Which of the following is the first thing to do before commencing cargo operations on an oil tanker?

  • A. Open all cargo tank lids for ventilation
  • B. Ship and terminal complete the Ship/Shore Safety Checklist
  • C. Start the cargo pumps at full rate
  • D. Remove the scuppers plugs
Answer: B — Ship and terminal complete the Ship/Shore Safety Checklist
ISGOTT requires the ship and terminal to jointly complete the Ship/Shore Safety Checklist before cargo operations start, confirming communications, emergency stops, moorings, scupper plugs and other safety items are agreed and in place.

Set 16 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. The human element on board a ship means ____

  • A. The design of the ship's hull
  • B. Human behaviour and performance affecting safety
  • C. The number of crew carried
  • D. The automation level of the engine room
Answer: B — Human behaviour and performance affecting safety
The human element refers to human behaviour, capabilities and limitations, such as fatigue, communication and decision-making, which IMO recognises as a major factor in most marine casualties and addresses through STCW, ISM and the MLC.

2. If it were required to abandon ship, you would ____

  • A. Look after your own belongings first
  • B. Assist passengers into the liferaft or water as per your muster duties
  • C. Wait in your cabin for further instructions
  • D. Jump overboard immediately from the highest deck
Answer: B — Assist passengers into the liferaft or water as per your muster duties
On the abandon ship signal, crew carry out their muster-list duties, which include assisting and guiding passengers safely into survival craft or the water. Collecting belongings, waiting in cabins or jumping from excessive height wastes time and endangers life.

3. Oil Record Book Part II is for recording ____

  • A. Machinery space operations
  • B. Cargo and ballast operations
  • C. Garbage disposal
  • D. Sewage discharge
Answer: B — Cargo and ballast operations
MARPOL Annex I requires oil tankers of 150 GT and above to carry Oil Record Book Part II for cargo and ballast operations, such as loading, discharge, tank cleaning and ballasting. Part I covers machinery space operations.

4. While your vessel is taking fuel oil, you notice oil on the water around the vessel. What should you do first?

  • A. Inform the port authority by email
  • B. Stop taking fuel oil
  • C. Start the oily water separator
  • D. Spray dispersant on the oil
Answer: B — Stop taking fuel oil
The first action on discovering a spill during bunkering is to stop the transfer to cut off the source. After that, raise the alarm, inform the terminal/supplier and authorities and start SOPEP response procedures.

5. Discharge or transfer of garbage to a port reception facility while in port must be ____

  • A. Recorded in the Garbage Record Book
  • B. Recorded only if it exceeds one cubic metre
  • C. Reported only to the agent
  • D. Not recorded since it is ashore
Answer: A — Recorded in the Garbage Record Book
MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10 requires every discharge to a reception facility to be entered in the Garbage Record Book with date, time, port, category and estimated amount, and the reception facility receipt should be retained.

6. Many hazards exist on a ship. A seafarer's obligation to safety when working with others is ____

  • A. Only during working hours
  • B. Only when supervised
  • C. Continuous
  • D. Only during drills
Answer: C — Continuous
Safety is a continuous personal and collective obligation. Under the ISM Code and the Code of Safe Working Practices, every seafarer must look after his own safety and that of others at all times, on and off duty.

7. Annex VI of MARPOL deals with ____

  • A. Prevention of pollution by sewage
  • B. Prevention of air pollution from ships
  • C. Prevention of pollution by garbage
  • D. Prevention of pollution by oil
Answer: B — Prevention of air pollution from ships
MARPOL Annex VI, adopted in 1997, covers the prevention of air pollution from ships, including limits on SOx, NOx, ozone-depleting substances, shipboard incineration and energy-efficiency requirements.

8. When transferring fuel oil from a supply vessel to your ship, if you close off one tank in a line of tanks being filled, the flow rate to the other open tanks on the same line will ____

  • A. Decrease
  • B. Increase
  • C. Remain the same
  • D. Stop completely
Answer: B — Increase
With the same pumping rate from the supplier, closing one tank valve forces the whole flow into the remaining open tanks, so their filling rate increases. This can cause overflow, so valves must be changed carefully and the supplier advised.

9. Under the duty of care, a seafarer ____

  • A. Need not worry about loose clothing near machinery
  • B. Must always ensure that loose hair and clothing are secured
  • C. May remove guards to work faster
  • D. Is responsible only for his own department
Answer: B — Must always ensure that loose hair and clothing are secured
The duty of care requires a seafarer to avoid creating hazards for himself and others. Loose hair or clothing can be caught in rotating machinery, so the Code of Safe Working Practices requires it to be secured.

10. Problem solving, improvements in methodology and relationships, and greater productivity are signs of ____

  • A. Poor leadership
  • B. Good communication
  • C. High stress levels
  • D. Excessive workload
Answer: B — Good communication
Effective communication allows information and ideas to flow clearly between team members, which leads to better problem solving, improved methods and relationships and higher productivity on board.

11. Disposal of comminuted or ground food waste outside a special area is permitted ____

  • A. At not less than 12 nm from the nearest land, ship en route
  • B. At not less than 3 nm from the nearest land, ship en route and as far as practicable
  • C. At any distance, even alongside
  • D. Only at port reception facilities
Answer: B — At not less than 3 nm from the nearest land, ship en route and as far as practicable
MARPOL Annex V Regulation 4 allows comminuted or ground food waste (passing a 25 mm screen) to be discharged outside special areas not less than 3 nm from the nearest land, with the ship en route. Unground food waste requires 12 nm.

12. Wearing a lifejacket, what is the maximum safe height above the water from which you can jump?

  • A. 1.5 metres
  • B. 2.5 metres
  • C. 4.5 metres
  • D. 10 metres
Answer: C — 4.5 metres
The LSA Code requires a lifejacket to allow the wearer to jump into the water from a height of at least 4.5 metres without injury or dislodging or damaging the lifejacket, so 4.5 m is taken as the maximum safe jump height.

13. Alcoholic hepatitis is the effect of alcohol on the ____

  • A. Kidneys
  • B. Lungs
  • C. Liver
  • D. Heart
Answer: C — Liver
Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver. Heavy and prolonged alcohol consumption damages liver cells, causing alcoholic hepatitis, which can progress to cirrhosis and liver failure.

14. Stress is considered to be a ____ condition.

  • A. Purely physical
  • B. Mental and physiological
  • C. Purely genetic
  • D. Contagious
Answer: B — Mental and physiological
Stress affects both the mind and the body. Mentally it causes anxiety, irritability and poor concentration, while physiologically it raises heart rate, blood pressure and hormone levels, so it is described as a mental and physiological condition.

15. A line-throwing appliance is used ____

  • A. To moor the ship alongside a jetty
  • B. To make a connection between a distressed ship and another vessel or shore to pass a line
  • C. To launch the rescue boat
  • D. To signal distress at night
Answer: B — To make a connection between a distressed ship and another vessel or shore to pass a line
The line-throwing appliance required by SOLAS III and the LSA Code projects a line a distance of at least 230 m, allowing a connection to be made with another ship or shore so that heavier lines, such as towing lines, can be passed.

16. Communication is ____

  • A. Simply the act of transferring information from one place, person or group to another
  • B. Only written messages between departments
  • C. Only orders from senior to junior officers
  • D. The use of radio equipment
Answer: A — Simply the act of transferring information from one place, person or group to another
Communication in its simplest definition is the transfer of information from one place, person or group to another, by spoken words, writing, signals or body language. It always involves a sender, a message and a receiver.

17. How often should immersion suits and thermal protective aids be inspected?

  • A. Monthly
  • B. Every two years
  • C. Every five years
  • D. Only after use
Answer: A — Monthly
SOLAS III Regulation 20 requires life-saving appliances to be inspected monthly against a checklist, and IMO guidance on immersion suits (MSC/Circ.1047) calls for monthly inspection of suits and thermal protective aids for damage, zips and accessories.

18. Every communication involves ____

  • A. At least one sender, a message and a recipient
  • B. Only a sender
  • C. Only a written record
  • D. At least two languages
Answer: A — At least one sender, a message and a recipient
Every communication process has at minimum a sender who encodes the message, the message itself carried through a channel, and a recipient who decodes it. Feedback from the recipient confirms understanding.

19. Listening comprehension refers to ____

  • A. Speaking clearly
  • B. Understanding an oral message
  • C. Writing reports
  • D. Reading charts
Answer: B — Understanding an oral message
Listening comprehension is the ability to receive, understand and interpret a spoken message correctly. It is essential on board for correctly following orders, helm commands and safety instructions.

20. The person steering the ship when required is normally the ____

  • A. Chief cook
  • B. Able seaman (helmsman)
  • C. Chief engineer
  • D. Radio officer
Answer: B — Able seaman (helmsman)
Steering is a duty of the deck ratings forming part of the navigational watch. An able seaman or watch rating qualified under STCW II/4 or II/5 acts as helmsman under the direction of the officer of the watch.

21. Amphetamine is a ____ and an appetite suppressant.

  • A. Depressant
  • B. Stimulant
  • C. Hallucinogen
  • D. Sedative
Answer: B — Stimulant
Amphetamines are central nervous system stimulants that increase alertness and suppress appetite. Misuse leads to dependence, sleep disturbance and impaired judgement, which is why drug policies on board prohibit them.

22. The parent instrument for the IMO is ____

  • A. SOLAS Convention
  • B. The IMO Convention
  • C. MARPOL Convention
  • D. UNCLOS
Answer: B — The IMO Convention
The IMO was established by the Convention on the Intergovernmental Maritime Consultative Organization adopted in Geneva in 1948, now called the IMO Convention. It is the parent instrument that created the organisation, which later adopted SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW.

23. Verbal communication refers to ____

  • A. Use of gestures and facial expressions
  • B. Use of symbols in the form of spoken words to transmit a message
  • C. Use of flags and lights
  • D. Use of written charts only
Answer: B — Use of symbols in the form of spoken words to transmit a message
Verbal communication uses spoken words to transmit a message, for example face-to-face orders, radio and telephone conversations. Gestures, posture and facial expressions are forms of non-verbal communication.

24. What is the difference between net tonnage and gross tonnage?

  • A. Net tonnage is the weight of cargo carried
  • B. Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces
  • C. Net tonnage is always larger than gross tonnage
  • D. There is no difference
Answer: B — Net tonnage is the gross tonnage less certain deductible spaces
Gross tonnage measures the total enclosed volume of the ship. Net tonnage measures the useful earning capacity, obtained by excluding non-earning spaces such as crew accommodation, machinery and navigation spaces, so it is the gross tonnage less deductible spaces.

25. Which of the following would probably NOT be a helpful way to deal with stress?

  • A. Regular physical exercise
  • B. Getting adequate sleep
  • C. Spending less time talking about problems with friends and family
  • D. Practising relaxation techniques
Answer: C — Spending less time talking about problems with friends and family
Sharing problems with friends and family provides social support, which reduces stress. Withdrawing and avoiding such conversations isolates a person and usually makes stress worse, whereas exercise, sleep and relaxation help.

26. Which of the following causes stress?

  • A. Financial problems only
  • B. Social problems only
  • C. Neither financial nor social problems
  • D. Both financial and social problems
Answer: D — Both financial and social problems
Stress can arise from many sources, including financial worries such as debts and family expenses, and social problems such as family separation, relationships and isolation on board. Both are recognised stressors for seafarers.

27. Interpersonal communication is ____

  • A. Self-talk or thinking
  • B. Communication between two or more people
  • C. Communication through mass media
  • D. A public speech to a large audience
Answer: B — Communication between two or more people
Interpersonal communication is the exchange of information, feelings and meaning between two or more people, face to face or by other means. Self-talk or thinking is intrapersonal communication.

28. As a stress management tool, being practical requires that you ____

  • A. Set realistic goals
  • B. Take on every task offered
  • C. Work without breaks
  • D. Ignore your limitations
Answer: A — Set realistic goals
Being practical means accepting your limits and setting achievable, realistic goals. Unrealistic expectations lead to repeated failure and frustration, which increases stress rather than managing it.

29. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of stress?

  • A. Headaches
  • B. Irritability
  • C. Sleeplessness
  • D. Self-esteem
Answer: D — Self-esteem
Headaches, irritability and sleep disturbance are common physical and emotional symptoms of stress. Self-esteem is a positive self-regard and is not a symptom; in fact, stress tends to lower it.

30. After transferring fuel to another vessel, hoses should be drained ____

  • A. Overboard
  • B. Into the drip tray at the manifold
  • C. Onto the deck and washed into scuppers
  • D. Into the bilges of the receiving vessel
Answer: B — Into the drip tray at the manifold
Hoses still contain oil after transfer. Draining them into the manifold drip tray or a slop tank prevents oil from escaping onto deck or overboard, as required by bunkering procedures and MARPOL Annex I pollution prevention.

Set 17 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Public communication refers to ____

  • A. Public speeches that we deliver in front of audiences
  • B. Talking to oneself
  • C. A conversation between two friends
  • D. Sending a private email
Answer: A — Public speeches that we deliver in front of audiences
Public communication is when one speaker addresses an audience, such as a briefing, speech or presentation. It differs from interpersonal communication between individuals and from mass communication through media.

2. Which of the following statements is NOT true when you try to control others?

  • A. It creates resentment
  • B. It increases your own stress
  • C. It gives you peace of mind
  • D. It damages relationships
Answer: C — It gives you peace of mind
Trying to control other people's behaviour usually fails, creating frustration, resentment and conflict. It increases stress rather than giving peace of mind; it is better to focus on what you can control, namely your own actions.

3. A vessel in distress using radiotelephony should send the two-tone alarm signal, immediately followed by ____

  • A. The word PAN PAN spoken three times
  • B. The word SECURITE spoken three times
  • C. The word MAYDAY spoken three times
  • D. The ship's call sign only
Answer: C — The word MAYDAY spoken three times
The radiotelephone alarm signal is used to attract attention and is followed by the distress call, the word MAYDAY spoken three times, then the ship's identity, and then the distress message with position and nature of distress.

4. Mass communication refers to ____

  • A. Any type of media used to communicate with mass audiences
  • B. Communication between two crew members
  • C. Talking to oneself
  • D. Hand signals during mooring
Answer: A — Any type of media used to communicate with mass audiences
Mass communication transmits information to large, dispersed audiences through media such as newspapers, television, radio and the internet. It is distinguished from interpersonal and public communication by the use of media.

5. The radar mast of a ship is located on ____

  • A. The forecastle
  • B. The monkey island
  • C. The poop deck
  • D. The engine casing
Answer: B — The monkey island
The monkey island is the uppermost deck above the wheelhouse. It carries the radar scanners, masthead lights, standard compass and other antennas, giving them the highest unobstructed position.

6. A barrier to communication is ____

  • A. Anything that hinders the process of communication
  • B. A clear and simple message
  • C. Feedback from the receiver
  • D. A common working language
Answer: A — Anything that hinders the process of communication
A communication barrier is anything that distorts or blocks the message between sender and receiver, such as noise, language differences, cultural differences, emotions or poor listening. These must be overcome for safe operations.

7. What should be used to protect the face from injury when sparks are generated?

  • A. Ear muffs
  • B. Face shield
  • C. Safety shoes
  • D. Dust mask
Answer: B — Face shield
Grinding, chipping and hot work produce flying sparks and particles. A face shield, worn with safety goggles where required, protects the face and eyes, as recommended in the Code of Safe Working Practices.

8. Effective listening skills are ____

  • A. The ability to actively understand information provided by the speaker and display interest in the topic
  • B. The ability to speak loudly
  • C. The ability to interrupt to give your view
  • D. The ability to remember only the first sentence
Answer: A — The ability to actively understand information provided by the speaker and display interest in the topic
Effective listening is active: giving full attention, understanding the speaker's message, showing interest and asking for clarification when needed. It reduces misunderstandings, which is vital for safe shipboard work.

9. Interpersonal relationship refers to ____

  • A. A strong association among individuals working together in the same organisation
  • B. A contract between the shipowner and the charterer
  • C. A legal relationship with the flag state
  • D. The chain of command only
Answer: A — A strong association among individuals working together in the same organisation
An interpersonal relationship is an association between people who interact regularly, such as crew members working together on board. Good relationships build trust, cooperation and teamwork.

10. Which of the following happens during a stress response?

  • A. Heart rate decreases
  • B. Breathing slows down
  • C. Strength increases
  • D. Blood pressure falls
Answer: C — Strength increases
The stress response (fight or flight) releases adrenaline, which increases heart rate, breathing, blood pressure and muscle strength to prepare the body to react. Slowed heart rate and breathing are signs of relaxation.

11. Team building is ____

  • A. Providing the skills, training and resources that your people need so that they can work in harmony
  • B. Selecting only experienced individuals
  • C. Allowing everyone to work independently
  • D. Reducing communication to save time
Answer: A — Providing the skills, training and resources that your people need so that they can work in harmony
Team building develops a group into an effective team by providing skills, training, resources and trust so that members cooperate in harmony towards common objectives. It improves safety and efficiency on board.

12. Teamwork is ____

  • A. Each member working only for personal goals
  • B. The collaborative effort of a group to achieve a common goal or complete a task in the most effective and efficient way
  • C. Following orders without communication
  • D. Competition between departments
Answer: B — The collaborative effort of a group to achieve a common goal or complete a task in the most effective and efficient way
Teamwork is a group of people combining their efforts and skills to achieve a shared goal efficiently. On board, deck and engine teams must cooperate closely for safe navigation, cargo work and emergencies.

13. Social responsibility is defined as ____

  • A. The duty to maximise profit at any cost
  • B. The duty to do no harm to society
  • C. Obeying only the flag state
  • D. Supporting only one's own family
Answer: B — The duty to do no harm to society
Social responsibility is the obligation of individuals and organisations to act for the benefit of society and avoid harming it. For seafarers this includes protecting the environment, respecting others and behaving responsibly on board and ashore.

14. A Garbage Record Book is mandatory for every ship of ____

  • A. 100 GT and above only
  • B. 400 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons
  • C. 500 GT and above only
  • D. All passenger ships only
Answer: B — 400 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 or more persons
MARPOL Annex V Regulation 10.3 requires every ship of 400 GT and above, and every ship certified to carry 15 persons or more, to carry a Garbage Record Book. A Garbage Management Plan is required on ships of 100 GT and above.

15. ____ arrive on the ship for inward clearance.

  • A. Port officials
  • B. Stevedores
  • C. Ship chandlers
  • D. Classification surveyors
Answer: A — Port officials
On arrival the ship must obtain inward clearance from port officials such as customs, immigration, port health and port state authorities, who check documents and grant free pratique before normal operations proceed.

16. Sleep debt is ____

  • A. The cumulative effect of not getting enough sleep
  • B. Extra sleep taken in advance
  • C. A medical condition caused by oversleeping
  • D. Sleep taken during the watch
Answer: A — The cumulative effect of not getting enough sleep
Sleep debt is the accumulated shortfall between the sleep a person needs and the sleep obtained. It builds up over days and causes fatigue and reduced alertness, and can only be recovered by adequate rest.

17. Which of the following precautions should be observed when taking on diesel fuel?

  • A. Keep all scuppers open
  • B. Prohibit smoking in the area
  • C. Leave the manifold unattended
  • D. Increase pumping rate when topping off
Answer: B — Prohibit smoking in the area
Fuel vapour can ignite, so smoking and naked lights are prohibited near bunkering operations. Scuppers are plugged, the manifold is manned and the rate is reduced when topping off to prevent spills.

18. Fatigue is ____

  • A. The state of feeling very tired, weary or sleepy resulting from insufficient sleep, prolonged mental or physical work, or extended stress or anxiety
  • B. Only muscle pain after exercise
  • C. A condition caused only by seasickness
  • D. An illness caused by bacteria
Answer: A — The state of feeling very tired, weary or sleepy resulting from insufficient sleep, prolonged mental or physical work, or extended stress or anxiety
IMO guidelines on fatigue (MSC.1/Circ.1598) describe fatigue as a state of physical and/or mental impairment from factors such as inadequate sleep, extended wakefulness, work and rest imbalance and stress, reducing alertness and performance.

19. Stress that occurs over a long period of time is referred to as ____

  • A. Acute stress
  • B. Chronic stress
  • C. Eustress
  • D. Episodic stress
Answer: B — Chronic stress
Chronic stress is long-term stress persisting over weeks or months, for example from prolonged contracts, family problems or workload. It is more damaging to health than short-term acute stress.

20. The circadian clock is ____

  • A. Referred to as the body clock, a roughly 24-hour cycle that regulates sleep and wakefulness
  • B. The ship's master clock on the bridge
  • C. A 12-hour watch rotation
  • D. A device that measures heart rate
Answer: A — Referred to as the body clock, a roughly 24-hour cycle that regulates sleep and wakefulness
The circadian rhythm is the body's internal clock running on an approximately 24-hour cycle, regulating sleep, alertness, body temperature and hormones. Watchkeeping at night disrupts it and increases fatigue.

21. HIV/AIDS is NOT transmitted by ____

  • A. Unprotected sexual contact
  • B. Sharing needles
  • C. Blood transfusion with infected blood
  • D. Sharing toilets or washing facilities
Answer: D — Sharing toilets or washing facilities
HIV is transmitted through infected blood, sexual fluids and from mother to child. It is not spread by casual contact such as sharing toilets, washrooms, utensils or shaking hands, so infected crew should not be discriminated against.

22. Being awake for 17 hours is equivalent to a blood alcohol content of about ____

  • A. 0.01%
  • B. 0.05%
  • C. 0.15%
  • D. 0.30%
Answer: B — 0.05%
Research on fatigue shows that after about 17 hours awake, performance impairment is equivalent to a blood alcohol concentration of about 0.05%, and after 24 hours to about 0.1%, demonstrating how dangerous fatigue is for watchkeepers.

23. Informal feedback on an individual's performance is typically carried out ____

  • A. To maintain a high level of employee motivation
  • B. Only when dismissing a crew member
  • C. Once at the end of the contract
  • D. Only in writing to the company
Answer: A — To maintain a high level of employee motivation
Informal feedback is given regularly and on the spot, recognising good work and correcting minor issues. Its main purpose is to maintain motivation and continuous improvement, unlike formal appraisals done at fixed intervals.

24. The term load on top, used on crude oil carriers, describes a method for ____

  • A. Loading new cargo on top of the oil retained in the slop tank after decanting, to minimise pollution
  • B. Loading cargo on deck
  • C. Loading ballast on top of cargo
  • D. Topping off cargo tanks quickly
Answer: A — Loading new cargo on top of the oil retained in the slop tank after decanting, to minimise pollution
Under load on top, tank washings and dirty ballast residues are collected in a slop tank, the water underneath is decanted overboard within MARPOL limits, and the next cargo is loaded on top of the retained oil, minimising pollution.

25. What is the first task to complete before commencing hot work?

  • A. Start welding to test the equipment
  • B. Obtain a hot work permit
  • C. Remove the fire extinguisher from the area
  • D. Open all fuel tank vents
Answer: B — Obtain a hot work permit
Hot work must be authorised through the permit-to-work system. The hot work permit ensures a risk assessment, gas testing, removal of combustibles, fire watch and fire-fighting equipment are in place before work starts.

26. Maximum hours of work shall not exceed ____

  • A. 12 hours in any 24-hour period
  • B. 14 hours in any 24-hour period
  • C. 16 hours in any 24-hour period
  • D. 18 hours in any 24-hour period
Answer: B — 14 hours in any 24-hour period
MLC 2006 Standard A2.3 sets maximum hours of work at 14 hours in any 24-hour period and 72 hours in any seven-day period, as the alternative to minimum hours of rest.

27. Minimum hours of rest shall not be less than ____

  • A. 8 hours in any 24-hour period and 70 hours in any seven-day period
  • B. 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any seven-day period
  • C. 12 hours in any 24-hour period and 84 hours in any seven-day period
  • D. 6 hours in any 24-hour period and 60 hours in any seven-day period
Answer: B — 10 hours in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any seven-day period
STCW Regulation VIII/1 (Section A-VIII/1) and MLC 2006 require a minimum of 10 hours of rest in any 24-hour period and 77 hours in any seven-day period.

28. The interval between consecutive periods of rest shall not exceed ____

  • A. 6 hours
  • B. 10 hours
  • C. 14 hours
  • D. 18 hours
Answer: C — 14 hours
STCW Section A-VIII/1 and MLC 2006 Standard A2.3 require that rest may be divided into no more than two periods, one of at least 6 hours, and the interval between consecutive periods of rest shall not exceed 14 hours.

29. During bunkering, to avoid excessive pressure in the fuel oil filling system you should ____

  • A. Close the tank valves quickly
  • B. Reduce the loading rate when topping off
  • C. Increase the pumping rate at the end
  • D. Shut the vent pipes
Answer: B — Reduce the loading rate when topping off
Reducing the rate when topping off tanks lowers line pressure and gives time to change over valves and avoid overflow. Closing valves quickly against the supply pump can cause pressure surges and hose or flange failure.

30. REM sleep is known as rapid eye movement sleep because ____

  • A. During this stage the eyes move rapidly under the eyelids
  • B. The eyes remain fully open
  • C. The person cannot open the eyes
  • D. It only occurs in daylight
Answer: A — During this stage the eyes move rapidly under the eyelids
In REM sleep the eyes move rapidly beneath closed eyelids while the brain is very active and most dreaming occurs. It alternates with non-REM sleep in cycles of about 90 minutes and is important for mental recovery.

Set 18 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. It is generally NOT allowed to clean up an oil spill using ____

  • A. Absorbent pads
  • B. Sawdust and rags
  • C. Chemical agents (dispersants)
  • D. Scoops and containers
Answer: C — Chemical agents (dispersants)
Chemical dispersants and cleaning agents may only be used with approval of the coastal or port state authority, as they can cause additional harm to the environment. SOPEP response on board relies on absorbents and mechanical collection.

2. Prior to joining, seafarers lined up for embarkation shall be tested for ____

  • A. Colour blindness only
  • B. Drug and alcohol abuse
  • C. Swimming ability
  • D. Language skills
Answer: B — Drug and alcohol abuse
Company drug and alcohol policies, consistent with STCW Section A-VIII/1 guidance and oil-major requirements, require pre-joining drug and alcohol screening to ensure that seafarers are fit for duty.

3. What is the primary purpose of the Ship Security Plan as mandated by the ISPS Code?

  • A. To regulate the ship's entertainment activities
  • B. To ensure proper maintenance of the ship's structure
  • C. To outline measures for the security of the ship and its crew
  • D. To schedule routine navigation drills
Answer: C — To outline measures for the security of the ship and its crew
ISPS Code Part A section 9 requires each ship to carry an approved Ship Security Plan setting out the measures for each security level to protect the ship, persons on board, cargo and stores from security incidents.

4. In PSSR training, what is the significance of the International Safety Management (ISM) Code?

  • A. It outlines only the ship's evacuation procedures
  • B. It provides guidelines for personal hygiene on board
  • C. It establishes safety and environmental protection standards for ship operations
  • D. It regulates the ship's social events
Answer: C — It establishes safety and environmental protection standards for ship operations
The ISM Code, made mandatory by SOLAS Chapter IX, provides an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention through a Safety Management System.

5. What is the primary responsibility of a seafarer towards the environment?

  • A. Ensure maximum fuel consumption
  • B. Dispose of waste overboard to save space
  • C. Minimise pollution and protect the marine environment
  • D. Ignore environmental concerns as they are not a seafarer's responsibility
Answer: C — Minimise pollution and protect the marine environment
STCW Section A-VI/1-4 includes taking precautions to prevent pollution of the marine environment. Seafarers must follow MARPOL procedures and the ship's environmental policies to minimise pollution.

6. What action should be taken if a crew member observes an unsafe practice on board?

  • A. Keep silent to avoid conflicts
  • B. Report it to the supervisor or master
  • C. Document it for personal records only
  • D. Share it on social media
Answer: B — Report it to the supervisor or master
Under the ISM Code and the Code of Safe Working Practices, hazards and unsafe acts must be reported to the supervisor or master so corrective action can be taken. Every seafarer has the right and duty to stop unsafe work.

7. What is the purpose of the Seafarers' Employment Agreement (SEA)?

  • A. To plan recreational activities for the crew
  • B. To outline the terms and conditions of employment for seafarers
  • C. To regulate the ship's navigation procedures
  • D. To schedule routine maintenance tasks
Answer: B — To outline the terms and conditions of employment for seafarers
MLC 2006 Regulation 2.1 requires every seafarer to have a signed Seafarers' Employment Agreement setting out the terms and conditions of employment, such as wages, leave, hours and repatriation.

8. What is the significance of the International Labour Organization (ILO) for seafarers?

  • A. It regulates maritime trade routes
  • B. It establishes guidelines for crew entertainment
  • C. It sets international labour standards for seafarers
  • D. It manages onboard waste disposal
Answer: C — It sets international labour standards for seafarers
The ILO adopted the Maritime Labour Convention 2006, which sets international minimum standards for seafarers' working and living conditions, including employment agreements, hours of rest, accommodation, medical care and welfare.

9. What role does the International Maritime Organization (IMO) play?

  • A. Regulating onboard meal schedules
  • B. Establishing international standards for the safety and security of shipping
  • C. Overseeing individual crew medical care
  • D. Managing the ship's financial transactions
Answer: B — Establishing international standards for the safety and security of shipping
The IMO is the UN specialised agency responsible for the safety and security of shipping and prevention of marine pollution. It develops conventions such as SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW that flag states implement.

10. What is the primary focus of the Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods (MFAG)?

  • A. Addressing the psychological well-being of the crew
  • B. Providing guidelines for crew uniforms
  • C. Giving first aid in case of accidents involving dangerous goods
  • D. Regulating the ship's social events
Answer: C — Giving first aid in case of accidents involving dangerous goods
The MFAG, published by IMO as a supplement to the IMDG Code, gives guidance on diagnosis and first-aid treatment of persons exposed to chemicals and dangerous goods carried on board.

11. What is the purpose of the Safety Management Certificate (SMC) issued under the ISM Code?

  • A. To certify the ship's entertainment facilities
  • B. To verify the age of the ship
  • C. To confirm that the ship's safety management system complies with the ISM Code
  • D. To regulate crew recreational activities
Answer: C — To confirm that the ship's safety management system complies with the ISM Code
Under ISM Code section 13, the Safety Management Certificate is issued to a ship after verification that the company and shipboard management operate in accordance with the approved safety management system.

12. What is the primary focus of the International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments?

  • A. Regulating shipboard entertainment
  • B. Managing financial transactions on board
  • C. Preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms in ballast water
  • D. Ensuring proper navigation procedures
Answer: C — Preventing the spread of harmful aquatic organisms in ballast water
The BWM Convention, in force since 2017, aims to prevent the transfer of harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens through ships' ballast water and sediments, by requiring ballast water management plans, records and treatment standards.

13. What is the primary purpose of the International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code?

  • A. To regulate onboard entertainment activities
  • B. To provide guidelines for crew uniforms
  • C. To enhance the security of ships and port facilities against terrorism and other security threats
  • D. To oversee crew medical care
Answer: C — To enhance the security of ships and port facilities against terrorism and other security threats
The ISPS Code, made mandatory by SOLAS Chapter XI-2 after the 2001 attacks, provides a framework for ships and port facilities to detect security threats and take preventive measures against security incidents.

14. What is the primary purpose of the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers (STCW)?

  • A. To regulate onboard meal schedules
  • B. To establish training and certification standards for seafarers
  • C. To provide guidelines for crew uniforms
  • D. To manage onboard waste disposal
Answer: B — To establish training and certification standards for seafarers
The STCW Convention of 1978, as amended, sets minimum standards for training, certification and watchkeeping for seafarers, which flag states must meet or exceed. PSSR is covered by its Section A-VI/1-4.

15. What does the term Manila Amendments refer to?

  • A. Amendments to the ship's navigation procedures
  • B. Amendments to the ISPS Code
  • C. Amendments to the STCW Convention and Code
  • D. Amendments to crew recreational activities
Answer: C — Amendments to the STCW Convention and Code
The Manila Amendments were adopted at the 2010 Diplomatic Conference in Manila and came into force on 1 January 2012. They revised the STCW Convention and Code, adding requirements such as security training and updated rest hours.

16. What is the primary focus of the Emergency Towing Procedure on a ship?

  • A. Regulating onboard meal schedules
  • B. Addressing pollution prevention measures
  • C. Managing financial transactions
  • D. Coordinating emergency towing operations
Answer: D — Coordinating emergency towing operations
SOLAS Regulation II-1/3-4 requires ships to carry a ship-specific emergency towing procedure describing how to rig and carry out emergency towing quickly, so that a disabled ship can be taken in tow.

17. What does PSSR stand for?

  • A. Port Security and Safety Regulations
  • B. Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities
  • C. Professional Seafarer Standards and Regulations
  • D. Public Safety and Security Review
Answer: B — Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities
PSSR stands for Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities, one of the four basic safety training courses required under STCW Regulation VI/1 and Section A-VI/1-4 for all seafarers with designated safety or pollution prevention duties.

18. Which international convention sets out the requirements for Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities training for seafarers?

  • A. SOLAS
  • B. MARPOL
  • C. STCW
  • D. ISPS Code
Answer: C — STCW
STCW Regulation VI/1 requires basic safety training, and Section A-VI/1-4 with Table A-VI/1-4 sets the minimum standard of competence in personal safety and social responsibilities.

19. What is the primary objective of Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities training for seafarers?

  • A. To enhance navigation skills
  • B. To regulate maritime trade routes
  • C. To ensure the well-being of individuals and promote effective communication and safe working
  • D. To teach cargo calculations
Answer: C — To ensure the well-being of individuals and promote effective communication and safe working
Table A-VI/1-4 covers compliance with emergency procedures, pollution prevention, safe working practices, effective communication, good human relationships and understanding of fatigue, all aimed at personal well-being and safety on board.

20. What is a seafarer's responsibility regarding safety?

  • A. Ensuring only personal safety
  • B. Ensuring the safety of the ship only
  • C. Ensuring the safety of themselves and others on board
  • D. Ensuring the safety of cargo only
Answer: C — Ensuring the safety of themselves and others on board
Every seafarer has a duty of care for his own safety and that of other persons who may be affected by his acts or omissions, as reflected in the ISM Code and the Code of Safe Working Practices.

21. What is the purpose of the man overboard drill?

  • A. To test the effectiveness of lifeboats
  • B. To practise response to a person falling into the water
  • C. To simulate a fire emergency
  • D. To evaluate navigation skills
Answer: B — To practise response to a person falling into the water
Man overboard drills train the crew to raise the alarm, keep the person in sight, release lifebuoys, manoeuvre the ship (e.g. Williamson turn) and launch the rescue boat, so recovery is fast and well coordinated.

22. What does the term ISM Code stand for?

  • A. International Safety Management Code
  • B. International Security Management Code
  • C. International Seafarer Management Code
  • D. International Ship Management Code
Answer: A — International Safety Management Code
ISM stands for International Safety Management. The ISM Code is the International Management Code for the Safe Operation of Ships and for Pollution Prevention, made mandatory under SOLAS Chapter IX.

23. What should seafarers do when discovering a stowaway on board?

  • A. Offer them employment on the ship
  • B. Report the stowaway to the master
  • C. Ignore the presence of the stowaway
  • D. Allow the stowaway to remain hidden until the next port
Answer: B — Report the stowaway to the master
A stowaway must be reported to the master immediately. The master follows the Ship Security Plan, the FAL Convention and IMO stowaway guidelines, securing and treating the stowaway humanely and informing the company and authorities.

24. What is the purpose of the Safety Management System (SMS)?

  • A. To manage financial transactions
  • B. To ensure the safety of ship operations and protection of the environment
  • C. To regulate maritime trade routes
  • D. To oversee crew entertainment activities
Answer: B — To ensure the safety of ship operations and protection of the environment
Under the ISM Code, the SMS is a structured and documented system enabling company and ship personnel to implement the safety and environmental protection policy effectively and ensure safe operations.

25. What is the role of the Designated Person Ashore (DPA)?

  • A. Oversee ship navigation
  • B. Manage onboard entertainment
  • C. Monitor the safety and pollution prevention aspects of ship operations
  • D. Control cargo loading and unloading
Answer: C — Monitor the safety and pollution prevention aspects of ship operations
ISM Code section 4 requires the company to designate a person ashore with direct access to the highest level of management, to monitor safety and pollution prevention aspects of each ship and provide a link between ship and company.

26. What is the primary purpose of the Code of Safe Working Practices on a ship?

  • A. Regulating meal schedules for the crew
  • B. Providing guidelines for safe working conditions and practices
  • C. Dictating the dress code for seafarers
  • D. Ensuring maintenance of recreational facilities
Answer: B — Providing guidelines for safe working conditions and practices
The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers gives guidance on improving health and safety on board, covering risk assessment, permits to work, PPE, enclosed space entry and other safe working practices.

27. Which document outlines the responsibilities of the ship's master regarding safety and pollution prevention?

  • A. Ship's logbook
  • B. Safety Management System (ISM) manual
  • C. Ship's entertainment schedule
  • D. Crew list
Answer: B — Safety Management System (ISM) manual
ISM Code section 5 requires the company to clearly define and document the master's responsibility for implementing the safety and environmental policy, motivating crew and verifying requirements, and this is set out in the SMS manual.

28. What is the significance of the muster list on a ship?

  • A. It lists only the names of crew members
  • B. It specifies the emergency signals and each person's duties and muster station
  • C. It outlines the menu for onboard meals
  • D. It provides a schedule of recreational activities
Answer: B — It specifies the emergency signals and each person's duties and muster station
SOLAS III Regulation 37 requires the muster list to specify the general emergency alarm signal, actions to be taken, and each crew member's duties and muster station. It is posted in conspicuous places throughout the ship.

29. What is the purpose of the International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC)?

  • A. To certify the ship's structural integrity
  • B. To verify the ship's age
  • C. To confirm compliance with ISPS Code security requirements
  • D. To ensure crew members have valid passports
Answer: C — To confirm compliance with ISPS Code security requirements
Under ISPS Code Part A section 19, the ISSC is issued after verification that the ship's security system and Ship Security Plan comply with the ISPS Code and SOLAS Chapter XI-2.

30. How often should Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities training be refreshed under STCW?

  • A. Every five years
  • B. Every two years
  • C. Every ten years
  • D. One-time training is sufficient
Answer: D — One-time training is sufficient
STCW Regulation VI/1 requires seafarers to provide evidence of maintaining competence every five years for personal survival techniques and fire prevention and fire fighting only. PSSR and elementary first aid have no refresher requirement.

Set 19 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. What does GMDSS stand for?

  • A. Global Maritime Display and Safety System
  • B. General Maritime Distress Signalling System
  • C. Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
  • D. General Maritime Directional Steering System
Answer: C — Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
GMDSS stands for Global Maritime Distress and Safety System, the internationally agreed system of communication procedures and equipment under SOLAS Chapter IV, for distress alerting, search and rescue coordination and maritime safety information.

2. What is the purpose of the Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)?

  • A. To locate the ship's position during routine navigation
  • B. To signal distress and provide a location in emergencies
  • C. To communicate with other ships for social reasons
  • D. To monitor weather conditions
Answer: B — To signal distress and provide a location in emergencies
The 406 MHz EPIRB, required under SOLAS Chapter IV, transmits a distress alert with the ship's identity and position via the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system, allowing search and rescue to locate survivors.

3. In the context of PSSR, what does the term "SOLAS" refer to?

  • A. Safety of Life at Sea
  • B. Seafarers Onboard Leadership and Accountability System
  • C. Shipboard Operations and Logistics Assessment Standard
  • D. Social and Occupational Life at Sea
Answer: A — Safety of Life at Sea
SOLAS is the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1974, the principal IMO treaty setting minimum standards for construction, equipment, fire safety, life-saving appliances and operation of merchant ships.

4. In maritime terms, what is the primary objective of PSSR training?

  • A. Enhancing communication skills
  • B. Ensuring environmental protection
  • C. Promoting crew's well-being and safety
  • D. Improving navigational skills
Answer: C — Promoting crew's well-being and safety
PSSR training (STCW Table A-VI/1-4) aims to protect the seafarer and shipmates by teaching compliance with emergency procedures, pollution prevention, safe working practices, effective communication, good human relationships and fatigue awareness.

5. Which of the following is NOT a part of personal protective equipment (PPE) used in maritime operations?

  • A. Lifejacket (for overside work)
  • B. Hard hat
  • C. Sunglasses
  • D. Safety boots
Answer: C — Sunglasses
PPE such as safety helmets, safety shoes and lifejackets (when working overside) protect against specific workplace hazards. Ordinary sunglasses are not protective equipment; eye protection on board means approved goggles or face shields.

6. What is the purpose of a Shipboard Safety Committee?

  • A. Plan social events for the crew
  • B. Conduct risk assessments
  • C. Oversee cargo operations
  • D. Monitor weather conditions
Answer: B — Conduct risk assessments
The shipboard safety committee reviews accidents, near misses and unsafe conditions, considers risk assessments and recommends corrective measures, involving the crew in safety under the ISM Code and MLC 2006 Regulation 4.3.

7. What is the primary responsibility of the Designated Person Ashore (DPA) under the ISM Code?

  • A. Overseeing onboard entertainment
  • B. Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of ship operation
  • C. Managing ship navigation
  • D. Handling cargo operations
Answer: B — Monitoring the safety and pollution prevention aspects of ship operation
Under ISM Code section 4, the Designated Person Ashore provides a link between the ship and the highest level of management, with direct access to top management, and monitors the safety and pollution prevention aspects of ship operation.

8. What is the primary purpose of the Ship Security Plan (SSP)?

  • A. Ensure cargo safety
  • B. Prevent pollution
  • C. Enhance communication
  • D. Prevent acts of terrorism against the ship
Answer: D — Prevent acts of terrorism against the ship
The Ship Security Plan, required by the ISPS Code Part A section 9, sets out measures to protect persons, cargo and the ship from the risk of a security incident such as terrorism, piracy or unlawful boarding.

9. Which document shows the emergency duties and signals and must be posted in conspicuous places on board?

  • A. Ship Security Plan (SSP)
  • B. Muster list and emergency instructions
  • C. Crew list
  • D. Crew agreement
Answer: B — Muster list and emergency instructions
SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require the muster list and emergency instructions to be posted in conspicuous places, including the bridge, engine room and crew accommodation, showing each person's emergency duties and signals.

10. In the context of PSSR, what does "MARPOL" stand for?

  • A. Marine Pollution
  • B. Maritime Political Standards
  • C. Marine Protocol
  • D. Maritime Pollution Standards
Answer: A — Marine Pollution
MARPOL is short for MARine POLlution, the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships, 1973 as modified by the 1978 Protocol, covering oil, chemicals, packaged goods, sewage, garbage and air emissions.

11. What does the term "ISPS Code" refer to in maritime security?

  • A. International Safety and Pollution Standards
  • B. International Ship and Port Facility Security Code
  • C. International Standards for Personal Safety
  • D. International Safety of Ship Personnel
Answer: B — International Ship and Port Facility Security Code
The ISPS Code is the International Ship and Port Facility Security Code, adopted under SOLAS Chapter XI-2 in 2002 and in force from July 2004, to detect and prevent security threats to ships and port facilities.

12. What is the primary purpose of the International Maritime Organization (IMO) with regard to PSSR?

  • A. Ensure crew entertainment
  • B. Develop and maintain international maritime regulations
  • C. Oversee cargo operations
  • D. Monitor weather conditions
Answer: B — Develop and maintain international maritime regulations
The IMO is the United Nations specialised agency that develops and maintains international regulations for shipping, including SOLAS, MARPOL and STCW, which contain the PSSR training requirements.

13. Which action is recommended in the event of an oil spill at sea?

  • A. Ignore it and continue sailing
  • B. Report it to the appropriate authorities
  • C. Clean it using onboard resources
  • D. Dispose of the oil overboard
Answer: B — Report it to the appropriate authorities
MARPOL Article 8 and Protocol I require any oil pollution incident to be reported without delay to the nearest coastal state; the SOPEP lists the reporting procedure and the contacts to be notified.

14. What is the purpose of the Safety Management System (SMS) on board a ship?

  • A. Ensure crew discipline
  • B. Enhance ship speed
  • C. Promote a safety culture and minimize risks
  • D. Manage cargo operations
Answer: C — Promote a safety culture and minimize risks
The SMS required by the ISM Code sets out the company safety and environmental policy, procedures and responsibilities, so that risks are identified and controlled and a safety culture is promoted on board.

15. What does "GMDSS" stand for in maritime communication?

  • A. Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
  • B. General Maritime Digital Security System
  • C. Guidelines for Maritime Data Sharing and Security
  • D. Global Marine Development and Safety Strategy
Answer: A — Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
GMDSS is the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System, required under SOLAS Chapter IV, which uses satellite and terrestrial radio systems to provide alerting, search and rescue coordination and maritime safety information.

16. What should be the first action in response to a fire on board a ship?

  • A. Evacuate the ship
  • B. Activate the emergency alarm
  • C. Use a fire extinguisher
  • D. Inform the authorities
Answer: B — Activate the emergency alarm
On discovering a fire the first action is to raise the alarm so that the bridge is informed and the fire parties muster; only then should an attempt be made to fight a small fire with a portable extinguisher.

17. What does the "Muster Station" on a ship refer to in the context of PSSR?

  • A. Dining area for the crew
  • B. Assembly point during emergencies
  • C. Navigation bridge
  • D. Sleeping quarters
Answer: B — Assembly point during emergencies
A muster station is the designated assembly point, shown on the muster list, where crew and passengers gather when the emergency or abandon ship signal is sounded, before going to survival craft.

18. In PSSR, what is the role of the "Safety Officer" on board a ship?

  • A. Oversee crew recreation
  • B. Manage cargo operations
  • C. Monitor and promote safety practices
  • D. Conduct weather forecasting
Answer: C — Monitor and promote safety practices
The shipboard safety officer monitors working practices, investigates accidents and near misses, conducts inspections and promotes awareness so that the safety management system is followed by all on board.

19. Which type of fire is caused by flammable liquids such as gasoline or oil?

  • A. Class A
  • B. Class B
  • C. Class C
  • D. Class D
Answer: B — Class B
Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as petrol, oil and paints. They are extinguished by smothering with foam, CO2 or dry powder; a water jet would spread the burning liquid.

20. What is the purpose of the International Labour Organization (ILO) Maritime Labour Convention (MLC) with respect to PSSR?

  • A. Regulate ship speed limits
  • B. Ensure crew welfare and working conditions
  • C. Develop maritime security protocols
  • D. Monitor cargo operations
Answer: B — Ensure crew welfare and working conditions
The Maritime Labour Convention 2006 sets minimum standards for seafarers' working and living conditions, including hours of rest, accommodation, food, medical care, wages, repatriation and health and safety protection.

21. What is the significance of the "International Shore Connection" on a ship?

  • A. Establish satellite communication
  • B. Connect to onshore firefighting equipment
  • C. Enhance navigation systems
  • D. Facilitate crew internet access
Answer: B — Connect to onshore firefighting equipment
The international shore connection required by SOLAS II-2/10 has a standard flange that lets the ship's fire main be connected to shore or another ship's fire hoses, so water can be supplied for firefighting.

22. What is the primary purpose of the "Gangway" on a ship?

  • A. Provide access to the ship
  • B. Generate electrical power
  • C. Monitor engine performance
  • D. Conduct safety drills
Answer: A — Provide access to the ship
The gangway is the means of access between the ship and the quay or another vessel. SOLAS II-1/3-9 requires it to be rigged safely, lit, with a safety net and lifebuoy nearby.

23. In the context of PSSR, what is the purpose of "Drug and Alcohol Policies" on board a ship?

  • A. Enhance crew recreation
  • B. Ensure crew discipline and safety
  • C. Promote onboard entertainment
  • D. Manage cargo operations
Answer: B — Ensure crew discipline and safety
Drug and alcohol policies limit impairment of judgement and performance. STCW Section A-VIII/1 sets a blood alcohol limit of 0.05% for watchkeepers, and company policies keep the ship safe and crew disciplined.

24. What does the term "SART" refer to in maritime safety?

  • A. Search and Rescue Transponder
  • B. Safety Assessment and Response Tool
  • C. Shipboard Alarm and Response Technique
  • D. Security and Risk Assessment Training
Answer: A — Search and Rescue Transponder
SART stands for Search and Rescue Transponder, a 9 GHz radar transponder carried under SOLAS IV and the LSA Code that shows a line of dots on a searching vessel's X-band radar to locate survivors.

25. What is the primary purpose of the "International Code of Signals" in maritime communication?

  • A. Manage cargo operations
  • B. Enhance crew communication
  • C. Prevent acts of terrorism
  • D. Facilitate navigation and convey messages
Answer: D — Facilitate navigation and convey messages
The International Code of Signals provides signals and phrases by flags, light, sound and radio to communicate on safety of navigation and of persons, particularly where language difficulties arise.

26. What equipment is used for providing artificial respiration in a medical emergency?

  • A. Fire extinguisher
  • B. Immersion suit
  • C. Bag-valve-mask resuscitator
  • D. Lifebuoy
Answer: C — Bag-valve-mask resuscitator
Artificial respiration can be given with a pocket mask or a bag-valve-mask resuscitator, which delivers air or oxygen to the lungs. An AED only analyses heart rhythm and delivers a shock; it does not ventilate.

27. According to PSSR, what is the correct procedure for using a fire extinguisher?

  • A. Direct it towards the flames and sweep in a circular motion
  • B. Spray it in the air to create a barrier
  • C. Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle and sweep from side to side
  • D. Use it only if the fire is near the escape route
Answer: C — Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle and sweep from side to side
Remember PASS: pull the safety pin, aim the nozzle at the base of the fire where the fuel is, squeeze the handle and sweep from side to side until the fire is out.

28. What is the purpose of the International Safety Management (ISM) Code?

  • A. To regulate cargo stowage
  • B. To provide guidelines for personal grooming
  • C. To set standards for the safe management and operation of ships
  • D. To determine the ship's speed
Answer: C — To set standards for the safe management and operation of ships
The ISM Code, made mandatory by SOLAS Chapter IX, provides an international standard for the safe management and operation of ships and for pollution prevention through a company safety management system.

29. Why is it important for crew members to be familiar with the location of life-saving appliances on board?

  • A. To enhance communication with port authorities
  • B. To organize recreational activities
  • C. To respond quickly in emergency situations
  • D. To facilitate efficient cargo handling
Answer: C — To respond quickly in emergency situations
Knowing where lifejackets, lifebuoys, immersion suits and survival craft are located allows each person to act quickly and correctly in an emergency; SOLAS III/19 requires familiarisation before the voyage.

30. In the context of PSSR, what does "Personal Protective Equipment" (PPE) include?

  • A. Ship's navigation charts
  • B. Crew uniforms
  • C. Safety helmets, gloves, and life jackets
  • D. Recreational equipment
Answer: C — Safety helmets, gloves, and life jackets
Personal protective equipment includes safety helmets, gloves, safety shoes, goggles, ear protection and lifejackets for overside work. It is the last line of defence after hazards have been controlled.

Set 20 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. According to PSSR, what is the primary responsibility of a crew member during a medical emergency?

  • A. Administering medication without delay
  • B. Notifying the ship's captain and waiting for instructions
  • C. Performing first aid and assisting medical personnel
  • D. Ignoring the situation until the ship reaches the next port
Answer: C — Performing first aid and assisting medical personnel
A crew member trained in elementary first aid should give immediate first aid to preserve life and prevent deterioration, raise the alarm and assist the officer in charge of medical care.

2. What is the purpose of the International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code in relation to personal safety?

  • A. To regulate crew members' working hours
  • B. To ensure proper navigation of the ship
  • C. To enhance and maintain the security of a ship
  • D. To establish standards for recreational facilities on board
Answer: C — To enhance and maintain the security of a ship
The ISPS Code establishes a framework to detect security threats and take preventive measures, so that the security of ships, crews and port facilities is enhanced and maintained.

3. What protection does an Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD) provide?

  • A. Chemical spills
  • B. Fire and smoke inhalation
  • C. Drowning
  • D. Extreme cold weather
Answer: B — Fire and smoke inhalation
An EEBD supplies air or oxygen for about 10 minutes so that a person can escape from a smoke-filled or hazardous atmosphere. It is for escape only, not for firefighting (FSS Code Chapter 3).

4. What is the primary responsibility of a crew member during an abandon ship drill?

  • A. Activate the ship's alarm system
  • B. Proceed directly to the assigned lifeboat station without delay
  • C. Gather at the nearest convenient location
  • D. Wait in the cabin until further instructions are given
Answer: B — Proceed directly to the assigned lifeboat station without delay
On the abandon ship signal each person must go directly to the assigned muster or lifeboat station shown on the muster list, wearing a lifejacket and warm clothing, and follow instructions.

5. According to the SOLAS Convention, what is the purpose of the Ship Security Alert System (SSAS)?

  • A. To signal the ship's arrival at its destination
  • B. To alert authorities of a security threat or piracy incident
  • C. To regulate the ship's navigation routes
  • D. To notify the crew of upcoming social events
Answer: B — To alert authorities of a security threat or piracy incident
The Ship Security Alert System required by SOLAS XI-2/6 sends a covert alert to the flag Administration or company indicating that the ship's security is under threat or compromised, without alerting other ships.

6. What is the purpose of the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) on board a ship?

  • A. To outline the ship's emergency response procedures
  • B. To detail the properties and hazards of chemicals on board
  • C. To provide information on the ship's navigational equipment
  • D. To record the ship's maintenance history
Answer: B — To detail the properties and hazards of chemicals on board
A Safety Data Sheet gives the properties, hazards, safe handling, PPE, first aid and firefighting measures for a chemical or cargo, so that crew can handle it safely and respond to exposure.

7. According to PSSR, what is the role of a crew member in maintaining ship stability?

  • A. Monitoring the ship's speed
  • B. Ensuring proper cargo stowage and securing
  • C. Conducting regular engine inspections
  • D. Overseeing the navigation watchkeeping duties
Answer: B — Ensuring proper cargo stowage and securing
Crew members contribute to stability by stowing and securing cargo and stores properly and reporting shifted cargo, so that weights do not move in a seaway and alter the ship's centre of gravity.

8. What does the term "Metacentric Height" (GM) refer to in the context of ship stability?

  • A. The height of the ship's mast
  • B. The depth of the ship's keel
  • C. The distance between the center of gravity and the metacenter
  • D. The distance from the ship's bow to the stern
Answer: C — The distance between the center of gravity and the metacenter
Metacentric height GM is the vertical distance between the centre of gravity G and the transverse metacentre M. A positive GM gives a righting lever at small angles of heel, indicating initial stability.

9. What is the purpose of the "International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code" on board a ship?

  • A. To regulate crew members' working hours
  • B. To ensure proper navigation of the ship
  • C. To establish guidelines for the safe transport of dangerous goods by sea
  • D. To determine the ship's cargo capacity
Answer: C — To establish guidelines for the safe transport of dangerous goods by sea
The IMDG Code, mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VII, gives requirements for classification, packing, marking, labelling, stowage and segregation for the safe carriage of dangerous goods in packaged form by sea.

10. In the context of PSSR, what is the role of crew members during a security drill?

  • A. To practice firefighting techniques
  • B. To simulate man overboard situations
  • C. To respond to potential security threats and emergencies
  • D. To showcase navigation skills
Answer: C — To respond to potential security threats and emergencies
During security drills crew members practise their duties under the Ship Security Plan, such as searches, access control and responding to threats. ISPS Code Part B requires drills at least every three months.

11. According to the ISPS Code, what is the purpose of Restricted Access Areas on board a ship?

  • A. To store confidential documents
  • B. To limit access to authorized personnel for security reasons
  • C. To conduct emergency drills
  • D. To house recreational facilities
Answer: B — To limit access to authorized personnel for security reasons
Restricted areas such as the bridge, engine room and steering gear room are identified in the Ship Security Plan; access is limited to authorised persons to prevent unauthorised entry and tampering.

12. What is the primary responsibility of a crew member during a security threat on board?

  • A. Ignore the threat and continue regular operations
  • B. Report the threat only to the ship's captain
  • C. Implement the ship's security plan and notify relevant authorities
  • D. Evacuate the ship immediately
Answer: C — Implement the ship's security plan and notify relevant authorities
When a security threat arises the measures in the Ship Security Plan must be implemented, the Ship Security Officer and master informed, and the company and relevant authorities notified as the plan requires.

13. Why is it crucial for crew members to be familiar with the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea (COLREGs)?

  • A. To enhance communication with port authorities
  • B. To regulate cargo stowage procedures
  • C. To ensure compliance with environmental regulations
  • D. To prevent collisions and ensure safe navigation
Answer: D — To prevent collisions and ensure safe navigation
COLREGs set the steering and sailing rules, lights, shapes and sound signals that all vessels must follow, so that every watchkeeper understands them to prevent collisions and navigate safely.

14. What is the purpose of the Shipboard Oil Pollution Emergency Plan (SOPEP) required under MARPOL?

  • A. To regulate crew members' working hours
  • B. To ensure proper navigation of the ship
  • C. To establish procedures for responding to oil spills
  • D. To determine the ship's cargo capacity
Answer: C — To establish procedures for responding to oil spills
The SOPEP, required by MARPOL Annex I regulation 37, sets out reporting requirements and the actions to be taken on board to control and reduce an oil discharge after a pollution incident.

15. During a medical emergency on board, what communication equipment should be used to seek assistance?

  • A. Fire extinguisher
  • B. VHF Radio
  • C. GPS
  • D. Echo Sounder
Answer: B — VHF Radio
Among the equipment listed, only the VHF radio can contact other ships, coast stations and rescue centres to request medical advice or evacuation. GPS and echo sounders are navigational aids, not communication means.

16. In the context of PSSR, what is the purpose of a "Safety Meeting" on board a ship?

  • A. To organize social events and team-building activities
  • B. To discuss recreational plans for the crew
  • C. To review safety-related matters and promote awareness
  • D. To address routine maintenance issues
Answer: C — To review safety-related matters and promote awareness
Safety meetings bring the crew together to review accidents, near misses, inspection findings and planned work, so that hazards are discussed and safety awareness is promoted on board.

17. What is the significance of the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System (GMDSS) in maritime communication?

  • A. To enhance navigation equipment
  • B. To regulate crew members' working hours
  • C. To provide guidelines for cargo handling
  • D. To ensure effective and reliable communication during emergencies
Answer: D — To ensure effective and reliable communication during emergencies
GMDSS ensures that distress alerts are transmitted and received reliably and that search and rescue communications and maritime safety information reach ships wherever they are, through satellite and terrestrial systems.

18. According to the Maritime Labour Convention (MLC), what rights does it address for seafarers?

  • A. Regulation of cargo stowage
  • B. Standards for ship stability
  • C. Working conditions and seafarers' rights
  • D. Navigation equipment requirements
Answer: C — Working conditions and seafarers' rights
The MLC 2006 is often called the seafarers' bill of rights; it addresses minimum age, employment agreements, hours of work and rest, accommodation, medical care, welfare and social security.

19. What is the purpose of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) on board a ship?

  • A. To enhance crew members' fashion sense
  • B. To provide comfort during leisure time
  • C. To protect against occupational hazards and injuries
  • D. To regulate the temperature in the engine room
Answer: C — To protect against occupational hazards and injuries
PPE such as helmets, gloves, goggles, ear defenders and safety shoes protects the wearer against occupational hazards like falling objects, chemicals, noise and slipping, reducing injuries when other controls are insufficient.

20. According to SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) regulations, what is the responsibility of a crew member regarding fire safety on board?

  • A. Only officers are responsible for firefighting
  • B. Crew members are not involved in firefighting
  • C. To be familiar with the location and proper use of firefighting equipment
  • D. Fire safety is the sole responsibility of the ship's captain
Answer: C — To be familiar with the location and proper use of firefighting equipment
SOLAS requires every crew member to know their fire duties on the muster list and the location and use of fire-fighting equipment; familiarisation and regular fire drills (SOLAS III/19) ensure this.

21. What is the purpose of the International Ship Security Certificate (ISSC) issued under the ISPS Code?

  • A. To certify the ship's seaworthiness
  • B. To ensure compliance with environmental regulations
  • C. To verify the ship's security measures and procedures
  • D. To indicate the ship's speed and navigation capabilities
Answer: C — To verify the ship's security measures and procedures
The International Ship Security Certificate is issued after verification that the ship's security system and equipment comply with the ISPS Code and the approved Ship Security Plan; it is valid up to five years.

22. In the context of fire safety, what is the purpose of the "fire triangle"?

  • A. To identify the different types of firefighting equipment
  • B. To illustrate the three elements necessary for a fire: fuel, oxygen, and heat
  • C. To map out the emergency evacuation routes on the ship
  • D. To calculate the water pressure required for firefighting hoses
Answer: B — To illustrate the three elements necessary for a fire: fuel, oxygen, and heat
The fire triangle shows that fire needs fuel, oxygen and heat. Removing any one side, by starving, smothering or cooling, extinguishes the fire, which is the principle behind all firefighting methods.

23. What is the purpose of the Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers (COSWP)?

  • A. To regulate the ship's entertainment activities
  • B. To ensure proper meal schedules for the crew
  • C. To provide guidance on safe working practices on board
  • D. To establish the dress code for crew members
Answer: C — To provide guidance on safe working practices on board
The Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers (COSWP) gives practical guidance on safe working practices on board, covering risk assessment, permits to work, PPE, enclosed spaces and other hazards.

24. What action should be taken if a crew member discovers an unauthorized person on board the ship?

  • A. Ignore the person unless they pose an immediate threat
  • B. Politely ask the person to leave the ship
  • C. Report the situation to the ship's security officer or designated personnel
  • D. Confront the person directly and escort them off the ship
Answer: C — Report the situation to the ship's security officer or designated personnel
An unauthorised person on board is a possible security breach. It must be reported at once to the Ship Security Officer or duty officer so that the Ship Security Plan procedures can be followed.

25. In maritime training, what does the term "STCW" stand for?

  • A. Ship Traffic Control and Warning
  • B. Safety Training for Crew Wellbeing
  • C. Security of Transportation and Cargo Worldwide
  • D. Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
Answer: D — Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping
STCW is the International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping for Seafarers, 1978, as amended, which sets minimum training such as PSSR for seafarers.

26. What is the significance of the "Gangway Watch" duty on board a ship?

  • A. Monitoring the ship's engine room
  • B. Ensuring the safe embarkation and disembarkation of personnel
  • C. Overseeing the ship's navigation watchkeeping
  • D. Conducting routine inspections of cargo holds
Answer: B — Ensuring the safe embarkation and disembarkation of personnel
The gangway watch controls access to the ship, checking identity of visitors, keeping the gangway safe and adjusted for tide and draft, and ensuring safe embarkation and disembarkation of personnel.

27. What is the purpose of the International Labour Organization's (ILO) Maritime Labour Convention (MLC)?

  • A. To regulate the ship's environmental impact
  • B. To ensure the safety of maritime navigation
  • C. To establish standards for seafarers' working conditions
  • D. To determine the ship's cargo capacity
Answer: C — To establish standards for seafarers' working conditions
The ILO Maritime Labour Convention 2006 establishes minimum standards for seafarers' employment and working and living conditions, and is enforced through flag state certification and port state control.

28. In the context of personal safety, what is the purpose of a "Safety Harness" on board a ship?

  • A. To secure cargo during rough weather
  • B. To prevent slipping on wet decks
  • C. To provide protection during man overboard situations
  • D. To secure personnel working at heights
Answer: D — To secure personnel working at heights
A safety harness with a lifeline secured to a strong point protects a person working aloft or overside from falling; a permit to work for working at height normally requires it.

29. What is the role of the Ship Security Officer (SSO) under the ISPS Code?

  • A. To lead the ship's recreational activities
  • B. To coordinate security measures and procedures on board
  • C. To regulate the ship's navigation equipment
  • D. To oversee the ship's medical facilities
Answer: B — To coordinate security measures and procedures on board
Under ISPS Code section 12 the Ship Security Officer, designated by the company, is responsible for the security of the ship, implementation and maintenance of the Ship Security Plan, and liaison with the CSO and PFSO.

30. What action should a crew member take if they observe a malfunction in a safety-critical system on board?

  • A. Ignore the issue unless it directly affects their work
  • B. Report the malfunction to the ship's captain during the next scheduled meeting
  • C. Immediately inform the appropriate personnel and document the issue
  • D. Attempt to fix the problem personally to avoid delays
Answer: C — Immediately inform the appropriate personnel and document the issue
A defect in a safety-critical system must be reported immediately to the responsible officer and recorded, as required by ISM Code section 9 on reports of non-conformities and hazardous occurrences.

Set 21 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Why is it important for crew members to participate in regular safety drills and exercises?

  • A. To improve their physical fitness
  • B. To practice abandon ship procedures and enhance response time
  • C. To fulfill regulatory requirements for recreational activities
  • D. To showcase their skills to port authorities
Answer: B — To practice abandon ship procedures and enhance response time
Regular drills keep crew familiar with their duties, including abandon ship procedures, and shorten response time in a real emergency. SOLAS III/19 requires abandon ship and fire drills at least monthly.

2. In the context of firefighting, what is the purpose of a "Fireman's Outfit"?

  • A. To protect against extreme cold weather conditions
  • B. To enhance the crew members' fashion sense during emergencies
  • C. To provide breathing apparatus and protective clothing for firefighting
  • D. To regulate the temperature in the engine room
Answer: C — To provide breathing apparatus and protective clothing for firefighting
A fireman's outfit, specified in SOLAS II-2/10 and the FSS Code, consists of protective clothing, boots, gloves, helmet, safety lamp, axe and a self-contained breathing apparatus with lifeline.

3. What should you do if you witness a crew member engaging in harassment or discrimination?

  • A. Join in and participate in the behavior
  • B. Ignore it and pretend it didn't happen
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or designated authority
  • D. Encourage more harassment and discrimination
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or designated authority
Harassment and bullying damage safety and human relationships on board. MLC 2006 and company policies require such behaviour to be reported to the supervisor or designated person so that it can be dealt with.

4. What is the purpose of a safety induction for new crew members?

  • A. To test their physical fitness
  • B. To assess their cooking skills
  • C. To provide an overview of safety procedures and policies
  • D. To assign their job positions
Answer: C — To provide an overview of safety procedures and policies
A safety induction or familiarisation, required by STCW Regulation VI/1 and ISM Code section 6, makes new crew aware of emergency procedures, alarms, muster stations and company safety policies before duties.

5. What does the term "near miss" refer to in the context of PSSR?

  • A. A situation where an accident results in severe injuries
  • B. A situation where a hazard is detected and addressed in time
  • C. A situation where safety guidelines are disregarded
  • D. A situation where a vessel runs aground
Answer: B — A situation where a hazard is detected and addressed in time
A near miss is an event in which a hazard or unsafe act was identified or corrected in time, so no injury or damage resulted. ISM Code section 9 requires near misses to be reported and analysed.

6. How can crew members contribute to pollution prevention efforts?

  • A. By disposing of waste overboard
  • B. By throwing garbage into the sea
  • C. By properly segregating and disposing of waste
  • D. By using excessive amounts of chemicals
Answer: C — By properly segregating and disposing of waste
Crew prevent pollution by segregating garbage as per the garbage management plan and disposing of it to port reception facilities or as permitted by MARPOL Annex V, never throwing it overboard indiscriminately.

7. What does the term "confined space" refer to?

  • A. A room reserved for senior officers
  • B. A space with limited physical access and potential hazards
  • C. A space where crew members can relax during breaks
  • D. A space where crew members can smoke cigarettes
Answer: B — A space with limited physical access and potential hazards
A confined (enclosed) space has limited openings and poor natural ventilation and may contain a toxic, flammable or oxygen-deficient atmosphere, for example tanks, void spaces and cargo holds (IMO Res. A.1050(27)).

8. What should you do before entering a confined space?

  • A. Nothing, just enter the space
  • B. Notify your coworkers of your plans
  • C. Check for potential hazards and obtain necessary permits
  • D. Share confidential information with your coworkers
Answer: C — Check for potential hazards and obtain necessary permits
Before entering a confined space the atmosphere must be tested, the space ventilated and isolated, a risk assessment made and an entry permit issued, with an attendant and rescue equipment at the entrance.

9. What does the term "liferaft" refer to?

  • A. A vessel used for recreational purposes
  • B. A small boat used for short-distance trips
  • C. An inflatable raft used for emergency evacuation
  • D. A platform for sunbathing on the vessel
Answer: C — An inflatable raft used for emergency evacuation
A liferaft is an inflatable survival craft, stowed in a canister, that inflates on release and provides shelter for survivors when abandoning ship. Requirements are given in the LSA Code Chapter IV.

10. What is the purpose of a safety briefing?

  • A. To discuss the latest crew gossip and rumors
  • B. To announce the daily menu options
  • C. To inform the crew about safety procedures and emergency exits
  • D. To showcase the vessel's entertainment options
Answer: C — To inform the crew about safety procedures and emergency exits
A safety briefing informs crew or visitors of safety procedures, alarm signals, escape routes and emergency exits, so that they know how to react in an emergency.

11. How can crew members promote a positive safety culture on board a vessel?

  • A. By disregarding safety guidelines
  • B. By promoting reckless behavior
  • C. By leading by example and encouraging safe practices
  • D. By hiding safety incidents from superiors
Answer: C — By leading by example and encouraging safe practices
A positive safety culture develops when everyone follows safe practices, leads by example, reports hazards and near misses openly and encourages shipmates to work safely.

12. What does the term "EPIRB" stand for?

  • A. Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon
  • B. Electronic Personal Identification and Registration Board
  • C. Excessive Personal Information Reporting Button
  • D. Emergency Pollution Incident Reporting Bureau
Answer: A — Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon
EPIRB stands for Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon. A float-free 406 MHz EPIRB transmits a distress alert with the ship's identity and position through the COSPAS-SARSAT satellite system.

13. Which of the following is an example of an occupational hazard?

  • A. Sunburn
  • B. Proper nutrition
  • C. Regular exercise
  • D. Frequent vacations
Answer: A — Sunburn
Working on open deck exposes seafarers to strong sunlight, so sunburn and heat stress are occupational hazards. Protective clothing, sunscreen and shade reduce the risk.

14. What should you do if you encounter a leaking pipe or equipment?

  • A. Ignore it and continue working
  • B. Attempt to fix it yourself without proper training
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
  • D. Encourage others to ignore it as well
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
A leaking pipe or equipment may create fire, slip, pollution or toxic hazards. It must be reported to the supervisor or safety officer so that it is isolated and repaired by competent persons.

15. What does the term "man overboard" (MOB) indicate?

  • A. A crew member taking unauthorised leave from the vessel
  • B. A crew member falling into the water
  • C. A crew member engaging in dangerous behaviour
  • D. A crew member being promoted to a higher position
Answer: B — A crew member falling into the water
Man overboard means a person has fallen from the ship into the sea. The alarm must be raised immediately, a lifebuoy thrown, the person kept in sight and the master informed so that a recovery manoeuvre such as the Williamson turn can be started.

16. What should you do if you witness a coworker acting unsafely?

  • A. Confront them immediately and criticise their behaviour
  • B. Ignore it and hope they figure it out themselves
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
  • D. Engage in the same unsafe behaviour
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
Unsafe acts should be stopped where safe and reported to the supervisor or safety officer so corrective action can be taken. The ISM Code safety management system relies on reporting of hazards and non-conformities to prevent accidents.

17. What is the purpose of an incident reporting system on board a vessel?

  • A. To blame crew members for accidents
  • B. To punish crew members for mistakes
  • C. To learn from incidents and prevent future occurrences
  • D. To hide safety incidents from authorities
Answer: C — To learn from incidents and prevent future occurrences
ISM Code section 9 requires accidents, hazardous occurrences and near misses to be reported and analysed. The aim is a no-blame learning culture in which root causes are found and corrective actions taken to prevent recurrence.

18. What is the primary purpose of wearing personal protective equipment (PPE)?

  • A. To look fashionable and stylish
  • B. To intimidate other crew members
  • C. To comply with regulations and minimise the risk of injury
  • D. To obstruct your own movement and performance
Answer: C — To comply with regulations and minimise the risk of injury
PPE such as helmets, safety shoes, gloves and goggles is the last line of defence against hazards that cannot be fully eliminated. Its use is required by company procedures and the Code of Safe Working Practices to minimise the risk of injury.

19. What should you do if you discover a fire on board a vessel?

  • A. Hide in a safe place and wait for the fire to be extinguished
  • B. Attempt to extinguish the fire yourself without raising the alarm
  • C. Activate the fire alarm, alert the crew and follow emergency procedures
  • D. Ignore the fire and continue with your regular duties
Answer: C — Activate the fire alarm, alert the crew and follow emergency procedures
On discovering a fire, the first action is to raise the alarm and inform the bridge so the ship's emergency organisation can respond. Crew then follow the muster list duties and attack the fire only if it is safe to do so.

20. What is the purpose of a safety data sheet (SDS)?

  • A. To provide information on crew members' personal preferences
  • B. To list the ingredients of the vessel's food items
  • C. To provide information on hazardous materials and their safe handling
  • D. To showcase the vessel's entertainment options
Answer: C — To provide information on hazardous materials and their safe handling
A safety data sheet (formerly MSDS) describes the hazards of a chemical, required PPE, safe handling and storage, first aid, firefighting and spill measures. SDS for cargoes and ship's stores must be available on board and consulted before use.

21. What should you do if you encounter a hazardous substance spill on board a vessel?

  • A. Ignore it and continue working
  • B. Attempt to clean it up without proper training
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer and follow proper clean-up procedures
  • D. Encourage others to ignore it as well
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer and follow proper clean-up procedures
A spill of a hazardous substance must be reported at once so that the correct response, PPE and clean-up method from the safety data sheet and shipboard spill plan can be applied without endangering personnel or the environment.

22. How can crew members contribute to preventing slips, trips and falls on board a vessel?

  • A. By intentionally creating obstacles and hazards
  • B. By wearing inappropriate footwear
  • C. By maintaining a clean and tidy work environment
  • D. By engaging in reckless behaviour
Answer: C — By maintaining a clean and tidy work environment
Good housekeeping, such as wiping up oil and water, stowing tools and keeping walkways clear, removes the most common causes of slips, trips and falls, which are among the most frequent injuries on board ships.

23. What does the term "enclosed space" refer to?

  • A. A spacious area for crew members to relax and unwind
  • B. A space with ample ventilation and natural light
  • C. A space with limited openings for entry and exit and potential atmospheric hazards
  • D. A space exclusively reserved for senior officers
Answer: C — A space with limited openings for entry and exit and potential atmospheric hazards
IMO Resolution A.1050(27) defines an enclosed space as one with limited openings for entry and exit, inadequate ventilation and not designed for continuous occupancy. Its atmosphere may be oxygen deficient, toxic or flammable, so a permit and testing are required before entry.

24. What is the purpose of an abandon ship drill?

  • A. To simulate the sinking of the vessel
  • B. To test the crew's swimming abilities
  • C. To practise the procedures for evacuating the vessel in an emergency
  • D. To waste valuable working time
Answer: C — To practise the procedures for evacuating the vessel in an emergency
SOLAS III/19 requires abandon ship drills so that crew practise mustering, donning lifejackets, preparing and launching survival craft and their assigned duties, ensuring the ship can be evacuated quickly and safely in a real emergency.

25. What should you do if you observe someone experiencing seasickness?

  • A. Ignore them and continue with your duties
  • B. Make fun of them and ridicule their condition
  • C. Offer assistance and support, and notify medical personnel if necessary
  • D. Encourage others to ignore the situation
Answer: C — Offer assistance and support, and notify medical personnel if necessary
Seasickness can cause dehydration and reduce alertness, making the person unsafe at work. Support them, encourage fluids and fresh air, and inform the officer responsible for medical care if symptoms are severe or persistent.

26. What is the purpose of a permit-to-work system?

  • A. To restrict crew members from performing their assigned tasks
  • B. To increase bureaucracy and paperwork on board
  • C. To ensure that hazardous work is conducted safely and with proper authorisation
  • D. To discourage crew members from reporting safety incidents
Answer: C — To ensure that hazardous work is conducted safely and with proper authorisation
A permit-to-work system ensures that hazardous jobs such as hot work, enclosed space entry or work aloft are planned, risk assessed, isolated and authorised by a responsible officer, with precautions checked before the work begins.

27. What should you do if you notice malfunctioning safety equipment on board a vessel?

  • A. Ignore it and hope no one notices
  • B. Attempt to fix it yourself without proper training
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer for immediate repair or replacement
  • D. Encourage others to ignore it as well
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer for immediate repair or replacement
Defective safety equipment must be reported promptly so it can be repaired or replaced. SOLAS requires life-saving and fire-fighting appliances to be in good order and ready for immediate use at all times.

28. What is the purpose of a risk assessment on board a vessel?

  • A. To create unnecessary bureaucracy and paperwork
  • B. To blame crew members for accidents and incidents
  • C. To identify potential hazards and implement control measures to mitigate risks
  • D. To discourage crew members from reporting safety incidents
Answer: C — To identify potential hazards and implement control measures to mitigate risks
The ISM Code requires the company to assess all identified risks to ships and personnel. A risk assessment identifies hazards, evaluates likelihood and severity, and sets control measures to reduce risk to an acceptable level before work starts.

29. What is the purpose of a Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities (PSSR) training course?

  • A. To teach crew members how to engage in unsafe behaviour
  • B. To emphasise the importance of ignoring safety procedures
  • C. To provide the knowledge and skills necessary for promoting personal safety and social responsibility
  • D. To waste valuable working time
Answer: C — To provide the knowledge and skills necessary for promoting personal safety and social responsibility
PSSR, required by STCW Regulation VI/1 and Section A-VI/1-4, covers emergency procedures, pollution prevention, safe working practices, effective communication, human relationships and fatigue, preparing seafarers to work safely and responsibly on board.

30. What should you do if you witness a coworker suffering from fatigue and exhaustion?

  • A. Ignore it and continue with your duties
  • B. Encourage them to work even harder
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer for appropriate action
  • D. Make fun of them and ridicule their condition
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer for appropriate action
Fatigue impairs judgement and reaction time and is a major cause of marine accidents. It should be reported so work and rest hours, required by STCW and MLC, can be managed and the person relieved if necessary.

Set 22 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the purpose of an emergency muster station on board a vessel?

  • A. To gather the crew for daily meetings and announcements
  • B. To organise crew parties and events
  • C. To provide a designated assembly point in case of an emergency
  • D. To restrict crew members' movement on the vessel
Answer: C — To provide a designated assembly point in case of an emergency
SOLAS III/11 and the muster list designate muster stations where crew and passengers assemble on the emergency signal. There persons are counted, instructions are given and they proceed to survival craft if required.

2. What does the term "SART" stand for?

  • A. Ship's Automatic Recording Tracker
  • B. Safety Assessment and Risk Training
  • C. Search and Rescue Transponder
  • D. Security Alarm Response Team
Answer: C — Search and Rescue Transponder
A SART is a Search and Rescue Transponder operating in the 9 GHz X-band. When interrogated by a searching radar it shows a line of 12 dots on the screen, guiding rescuers to the survival craft. SOLAS IV requires it on ships.

3. What should you do if you encounter a suspicious package or object on board a vessel?

  • A. Open it to satisfy your curiosity
  • B. Ignore it and pretend it doesn't exist
  • C. Report it to your supervisor or designated authority immediately
  • D. Move it to a different location without notifying anyone
Answer: C — Report it to your supervisor or designated authority immediately
Under the ISPS Code and the Ship Security Plan, a suspicious item must not be touched or moved. Report it at once to the officer of the watch or Ship Security Officer, who will isolate the area and follow the security plan.

4. PSSR training is primarily focused on promoting safety in which environment?

  • A. Workplace
  • B. Home
  • C. School
  • D. Hospital
Answer: A — Workplace
Personal Safety and Social Responsibilities training under STCW A-VI/1-4 concerns safe working practices and responsible behaviour in the shipboard workplace, including emergency procedures, pollution prevention and human relationships on board.

5. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of PSSR training?

  • A. Promoting safe working practices
  • B. Enhancing crew communication skills
  • C. Preventing environmental pollution
  • D. Ensuring employee promotions
Answer: D — Ensuring employee promotions
STCW Table A-VI/1-4 lists compliance with emergency procedures, pollution prevention, safe working practices, effective communication and effective human relationships as PSSR competences. Career promotion is not one of its objectives.

6. The STCW Convention requires which personnel to receive PSSR training?

  • A. Only deck officers
  • B. Only engineers
  • C. All seafarers
  • D. Only catering staff
Answer: C — All seafarers
STCW Regulation VI/1 requires all seafarers employed or engaged on seagoing ships with designated safety or pollution prevention duties to complete basic training, including PSSR, before being assigned shipboard duties.

7. Which of the following is a key aspect of personal safety in the workplace?

  • A. Wearing fashionable clothing
  • B. Using personal protective equipment (PPE)
  • C. Sharing personal information with colleagues
  • D. Ignoring safety guidelines
Answer: B — Using personal protective equipment (PPE)
Correct use of PPE such as helmets, safety shoes, gloves, goggles and harnesses is a basic element of personal safety on board, protecting the wearer from residual hazards that cannot be eliminated by other controls.

8. What should you do if you encounter an unsafe working condition?

  • A. Ignore it and continue working
  • B. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
  • C. Share it on social media
  • D. Wait for someone else to address it
Answer: B — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
Unsafe conditions must be reported so they can be corrected before anyone is hurt. The ISM Code requires hazardous situations and non-conformities to be reported to the company and acted upon.

9. What does the "Stop Work Authority" principle refer to?

  • A. The right of employees to halt work in unsafe conditions
  • B. The obligation to work continuously without breaks
  • C. The authority of management to dismiss employees
  • D. The requirement to work during off-hours
Answer: A — The right of employees to halt work in unsafe conditions
Stop Work Authority empowers every person on board to stop a job without fear of reprisal when they see an unsafe act or condition. Work resumes only after the hazard has been reviewed and controlled.

10. How can you contribute to maintaining a safe working environment?

  • A. By ignoring safety policies and procedures
  • B. By keeping hazards a secret
  • C. By reporting incidents and near misses
  • D. By avoiding safety training programmes
Answer: C — By reporting incidents and near misses
Reporting incidents and near misses, as required by ISM Code section 9, allows causes to be analysed and corrected before they lead to accidents. Near-miss reporting is a key indicator of a positive safety culture.

11. What does the "buddy system" involve?

  • A. Working alone without any supervision
  • B. Sharing personal information with coworkers
  • C. Working closely with a designated partner
  • D. Excluding others from the work environment
Answer: C — Working closely with a designated partner
In the buddy system two people work together and watch out for each other, for example during enclosed space entry or work aloft. Each can raise the alarm or help immediately if the other gets into difficulty.

12. What should you do if you suspect a coworker is under the influence of alcohol or drugs?

  • A. Ignore it and mind your own business
  • B. Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
  • C. Join them in their activities
  • D. Confront them directly and criticise their behaviour
Answer: B — Report it to your supervisor or safety officer
A person impaired by alcohol or drugs endangers themselves and others. Company drug and alcohol policies and STCW A-VIII/1 limits require such cases to be reported so the person can be removed from duty and the matter handled properly.

13. What is the purpose of a safety audit?

  • A. To identify hazards and potential risks on board a vessel
  • B. To evaluate the quality of food served on the vessel
  • C. To assess the crew's physical fitness levels
  • D. To promote crew conflicts and disputes
Answer: A — To identify hazards and potential risks on board a vessel
Safety audits, including internal ISM audits under section 12 of the Code, verify that safety procedures are being followed and effective, and identify hazards, risks and non-conformities requiring corrective action.

14. What is the primary purpose of wearing a lifejacket?

  • A. To enhance physical appearance
  • B. To prevent seasickness
  • C. To improve swimming skills
  • D. To increase the chances of survival in water
Answer: D — To increase the chances of survival in water
A lifejacket keeps the wearer afloat with the mouth clear of the water, and turns an unconscious person face up as required by the LSA Code 2.2.1. This greatly increases the chance of survival in the water.

15. What should you do in the event of a person falling overboard?

  • A. Continue sailing and ignore the situation
  • B. Raise the alarm, start a man-overboard manoeuvre and initiate a search and rescue operation
  • C. Pretend you didn't notice and continue with your duties
  • D. Wait for someone else to raise the alarm
Answer: B — Raise the alarm, start a man-overboard manoeuvre and initiate a search and rescue operation
On man overboard, shout the alarm, throw a lifebuoy, keep the person in sight and inform the bridge. The officer of the watch starts a recovery turn, marks the position and organises rescue boat recovery.

16. The new STCW competence 'Contribute to the prevention of and response to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault' has been added to which STCW Code table?

  • A. Table A-II/4 (Ratings forming part of a navigational watch)
  • B. Table A-VI/1-4 (Personal safety and social responsibilities)
  • C. Table A-VI/1-1 (Personal survival techniques)
  • D. Table A-VI/6-1 (Security awareness)
Answer: B — Table A-VI/1-4 (Personal safety and social responsibilities)
Resolution MSC.560(108) replaced Table A-VI/1-4, the PSSR competence table under Section A-VI/1, adding the new competence on prevention of and response to violence and harassment. It therefore forms part of basic training required for all seafarers.

17. The STCW Code amendments introducing training on prevention of and response to violence and harassment were adopted by which IMO resolution?

  • A. MSC.416(97)
  • B. MEPC.328(76)
  • C. A.1047(27)
  • D. MSC.560(108)
Answer: D — MSC.560(108)
The Maritime Safety Committee at its 108th session adopted resolution MSC.560(108) on 23 May 2024, amending Part A of the STCW Code to add the violence and harassment competence to Table A-VI/1-4.

18. On what date did the STCW Code amendments on prevention of and response to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault, enter into force?

  • A. 15 December 2025
  • B. 1 July 2025
  • C. 1 January 2027
  • D. 1 January 2026
Answer: D — 1 January 2026
Resolution MSC.560(108) provided for deemed acceptance on 1 July 2025 and entry into force on 1 January 2026. DGS Circular 53 of 2025 likewise brings the directive into force from 01.01.2026.

19. For the purpose of the new STCW competence, the term 'violence and harassment' is to be understood as defined in which instrument?

  • A. ISPS Code, Part B
  • B. MLC 2006, Regulation 4.3
  • C. ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190)
  • D. ISM Code, Part A
Answer: C — ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190)
The footnote to the amended Table A-VI/1-4 states that violence and harassment are as defined in the ILO Violence and Harassment Convention, 2019 (No. 190), the first international treaty dealing specifically with violence and harassment in the world of work.

20. Under ILO Convention No. 190, 'violence and harassment' refers to unacceptable behaviours and practices, or threats of them, that:

  • A. Result only in physical injury requiring medical treatment
  • B. Are repeated at least three times within a contract period
  • C. Aim at, result in, or are likely to result in physical, psychological, sexual or economic harm, whether a single occurrence or repeated
  • D. Are committed only by a superior against a subordinate
Answer: C — Aim at, result in, or are likely to result in physical, psychological, sexual or economic harm, whether a single occurrence or repeated
ILO C190 defines violence and harassment as a range of unacceptable behaviours and practices, or threats thereof, whether a single occurrence or repeated, that aim at, result in or are likely to result in physical, psychological, sexual or economic harm, including gender-based violence and harassment.

21. In the context of violence and harassment training, the 'continuum of harm' means that:

  • A. Unacceptable behaviour ranges from less obvious acts such as offensive jokes and comments up to severe acts such as sexual assault, and lower-level behaviour left unchecked can escalate
  • B. Harm to the victim continues only until the perpetrator signs off
  • C. Harm is only recognised once it has continued for more than one voyage
  • D. Only physical assault is regarded as harmful
Answer: A — Unacceptable behaviour ranges from less obvious acts such as offensive jokes and comments up to severe acts such as sexual assault, and lower-level behaviour left unchecked can escalate
The continuum of harm describes a spectrum of behaviours from apparently minor acts such as derogatory remarks, jokes or unwanted attention to serious acts such as physical or sexual assault. Tolerating the lower end creates conditions in which more serious harm can occur.

22. Repeated, unreasonable behaviour directed towards a person, such as persistent ridicule, intimidation, deliberate exclusion or unfair criticism intended to undermine them, is best described as:

  • A. Constructive criticism
  • B. Performance appraisal
  • C. Conflict resolution
  • D. Bullying
Answer: D — Bullying
Bullying is typically repeated, unreasonable behaviour directed at a person or group that intimidates, humiliates, isolates or undermines them. It differs from legitimate supervision or feedback, which is fair, factual and aimed at improving work.

23. Which of the following is an example of sexual harassment on board?

  • A. An Officer correcting an error in a rest hour record
  • B. A Chief Officer instructing a rating to wear a safety helmet on deck
  • C. A Master refusing shore leave because of port security restrictions
  • D. Unwelcome comments about a crew member's body, sexual jokes or sending sexually explicit images to a colleague
Answer: D — Unwelcome comments about a crew member's body, sexual jokes or sending sexually explicit images to a colleague
Sexual harassment is unwelcome conduct of a sexual nature, verbal, non-verbal or physical, that offends, humiliates or intimidates. Remarks about a person's body, sexual jokes and sending explicit images are typical examples; lawful safety instructions are not harassment.

24. Any sexual act or sexual touching carried out on a person without their consent, including by force, threat or when the person is unable to consent, is termed:

  • A. Discrimination
  • B. Sexual assault
  • C. Cyber-bullying
  • D. Verbal harassment
Answer: B — Sexual assault
Sexual assault is the most serious end of the continuum of harm and involves sexual contact or acts without the consent of the person. It is a criminal offence and must be reported, with the victim given medical care and support.

25. Posting humiliating photographs of a shipmate on social media or sending threatening messages through a messaging group is an example of:

  • A. Effective informal communication
  • B. Cyber-harassment or cyber-bullying
  • C. A breach of the ship security plan only
  • D. Acceptable banter
Answer: B — Cyber-harassment or cyber-bullying
The PSSR 2026 syllabus requires trainees to recognise cyber-harassment and cyber-bullying, which use phones, internet, social media or messaging apps to harass, humiliate or threaten a person. Onboard connectivity means such conduct can follow the victim everywhere on the ship.

26. In violence and harassment training, a 'bystander' is:

  • A. A port State control officer
  • B. The person who commits the harmful act
  • C. A person who witnesses or becomes aware of the violence or harassment but is not the target or the perpetrator
  • D. Only the company's Designated Person Ashore
Answer: C — A person who witnesses or becomes aware of the violence or harassment but is not the target or the perpetrator
The syllabus distinguishes victims, perpetrators, bystanders and stakeholders. A bystander is someone who sees, hears or learns of the harmful behaviour; bystanders can play an important role by safely intervening, supporting the victim and reporting.

27. Which of the following is listed in the amended STCW Table A-VI/1-4 as a factor that may contribute to violence and harassment on board?

  • A. Use of Standard Marine Communication Phrases
  • B. Abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol
  • C. Rotation of watchkeeping duties
  • D. Regular safety committee meetings
Answer: B — Abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol
The new competence requires seafarers to understand that, among others, abuse of power relations, discrimination, stress, isolation, fatigue, drugs or alcohol may contribute to violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault.

28. Why is the strict rank hierarchy on board ships considered a risk factor for harassment?

  • A. It removes the need for any onboard complaint procedure
  • B. It means all decisions must be referred ashore
  • C. It prevents the ship from complying with STCW manning requirements
  • D. Senior personnel control work, appraisals and future employment, so juniors may fear reporting and power can be abused
Answer: D — Senior personnel control work, appraisals and future employment, so juniors may fear reporting and power can be abused
Abuse of power relations is a recognised cause of harassment. Where a superior controls duties, reports and contract renewal, a junior seafarer, cadet or trainee may feel unable to object or report, which allows the behaviour to continue.

29. Which shipboard condition most increases the risk of violence and harassment going unchallenged?

  • A. Frequent port calls with shore leave
  • B. Regular familiarisation training
  • C. A small, isolated crew living and working together for long periods, far from family and outside support
  • D. Having an active safety committee
Answer: C — A small, isolated crew living and working together for long periods, far from family and outside support
Isolation, confinement, long contracts and limited access to outside help are identified as conditions that raise the risk of violence and harassment on board and make it harder for victims to escape or report the behaviour.

30. Which of the following is a likely consequence of harassment and bullying for ship safety?

  • A. Reduced concentration, stress and fatigue in victims, poor communication and reluctance to speak up, increasing the risk of accidents
  • B. Fewer near-miss reports because there are fewer hazards
  • C. Reduced need for drills
  • D. Improved watchkeeping alertness
Answer: A — Reduced concentration, stress and fatigue in victims, poor communication and reluctance to speak up, increasing the risk of accidents
The syllabus requires knowledge of the effects of violence and harassment on safety, health and well-being. Victims may suffer anxiety, poor sleep and reduced concentration, and a climate of fear stops crew speaking up about hazards, directly undermining safe operations.

Set 23 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following is a possible consequence of harassment for the perpetrator?

  • A. Automatic promotion
  • B. Disciplinary action, dismissal, loss of future employment and possible criminal prosecution
  • C. Exemption from the onboard complaint procedure
  • D. Extension of the contract
Answer: B — Disciplinary action, dismissal, loss of future employment and possible criminal prosecution
Consequences extend to perpetrators as well as victims. Depending on the seriousness, company policy and law, the perpetrator may face disciplinary measures, dismissal, blacklisting by employers and, for offences such as sexual assault, criminal prosecution.

2. How can violence and harassment on board affect the shipping company as a stakeholder?

  • A. It has no effect on the company as the matter is personal
  • B. It reduces the company's insurance premiums
  • C. It can lead to legal liability, reputational damage, loss of charter business, high crew turnover and difficulty recruiting
  • D. It only affects the flag State
Answer: C — It can lead to legal liability, reputational damage, loss of charter business, high crew turnover and difficulty recruiting
Stakeholders such as the shipowner, manager, charterers and the wider industry suffer from violence and harassment through legal claims, reputational harm, poor retention and recruitment, particularly of women seafarers, and the safety consequences of a degraded working culture.

3. Which practice most helps to prevent violence and harassment and create an inclusive work environment on board?

  • A. Avoiding any discussion of the company's harassment policy
  • B. Allowing jokes about nationality and religion to build team spirit
  • C. Showing respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, and senior officers setting a clear example of zero tolerance
  • D. Keeping juniors separate from officers at all times
Answer: C — Showing respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, and senior officers setting a clear example of zero tolerance
The PSSR 2026 outline requires trainees to value teamwork, respect for cultural, religious, gender and ethnic diversity, conflict management and an inclusive work environment. Leadership by senior officers is central to setting acceptable standards of behaviour.

4. A senior officer repeatedly gives a female cadet the least desirable tasks and excludes her from training opportunities because of her gender. This behaviour is:

  • A. A matter only for the cadet's training institute
  • B. Normal allocation of duties
  • C. Acceptable if recorded in the logbook
  • D. Gender-based discrimination, which is a form of harassment and a risk factor for further abuse
Answer: D — Gender-based discrimination, which is a form of harassment and a risk factor for further abuse
Treating a person less favourably because of gender is discrimination. ILO C190 includes gender-based violence and harassment, and the amended STCW table lists discrimination as a contributing factor to violence and harassment on board.

5. As per DGS Circular 53 of 2025, how many additional hours were added to the PSSR course for the new competence on violence and harassment?

  • A. 8 hours
  • B. 3 hours
  • C. 6 hours
  • D. 2 hours
Answer: B — 3 hours
DGS Circular 53 of 2025 directs MTIs to add three hours to the PSSR course, split as 1.5 hours on prevention and 1.5 hours on response to violence and harassment, making the total PSSR duration 29 hours over 4 days.

6. Following DGS Circular 53 of 2025, what is the total duration of the PSSR course?

  • A. 22.5 hours over 3 days
  • B. 26 hours over 4 days
  • C. 24 hours over 4 days
  • D. 29 hours over 4 days
Answer: D — 29 hours over 4 days
The circular adds 3 hours on violence and harassment to the PSSR course, which had already become 26 hours after the 2-hour seafarer awareness module of Training Circular 3 of 2025. The revised duration is therefore 29 hours over 4 days.

7. From which date did the revised PSSR curriculum including the violence and harassment module come into effect for MTIs under DGS Circular 53 of 2025?

  • A. 15 December 2025
  • B. 1 July 2025
  • C. 23 May 2024
  • D. 1 January 2027
Answer: A — 15 December 2025
DGS Circular 53 of 2025 states that the revised course curriculum comes into effect from 15 December 2025 and course completion certificates are issued only on completion of the updated module, while the directive itself is in force from 1 January 2026.

8. Under DGS Circular 53 of 2025, how are existing officers, ratings and trainees who already hold a PSSR certificate to complete the new violence and harassment competence?

  • A. By an oral examination at the Mercantile Marine Department
  • B. By completing the e-learning programme on the DGS online Learning Management System and keeping the completion certificate with their BST or PSSR certificate
  • C. No action is required for existing seafarers
  • D. By repeating the entire Basic Safety Training course
Answer: B — By completing the e-learning programme on the DGS online Learning Management System and keeping the completion certificate with their BST or PSSR certificate
The circular requires all other existing officers, ratings and trainees, when ashore, to complete the DGS LMS e-learning course for the PSSR amendment 2026 and attach the certificate to their BST or PSSR certificate. Those serving on board may complete it after signing off and before rejoining.

9. Under DGS Circular 53 of 2025, the new violence and harassment competence for officers' preparatory, competency and revalidation courses is to be combined with which existing training?

  • A. Medical First Aid
  • B. Ship Security Awareness training
  • C. Bridge Resource Management
  • D. The 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order No. 01 of 2023
Answer: D — The 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order No. 01 of 2023
The circular directs that the additional competency requirements be combined with the topics of the 6-hour Gender Sensitization training mandated by DGS Order 01 of 2023 in preparatory, competency and revalidation courses for deck and engineer officers, and that certificates bear an annotation of completion.

10. You witness a shipmate being verbally abused and humiliated by another crew member in the mess room. What is the most appropriate first response as a bystander?

  • A. Join in so the situation does not escalate against you
  • B. Ignore it because it is not your concern
  • C. Intervene safely, for example by calmly interrupting or distracting, without putting yourself at risk, then support the victim and report it
  • D. Wait until the end of the contract and then mention it ashore
Answer: C — Intervene safely, for example by calmly interrupting or distracting, without putting yourself at risk, then support the victim and report it
The new competence requires basic knowledge of action to intervene in and report violence and harassment. A bystander should act only in a way that is safe, for example by interrupting, distracting or getting help, then check on the victim and report through the proper channel.

11. Bystander intervention techniques are commonly summarised as the '5 Ds'. Which set correctly lists them?

  • A. Deter, Detain, Declare, Disclose, Dismiss
  • B. Direct, Distract, Delegate, Delay, Document
  • C. Discuss, Decide, Do, Debrief, Discipline
  • D. Detect, Deny, Defend, Debrief, Discharge
Answer: B — Direct, Distract, Delegate, Delay, Document
The 5 Ds are Direct (speak up), Distract (interrupt the situation), Delegate (get help from someone with authority), Delay (check on the victim afterwards) and Document (record what was seen). They give bystanders safe options suited to the situation.

12. A bystander who is not comfortable confronting a harasser directly asks a senior officer to step in. Which bystander technique is this?

  • A. Delegate
  • B. Direct
  • C. Distract
  • D. Delay
Answer: A — Delegate
Delegating means getting help from another person who is better placed to intervene, such as a senior officer or the Master. It is useful when direct intervention may be unsafe or when the bystander lacks the authority to stop the behaviour.

13. A crew member tells you in confidence that she has been sexually harassed by a colleague. What should you do first?

  • A. Tell her she must have misunderstood the colleague's intentions
  • B. Listen calmly without judgement, believe her account, reassure her that it is not her fault and ask how she wishes to be supported
  • C. Immediately announce the matter at the next safety meeting
  • D. Confront the colleague in front of the crew
Answer: B — Listen calmly without judgement, believe her account, reassure her that it is not her fault and ask how she wishes to be supported
Trauma-informed support starts with listening without judgement, believing the person, not blaming them and respecting their choices and confidentiality. The victim should then be helped to use the reporting procedure and access support.

14. Which of the following is a basic principle of a trauma-informed response?

  • A. Deciding on the victim's behalf what action to take without consulting them
  • B. Prioritising the victim's safety, choice, trust and confidentiality and avoiding actions that re-traumatise them
  • C. Arranging a face-to-face meeting between the victim and the alleged perpetrator
  • D. Pressing the victim to repeat every detail many times to check consistency
Answer: B — Prioritising the victim's safety, choice, trust and confidentiality and avoiding actions that re-traumatise them
A trauma-informed response recognises the impact of trauma and focuses on safety, trustworthiness, choice, collaboration and empowerment. Repeated questioning, blame or forced confrontation with the perpetrator can re-traumatise the victim.

15. Which statement is an example of victim-blaming that must be avoided when responding to a report of harassment?

  • A. This is not your fault
  • B. You did the right thing by telling me
  • C. Why did you go to his cabin in the first place?
  • D. We will make sure you are safe
Answer: C — Why did you go to his cabin in the first place?
Questions implying the victim caused or invited the behaviour shift responsibility away from the perpetrator and discourage reporting. A trauma-informed response reassures the victim that the behaviour is not their fault and that they will be supported.

16. A seafarer reports that she has just been sexually assaulted on board. Which immediate action is most appropriate?

  • A. Ask her to wait until the next port before telling anyone
  • B. Ensure she is safe and separated from the alleged perpetrator, offer medical care, preserve evidence where possible and inform the Master in line with company procedure
  • C. Ask the alleged perpetrator to apologise and treat the matter as closed
  • D. Advise her to shower and wash her clothes so she can feel better
Answer: B — Ensure she is safe and separated from the alleged perpetrator, offer medical care, preserve evidence where possible and inform the Master in line with company procedure
After a sexual assault the priorities are the victim's safety, medical care and emotional support. Where she consents, physical evidence should be preserved by not washing or discarding clothing, and the matter must be reported to the Master and company for investigation and onward reporting.

17. If the alleged harasser is the Master, to whom should a seafarer normally report the matter?

  • A. To no one, since the Master has overriding authority
  • B. To the agent at the next port only
  • C. To the company, for example the Designated Person Ashore or the designated contact in the company's harassment policy
  • D. To the pilot when he boards
Answer: C — To the company, for example the Designated Person Ashore or the designated contact in the company's harassment policy
Company procedures provide an alternative reporting route when the person in charge is involved. The DPA under the ISM Code has direct access to the highest level of management, and company anti-harassment policies name designated contacts; seafarers may also complain to external authorities.

18. When recording a case of harassment on board, the record should contain:

  • A. A summary for posting on the crew notice board
  • B. Factual details such as date, time, place, what was said or done, persons involved and witnesses, kept confidential
  • C. The recorder's personal opinion of the victim's character
  • D. Only the name of the victim
Answer: B — Factual details such as date, time, place, what was said or done, persons involved and witnesses, kept confidential
The PSSR 2026 outline requires trainees to record cases of violence and harassment. Records should be factual, accurate and made as soon as possible, covering what happened, when, where and who was present, and must be kept confidential to protect those involved.

19. Why must information about a harassment complaint be kept confidential?

  • A. To protect the victim and witnesses from gossip and retaliation and ensure a fair process for all parties
  • B. To avoid informing the company
  • C. To protect the reputation of the vessel at all costs
  • D. Because harassment is not a reportable matter
Answer: A — To protect the victim and witnesses from gossip and retaliation and ensure a fair process for all parties
Confidentiality encourages reporting, protects the victim and witnesses against victimisation and preserves the fairness of any investigation. Information should be shared only with those who need it to act on the complaint.

20. A seafarer who reports harassment is afterwards given extra night duties and threatened with a bad appraisal. This is:

  • A. Retaliation or victimisation, which is prohibited and must itself be reported
  • B. Acceptable if approved by the head of department
  • C. Normal adjustment of the work schedule
  • D. A matter of conflict resolution only
Answer: A — Retaliation or victimisation, which is prohibited and must itself be reported
Protection against victimisation is essential for any complaint system. MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5 requires onboard complaint procedures to safeguard seafarers against victimisation for filing complaints, and company harassment policies prohibit retaliation.

21. Which of the following is an early warning sign that a crew member may be a victim of bullying or harassment?

  • A. Withdrawal, avoiding certain people or places, changes in mood, poor sleep or a sudden fall in work performance
  • B. Improved appetite and energy
  • C. Increased participation in social activities
  • D. Volunteering for extra training
Answer: A — Withdrawal, avoiding certain people or places, changes in mood, poor sleep or a sudden fall in work performance
Being able to identify violence and harassment includes recognising its effects on victims. Withdrawal, anxiety, avoiding particular colleagues, irritability, sleep problems and declining performance can indicate that a person is being harassed and needs support.

22. Which behaviour could trigger or escalate violence on board and should prompt early intervention?

  • A. A colleague politely asking for help with a task
  • B. A crew member requesting a change of cabin for noise reasons
  • C. Heavy drinking, aggressive outbursts, threats and repeated taunting of a crew member
  • D. A rating asking for clarification of an order
Answer: C — Heavy drinking, aggressive outbursts, threats and repeated taunting of a crew member
The response syllabus asks trainees to identify behaviours that could trigger violence and harassment. Intoxication, verbal aggression, threats and taunting are warning signs; intervening early and informing a senior officer can prevent escalation to physical violence.

23. When supporting a colleague who has experienced harassment, a bystander should also:

  • A. Discuss the case with other crew to share the burden
  • B. Recognise the effect on themselves and seek support if needed, as witnessing harm can also be distressing
  • C. Avoid the victim to stay neutral
  • D. Ignore their own distress because only the victim matters
Answer: B — Recognise the effect on themselves and seek support if needed, as witnessing harm can also be distressing
The amended STCW table requires understanding of how to provide appropriate support to a victim, bystanders and self. Witnessing or handling harassment can cause stress, so seafarers should look after their own well-being and use available welfare and counselling services.

24. Which is the correct approach when a victim does not want the matter formally investigated?

  • A. Force a formal investigation regardless of risk
  • B. Respect the victim's wishes where possible, keep a confidential record, keep offering support, and escalate only where there is a serious risk to safety or a legal duty to report
  • C. Destroy all records of the disclosure
  • D. Tell the alleged perpetrator so he can explain
Answer: B — Respect the victim's wishes where possible, keep a confidential record, keep offering support, and escalate only where there is a serious risk to safety or a legal duty to report
A trauma-informed approach gives the victim choice and control. However, where there is a serious risk to the victim or others, or the conduct is a crime such as sexual assault, the Master and company may need to act, and the victim should be told what will happen.

25. What is the main purpose of a company's anti-harassment policy being displayed and explained on board?

  • A. To meet a decorative requirement of the SMS
  • B. To replace the onboard complaint procedure
  • C. To restrict seafarers from contacting authorities ashore
  • D. To make clear what behaviour is unacceptable, how to report it, how complaints are handled and that retaliation is not tolerated
Answer: D — To make clear what behaviour is unacceptable, how to report it, how complaints are handled and that retaliation is not tolerated
A clear policy sets expected standards of behaviour, explains reporting channels including confidential contacts ashore, and assures protection against victimisation. Shipping companies are guided by DGS Circular 53 of 2025 to include this competence in their familiarisation programmes.

26. During a disclosure of harassment, which question is most appropriate?

  • A. What were you wearing?
  • B. What would help you feel safe right now?
  • C. Are you sure you are not exaggerating?
  • D. Why did you not report it earlier?
Answer: B — What would help you feel safe right now?
Trauma-informed questioning is open, non-judgemental and focused on the person's safety and needs. Questions that suggest blame, doubt or delay discourage disclosure and can cause further harm.

27. On recognising that a crew member is in immediate danger of physical assault, the first priority is to:

  • A. Wait for the company's instructions
  • B. Take a photograph for evidence
  • C. Record the event in the logbook
  • D. Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Answer: D — Ensure the immediate safety of the person, raising the alarm or calling for help without putting yourself at undue risk
Where there is an immediate threat, safety comes first: separate the parties if this can be done safely, call for help from senior officers and protect the person at risk. Documentation and reporting follow once the situation is under control.

28. Under the amended STCW Table A-VI/1-4, which criterion is used to evaluate the competence of responding to violence and harassment?

  • A. Communication using the GMDSS equipment
  • B. Ability to don an immersion suit within two minutes
  • C. Ability to steer the ship in an emergency
  • D. Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
Answer: D — Acceptable practices and procedures for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment are observed at all times
The evaluation criteria in the new competence state that acceptable practices and procedures designed for prevention, and for intervention in and reporting of violence and harassment, including sexual harassment, bullying and sexual assault, are observed at all times.

29. A cadet says a senior officer keeps sending him insulting messages late at night on the crew chat group. The cadet should be advised to:

  • A. Reply with similar insults
  • B. Leave the group and say nothing
  • C. Delete all the messages to avoid trouble
  • D. Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Answer: D — Keep the messages as evidence (for example screenshots), avoid retaliating, and report the behaviour through the company procedure
Cyber-harassment leaves a digital trail. Preserving messages helps any investigation, while not retaliating avoids escalation. The cadet should report it to the Master or a designated company contact, using an alternative channel if the senior officer is in the reporting line.

30. Which statement about reporting harassment is correct?

  • A. Only the victim may report harassment
  • B. Reports may only be made after the contract ends
  • C. Reports must be made in writing to the flag State only
  • D. Any seafarer who witnesses or becomes aware of violence or harassment can and should report it through the available channels
Answer: D — Any seafarer who witnesses or becomes aware of violence or harassment can and should report it through the available channels
Seafarers are expected to identify, intervene in and report violence and harassment. Bystanders who report help stop the behaviour and protect others; reports can be made to the Master, a designated officer, the DPA or company contacts, and external authorities where needed.

Set 24 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following best describes appropriate support to a victim of harassment after reporting?

  • A. Moving the victim to a lower-ranked post
  • B. Checking regularly on the victim's well-being, keeping them informed of progress, and helping them access medical, counselling or welfare services
  • C. Asking the victim to share the story at a crew meeting
  • D. Leaving the victim alone so they can forget the matter
Answer: B — Checking regularly on the victim's well-being, keeping them informed of progress, and helping them access medical, counselling or welfare services
Support continues after the report. Regular, discreet check-ins, information about what is being done and access to medical care, counselling, welfare helplines and company support help the victim recover and maintain trust in the process.

2. DGS Training Circular No. 3 of 2025 mandates a one-time basic awareness course for seafarers. How many hours does this module add to the PSSR course?

  • A. 1 hour
  • B. 2 hours
  • C. 6 hours
  • D. 3 hours
Answer: B — 2 hours
Training Circular 3 of 2025 includes a 2-hour basic awareness module covering MLC provisions under the MS Act, the RPS and Maritime Labour Rules, grievances, FAQs, safe career planning and seafarers' rights, making the PSSR course 26 hours over 4 days.

3. Which Indian rules regulate the licensing of agencies that recruit and place seafarers on Indian and foreign-flag ships?

  • A. Inland Vessels Act Rules
  • B. Merchant Shipping (Recruitment and Placement of Seafarers) Rules
  • C. Merchant Shipping (Tonnage Measurement) Rules
  • D. Merchant Shipping (Prevention of Collisions at Sea) Regulations
Answer: B — Merchant Shipping (Recruitment and Placement of Seafarers) Rules
The Merchant Shipping (Recruitment and Placement of Seafarers) Rules, now the RPS Rules 2016 under the MS Act 1958, require recruitment and placement agencies to hold a DG Shipping licence and provide safeguards including repatriation of stranded seafarers.

4. A person promises an aspiring seafarer a guaranteed job on a ship if he pays a large sum for 'placement' and training through him. What should the candidate do?

  • A. Pay the amount since jobs at sea are scarce
  • B. Refuse to pay, verify whether the agency is a DGS-licensed RPS agency, and report the suspicious agent to DG Shipping
  • C. Pay half now and half after joining
  • D. Ask the agent for a receipt and then pay
Answer: B — Refuse to pay, verify whether the agency is a DGS-licensed RPS agency, and report the suspicious agent to DG Shipping
Training Circular 3 of 2025 warns of fraudulent agents posing as authorised RPS agents and directs that aspiring seafarers be educated not to pay money for jobs. Seafarers should verify licensed RPS agencies on the DG Shipping website and report suspicious activity.

5. Under MLC 2006, which cost may lawfully be borne by the seafarer in connection with recruitment?

  • A. The recruitment or placement fee charged by the agency
  • B. The cost of the national statutory medical certificate, seafarer's book and passport
  • C. The cost of the visa for joining the ship
  • D. The cost of travel to join the ship
Answer: B — The cost of the national statutory medical certificate, seafarer's book and passport
Standard A1.4.5 prohibits fees or other charges for recruitment, placement or providing employment from being borne by seafarers, other than the cost of the national statutory medical certificate, national seafarer's book and passport or similar travel documents. Visa costs are borne by the shipowner.

6. Before enrolling in a pre-sea or STCW course, how can a candidate confirm that the institute is genuine?

  • A. By checking that the institute charges the highest fees
  • B. By asking a former student only
  • C. By checking that the institute and course are listed as approved on the official DG Shipping website
  • D. By checking advertisements on social media
Answer: C — By checking that the institute and course are listed as approved on the official DG Shipping website
Training Circular 3 of 2025 aims to help aspiring seafarers recognise red flags when dealing with unauthorised colleges and fraudulent agents. Only DGS-approved MTIs and courses, verifiable through the DG Shipping website, lead to valid certificates.

7. Under DGS Training Circular 3 of 2025, who must ensure that freshers and first-time seafarers placed on board have completed the basic awareness course?

  • A. The RPS agencies placing them on board
  • B. The ship's pilot
  • C. The classification society
  • D. The port State control officer
Answer: A — The RPS agencies placing them on board
The circular requires RPS agencies to ensure that all freshers, cadets and trainee seafarers being placed on board have completed the course, to verify it in training records and to maintain the records, which are checked during audits and inspections.

8. Apart from PSSR for freshers, in which course must the seafarer awareness content of Training Circular 3 of 2025 also be included?

  • A. Ship Security Officer course
  • B. Advanced Fire Fighting
  • C. Tanker familiarisation course
  • D. Revalidation (RUTC) courses for nautical and engineering officers
Answer: D — Revalidation (RUTC) courses for nautical and engineering officers
The circular directs that the course content be included in the PSSR course for freshers undergoing the basic STCW courses and also for all nautical and engineering officers doing their revalidation course for revalidating their certificates of competency.

9. Which Indian Act gives effect to the provisions of MLC 2006 for Indian seafarers and ships?

  • A. The Factories Act, 1948
  • B. The Major Port Authorities Act, 2021
  • C. The Indian Ports Act, 1908
  • D. The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, with the Merchant Shipping (Maritime Labour) Rules, 2016
Answer: D — The Merchant Shipping Act, 1958, with the Merchant Shipping (Maritime Labour) Rules, 2016
The awareness course outline covers MLC provisions in the Merchant Shipping Act 1958, the MS (Recruitment and Placement of Seafarers) Rules 2016 and the MS (Maritime Labour) Rules 2016, through which India implements the Convention.

10. Under MLC 2006 as amended in 2014, a seafarer is considered abandoned when the shipowner, among other things:

  • A. Fails to cover the cost of repatriation, leaves the seafarer without necessary maintenance and support, or has unilaterally severed ties including failing to pay wages for at least two months
  • B. Reduces overtime hours
  • C. Delays shore leave in one port
  • D. Changes the ship's flag
Answer: A — Fails to cover the cost of repatriation, leaves the seafarer without necessary maintenance and support, or has unilaterally severed ties including failing to pay wages for at least two months
Standard A2.5.2 defines abandonment as the shipowner failing to pay for repatriation, leaving seafarers without necessary maintenance and support such as food, water, fuel and medical care, or otherwise unilaterally severing ties, including non-payment of contractual wages for at least two months.

11. Under MLC 2006, the financial security system for abandonment must cover outstanding wages and entitlements for a period of at least:

  • A. Four months
  • B. Twelve months
  • C. Two months
  • D. One month
Answer: A — Four months
Standard A2.5.2, introduced by the 2014 amendments, requires the financial security to cover outstanding wages and other entitlements limited to four months, together with repatriation costs and essential needs such as food, water, accommodation and medical care.

12. Where must the certificate or documentary evidence of financial security for abandonment be kept on board?

  • A. Only at the company office
  • B. Posted in a conspicuous place on board available to the seafarers
  • C. With the RPS agency ashore
  • D. In the Master's safe, not to be shown to crew
Answer: B — Posted in a conspicuous place on board available to the seafarers
MLC 2006 Standard A2.5.2 requires the certificate or other documentary evidence of financial security to be carried on board and posted in a conspicuous place where it is available to the seafarers, so they know whom to contact if abandoned.

13. A ship has not paid crew wages for three months, provisions and fuel are running low and the company is not responding. What should the crew do?

  • A. Abandon the ship at once without informing anyone
  • B. Wait silently until the owner returns
  • C. Sell ship's stores to buy food
  • D. Report the situation to DG Shipping, the flag State or port State authorities and the financial security provider, and seek help from seafarer welfare organisations
Answer: D — Report the situation to DG Shipping, the flag State or port State authorities and the financial security provider, and seek help from seafarer welfare organisations
Training Circular 3 of 2025 highlights warning signs of abandonment and the need to reach officials promptly. Seafarers should contact DG Shipping, flag and port State authorities, the financial security provider and welfare bodies; abandonment cases are also recorded on the joint ILO-IMO database.

14. Which of the following is a warning sign of possible abandonment that a seafarer should not ignore?

  • A. Routine change of agents at a port
  • B. Repeated delay in wages, shortage of provisions, fuel or water, and the shipowner not responding to the Master
  • C. A change of charterer
  • D. A scheduled dry-docking
Answer: B — Repeated delay in wages, shortage of provisions, fuel or water, and the shipowner not responding to the Master
The awareness course teaches seafarers to recognise early warning signs of abandonment such as delayed or unpaid wages, inadequate supplies and loss of contact with the owner, so that they can alert the authorities before their situation becomes desperate.

15. Leaving the ship without permission before the end of the agreed contract, with the intention of not returning, is known as:

  • A. Desertion
  • B. Sign-off on medical grounds
  • C. Repatriation
  • D. Shore leave
Answer: A — Desertion
Training Circular 3 of 2025 lists desertion by ship's crew among the risks seafarers must understand. Desertion is a breach of the employment agreement and the MS Act and can lead to loss of wages, penalties and difficulty finding future employment.

16. Which is the correct course of action for a seafarer with a genuine grievance on board?

  • A. Stop work immediately and refuse all duties
  • B. Post it on social media first
  • C. Raise it through the onboard complaint procedure, starting at the lowest appropriate level, and if unresolved take it to the Master or authorities ashore
  • D. Wait until the end of the contract
Answer: C — Raise it through the onboard complaint procedure, starting at the lowest appropriate level, and if unresolved take it to the Master or authorities ashore
MLC Regulation 5.1.5 and the DGS awareness course require seafarers to use the onboard complaint mechanism, resolving complaints at the lowest level possible while retaining the right to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities such as DG Shipping.

17. If a crew member is found missing on board during the voyage, the immediate action is to:

  • A. Pack the missing person's belongings
  • B. Wait until the next port to report
  • C. Raise the alarm, inform the bridge, carry out a thorough search of the ship and treat it as a possible man overboard
  • D. Inform only the person's cabin mate
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, inform the bridge, carry out a thorough search of the ship and treat it as a possible man overboard
The awareness course covers missing seafarers and man overboard cases. A missing person must be reported immediately; the ship searches all spaces and, if not found, initiates man overboard and search and rescue procedures, informing the company and authorities.

18. Why should a seafarer keep copies of his employment agreement, wage slips and certificates?

  • A. They replace the Continuous Discharge Certificate
  • B. The RPS agency requires them to be returned
  • C. They are needed only for income tax
  • D. They provide proof of employment terms, wages and service if a dispute, abandonment or claim arises
Answer: D — They provide proof of employment terms, wages and service if a dispute, abandonment or claim arises
Secure career planning includes maintaining personal records. MLC requires the seafarer to receive a signed original of the SEA and a monthly account of wages; these documents are essential evidence when seeking unpaid wages, compensation or help from authorities.

19. Under MLC 2006, before signing the Seafarers' Employment Agreement the seafarer must:

  • A. Have served at least six months at sea
  • B. Pay a deposit to the shipowner
  • C. Be given an opportunity to examine and seek advice on the agreement and freely accept it
  • D. Obtain approval from the classification society
Answer: C — Be given an opportunity to examine and seek advice on the agreement and freely accept it
Standard A2.1.1 requires that seafarers signing an SEA be given an opportunity to examine and seek advice on the agreement before signing, and that they freely accept it with sufficient understanding of their rights and responsibilities.

20. Under the Merchant Shipping (RPS) Rules, which of the following is a responsibility of a licensed RPS agency?

  • A. To issue Certificates of Competency
  • B. To place seafarers only with shipowners and ensure they hold valid certificates, and to provide for repatriation if the shipowner fails to do so
  • C. To approve training institutes
  • D. To charge the seafarer a placement fee
Answer: B — To place seafarers only with shipowners and ensure they hold valid certificates, and to provide for repatriation if the shipowner fails to do so
The RPS Rules provide a mechanism to protect Indian seafarers on Indian and foreign-flag ships, including safeguards for repatriation when the owner fails to repatriate stranded seafarers. Licensed agencies must place only properly certified seafarers and may not charge recruitment fees.

21. In the event of the arrest of a ship in a foreign port, the crew's best immediate course of action is to:

  • A. Sell personal belongings to pay the arrest claim
  • B. Leave the ship and travel home at their own expense
  • C. Refuse to cooperate with port authorities
  • D. Continue to maintain the ship's safety, stay in contact with the Master, company and RPS agency, and contact DG Shipping or the Indian mission if wages or supplies are not provided
Answer: D — Continue to maintain the ship's safety, stay in contact with the Master, company and RPS agency, and contact DG Shipping or the Indian mission if wages or supplies are not provided
Training Circular 3 of 2025 lists arrest of the vessel or crew among the risks seafarers must be prepared for. The crew should keep the ship safe, remain in contact with responsible parties and seek help from DG Shipping, Indian missions and welfare organisations if their rights are at risk.

22. The Maritime Labour Convention, 2006 was adopted by which organisation?

  • A. International Labour Organization
  • B. International Maritime Organization
  • C. International Transport Workers' Federation
  • D. International Chamber of Shipping
Answer: A — International Labour Organization
MLC 2006 was adopted by the International Labour Conference of the ILO in Geneva in February 2006. It consolidates and updates over 60 earlier maritime labour conventions and recommendations into a single instrument often called the seafarers' bill of rights.

23. MLC 2006 is often described as the 'fourth pillar' of the international maritime regulatory regime, alongside which three IMO conventions?

  • A. SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
  • B. COLREG, Load Lines and Tonnage
  • C. SAR, FAL and CLC
  • D. ISPS, ISM and IMDG
Answer: A — SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL
MLC 2006 complements the three key IMO conventions, SOLAS, STCW and MARPOL, by setting minimum standards for seafarers' working and living conditions, and is therefore referred to as the fourth pillar of maritime regulation.

24. How many Titles is MLC 2006 divided into?

  • A. Five
  • B. Three
  • C. Six
  • D. Four
Answer: A — Five
The Regulations and Code of MLC 2006 are organised in five Titles: minimum requirements to work on a ship; conditions of employment; accommodation, recreational facilities, food and catering; health protection, medical care, welfare and social security; and compliance and enforcement.

25. Title 1 of MLC 2006 deals with:

  • A. Minimum requirements for seafarers to work on a ship
  • B. Compliance and enforcement
  • C. Social security protection
  • D. Accommodation and catering
Answer: A — Minimum requirements for seafarers to work on a ship
Title 1 sets the minimum requirements for seafarers to work on a ship: minimum age, medical certificate, training and qualifications, and recruitment and placement. Title 2 then covers conditions of employment such as the employment agreement, wages, hours and leave.

26. Under MLC 2006, the minimum age for employment or work on board a ship is:

  • A. 17 years
  • B. 18 years
  • C. 15 years
  • D. 16 years
Answer: D — 16 years
Regulation 1.1 and Standard A1.1 prohibit the employment, engagement or work on board a ship of any person under the age of 16. Higher age limits apply to night work and hazardous work.

27. Under MLC 2006, night work by seafarers under what age is prohibited, subject to limited exceptions for training?

  • A. 18
  • B. 21
  • C. 16
  • D. 17
Answer: A — 18
Standard A1.1.2 prohibits night work of seafarers under the age of 18, with night defined as a period of at least nine hours starting no later than midnight and ending no earlier than 5 a.m. Exceptions may be made for approved training programmes.

28. Under MLC 2006, the maximum period of validity of a medical certificate for a seafarer under 18 years of age is:

  • A. 1 year
  • B. 6 months
  • C. 5 years
  • D. 2 years
Answer: A — 1 year
Standard A1.2.7 sets a maximum validity of two years for medical certificates, except that for seafarers under the age of 18 the maximum period of validity is one year. A certificate of colour vision may be valid for up to six years.

29. If a seafarer's medical certificate expires in the course of a voyage, under MLC 2006 it continues in force until:

  • A. The flag State issues a new certificate
  • B. The ship returns to its home port, however long that takes
  • C. The next port of call where a qualified medical practitioner is available, provided the period does not exceed three months
  • D. The end of the seafarer's contract
Answer: C — The next port of call where a qualified medical practitioner is available, provided the period does not exceed three months
Standard A1.2.9 allows a medical certificate that expires during a voyage to continue in force until the next port of call where a medical practitioner recognised by the Party is available, provided that the period does not exceed three months.

30. To which of the following ships does MLC 2006 NOT apply?

  • A. A passenger ship engaged in commercial activities
  • B. An oil tanker on coastal trade
  • C. A bulk carrier on international voyages
  • D. A warship or naval auxiliary
Answer: D — A warship or naval auxiliary
Article II of MLC 2006 applies the Convention to ships ordinarily engaged in commercial activities, but excludes warships and naval auxiliaries, ships engaged in fishing, ships of traditional build such as dhows and junks, and ships navigating exclusively in inland or sheltered waters.

Set 25 — 30 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. Under MLC 2006, a 'seafarer' means:

  • A. Only a person holding a Certificate of Competency
  • B. Any person who is employed or engaged or works in any capacity on board a ship to which the Convention applies
  • C. Only deck and engine ratings
  • D. Only persons on ships of 500 GT and above
Answer: B — Any person who is employed or engaged or works in any capacity on board a ship to which the Convention applies
Article II.1(f) defines a seafarer as any person who is employed or engaged or works in any capacity on board a ship to which the Convention applies. This includes catering, hotel and entertainment staff as well as deck and engine personnel.

2. Which certificate, together with the Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, must be carried by ships of 500 GT and above on international voyages under MLC 2006?

  • A. Maritime Labour Certificate
  • B. International Ship Security Certificate
  • C. International Safety Management Certificate
  • D. Minimum Safe Manning Document
Answer: A — Maritime Labour Certificate
Regulation 5.1.3 requires ships of 500 GT or over engaged in international voyages to carry a Maritime Labour Certificate and a Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance, certifying that seafarers' working and living conditions have been inspected and meet the Convention.

3. The maximum period of validity of a Maritime Labour Certificate is:

  • A. 5 years
  • B. 2.5 years
  • C. 10 years
  • D. 1 year
Answer: A — 5 years
Standard A5.1.3 provides that the Maritime Labour Certificate is issued for a period not exceeding five years, subject to an intermediate inspection between the second and third anniversary dates.

4. Under MLC 2006, which part of the Declaration of Maritime Labour Compliance is drawn up by the shipowner?

  • A. Part III
  • B. Part I
  • C. Both parts are drawn up by the flag State
  • D. Part II
Answer: D — Part II
DMLC Part I is drawn up by the competent authority of the flag State and lists the national requirements, while Part II is drawn up by the shipowner and identifies the measures adopted to ensure ongoing compliance, which the flag State then certifies.

5. Under MLC 2006, seafarers must not work on a ship unless they:

  • A. Are trained or certified as competent or otherwise qualified to perform their duties, including personal safety training
  • B. Have paid a training levy to the shipowner
  • C. Have at least one year of sea service
  • D. Are members of a trade union
Answer: A — Are trained or certified as competent or otherwise qualified to perform their duties, including personal safety training
Regulation 1.3 requires seafarers to be trained or certified as competent or otherwise qualified to perform their duties, and to have successfully completed training for personal safety on board ship. STCW certification is accepted as meeting these requirements.

6. Under MLC 2006, the minimum notice period to be given by a seafarer or shipowner for early termination of the Seafarers' Employment Agreement shall not be shorter than:

  • A. 24 hours
  • B. 3 days
  • C. 7 days
  • D. 30 days
Answer: C — 7 days
Standard A2.1.5 requires each Member to establish minimum notice periods for early termination of an SEA, which shall not be shorter than seven days. Shorter notice may be allowed in urgent circumstances on compassionate grounds without penalty.

7. Under MLC 2006, the record of employment given to the seafarer on board must NOT contain:

  • A. The dates of service
  • B. The seafarer's capacity on board
  • C. Any statement as to the quality of the seafarer's work or as to his wages
  • D. The name of the ship
Answer: C — Any statement as to the quality of the seafarer's work or as to his wages
Standard A2.1.3 provides that the document containing a record of employment shall not contain any statement as to the quality of the seafarer's work or as to their wages, so that it cannot be used against the seafarer.

8. Under MLC 2006, seafarers' wages must be paid at intervals of no greater than:

  • A. One month
  • B. One week
  • C. Two months
  • D. The end of the contract
Answer: A — One month
Standard A2.2.1 requires payments due to seafarers to be made at no greater than monthly intervals and in accordance with any applicable collective agreement. Seafarers must also be given a monthly account of payments due and amounts paid.

9. Under MLC 2006, seafarers are entitled to have all or part of their earnings transmitted to their families. This arrangement is known as:

  • A. A subsistence allowance
  • B. A bonus
  • C. An allotment
  • D. Overtime
Answer: C — An allotment
Standard A2.2.3 requires shipowners to take measures to provide seafarers with a means to transmit all or part of their earnings to their families or dependants, including by allotments, at a reasonable charge and exchange rate.

10. Under MLC 2006, the normal working hours standard for seafarers is based on:

  • A. A 6-hour day with two days of rest per week
  • B. An 8-hour day with one day of rest per week and rest on public holidays
  • C. A 10-hour day with one day of rest a fortnight
  • D. A 12-hour day, seven days a week
Answer: B — An 8-hour day with one day of rest per week and rest on public holidays
Standard A2.3.3 states that the normal working hours standard for seafarers, like that for other workers, shall be based on an eight-hour day with one day of rest per week and rest on public holidays.

11. When a seafarer is called out to work during a normal rest period, for example for a call to the engine room, MLC 2006 requires that:

  • A. The seafarer must be paid double
  • B. No adjustment is necessary
  • C. The seafarer is given an adequate compensatory rest period
  • D. The call-out be recorded only in the deck logbook
Answer: C — The seafarer is given an adequate compensatory rest period
Standard A2.3 provides that when a seafarer on call has their normal rest period disturbed by call-outs to work, they shall have an adequate compensatory rest period.

12. Musters, fire-fighting and lifeboat drills under MLC 2006 must be conducted:

  • A. Only in port
  • B. Only once per contract
  • C. Only during the seafarers' rest hours
  • D. In a manner that minimises the disturbance of rest periods and does not induce fatigue
Answer: D — In a manner that minimises the disturbance of rest periods and does not induce fatigue
Standard A2.3.7 requires musters, fire-fighting and lifeboat drills and drills prescribed by national laws and international instruments to be conducted in a manner that minimises the disturbance of rest periods and does not induce fatigue.

13. Under MLC 2006, who has the right to suspend the schedule of hours of work or rest for the immediate safety of the ship, persons on board or cargo?

  • A. The Bosun
  • B. The Master
  • C. The ship's agent
  • D. The Chief Engineer
Answer: B — The Master
Standard A2.3.14 allows the Master to require a seafarer to perform any hours of work necessary for the immediate safety of the ship, persons on board or cargo, or to give assistance to other ships or persons in distress. Adequate rest must be given once normal conditions are restored.

14. Under MLC 2006, seafarers must receive a copy of the records of their daily hours of rest that is:

  • A. Unsigned to protect privacy
  • B. Signed by the port State control officer
  • C. Kept only by the company
  • D. Endorsed by the Master or a person authorised by the Master, and by the seafarer
Answer: D — Endorsed by the Master or a person authorised by the Master, and by the seafarer
Standard A2.3.12 requires records of seafarers' daily hours of work or rest to be maintained, and seafarers to receive a copy of the records pertaining to them, endorsed by the Master or authorised person and by the seafarer.

15. Under MLC 2006, the maximum duration of service on board after which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than:

  • A. 9 months
  • B. 18 months
  • C. 6 months
  • D. 12 months
Answer: D — 12 months
Standard A2.5.1.2 provides that the maximum duration of service periods on board following which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation shall be less than 12 months.

16. Under MLC 2006, the shipowner may recover the cost of repatriation from the seafarer's wages only when:

  • A. The seafarer has been found, in accordance with national law, to be in serious default of employment obligations
  • B. The seafarer falls sick
  • C. The ship is sold
  • D. The seafarer has completed the contract
Answer: A — The seafarer has been found, in accordance with national law, to be in serious default of employment obligations
Standard A2.5.1.3 prohibits shipowners from requiring seafarers to make an advance payment towards repatriation or recovering the cost from their wages, except where the seafarer has been found to be in serious default of their employment obligations.

17. Under MLC 2006, which of the following is a situation in which a seafarer is entitled to repatriation?

  • A. When the ship changes its cargo
  • B. When the seafarer wishes to take a holiday ashore in the middle of a voyage
  • C. When the seafarer is transferred to another department on board
  • D. When the SEA expires while the seafarer is abroad, or the seafarer is no longer able to carry out duties due to illness or injury
Answer: D — When the SEA expires while the seafarer is abroad, or the seafarer is no longer able to carry out duties due to illness or injury
Standard A2.5.1.1 entitles seafarers to repatriation when the SEA expires while they are abroad, when it is terminated by the shipowner or by the seafarer for justified reasons, and when they are no longer able to carry out their duties or cannot be expected to carry them out.

18. Under MLC 2006, which of the following is the entitlement concerning shore leave?

  • A. Shore leave is allowed only at the home port
  • B. Shore leave is counted against annual leave
  • C. Seafarers have no right to shore leave
  • D. Seafarers shall be granted shore leave to benefit their health and well-being, consistent with the operational requirements of their positions
Answer: D — Seafarers shall be granted shore leave to benefit their health and well-being, consistent with the operational requirements of their positions
Regulation 2.4 requires seafarers to be granted shore leave to benefit their health and well-being, consistent with operational requirements. Shore leave forms part of the welfare provisions that protect seafarers' health during long periods at sea.

19. Under MLC 2006, agreements to forgo the minimum annual leave with pay are:

  • A. Mandatory on long contracts
  • B. Permitted if the seafarer is paid in lieu
  • C. Decided by the Master
  • D. Prohibited, except in cases provided for by the competent authority
Answer: D — Prohibited, except in cases provided for by the competent authority
Standard A2.4.3 prohibits any agreement to forgo the minimum annual leave with pay, except in cases provided for by the competent authority, because paid leave is essential to seafarers' health and rest.

20. Under MLC 2006, the minimum age of a ship's cook is:

  • A. 16 years
  • B. 21 years
  • C. 17 years
  • D. 18 years
Answer: D — 18 years
Standard A3.2.8 provides that no seafarer under the age of 18 shall be employed or engaged or work as a ship's cook. Ship's cooks must also be trained and qualified for the position.

21. Under MLC 2006, food and drinking water on board shall be provided to seafarers:

  • A. Free only on weekends
  • B. Free only for officers
  • C. At a subsidised cost deducted from wages
  • D. Free of charge during the period of engagement
Answer: D — Free of charge during the period of engagement
Regulation 3.2 requires that seafarers on board a ship be provided with food free of charge during their period of engagement, and that food and drinking water be of appropriate quality, nutritional value and quantity, taking account of differing cultural and religious backgrounds.

22. Under MLC 2006, the minimum inside dimensions of a berth in seafarers' accommodation shall be at least:

  • A. 180 cm by 70 cm
  • B. 190 cm by 75 cm
  • C. 198 cm by 80 cm
  • D. 210 cm by 90 cm
Answer: C — 198 cm by 80 cm
Standard A3.1.9 requires the minimum inside dimensions of a berth to be at least 198 centimetres by 80 centimetres, as part of the accommodation standards intended to give seafarers decent and adequate sleeping arrangements on board.

23. Under MLC 2006, the minimum permitted headroom in seafarers' accommodation where full and free movement is necessary is:

  • A. 220 cm
  • B. 180 cm
  • C. 203 cm
  • D. 190 cm
Answer: C — 203 cm
Standard A3.1.6 requires a minimum permitted headroom of not less than 203 centimetres in all seafarer accommodation where full and free movement is necessary, although the competent authority may permit limited reductions where reasonable.

24. Under MLC 2006, separate sleeping rooms shall be provided for:

  • A. Different nationalities
  • B. Deck and engine departments
  • C. Men and women
  • D. Officers and ratings only
Answer: C — Men and women
Standard A3.1.9 requires separate sleeping rooms to be provided for men and for women, as part of the accommodation standards intended to ensure decent living conditions, privacy and dignity on board.

25. Under MLC 2006, a ship should be provided with separate hospital accommodation when it carries 15 or more seafarers and is engaged in a voyage of more than:

  • A. 3 days
  • B. 7 days
  • C. 14 days
  • D. 24 hours
Answer: A — 3 days
Standard A3.1.12 requires ships carrying 15 or more seafarers and engaged in a voyage of more than three days to provide separate hospital accommodation to be used exclusively for medical purposes.

26. Under MLC 2006, ships carrying 100 or more persons and ordinarily engaged on international voyages of more than three days must carry:

  • A. A trained nurse in place of a doctor
  • B. A qualified medical doctor responsible for providing medical care
  • C. A telemedicine terminal only
  • D. Only a first aid kit
Answer: B — A qualified medical doctor responsible for providing medical care
Standard A4.1.4 requires ships carrying 100 or more persons and ordinarily engaged on international voyages of more than three days' duration to carry a qualified medical doctor responsible for providing medical care.

27. On ships not carrying a doctor, MLC 2006 requires that medical care be the responsibility of:

  • A. The ship's agent at the next port
  • B. The youngest officer on board
  • C. At least one seafarer in charge of medical care and medicine trained to the STCW standard
  • D. The ship's cook
Answer: C — At least one seafarer in charge of medical care and medicine trained to the STCW standard
Standard A4.1.4 requires ships without a doctor to have at least one seafarer on board in charge of medical care and the administration of medicine as part of their regular duties, trained in accordance with STCW requirements.

28. MLC 2006 requires that medical advice by radio or satellite communication be available to ships at sea:

  • A. 24 hours a day, free of charge
  • B. Only when the ship is within 200 nm of land
  • C. Only in emergencies declared by the flag State
  • D. Only during office hours
Answer: A — 24 hours a day, free of charge
Standard A4.1.4 requires Members to ensure, by a prearranged system, that medical advice by radio or satellite communication to ships at sea, including specialist advice, is available 24 hours a day, and is free of charge to all ships irrespective of flag.

29. Under MLC 2006, the shipowner is liable to pay wages and sick pay to a seafarer who is sick or injured, for a period that may be limited to not less than:

  • A. 16 weeks
  • B. 52 weeks
  • C. 4 weeks
  • D. 8 weeks
Answer: A — 16 weeks
Standard A4.2 provides that where sickness or injury results in incapacity for work, the shipowner pays full wages while the sick or injured seafarer remains on board, and thereafter wages in whole or part as national law provides; this liability may be limited to not less than 16 weeks.

30. Under MLC 2006, a ship's safety committee must be established on board ships with how many or more seafarers?

  • A. Ten
  • B. Five
  • C. Twenty
  • D. Three
Answer: B — Five
Standard A4.3.2 requires national laws to specify that a ship's safety committee be established on board a ship on which there are five or more seafarers, with participation of seafarers' safety representatives.

Set 26 — 36 PSSR exit exam questions with answers

1. MLC 2006 lists nine branches of social security. Which of the following is one of them?

  • A. Education allowance
  • B. Employment injury benefit
  • C. Tax exemption
  • D. Housing subsidy
Answer: B — Employment injury benefit
Standard A4.5.1 lists the branches as medical care, sickness benefit, unemployment benefit, old-age benefit, employment injury benefit, family benefit, maternity benefit, invalidity benefit and survivors' benefit. A Member must cover at least three branches on ratification.

2. Under MLC 2006 Regulation 5.1.5, onboard complaint procedures must include safeguards against:

  • A. Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
  • B. Port State inspections
  • C. Flag changes
  • D. Overtime claims
Answer: A — Victimisation of seafarers for filing complaints
Regulation 5.1.5 requires ships to have onboard procedures for fair, effective and expeditious handling of seafarer complaints, and prohibits and penalises any kind of victimisation of a seafarer for filing a complaint.

3. Under MLC 2006 Standard A5.1.5, a seafarer making a complaint on board has the right to:

  • A. Have the complaint decided only by the Chief Officer
  • B. Refuse all duties until the complaint is resolved
  • C. Be accompanied or represented during the complaints procedure and to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities
  • D. Receive extra wages for the complaint
Answer: C — Be accompanied or represented during the complaints procedure and to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities
Standard A5.1.5 requires onboard complaint procedures to include the right of the seafarer to be accompanied or represented, and not to prevent the seafarer from complaining directly to the Master and, where they consider it necessary, to appropriate external authorities.

4. Under MLC 2006, the copy of the onboard complaint procedures given to seafarers must include:

  • A. The home address of the Master
  • B. The financial statements of the shipowner
  • C. The ship's cargo plan
  • D. Contact information for the competent authority in the flag State and in the seafarer's country of residence, and the name of a person on board who can give confidential, impartial advice
Answer: D — Contact information for the competent authority in the flag State and in the seafarer's country of residence, and the name of a person on board who can give confidential, impartial advice
Standard A5.1.5.4 requires all seafarers to be provided with a copy of the onboard complaint procedures, including contact information for the flag State and residence-country competent authorities and the names of persons on board who can provide confidential, impartial advice.

5. Under MLC 2006, onboard complaints should normally be resolved:

  • A. Only by port State control
  • B. At the highest level, by the company's board of directors
  • C. Only after the seafarer signs off
  • D. At the lowest level possible
Answer: D — At the lowest level possible
Standard A5.1.5.2 states that onboard complaint procedures should seek to resolve complaints at the lowest level possible, while retaining the seafarer's right to complain directly to the Master and to external authorities.

6. Under MLC 2006, which instrument allows seafarers to make a complaint to an authorised officer in a port of call, even if the ship is foreign-flagged?

  • A. MARPOL Annex VI
  • B. SOLAS Chapter V
  • C. Regulation 5.2.2 on onshore seafarer complaint-handling procedures
  • D. ISPS Code Part A
Answer: C — Regulation 5.2.2 on onshore seafarer complaint-handling procedures
Regulation 5.2.2 requires each Member to ensure that seafarers on ships calling at ports in its territory who allege a breach of the Convention, including seafarers' rights, may report such a complaint to facilitate a prompt and practical means of redress.

7. Which of the following is an example of operational, rather than accidental, pollution from ships?

  • A. Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
  • B. Oil released after a grounding
  • C. Cargo lost in a collision
  • D. Fuel spilled from a sinking ship
Answer: A — Routine discharge of oily bilge water, sewage, garbage and exhaust emissions during normal operation
The PSSR syllabus distinguishes operational pollution, which arises from routine ship operations such as discharges of bilge water, ballast, sewage, garbage and engine exhaust, from accidental pollution caused by casualties such as collision, grounding, fire or sinking.

8. Why is oil particularly harmful to seabirds?

  • A. It only affects their eyesight temporarily
  • B. It makes them heavier so they fly faster
  • C. It has no effect because birds avoid oil slicks
  • D. It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Answer: D — It mats their feathers, destroying insulation and buoyancy, leading to hypothermia and drowning, and is poisonous when swallowed during preening
Oil coats feathers and destroys their waterproofing and insulating properties, so birds lose body heat and buoyancy. Birds also ingest oil while trying to clean themselves, causing internal damage and poisoning.

9. The transfer of harmful aquatic organisms and pathogens in ships' ballast water is addressed by which convention?

  • A. MARPOL Annex IV
  • B. AFS Convention 2001
  • C. London Convention 1972
  • D. International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Answer: D — International Convention for the Control and Management of Ships' Ballast Water and Sediments, 2004
Ballast water can carry invasive species that establish themselves in new ecosystems and damage biodiversity, fisheries and health. The BWM Convention, in force since 8 September 2017, requires ships to manage ballast water and sediments to prevent such transfers.

10. The AFS Convention 2001 banned the use of which harmful substance in ships' anti-fouling paints?

  • A. Zinc chromate
  • B. Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
  • C. Silicone
  • D. Copper oxide
Answer: B — Tributyltin (TBT) and other organotin compounds
The International Convention on the Control of Harmful Anti-fouling Systems on Ships prohibits organotin compounds such as tributyltin, which proved highly toxic to marine life, causing deformities in shellfish and accumulating in the food chain.

11. Excess nutrients from untreated sewage discharged into enclosed coastal waters can cause:

  • A. Lower water temperatures
  • B. Increased oxygen levels and clearer water
  • C. Faster dispersal of oil
  • D. Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Answer: D — Eutrophication, with algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen and kill fish and other marine life
Sewage adds nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus and organic matter. In confined waters this promotes algal blooms; when the algae die and decay, oxygen is depleted, creating dead zones, while pathogens in sewage also threaten human health and shellfish.

12. Plastics discharged from ships harm the marine environment mainly because they:

  • A. Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
  • B. Sink immediately and cause no harm
  • C. Dissolve quickly and change water colour
  • D. Increase plankton growth
Answer: A — Persist for very long periods, are ingested by or entangle marine animals, and break down into microplastics that enter the food chain
Plastics are persistent and do not biodegrade readily. Animals such as turtles, seabirds and mammals eat or become entangled in them, lost fishing gear continues to trap animals, and fragments break into microplastics. This is why MARPOL Annex V prohibits discharge of all plastics.

13. Which of the following best describes the complexity of the marine environment as covered in the PSSR syllabus?

  • A. Only coastal areas are affected by pollution
  • B. The sea is so large that it can absorb any amount of waste
  • C. Marine ecosystems such as plankton, coral reefs, mangroves and fisheries are interlinked through food webs, so damage to one part affects others
  • D. Marine life is uniform across all oceans
Answer: C — Marine ecosystems such as plankton, coral reefs, mangroves and fisheries are interlinked through food webs, so damage to one part affects others
The syllabus requires basic knowledge of the complexity and diversity of the marine environment. Plankton form the base of food webs, while coral reefs and mangroves act as nurseries; pollution in one area or species can therefore spread effects throughout the ecosystem.

14. Sea areas designated by IMO for special protection because of their ecological, socio-economic or scientific significance and vulnerability to damage from shipping are called:

  • A. Traffic Separation Schemes
  • B. Areas To Be Avoided only
  • C. Emission Control Areas
  • D. Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Answer: D — Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas
Particularly Sensitive Sea Areas are designated by IMO where an area's ecological, socio-economic or scientific attributes are vulnerable to international shipping. Associated protective measures may include routeing measures and discharge restrictions; the Great Barrier Reef was the first, in 1990.

15. Sulphur oxide emissions from ships' exhausts contribute to which environmental problem?

  • A. Ozone layer repair
  • B. Increase in sea level
  • C. Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
  • D. Ballast water contamination
Answer: C — Acid rain and harmful fine particulate matter affecting human health and ecosystems
Sulphur oxides from burning high-sulphur fuel form sulphate aerosols and acidic deposition, damaging ecosystems, and contribute to fine particulate matter that harms respiratory health in coastal and port areas. MARPOL Annex VI therefore limits fuel sulphur content.

16. What is the main environmental concern addressed by IMO's 2023 Strategy on Reduction of GHG Emissions from Ships?

  • A. Underwater noise
  • B. Oil pollution from tankers
  • C. Garbage in special areas
  • D. Climate change caused by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, with the aim of net-zero emissions from international shipping by or around 2050
Answer: D — Climate change caused by greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, with the aim of net-zero emissions from international shipping by or around 2050
Greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels contribute to global warming and ocean acidification. The 2023 IMO GHG Strategy aims for net-zero GHG emissions from international shipping by or around, that is close to, 2050.

17. Persistent toxic substances that accumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and become more concentrated at higher levels of the food chain illustrate the process of:

  • A. Dispersion
  • B. Bioaccumulation and biomagnification
  • C. Emulsification
  • D. Evaporation
Answer: B — Bioaccumulation and biomagnification
Some pollutants such as heavy metals and certain chemicals are not broken down and build up in organisms. As predators eat contaminated prey, concentrations increase up the food chain, harming top predators, including humans who eat seafood.

18. Accumulation of marine growth on ships' hulls is an environmental concern mainly because it:

  • A. Reduces underwater noise
  • B. Protects the hull from corrosion
  • C. Can transfer invasive aquatic species to new regions and increases fuel consumption and emissions
  • D. Improves fuel efficiency
Answer: C — Can transfer invasive aquatic species to new regions and increases fuel consumption and emissions
Biofouling on hulls and niche areas is a major pathway for introducing invasive aquatic species, and it increases hull resistance and therefore fuel consumption and emissions. IMO has adopted Biofouling Guidelines to help ships manage this risk.

19. The period of the day when the human body's alertness is naturally at its lowest, increasing the risk of fatigue-related errors, is approximately:

  • A. 1200 to 1400 only
  • B. 0800 to 1000
  • C. 0200 to 0600
  • D. 1800 to 2000
Answer: C — 0200 to 0600
Because of the circadian rhythm, alertness and performance are lowest in the early morning hours, roughly between 0200 and 0600, known as the window of circadian low. Watchkeepers on the 0000-0400 watch are particularly vulnerable.

20. Which hormone, released in darkness, signals the body that it is time to sleep and helps regulate the circadian rhythm?

  • A. Adrenaline
  • B. Insulin
  • C. Melatonin
  • D. Cortisol
Answer: C — Melatonin
Melatonin is produced by the brain in response to darkness and promotes sleep. Bright light suppresses it, which is why light exposure and a dark sleeping environment are important in managing circadian rhythms and fatigue on board.

21. The grogginess and reduced performance experienced immediately after waking, especially from deep sleep, is called:

  • A. Sleep inertia
  • B. Microsleep
  • C. Insomnia
  • D. Sleep debt
Answer: A — Sleep inertia
Sleep inertia is a temporary state of reduced alertness after waking, which can last from a few minutes up to around 30 minutes. Seafarers should allow time to become fully alert before taking over a watch or performing critical tasks after sleeping or napping.

22. A very brief, involuntary episode of sleep lasting from a fraction of a second to several seconds, often without the person being aware of it, is known as:

  • A. Sleep inertia
  • B. REM sleep
  • C. A power nap
  • D. A microsleep
Answer: D — A microsleep
Microsleeps occur when a person is severely fatigued. During these brief lapses the person does not respond to information, which can be fatal when on watch, operating machinery or steering. They are a sign that sleep is urgently needed.

23. Which is the only effective long-term way to recover from fatigue?

  • A. Adequate, good quality sleep
  • B. Taking cold showers
  • C. Drinking strong coffee
  • D. Increasing physical exercise
Answer: A — Adequate, good quality sleep
Caffeine, fresh air or exercise may temporarily mask sleepiness but do not remove the underlying need for sleep. IMO Guidelines on Fatigue emphasise that only sufficient sleep of good quality restores alertness and repays sleep debt.

24. Which sleeping environment best promotes good quality sleep on board?

  • A. Near the engine room casing
  • B. Dark, quiet, cool and well ventilated
  • C. Bright, warm and noisy
  • D. With the television on
Answer: B — Dark, quiet, cool and well ventilated
Light, noise, heat and vibration disturb sleep. A dark, quiet, cool and well-ventilated cabin, together with good sleep habits such as avoiding caffeine and heavy meals before sleep, helps seafarers obtain restorative sleep.

25. Normal sleep consists of repeated cycles of non-REM and REM sleep. Approximately how long does one complete sleep cycle last in adults?

  • A. 4 hours
  • B. 10 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. 90 minutes
Answer: D — 90 minutes
Sleep progresses through light and deep non-REM stages and REM sleep in cycles of about 90 minutes, repeated several times a night. Interrupted or fragmented sleep, common with watch schedules, prevents the completion of cycles and reduces its restorative value.

26. Why should caffeine be avoided in the hours before a planned sleep period?

  • A. It causes immediate sleep
  • B. It is a stimulant whose effects last several hours and can delay sleep and reduce sleep quality
  • C. It improves deep sleep
  • D. It reduces the need for sleep permanently
Answer: B — It is a stimulant whose effects last several hours and can delay sleep and reduce sleep quality
Caffeine is a stimulant that blocks the body's sleep signals. Its effects persist for several hours, so taking coffee, tea or energy drinks shortly before rest can make it harder to fall asleep and reduce sleep quality, adding to fatigue.

27. Most adults need about how much sleep in each 24-hour period to remain fully alert?

  • A. 7 to 9 hours
  • B. 11 to 12 hours
  • C. 5 hours
  • D. 3 to 4 hours
Answer: A — 7 to 9 hours
Adults generally need 7 to 9 hours of sleep per 24 hours. Getting less than this night after night builds a sleep debt that reduces alertness and performance and increases the risk of errors and accidents.

28. Which of the following is a sign that a seafarer is becoming dangerously fatigued?

  • A. Increased appetite only
  • B. Improved memory and quick reactions
  • C. Feeling cold in the morning
  • D. Difficulty concentrating, slow reactions, irritability, poor judgement and repeated yawning or heavy eyelids
Answer: D — Difficulty concentrating, slow reactions, irritability, poor judgement and repeated yawning or heavy eyelids
Fatigue affects mental and physical performance. Warning signs include inability to concentrate, slowed reactions, forgetfulness, irritability, poor decision-making and visible sleepiness. A fatigued seafarer should inform the officer in charge.

29. In the Tuckman model of team development, the stage where members test boundaries and disagreements emerge over roles and methods is called:

  • A. Storming
  • B. Performing
  • C. Forming
  • D. Norming
Answer: A — Storming
Tuckman's stages are forming, storming, norming and performing. Storming is the stage of conflict as members assert ideas and test the leader; handled well, it leads to agreed norms and an effective, performing team.

30. Which conflict-handling approach aims for a win-win solution that satisfies the concerns of both parties?

  • A. Competing
  • B. Accommodating
  • C. Avoiding
  • D. Collaborating
Answer: D — Collaborating
Collaborating combines high assertiveness with high cooperation: both parties work together to find a solution that fully addresses each other's concerns. It takes time but produces the most durable resolution of conflicts.

31. When a conflict arises between two crew members, it is generally best to:

  • A. Discuss it openly at mealtimes with the whole crew
  • B. Report only the person you dislike
  • C. Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
  • D. Let it continue until the end of the voyage
Answer: C — Address it early and privately, focusing on the problem and facts rather than personalities
Unresolved conflict on board affects morale, communication and safety. Effective conflict resolution involves dealing with issues promptly, in private, listening to both sides, focusing on behaviour and facts and agreeing a way forward.

32. Which behaviour is an example of being assertive rather than aggressive?

  • A. Keeping quiet to avoid disagreement
  • B. Stating your views clearly and respectfully while listening to others
  • C. Shouting to make your point heard
  • D. Threatening a colleague who disagrees
Answer: B — Stating your views clearly and respectfully while listening to others
Assertiveness means expressing one's opinions, needs and concerns openly and honestly while respecting others. It is important for safety, for example when a junior must challenge an unsafe order, and differs from aggression, which disregards others.

33. On a ship with a multinational crew, good working relationships are best promoted by:

  • A. Allowing each nationality to work only with its own group
  • B. Requiring everyone to adopt the customs of the majority nationality
  • C. Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
  • D. Avoiding any social contact
Answer: C — Respecting cultural and religious differences, using a common working language and avoiding stereotypes
Mixed-nationality crews are common. Respect for different cultures and religions, use of the common working language, sensitivity to differences in communication style and avoiding stereotypes build trust and teamwork on board.

34. Which of the following best describes 'leading by example' on board?

  • A. Senior personnel consistently following safety rules and showing respect, encouraging others to do the same
  • B. Avoiding contact with juniors
  • C. Delegating all hazardous work
  • D. Giving orders without explanation
Answer: A — Senior personnel consistently following safety rules and showing respect, encouraging others to do the same
Behaviour of leaders sets the standard for the team. When senior officers wear PPE, follow procedures and treat others with respect, juniors are more likely to follow, creating a positive safety and working culture.

35. Which conflict-handling approach involves one party giving up its own concerns to satisfy the other?

  • A. Collaborating
  • B. Compromising
  • C. Competing
  • D. Accommodating
Answer: D — Accommodating
Accommodating is cooperative but unassertive: one party yields to the other. It may be useful to preserve relationships over minor issues, but if used habitually it can leave concerns unresolved and lead to resentment.

36. Which of the following contributes most to a sense of trust within a shipboard team?

  • A. Honest, consistent communication, keeping commitments and supporting one another
  • B. Criticising colleagues in their absence
  • C. Frequent changes to agreed plans without notice
  • D. Keeping information to oneself
Answer: A — Honest, consistent communication, keeping commitments and supporting one another
Trust develops when team members communicate openly, do what they say they will do, admit mistakes and help each other. High-trust teams share information freely, which supports both good relationships and safe operations.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these PSSR questions as a timed paper PSSR exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

Send this PSSR answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers

Mariners DigestBrief for seafarers, Tue–SatSIRE PRO: Ship InspectionTanker inspection prepRightShip ProRISQ 3.2 dry-cargo inspection prepCOLREGS ReaderRules of the road, read aloud