FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

All 656 questions from the Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting (FPFF) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Practise these FPFF questions FPFF mock exit exam, 30 marks FPFF exit exam sets and syllabus

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Set 1 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. In the event of a fire, the doors to stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by what?

A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Ventilation
D. Convection

Answer: D — Convection

Closing fire doors prevents the spread of fire and smoke primarily through convection, which is the transfer of heat by the movement of hot gases and air. This compartmentalization is a key passive fire protection strategy as per SOLAS requirements.

2. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2900 square feet, what will fulfil the requirements for fire protection?

A. One B-V extinguisher
B. One B-I extinguisher
C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D. One B-II extinguisher

Answer: C — One B-II and one C-II extinguisher

US 46 CFR 95.50 table: galleys need one B-II or C-II per 2,500 sq ft or fraction; 2,900 sq ft therefore needs two units (B-II + C-II).

3. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be?

A. In the midships house
B. At the vent header
C. At the main deck manifold
D. In the pump room

Answer: D — In the pump room

Pump rooms on tankers contain flammable liquids and ignition sources (e.g., electrical equipment, pumps), making them high-risk areas for liquid cargo fires. Proper fire detection and suppression systems, such as foam or inert gas, are critical in these spaces.

4. Fire triangle fill-up the blanks

A. Fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Heat
D. All of Above

Answer: D — All of Above

The fire triangle represents the three essential components required for fire to exist: fuel (combustible material), oxygen (an oxidizer), and heat (ignition source). Removing any one of these elements will extinguish or prevent a fire.

5. What kind of foam used in engine room?

A. 1:1000
B. 1:500
C. 1:100
D. 1:200

Answer: A — 1:1000

Engine rooms use fixed high-expansion foam (ratio ~200:1 to 1000:1); 1:1000 is the classic expansion cited, though 1:200 and 1:500 are also high-expansion.

6. Dry Chemical Powder Extinguisher System is?

A. Fire Retardant
B. Smothering
C. None of Above
D. Flame Inhibitor

Answer: D — Flame Inhibitor

Dry chemical powder (DCP) extinguishers primarily function by interrupting the chemical chain reaction of the fire, acting as a flame inhibitor. While they also have some smothering effect, their primary extinguishing mechanism is disrupting the combustion process.

7. Fire Plan Location is?

A. Midships
B. All of the above
C. Port and STBD side entrance
D. Bridge

Answer: B — All of the above

Fire plans, mandated by SOLAS, are strategically posted at various accessible locations throughout the ship, including the bridge, main entrances (port and starboard sides), and near accommodation spaces like the midships area. This ensures crews and emergency responders can quickly locate vital information during a fire.

8. Class A Fire Extinguisher is best used on?

A. Liquids
B. Gas
C. Metals
D. Solids

Answer: D — Solids

Class A fire extinguishers are designed for fires involving ordinary combustibles, which are typically solid materials like wood, paper, textiles, and rubber. They work by cooling the fuel and wetting it, preventing reignition.

9. What is the length of Fireman Life Line?

A. 20 M
B. 15 M
C. 40 M
D. 30 M

Answer: D — 30 M

The Fireman's life line, used for rescuing personnel from a burning vessel, is a robust safety line that is typically 30 meters in length, allowing for safe descent or ascent in various emergency scenarios.

10. Which type of Extinguisher is danger to recharge onboard?

A. DCP
B. None of Above
C. FOAM
D. CO2

Answer: D — CO2

Recharging CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguishers onboard a vessel is considered dangerous due to the high pressures involved and the risk of overfilling or contamination. Specialized shore-based facilities are typically used for their safe recharging and testing.

11. What is the colour coding of portable Water Extinguisher?

A. Yellow
B. Signal Red
C. Black
D. White

Answer: B — Signal Red

Portable fire extinguishers are color-coded for quick identification. Water extinguishers, used for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles), are painted Signal Red as per SOLAS and other maritime safety regulations.

12. Heat removal how it stops FIRE?

A. Cooling
B. Inhibition
C. Smothering
D. Starvation

Answer: A — Cooling

Heat removal is a primary method of fire extinguishment. When applied to a fire, water absorbs heat and turns into steam, thereby lowering the temperature of the fuel below its ignition point. This process is known as cooling.

13. What is the recommended fire extinguishing agent for fighting electrical fires in engine room switchboards?

A. Protein foam solution
B. Sea water jet stream
C. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) or non-conductive dry powder
D. Fresh water spray

Answer: C — Carbon Dioxide (CO2) or non-conductive dry powder

CO2 and non-conductive dry powder are non-conductive agents safe for electrical equipment fires.

14. What is the duration of SCBA Bottle for 1200 LTRS?

A. 30 Min.
B. 15 Min.
C. 45 Min
D. 20 Min.

Answer: A — 30 Min.

A standard 1200-liter capacity SCBA bottle is designed to provide approximately 30 minutes of breathable air at a normal breathing rate. This duration is crucial for safe escape and firefighting operations in oxygen-deficient environments.

15. What is the duration of EEBD?

A. 5 Min.
B. 10 Min.
C. 12 Min.
D. 8 Min.

Answer: B — 10 Min.

An EEBD (Emergency Escape Breathing Device) is designed for escape purposes only, providing a limited supply of air for approximately 10 minutes. This duration is sufficient to allow personnel to reach a safe area during an emergency.

16. Proper use of Fire Extinguisher "PASS"?

A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Pass, Aim, Shut, Sit
C. Pass, At, Sure, Speed
D. Pass, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

Answer: A — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

The PASS acronym is a mnemonic for the correct operation of most portable fire extinguishers: Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the operating lever, and Sweep the nozzle from side to side.

17. The visible range of Hand Flare in night time?

A. 40 NM
B. 30 NM
C. 10 NM
D. 25 NM

Answer: C — 10 NM

A handheld red distress flare, as specified by SOLAS, is designed to be visible for at least 10 nautical miles (NM) at night. Its bright red light is intended to attract attention from vessels or aircraft for rescue.

18. Practicable how often shall Rescue Boats to be launched with their assigned crew and Maneuvered in Water?

A. Every Month
B. Every Week
C. Once in Three Month
D. Every Year

Answer: A — Every Month

SOLAS III/19.3.3.7: rescue boats launched with assigned crew and manoeuvred in the water each month where reasonable and practicable (at least every 3 months).

19. Automatic CO2 release system is for which spaces?

A. Main Deck
B. Engine Room
C. None of Above
D. Bridge

Answer: C — None of Above

FSS Code Ch.5: automatic release of CO2 is not permitted for spaces normally manned such as machinery spaces; release must be manual with pre-discharge alarm, so none of the listed spaces.

20. In which language FIRE CONTROL PLAN is written Onboard?

A. Spanish
B. French
C. English
D. Russian

Answer: C — English

Fire control plans, which detail the fire protection systems and equipment onboard, are required to be readily available and are usually written in English. This ensures clear communication and understanding by international crews and rescue services.

21. Class-C Fire Extinguisher is best used on?

A. Electrical
B. Metal
C. Gas
D. Solid

Answer: A — Electrical

Class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Extinguishing agents used for Class C fires must be non-conductive to prevent electrical shock hazards, making CO2 or dry chemical powder suitable choices.

22. What is the maximum weight of a Portable Extinguisher?

A. 15 KG
B. 9 KG
C. 23 KG
D. 5 KG

Answer: C — 23 KG

While regulations can vary, a common upper limit for the weight of a portable fire extinguisher that a single person can reasonably handle is around 23 kg. This ensures portability and ease of use during firefighting operations.

23. Foam Fixed Fire Fighting System is used in which type of Vessels?

A. Oil Tanker
B. Bulk Carriers
C. Container Ship
D. Gas Carriers

Answer: A — Oil Tanker

Foam is a highly effective extinguishing agent for flammable liquid fires, making it a standard fixed firefighting system in cargo and slop tanks of oil tankers. It suppresses vapors and cools the surface.

24. Maximum temperature of unexpected side of B- Class Divisions is?

A. 350
B. 300
C. 225
D. 400

Answer: C — 225

SOLAS II-2/3.4: B-class unexposed side temperature rise not to exceed 140 C average and 225 C at any one point.

25. Foam Extinguisher work on?

A. Smothering
B. Inhibition
C. Starvation
D. Cooling

Answer: A — Smothering

Foam extinguishers work by forming a foam blanket over the surface of flammable liquids, which separates the fuel from the air, thus extinguishing the fire. This process is known as smothering.

26. How many hours diesel driven Fire Pump should run?

A. 14 Hrs
B. 20 Hrs
C. 18 Hrs
D. 16 Hrs

Answer: C — 18 Hrs

According to SOLAS, diesel-driven fire pumps must be capable of operating continuously for a minimum of 18 hours. This ensures a sustained water supply for firefighting operations during extended emergencies.

27. Which is the best Fire Extinguisher for Liquid Fire?

A. CO2
B. Foam
C. Water
D. DCP

Answer: B — Foam

Foam extinguishers are considered the most effective for liquid fires (Class B) because they form a film that suppresses vapors and prevents re-ignition. Water would spread the burning liquid, and CO2/DCP may be less effective on large liquid surfaces.

28. Minimum Capacity of Emergency Fire Pumps?

A. 15 m3/ Hrs
B. 25 m3/ Hrs
C. 20 m3/ Hrs
D. 10 m3/ Hrs

Answer: B — 25 m3/ Hrs

SOLAS mandates that the minimum capacity of emergency fire pumps on vessels is 25 m³/hour. This ensures a sufficient flow rate of water for essential firefighting operations in critical situations.

29. What is the primary purpose of conducting regular boundary cooling during a shipboard compartment fire?

A. Drain water into the bilge pump
B. Reduce sea chest suction pressure
C. Prevent heat conduction through bulkheads and decks from igniting combustible materials in adjacent spaces
D. Cool the firefighter's breathing apparatus

Answer: C — Prevent heat conduction through bulkheads and decks from igniting combustible materials in adjacent spaces

Boundary cooling prevents thermal conduction from transferring heat through bulkheads and igniting combustibles in neighboring compartments.

30. A class - D Fire would involve the burning of:

A. Electrical Insulation
B. Magnesium
C. Dunnage
D. Diesel Oil

Answer: B — Magnesium

Class D fires involve combustible metals like magnesium, titanium, or aluminum. These fires require specialized extinguishing agents designed to react controllably with the burning metal, unlike agents used for other fire classes.

Set 2 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Cooling is the method of fire fighting by limitation of:

A. Air
B. Temperature
C. Fuel
D. Molecular Chain reaction

Answer: B — Temperature

Cooling is a fire extinguishing method that involves reducing the temperature of the burning material below its ignition point. Water is a common cooling agent, as it absorbs a significant amount of heat when it evaporates into steam.

2. Which of the following fuels has the lowest flash point?

A. Diesel Fuel
B. Coal
C. Candle Wax
D. Kerosene

Answer: D — Kerosene

Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a volatile liquid can vaporize to form an ignitable mixture in air. Kerosene has a lower flash point than diesel fuel, coal (which is a solid), and candle wax, making it more easily ignitable.

3. Which ship shall be provided with International Shore Connection for supply of water as Extinguishing agent?

A. Passenger ship carrying more than 500 person
B. Tanker
C. Passenger ship of 1000 person and above
D. All ship of 500 GT and above

Answer: D — All ship of 500 GT and above

SOLAS regulations require that all ships of 500 GT and above be provided with an International Shore Connection. This facilitates the supply of water from shore-based fire fighting appliances to the ship's fixed fire main.

4. The basic fire theory says that a fire needs 4 main elements in order to start: Heat, Fuel, Oxygen and ____?

A. Hydrogen Sulphide
B. Carbon-dioxide
C. Benzene
D. A chain reaction

Answer: D — A chain reaction

The fire tetrahedron, representing the four essential elements for fire to exist and sustain itself, includes Heat, Fuel, Oxygen, and a Chain Reaction. Removing any one of these elements will extinguish the fire.

5. The letters A, B and C on the portable fire extinguisher represent what?

A. Type of fire on which it can be used
B. The first 3 letters of the extinguisher
C. None of the above
D. How much chemical it holds

Answer: A — Type of fire on which it can be used

The letters A, B, and C on portable fire extinguishers indicate the class of fire on which they are suitable for use. Class A is for ordinary combustibles, Class B for flammable liquids, and Class C for energized electrical fires.

6. Hazard in Accommodation?

A. Defective electrical connection
B. All of the above
C. Furnishing and Personal effects
D. Cigarette smoking

Answer: B — All of the above

Accommodation spaces present multiple fire hazards, including furnishings (Class A), personal effects, potential ignition sources like smoking materials and faulty electrical connections. Therefore, all these factors contribute to the overall fire risk.

7. Electricity switch board fire with power on, what type of extinguisher to be used?

A. Carbon-dioxide
B. Water
C. DCP
D. Foam

Answer: A — Carbon-dioxide

For fires involving energized electrical equipment, such as switchboards, a Carbon Dioxide (CO2) extinguisher is the preferred choice. CO2 is a non-conductive gas that displaces oxygen and cools the fire without leaving residue.

8. Substances involving wood, plastic and paper are classified as?

A. Class D fire
B. Class C fire
C. Class A fire
D. Class B fire

Answer: C — Class A fire

Class A fires involve ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper, textiles, and some plastics. These fires are typically extinguished by cooling with water or using agents that absorb heat and smother.

9. Fire is the process of combustion accompanied by the rapid release of heat and ____?

A. Light
B. None of the above
C. Destruction
D. Energy

Answer: A — Light

Fire is a rapid oxidation process characterized by the release of heat and light. It is the visible manifestation of combustion, which is the rapid chemical combination of a substance with an oxidant, usually oxygen.

10. Fire tends to start in a switchboard due to short circuit, this is which class fire?

A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: C — Class C

Fires involving electrical equipment and wiring (with power on) are classified as Class C fires. Using non-conductive extinguishing agents is crucial to prevent electrocution hazards.

11. Firefighter should come back from the area,

A. None of the above
B. Upon instruction from other firefighter
C. Upon hearing the warning sound from SCBA
D. After 10 minute of firefighting

Answer: C — Upon hearing the warning sound from SCBA

The audible alarm on an SCBA set typically indicates a low air supply warning, signaling the need to evacuate the hazardous area immediately. This is a critical safety feature for firefighters.

12. If restricted visibility encountered in an accommodation fire, you would

A. Carry a torch
B. Rig lifelines to assist a retreat
C. Use of a fan to blow smoke and flames
D. Stand up straight to keep your head above smoke

Answer: B — Rig lifelines to assist a retreat

In heavy smoke conditions during an accommodation fire, it is essential to stay low to breathe cleaner air and to use lifelines or guides to maintain orientation and facilitate retreat. Standing upright would expose you to the hottest smoke.

13. What is the important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a class C fire?

A. Weight
B. Temperature
C. Electrical non-conductivity
D. Cost

Answer: C — Electrical non-conductivity

When fighting Class C fires (electrical), the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent is its electrical non-conductivity. This prevents the risk of electric shock to the firefighter operating the extinguisher.

14. Foam tends to extinguish fire by

A. Chemically absorbing the oxygen
B. Releasing large amount of CO2
C. None of the above
D. Smothering the burning material

Answer: D — Smothering the burning material

Foam extinguishes fires primarily by smothering. It forms a vapor-suppressing blanket over the surface of the burning liquid, preventing oxygen from reaching the fuel and stopping the combustion process.

15. What is your first action on seeing fire?

A. None of the above
B. Extinguish the fire immediately
C. Try on alarm and try to make an initial attempt
D. Go to the muster station

Answer: C — Try on alarm and try to make an initial attempt

Upon sighting a fire, the immediate and most crucial action is to raise the alarm to alert the crew. Following this, an initial attempt to extinguish the fire should be made if it is safe to do so and the fire is small.

16. What is the color coding of portable DCP type extinguisher?

A. Yellow
B. Signal Red
C. Blue
D. Black

Answer: C — Blue

Portable Dry Chemical Powder (DCP) extinguishers are identified by their blue colored band, as per international standards for visual identification of fire extinguisher types. Other colors indicate different extinguishing agents suitable for specific fire classes.

17. Fire alarm is...?

A. Continuous ringing
B. None of the above
C. Verbal order by master
D. 7 short blast followed by 1 long blast

Answer: A — Continuous ringing

The standard fire alarm signal on a vessel is a continuous ringing or sounding, signifying an emergency. Specific blast patterns usually indicate other signals like abandon ship or man overboard.

18. Which is the best Fire Extinguisher for Electrical Fires?

A. Water
B. DCP
C. CO2
D. Foam

Answer: C — CO2

CO2 extinguishers are the best choice for electrical fires because the gas is non-conductive and leaves no residue, preventing damage to sensitive electrical equipment. Water and foam can conduct electricity, and DCP might damage electrical components.

19. Fire Extinguish system required for propelling machines and diesel-driven motor?

A. Hyper Mist
B. CO2
C. Foam
D. DCP

Answer: A — Hyper Mist

Hyper Mist systems, a type of water mist system, are highly effective for machinery spaces containing propelling machinery and diesel motors. They use a fine mist of water to cool and suppress fires with minimal water discharge.

20. DCP Fixed Fire Fighting system is used in which type of vessel?

A. Chemical Tankers
B. Bulk Carriers
C. Gas Carriers
D. Oil Tankers

Answer: C — Gas Carriers

Dry Chemical Powder (DCP) fixed fire fighting systems are primarily installed in cargo spaces of Gas Carriers. These systems are effective against flammable gas fires and are chosen for their rapid knockdown capability.

21. If passengers are onboard when an Abandon Ship drill is carried out, they should_____?

A. Watch
B. Stay out of the way and do what they want
C. Go to their quarters
D. Take Part

Answer: D — Take Part

During an abandon ship drill, passengers should actively participate under the crew's guidance. This ensures they understand emergency procedures and can respond appropriately if a real emergency occurs.

22. Which statement about firefighting foam is true?

A. Foam is most effective on burning liquids which are flowing
B. Foam can only be used to extinguish Class A Fire
C. To be most effective, Foam should be directed at the base of the fire
D. Foam conducts electricity

Answer: D — Foam conducts electricity

Firefighting foam is electrically conductive. It is most effective on Class B fires (flammable liquids) by forming a blanket that smothers the flames and prevents re-ignition, not for Class A fires.

23. __________ fire extinguishers are specifically designed in order to tackle a class F fire.

A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet Chemical

Answer: D — Wet Chemical

Wet Chemical fire extinguishers are specifically designed for Class F fires (cooking oils and deep fats). They react with hot fats via saponification to form a thick, non-combustible soapy layer that smothers flames and cools the liquid below its auto-ignition temperature.

24. Which of the following colours can be found in a band above a wet chemical fire extinguisher?

A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Cream

Answer: B — Yellow

Under BS EN3 / ISO extinguisher color coding standards, a Wet Chemical fire extinguisher has a red body with a distinctive Yellow identification band located above the instruction panel.

25. A band of ____________ is displayed above a fire extinguisher that contains carbon dioxide.

A. Black
B. Cream
C. Red
D. Yellow

Answer: A — Black

Carbon Dioxide (CO2) fire extinguishers are identified by a Black color band placed above the cylinder body, distinguishing them from other extinguisher types.

26. Where will the ship's officers find necessary information regarding the ship's fire protection arrangement, fire-detection equipment and fire extinguishing appliances?

A. In special instruction and information folder at all fire control stations
B. In permanently exhibited fire control plans
C. In permanently exhibited muster list
D. In permanent exhibited alarm instructions

Answer: B — In permanently exhibited fire control plans

SOLAS Chapter II-2 Regulation 15 mandates that detailed general arrangement plans showing fire control stations, fire-resisting divisions, detection systems, and extinguishing appliances must be permanently exhibited on the ship's Fire Control Plans.

27. After a fire has been extinguished in a closed space, personnel may safely enter the space when:

A. All of these
B. None of the above
C. Smoke density has decreased sufficiently to see the bulkhead opposite the compartment
D. All smoke and toxic fumes are removed and an adequate oxygen supply is present

Answer: D — All smoke and toxic fumes are removed and an adequate oxygen supply is present

Personnel may safely enter a compartment after a fire only after thorough mechanical ventilation has removed all combustion gases and atmospheric testing confirms normal oxygen content (20.9%) and zero toxic gas concentrations.

28. Which of the following fire extinguisher is used to put out fires caused by flammable liquids?

A. Class C dry chemical fire extinguisher
B. Class B carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
C. Class A water fire extinguishers
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Class B carbon dioxide fire extinguisher

Flammable liquid fires are Class B; CO2 (and foam/DCP) extinguishers are rated for Class B.

29. Which of the following does not need to be done right after a fire drill?

A. Note any defects in the equipment for repair or replacement.
B. Return all the equipment to its correct place.
C. Recharge extinguishers and compressed air bottles.
D. Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee.

Answer: D — Have a debriefing with all members of the safety committee.

Immediate post-fire drill actions focus on operational readiness: debriefing participants, returning gear, logging defects, and recharging expended equipment; a separate safety committee meeting is not a mandatory immediate step.

30. You should use a Dry Powder fire extinguisher in order to fight in an electrical fire, only in the event of______________

A. A water fire extinguisher is unavailable
B. You should never use a dry powder fire extinguisher on an electrical fire
C. A foam fire extinguisher is unavailable
D. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is unavailable

Answer: D — A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is unavailable

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the preferred clean, non-conductive extinguishing agent for electrical fires because it leaves no residue. Dry powder is also non-conductive but leaves abrasive and corrosive residues, so it is used as a secondary alternative if CO2 is unavailable.

Set 3 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Hazards in galley include:

A. Defective electrical connections
B. Cooking oil, hot fat
C. Hot surfaces, oven, frying pan
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Shipboard galleys contain combined fire hazards including hot cooking oils, active cooking ranges/ovens, and electrical heating appliances, making continuous cleanliness and vigilance essential.

2. What would you use if a pot of hot oil caught fire in gallery?

A. A fire blanket
B. A fire hose reel
C. A water extinguisher
D. All of the above.

Answer: A — A fire blanket

A fire blanket is the safest and most effective initial appliance for smothering a cooking pan oil fire in the galley without risking burning oil splashing or structural contamination.

3. Which of the following should you NOT do during a fire emergency

A. Abandon ship without the permission of authorities
B. Keep the fire doors shut to prevent the fire from spreading
C. Crawl low under the smoke while breathing only through your nose
D. Evacuate through designated exit routes

Answer: A — Abandon ship without the permission of authorities

Abandoning ship is the Master's absolute prerogative during an extreme emergency; abandoning ship without official orders from the Master or command authority endangers lives and violates maritime safety procedures.

4. When fighting an electrical fire, which of the following should not be used?

A. Neither foam nor water should be used
B. Foam Fire Extinguisher
C. Water Fire Extinguisher
D. Dry Powder Fire Extinguisher

Answer: A — Neither foam nor water should be used

Water and foam both conduct electricity, so neither should be used on a live electrical fire. Use CO₂ or dry powder after isolating the supply where possible.

5. What is kind of fixed fire fighting system that can be used on Main Engine room fire?

A. Medium expansion foam
B. All of the above.
C. High expansion foam
D. Low expansion foam

Answer: C — High expansion foam

SOLAS II-2/10.4.1.1: machinery spaces may have fixed gas, high-expansion foam or water-spray systems; high-expansion foam is the fixed foam option.

6. To operate a fire extinguisher one must pull, aim, squeeze and

A. Sing
B. Sweep
C. Jump
D. Stand

Answer: B — Sweep

The standard PASS method for operating portable fire extinguishers stands for: Pull the safety pin, Aim low at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle lever, and Sweep side to side.

7. Which one is not chemical energy?

A. Heat of combustion
B. Heat of partial oxidation
C. Falling tool from a height
D. Heat of mixing solution

Answer: C — Falling tool from a height

Frictional heat is generated by mechanical friction between moving solid parts, making it mechanical energy rather than chemical energy (such as combustion, decomposition, or oxidation).

8. In the case of diesel driven fire pumps, for how long period shall the fuel tank capacity allow the pump to be run at full capacity?

A. Six hours
B. Three hours
C. Fifteen hours
D. One hour

Answer: B — Three hours

SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires that the dedicated fuel tank for an emergency diesel-driven fire pump must contain sufficient fuel to run the pump at full capacity for at least 3 hours.

9. What are yearly checks for Dry Chemical powder system on Tankers?

A. Open/Close valves for pump
B. Moisture and humidity
C. Check gauges
D. Inspect visually components, verify pressure regulator and agitate DCP

Answer: D — Inspect visually components, verify pressure regulator and agitate DCP

Annual maintenance of tanker dry chemical powder (DCP) systems involves verifying expellant nitrogen cylinder pressure, checking powder aeration/fluidization to prevent caking, and blowing nitrogen through distribution lines.

10. Which of the following is correct when it comes to the type of fire extinguishers you should avoid while fighting a fire in a confined space?

A. Only a Dry powder fire extinguisher should not be used
B. Carbon Dioxide and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used
C. Carbon Dioxide and Water Fire Extinguishers should not be used
D. Water and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used

Answer: B — Carbon Dioxide and Dry Powder Fire extinguishers should not be used

Discharging CO2 or dry powder in confined spaces poses immediate life hazards: CO2 displaces oxygen causing rapid asphyxiation, while dry chemical powder creates dense dust clouds that severely impair visibility and respiration.

11. Fire is a process of combustion accompanied by the rapid release of heat and ___ in varying intensities

A. Destruction
B. Energy
C. None of the above
D. Light

Answer: D — Light

Fire is rapid oxidation (combustion) releasing heat and light.

12. Four sides of Fire Tetrahedron are fuel, Heat, Oxygen and

A. Chain Reaction
B. None of the above.
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Hydrogen gas

Answer: A — Chain Reaction

The fire tetrahedron represents the four elements necessary for sustaining flaming combustion: fuel, heat, oxygen (oxidizing agent), and an uninhibited chemical chain reaction.

13. All waste receptacles shall be of non-combustible materials, built and equipped with:

A. Hinged self-closing cover
B. No openings in sides and bottom
C. Rack for fire buckets
D. Permanent means for lashing

Answer: B — No openings in sides and bottom

SOLAS regulations require all shipboard waste bins to be constructed of non-combustible materials with solid sides and bottoms and equipped with tight-fitting, self-closing lids to prevent fire spread.

14. What type of fire hose nozzles must be available on board?

A. Dual purpose (jet/spray type).
B. Spray type.
C. Jet type.
D. Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating shutoff.

Answer: D — Dual purpose (jet/spray) type incorporating shutoff.

Under SOLAS regulations, shipboard fire hose nozzles must be approved dual-purpose types incorporating a shutoff valve and capable of producing both a solid jet and a wide water spray.

15. What is class of electrical fire?

A. Class B
B. None of the above
C. Class A
D. Class C

Answer: D — Class C

In the standard maritime classification of fires, electrical fires involving energized electrical equipment are designated as Class E fires (or Class C under USCG/NFPA standards).

16. CO2 alarm visual indication will be a;

A. Blue light
B. Amber coloured revolving light
C. Red revolving light
D. White LED light

Answer: C — Red revolving light

The CO2 release alarm in machinery spaces includes a prominent flashing red or amber visual beacon alongside an audible horn to ensure immediate warning even in noisy environments.

17. In what language/languages shall the fire control plans/folders (or copies of plans and folders) be?

A. The English language
B. The Flag State language
C. The Flag State language with copies in English
D. The Flag State language with copies in English or French

Answer: D — The Flag State language with copies in English or French

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4.2: plans in the language required by the Administration with translation into English or French if neither is that language.

18. Maximum Temperature of unexposed side of a B-class division is?

A. 350 Deg C
B. 225 Deg C
C. 400 Deg C
D. 300 Deg C

Answer: B — 225 Deg C

For B-Class fire-resisting bulkheads, SOLAS specifies that the average temperature of the unexposed side must not rise more than 140°C above the initial temperature, with no single point exceeding 225°C within the rated time.

19. Which of the following conditions will allow for a work vest to be substituted for a lifejacket in the total count of the required lifesaving gear?

A. Never
B. When stowed away from the ring buoys
C. When working near or over the water
D. When it is approved by the Coast Guard

Answer: A — Never

Work vests and buoyancy aids are designed only for working over the side; they do not satisfy SOLAS/LSA Code carriage standards and can never be substituted for approved lifejackets in the lifesaving gear count.

20. If you were put in charge of a fire team what is the minimum number of men wearing BA sets that you would allow to enter a smoke-filled compartment?

A. 4 men
B. 1 man
C. 2 men
D. 3 men

Answer: C — 2 men

Firefighting teams entering a smoke-filled or hazardous compartment must always operate in pairs (minimum 2 personnel wearing SCBAs) under the buddy system for mutual safety and rapid rescue.

21. The highest concentration of hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is sufficient amount of hydrocarbon gas to support combustion is called:

A. Lower Flammable limit
B. Upper Flammable limit
C. Ignitable mixture
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Upper Flammable limit

The Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) or Upper Flammable Limit (UFL) is the highest concentration of hydrocarbon gas in air that can support combustion; above this concentration, the mixture is too rich to burn.

22. Carbon-di-Oxide (CO2) release alarm is:

A. Similar to mechanical fault alarm
B. Distinctive and unique
C. Similar to general alarm
D. Similar to fire alarm

Answer: B — Distinctive and unique

The CO2 release alarm is a mandatory pneumatic/electric pre-discharge alarm that automatically warns personnel to evacuate the protected space before the smothering gas is released.

23. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel electric drive vessel is usually;

A. Steam smothering system
B. Fixed CO2 system
C. Fixed foam extinguisher
D. Carbon tetrachloride extinguishing system

Answer: B — Fixed CO2 system

The high-voltage propulsion motors and generators on diesel-electric vessels are enclosed and protected by dedicated fixed CO2 or clean agent extinguishing systems to prevent electrical fire damage.

24. How often should you test your smoke alarms?

A. Every month
B. Every five years
C. Every year
D. Every six months

Answer: A — Every month

Smoke detectors and fire alarms must be tested regularly in accordance with the vessel's Planned Maintenance System (PMS) and statutory regulations to ensure dependable early warning.

25. What are class 'C' bulkheads?

A. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 15 minutes.
B. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 30 minutes.
C. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials that can withstand the standard fire test for 45 minutes.
D. Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise.

Answer: D — Bulkheads constructed of approved non-combustible materials but do not meet any of the requirements relative to smoke and flame nor limitations relative to temperature rise.

Class 'C' divisions are bulkheads and decks constructed of approved non-combustible materials that do not need to meet specific temperature rise limits or smoke and flame passage requirements required for A or B class divisions.

26. A cargo hold containing cargo such as nitrates, chlorates etc which produce oxygen under the influence of heat catches fire. How would you deal with this?

A. Close the hatches, apply boundary cooling and allow fire to use up the oxygen and extinguish itself
B. With this type of material, the hatches should not be battened down. The fire can only be extinguished using large quantities of water
C. Close the hatches and use the fixed CO2 system
D. Boundary cooling

Answer: B — With this type of material, the hatches should not be battened down. The fire can only be extinguished using large quantities of water

Cargoes such as nitrates and chlorates contain chemical oxidizers that produce oxygen when heated; smothering agents like CO2 are ineffective, so the fire must be fought using large quantities of water for cooling without battening down hatches.

27. The lowest temperature at which the heat from the combustion of a burning vapor is capable of producing vapor to enable combustion but not sustaining is:

A. Fire point
B. None of the above
C. Flash point
D. Ignition point

Answer: C — Flash point

The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid fuel gives off sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture with air that momentarily flashes when an ignition source is introduced, but does not sustain combustion.

28. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about high expansion foam?

A. It has only a limited cooling effect.
B. You can survive in H.E. foam by breaking the bubbles to release the air.
C. You cannot survive in H.E. foam as the oxygen content is reduced.
D. It extinguishes by smothering.

Answer: C — You cannot survive in H.E. foam as the oxygen content is reduced.

High-expansion foam expands fresh air at ratios from 200:1 to 1000:1. The bubbles contain breathable air, so individuals trapped in high-expansion foam can breathe by parting bubbles away from their nose and mouth; stating that oxygen is reduced and survival is impossible is incorrect.

29. A specific document identifies a chemical, listing its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, firefighting procedures, cleanup methods, waste disposal and the safe handling and storage requirements. This document is;

A. Material Safety Data Sheet
B. All the above
C. Hazardous chemical information sheet
D. Physical/chemical characteristics document

Answer: A — Material Safety Data Sheet

The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) or Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is the official document detailing chemical properties, health hazards, personal protective measures, firefighting procedures, and safe storage requirements.

30. What equipment must be present at every standard fire station hydrant point according to regulations?

A. SCBA set and lifeline
B. First aid kit and emergency light
C. Portable extinguisher and axe
D. Fire hose, approved dual-purpose nozzle, and spanner wrench

Answer: D — Fire hose, approved dual-purpose nozzle, and spanner wrench

Under SOLAS regulations, every fire hydrant station must be equipped with an approved fire hose, a dual-purpose (jet/spray) nozzle with shut-off capability, and a coupling spanner wrench.

Set 4 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Water fire extinguishers have a _________ located above them?

A. Red coloured band
B. Green Colored band
C. Black coloured band
D. Blue coloured band

Answer: A — Red coloured band

Water fire extinguishers are identified by an entirely Signal Red body or a Red color band placed above the instruction panel in accordance with standard extinguisher coding.

2. A low velocity fog applicator is used in firefighting to;

A. extinguish hard to reach electrical fires
B. cool and smother the fire
C. break up burning embers
D. apply large droplets of foam

Answer: B — cool and smother the fire

A low-velocity fog applicator creates a wide cloud of fine water droplets that absorbs radiant heat, cools hot surfaces, and smothers flames by converting into steam without disturbing liquid fuel layers.

3. The weight of a portable fire extinguisher must not be more than:

A. 23kg
B. 13.5kg
C. 9kg
D. 5kg

Answer: A — 23kg

SOLAS Chapter II-2 specifies that the total gross mass of any portable fire extinguisher on board ship must not exceed 23 kg (50 lbs) so that it remains easily transportable by one person.

4. A dry powder fire extinguisher can be found with a _______________ band above it

A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Cream
D. Black

Answer: B — Blue

Dry Chemical Powder fire extinguishers are identified by a distinctive Blue color band located above the cylinder body.

5. How many emergency sources are required for fire-detection and fire alarm systems?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None

Answer: B — Two

SOLAS mandates that the electrical power for fixed fire detection and fire alarm systems must be supplied by at least two independent power sources: the main electrical supply and an automatic emergency power source.

6. Fire hose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service when;

A. Used for portable water services
B. Determined by the chief engineer
C. Approved by master
D. Used for drills and testing

Answer: D — Used for drills and testing

Fire hoses and fittings are dedicated safety appliances and must only be used for firefighting duties, emergency drills, and mandatory survey testing to ensure they remain fully functional.

7. You are fighting a fire in a watertight compartment using hoses and river water. Stability may be reduced because of:

A. Reduction of water in the storage tanks
B. Progressive down flooding
C. Increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height (GM)
D. Reduction of KG to the minimum allowable

Answer: C — Increase in free surface which reduces the metacentric height (GM)

Accumulation of large quantities of firefighting water on decks or inside compartments creates a free surface effect, which elevates the ship's virtual center of gravity (KG) and reduces metacentric height (GM), impairing vessel stability.

8. Why is it important that you tend the nozzle carefully when you have finished using a fire extinguisher containing carbon dioxide?

A. This is not a requirement
B. Because the nozzle gets extremely hot making it impossible to use
C. Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to use.
D. Because the nozzle gets warm, making it impossible to use

Answer: C — Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to use.

The rapid expansion and vaporization of liquid CO2 upon discharge causes the extinguisher horn and nozzle to reach cryogenic temperatures (-78.5°C), creating a risk of severe cold burns if touched without insulated grips.

9. Passenger ships of 4000 GRT and above shall have at least _____ power-driven fire pumps.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

Answer: B — 3

Under SOLAS Chapter II-2 Regulation 10, passenger ships of 4,000 gross tonnage and above are required to have at least three independently power-driven fire pumps.

10. Cargo ships of 1000 GRT and upwards must be provided with at least how many power-driven bilge pumps?

A. 4
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3

Answer: B — 2

Under SOLAS regulations, cargo ships of 1,000 gross tonnage and upwards must be provided with at least two independently power-driven bilge pumps connected to the bilge main.

11. Which of the following activities are considered hot work?

A. Welding
B. Grinding Ferrous metals
C. Gas cutting
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Hot work refers to any task capable of generating sparks, open flames, or significant heat that could ignite nearby combustibles, including arc welding, ferrous grinding, and oxy-acetylene gas cutting.

12. what is piracy?

A. It is an act of stealing from a ship while on anchorage
B. It an act of robbery or criminal violence at sea
C. It is an act of robbery or criminal violence in flights
D. It is an Act of robbery or criminal violence in town

Answer: B — It an act of robbery or criminal violence at sea

Under UNCLOS Article 101, piracy is defined as any illegal act of violence, detention, or depredation committed for private ends by the crew or passengers of a private vessel against another vessel on the high seas.

13. Fire extinguishers are classified fundamentally by:

A. The type of fire they are used on
B. The temperature of fire
C. The colour of the fire
D. Size of the fire put out

Answer: A — The type of fire they are used on

Fire extinguishers are classified fundamentally based on the specific classes of fire (Class A, B, C, D, or F) they are designed and rated to extinguish safely and effectively.

14. What type of permit is needed in order to carry out work that could potentially result in a fire breaking out on the work site?

A. A work permit
B. A fire permit
C. No permit is needed
D. A hot permit

Answer: D — A hot permit

A formal Hot Work Permit authorized by the Master and Safety Officer is mandatory before conducting any welding, cutting, or spark-generating work that presents a fire hazard.

15. If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged, it should be immediately:

A. Weighed and the charge loss recorded before being returned to its rack
B. Tagged and restowed properly in its rack
C. Tagged ’empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers
D. Given to the chief engineer for recharging

Answer: C — Tagged ’empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers

Any partially discharged CO2 extinguisher loses seal integrity and pressure; it must be tagged 'Empty', taken out of service, and stowed separately from charged units until recharged and certified.

16. In fire-fighting, what does the term 'boundary starvation' refer to?

A. Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further
B. Cooling the area around a fire to stop it spreading
C. Closing doors and hatches at the boundary of a fire
D. Mustering fire fighters and materials in the area near the fire

Answer: A — Removing the fuel from the boundary of a fire to stop it spreading further

Boundary starvation is a firefighting tactic that involves removing combustible materials and fuel from the vicinity or perimeter of a fire to deprive the fire of fuel and halt its propagation.

17. If a fixed foam firefighting system is not of the premix type, a sample of the foam liquid must be tested regularly by:

A. The safetyman aboard the unit
B. The manufacturer, or his authorized representative
C. Coast Guard inspection officer
D. The designated person in-charge of the unit

Answer: B — The manufacturer, or his authorized representative

SOLAS guidelines (MSC.1/Circ.1312) require that samples of non-premixed foam concentrates must undergo periodic laboratory quality testing by the chemical manufacturer or an authorized representative.

18. The elements needed for a fire to initiate and sustain include:

A. Fuel
B. Heat
C. Oxygen
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The basic fire triangle illustrates that fire initiation and combustion require three essential components: fuel, heat (ignition source), and oxygen (oxidizer).

19. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be sent for recharging if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the total charge?

A. Five percent
B. Ten percent
C. One percent
D. Seven percent

Answer: B — Ten percent

Portable CO2 fire extinguishers are checked by weighing; if an extinguisher has lost 10% or more of its rated charge weight, it must be sent for immediate recharging.

20. You are assigned to the hose team and have suited up in a firefighting ensemble to fight a large fire in the engine room. What will ultimately determine the safe operational time allowed to combat the fire before you must be relieved?

A. All the above
B. Available air in the SCBA cylinder
C. Intensity of the fire
D. Fire location

Answer: A — All the above

The operational working duration of a firefighting team inside a compartment is constrained by available SCBA cylinder air supply, the intense heat and visibility conditions of the fire, and the physical location and exit path.

21. The general fire emergency alarm signal on a ship must be a continuous blast of the whistle or electrical bell for not less than _________ seconds.

A. None of the above
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

Answer: B — 10

Fire alarm in common Indian/STCW training is a continuous ringing of bell/whistle for not less than 10 seconds (general emergency alarm is 7 short + 1 long).

22. Fuel oil flowing rapidly through an ungrounded or poorly bounded pipeline is prone to which of the following ignition sources?

A. Friction.
B. High pressure action.
C. Static electricity.
D. Chemical reaction.

Answer: C — Static electricity.

High-velocity flow of non-conductive hydrocarbon fuels through ungrounded or poorly bonded pipelines generates hazardous electrostatic charges that can build up and spark, causing ignition.

23. In a mixture of flammable vapor and air, if there is too much vapor and not enough oxygen to support combustion, the mixture is technically described as:

A. Too rich
B. Saturated
C. Over concentrated
D. Too lean

Answer: A — Too rich

When the vapor concentration in a fuel-air mixture exceeds the Upper Flammable Limit (UFL), the concentration of fuel vapor is too high relative to available oxygen to support combustion, making the mixture 'too rich'.

24. Flammable cargoes are those with a flash point

A. At or above 37.8 degrees Celsius
B. At or above 50 degrees Celsius
C. At or below 37.8 degrees Celsius
D. At or above 60 degrees Celsius

Answer: C — At or below 37.8 degrees Celsius

US regulations define flammable liquids as flash point at or below 37.8 C (100 F); combustible above that.

25. What is Heats role in making a fire?

A. It raises the material temperature so it will ignite
B. It lowers the material temperature to allow it to burn
C. It keeps the fire burning
D. None of the above

Answer: A — It raises the material temperature so it will ignite

The correct answer is 'It raises the material temperature so it will ignite'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

26. Extinguish the fire by

A. Cooling the material
B. Starving the fire
C. Smothering the fire
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

27. Fire can be caused onboard a vessel by

A. A high DC power supply
B. Low batteries
C. A low AC power supply
D. Faulty electrical leads

Answer: D — Faulty electrical leads

The correct answer is 'Faulty electrical leads'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. If you are the first person to discover a fire, what should you do?

A. Leave the building immediately
B. Head to your locker and get your personal items
C. Pick up a fire extinguisher and tackle the fire
D. Activate the fire alarm

Answer: D — Activate the fire alarm

The correct answer is 'Activate the fire alarm'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

29. For fighting fire on deck of a tanker system used is

A. Low expansion foam
B. High expansion foam
C. DCP
D. CO2

Answer: A — Low expansion foam

The correct answer is 'Low expansion foam'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

30. A concentration of only_______________% will induce rapid unconsciousness

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 70%
D. 0.33%

Answer: B — 10%

Carbon dioxide is toxic as well as asphyxiating. About 10% CO2 in air can cause rapid unconsciousness, and higher concentrations soon lead to death. This is why total-flooding CO2 systems under FSS Code chapter 5 have warning alarms and must be released only after the space is evacuated.

Set 5 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Fire is characterized by

A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Heat
D. Corrosion

Answer: C — Heat

The correct answer is 'Heat'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

2. In case of fire on electrical motor first thing to do is

A. Call the electrician
B. Extinguish fire by water spray
C. Sound alarm, stop motor and extinguish using CO2
D. Extinguish using foam extinguisher

Answer: C — Sound alarm, stop motor and extinguish using CO2

The correct answer is 'Sound alarm, stop motor and extinguish using CO2'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

3. The Continuous burning of Fire is represented in fire tetrahedron by addition of

A. Chain supply
B. Chain reaction
C. Chain inhibition
D. Chain prevention

Answer: B — Chain reaction

The correct answer is 'Chain reaction'. Fire requires fuel, heat, oxygen, and an uninhibited chemical chain reaction to sustain combustion.

4. A fire is said to be under control when

A. It stops spreading
B. No smoke is seen
C. When the temperature of side wall remains cool and steady
D. Flame is knocked off

Answer: A — It stops spreading

A fire is under control (contained) when it has stopped spreading; extinguished comes later.

5. What is fuel’s role in making a fire?

A. It is the combustible material that burns
B. it is the food that gives your body energy
C. it is one thing you don’t need to make fire
D. None of the above

Answer: A — It is the combustible material that burns

The correct answer is 'It is the combustible material that burns'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. Fire class A type is

A. Metals
B. Liquids
C. Electrical equipment
D. None of above

Answer: D — None of above

The correct answer is 'None of above'. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible solids such as wood, paper, cloth, trash, and plastics.

7. An “A” class fire is fuelled by

A. Wood, paper cloth, trash, plastics
B. Flammable liquids: gasoline, oil, grease, acetone
C. Electrical: energized electrical equipment
D. None of the above

Answer: A — Wood, paper cloth, trash, plastics

The correct answer is 'Wood, paper cloth, trash, plastics'. Class F/K fires involve cooking oils and fats in commercial kitchen appliances.

8. What type of fire extinguisher should be used to douse a fuel- based fire?

A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet chemical

Answer: C — Foam

The correct answer is 'Foam'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. When is it required for portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers to be recharged?

A. At least once each year
B. Each time the vessels dry docks
C. When the charged weight decreases by 50%
D. Whenever used for demo or to fight fire on board ship

Answer: D — Whenever used for demo or to fight fire on board ship

The correct answer is 'Whenever used for demo or to fight fire on board ship'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

10. What type of fire extinguisher should you use in order to extinguish a fire caused by solid materials, such as wood, paper or textile?

A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet Chemical

Answer: B — Water

The correct answer is 'Water'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

11. A self-contained breathing apparatus

A. Is used for deep sea diving
B. Contains oxygen
C. Is used for entry in enclosed spaces
D. Is connected to the deck air line

Answer: C — Is used for entry in enclosed spaces

The correct answer is 'Is used for entry in enclosed spaces'. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides respiratory protection in smoke, toxic fumes, or oxygen-deficient environments.

12. Why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?

A. it will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available
B. It will increase the oxygen present in the confined area to a danger level
C. it will not operate effectively in confined areas
D. It may explode when exposed to heat

Answer: A — it will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available

The correct answer is 'it will displace the air and reduce the amount of oxygen available'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. Smothering is the method of firefighting by limitation of

A. Molecular chain reaction
B. Temperature
C. Fuel
D. Air

Answer: D — Air

The correct answer is 'Air'. Smothering extinguishes a fire by cutting off or limiting the oxygen/air supply.

14. The best way to combat an engine room bilge fire is through the use of

A. dry chemical extinguisher and solid stream water
B. Foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog
C. Foam extinguisher and solid stream water
D. Foam and soda acid extinguishers

Answer: B — Foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog

The correct answer is 'Foam extinguisher and low velocity water fog'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

15. What type of release is allowed for fixed gas fire extinguishing installation onboard?

A. Any automatic release system
B. A manually operated release only
C. An automatic release system activated by fire alarm
D. An automatic release system activated by fire detectors

Answer: B — A manually operated release only

The correct answer is 'A manually operated release only'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. Which of the following colours is used to indicated Foam fire extinguisher?

A. Red and yellow band
B. Red and cream band
C. Red and blue band
D. Red and black band

Answer: B — Red and cream band

The correct answer is 'Red and cream band'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

17. What do the words ‘spontaneously combustion’ mean?

A. The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when it is very hot
B. when this substance burns it burns completely and does not leave any residue or ash
C. when the substance burns it becomes very hot
D. the substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition

Answer: D — the substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition

The correct answer is 'the substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

18. Which one of the listed requirements regarding abandon ship and fire drills do not correspond to present regulations?

A. On all international voyages, except short voyage, muster of passengers shall take place within 24 hours after embarkation
B. On all short international voyages, muster of passengers shall take place as soon as possible
C. Each member of the crew shall participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month
D. A training manual shall be provided in each crew mess room and recreation room or in each crew cabin

Answer: A — On all international voyages, except short voyage, muster of passengers shall take place within 24 hours after embarkation

The correct answer is 'On all international voyages, except short voyage, muster of passengers shall take place within 24 hours after embarkation'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

19. Portable fire extinguisher is designed to put out__________effectively?

A. Small fire
B. Explosion
C. Industrial fire
D. Large bush fire

Answer: A — Small fire

The correct answer is 'Small fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

20. Instructions for ‘Preparation for welding or hot work in cargo tanks’ is laid down by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate. During ongoing inspection on work in cargo tanks, the gas concentration shall be measured;

A. At one level for at least two places in the tank
B. At three levels at one point close to the working area
C. At three levels for at least two places in the tank
D. At two levels for three places in the tank

Answer: C — At three levels for at least two places in the tank

The correct answer is 'At three levels for at least two places in the tank'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. In accommodation the automatic sprinklers shall come into operation within the temperature range

A. 80 – 90
B. 68 – 79
C. 56 – 67
D. 48 – 55

Answer: B — 68 – 79

FSS Code chapter 8 requires sprinkler heads in accommodation and service spaces to operate within the temperature range 68°C to 79°C. In spaces with high ambient temperature, such as drying rooms, the operating temperature may be raised by up to 30°C above the maximum deckhead temperature.

22. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried on ships of 100 GRT and above?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 9
D. 7

Answer: B — 5

The correct answer is '5'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

23. In tankers sufficient foam concentration shall be supplied to ensure at least min of foam generation in tankers fitted with an inert gas installation

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes

Answer: B — 20 minutes

The correct answer is '20 minutes'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. To operate the fire extinguisher, the acronym PASS is often used to help us remember to

A. Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle and sweep at the base of the fire
B. Pass by the fire, activate the fire alarm, select the proper extinguisher, shoot at the base of the fire
C. Pull the alarm, alert the response team, shut down the power sources, secure the area
D. Pass by the fire, activate the sprinkler system, seal fire area from oxygen, stop unauthorised entry

Answer: A — Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle and sweep at the base of the fire

The correct answer is 'Pull the pin, aim at the base of the fire, squeeze the handle and sweep at the base of the fire'. PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

25. The best form of protection against fire is ______________

A. Cure
B. Hose reel
C. Prevention
D. Fire extinguisher

Answer: C — Prevention

The correct answer is 'Prevention'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

26. Fire hoses shall have a length of at least 10m , but not more than in machinery space

A. 15 m
B. 20 m
C. 25 m
D. None of above

Answer: A — 15 m

The correct answer is '15 m'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

27. Below is a list of fire extinguisher types matched with surfaces on which they can be used? Which is the incorrect option

A. Class A – Cloth, paper and rubber
B. Class B – Plastics, polyethylene, Styrofoam
C. Class C – Wiring, fuse boxes, electrical equipment and computers
D. Class D – Combustible metals such as magnesium , potassium and sodium

Answer: B — Class B – Plastics, polyethylene, Styrofoam

The correct answer is 'Class B – Plastics, polyethylene, Styrofoam'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. Flammability means

A. That burns below 37.5 deg C / 100 deg F
B. Any fuel that can burn
C. Both
D. None

Answer: A — That burns below 37.5 deg C / 100 deg F

The correct answer is 'That burns below 37.5 deg C / 100 deg F'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

29. CO2 portable extinguisher fitted in accommodation should have of liquid

A. 2.5kg
B. 3.5 kg
C. 4.5 kg
D. 5.5 kg

Answer: C — 4.5 kg

Portable CO2 extinguishers on ships commonly have a charge of about 4.5 to 5 kg. The FSS Code requires a fire-extinguishing capacity at least equal to 9 litres of fluid and a total mass of no more than 23 kg. The bank keys 4.5 kg as the standard CO2 charge.

30. All portable semi portable and fixed fire extinguishing units on board ship must be tested and inspected at least once every

A. Six weeks
B. Six months
C. Twelve months
D. Two years

Answer: C — Twelve months

The correct answer is 'Twelve months'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

Set 6 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. During fire, the means of communication

A. Messengers
B. Telephones
C. Walkie-Talkie
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

2. Who has the authority to pull the fire alarm after discovering a fire on the worksite?

A. Only Mater can activate the fire alarm
B. Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm
C. only the fire safety officer activate the fire alarm
D. only the crew can activate the fire alarm

Answer: B — Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm

The correct answer is 'Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

3. Fire detector principle of operations could be based on

A. Bimetallic strip
B. Fusible links
C. Quartzite bulb
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

The correct answer is 'All the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

4. Fire of carbonaceous substances is known as

A. Class B Fire
B. Class A fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

Answer: B — Class A fire

The correct answer is 'Class A fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

5. Fire blankets are used for

A. Smothering of fire
B. Cooling of fire
C. Inhibition of fire
D. Starvation of fire

Answer: A — Smothering of fire

The correct answer is 'Smothering of fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. What fixed firefighting medium do we normally use in the engine room, pump room and other spaces?

A. CO2 Flooding System
B. Portable Foam Fire Extinguisher
C. Portable CO2 Fire Extinguisher
D. None

Answer: A — CO2 Flooding System

The correct answer is 'CO2 Flooding System'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

7. Structural fire protection refers to the passive measures taken to

A. Provide a vessel with a sprinkler system
B. Provide a vessel with firefighting equipment
C. Limit the risk and spread of fire
D. Limit the size of the engine room

Answer: C — Limit the risk and spread of fire

Structural fire protection is passive containment (A/B/C divisions) to limit the risk and spread of fire.

8. What quantity of reserve fuel is to be available for diesel driven fire pumps outside the main machinery space?

A. 20 Liters
B. 40 Liters
C. Sufficient amount for six hours operation at full capacity
D. Sufficient amount for fifteen hours operation at full capacity

Answer: D — Sufficient amount for fifteen hours operation at full capacity

The correct answer is 'Sufficient amount for fifteen hours operation at full capacity'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. You are carrying out a search in a smoke filled compartment wearing BA. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the compartment?

A. Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach you work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve
B. Wait for the appropriate signal on your safety line as the personnel outside will be keeping a track of the time you have spent inside
C. 15 minutes after starting to used the set as this leaves you with five minutes air left
D. Wait until the BA set warning whistle sounds

Answer: A — Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach you work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve

The correct answer is 'Regularly check your pressure gauge and note how much air you used to reach you work area. Start to return when you have this amount left plus a reasonable reserve'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

10. What is the requirement for escape route opening?

A. Must be capable of opening from direction for which escape is required
B. Must be capable of opening in both directions
C. Must be capable of opening from outside to inside
D. Must not be opened without permission

Answer: A — Must be capable of opening from direction for which escape is required

The correct answer is 'Must be capable of opening from direction for which escape is required'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

11. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 15 pound CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floorplates?

A. Possible suffocation from the CO2 gas.
B. Forgetting to secure the engine room ventilation system.
C. CO2 gas being drawn into nearby engine or air compressor intakes.
D. Rekindling of the fire.

Answer: D — Rekindling of the fire.

The correct answer is 'Rekindling of the fire.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

12. Which of the listed classes of fire is considered as one involving electrical equipment?

A. Class "A”
B. Class "B
C. Class "C
D. Class "D

Answer: C — Class "C

The correct answer is 'Class "C'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. Which of the following would be considered a Class “B fire?

A. Electrical fire in a motor
B. Waste rag fire in the engine room
C. Oil fire in the engine room bilges
D. Fire in the main switchboard

Answer: C — Oil fire in the engine room bilges

The correct answer is 'Oil fire in the engine room bilges'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

14. You notice smoke coming from an open laundry room doorway. After activating the fire alarm, which of the following would you do FIRST?

A. Attempt to determine what is burning.
B. Acquire the nearest self-contained breathing apparatus.
C. Break out the nearest fire hose.
D. Wait for the fire team to arrive and assist as directed.

Answer: A — Attempt to determine what is burning.

The correct answer is 'Attempt to determine what is burning.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

15. The primary function(s) of an automatic sprinkler system is(are) to

A. Extinguish the fire which triggers it
B. Limit the spread of fi re and control the amount of heat produced
C. Protect people in the areas which have sprinkler heads
D. Alert the crew to the fire

Answer: B — Limit the spread of fi re and control the amount of heat produced

The correct answer is 'Limit the spread of fi re and control the amount of heat produced'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge? (Small passenger vessel regulations)

A. One percent
B. Five percent
C. Seven percent
D. Ten percent

Answer: D — Ten percent

46 CFR (e.g. 176.810/31.10-18): CO2 extinguishers recharged if weight loss exceeds 10% of charge.

17. Automatic fire dampers in ventilation systems are operated by use of.

A. Heat or smoke detectors
B. C02 system pressure switches
C. Remotely operated valves
D. Fusible links

Answer: D — Fusible links

The correct answer is 'Fusible links'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

18. What manoeuvre to be carried out in case of fire onboard?

A. Let the ship follow the wind in order to reduce the oxygen supply
B. Let the stem be up against the wind if possible
C. Continue on course and speed
D. Reduce speed and if possible, keep the Fire Zone on leeward side.

Answer: D — Reduce speed and if possible, keep the Fire Zone on leeward side.

The correct answer is 'Reduce speed and if possible, keep the Fire Zone on leeward side.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

19. Which of the following are frequent causes of fire in accommodation?

A. Overloading
B. Smoking in bed
C. Covering of electrical fires with blankets
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

20. Which of the following extinguisher is suitable for fire involving flammable liquids?

A. Carbon dioxide extinguisher (black)
B. Powder extinguisher (blue)
C. Foam extinguisher (Cream)
D. None of these

Answer: C — Foam extinguisher (Cream)

The correct answer is 'Foam extinguisher (Cream)'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. A “B” class fire is fuelled by;

A. Wood, paper, cloth, trash, plastics
B. Flammable liquids, gasoline, oil, grease, acetone
C. Electrical; energized electrical equipment
D. None of these

Answer: B — Flammable liquids, gasoline, oil, grease, acetone

The correct answer is 'Flammable liquids, gasoline, oil, grease, acetone'. Class F/K fires involve cooking oils and fats in commercial kitchen appliances.

22. Cargo ships of 1000 GT and above shall have atleast pumps;

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 1

Answer: A — 2

SOLAS II-2/10.2.2.2 requires cargo ships of 1,000 GT and upwards to have at least two independently driven power fire pumps. Where a fire in one compartment could put both out of action, an emergency fire pump is also needed.

23. What class of fire was a wet chemical fire extinguisher specifically designed to fight?

A. Class A fires
B. Class D fires
C. Class F / K fires
D. Class B fires

Answer: C — Class F / K fires

The correct answer is 'Class F / K fires'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. In order to put out a oil fire you should aim the foam type fire extinguisher;

A. Hit the vertical bulkhead wall near the fire
B. At the bottom and circle around the fire
C. At the base of the fire and sweep back and forth
D. In the middle of the flame

Answer: A — Hit the vertical bulkhead wall near the fire

The correct answer is 'Hit the vertical bulkhead wall near the fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

25. As a general rule where would you expect to find a portable fire extinguisher in any space?

A. General cargo holds
B. Cargo holds for passenger cars and other empty vehicles
C. Pump rooms
D. Engine rooms

Answer: D — Engine rooms

The correct answer is 'Engine rooms'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

26. With two pumps simultaneously delivering water through the nozzles the minimum pressures for cargo ships above 6000 GT shall be maintained at all hydrants at;

A. 0.25 N/mm2
B. 0.27 N/mm2
C. 0.30 N/mm2
D. 0.40 N/mm2

Answer: B — 0.27 N/mm2

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.6 requires that, with two pumps delivering water through nozzles, the minimum pressure kept at all hydrants on cargo ships of 6,000 GT and upwards is 0.27 N/mm². For cargo ships of 1,000 to 6,000 GT the figure is 0.25 N/mm².

27. In the event of an uncontrolled fire in your vicinity, your first action should be to;

A. Get a fire extinguisher
B. Run to muster station
C. Activate the alarm
D. Wait for alarm

Answer: C — Activate the alarm

The correct answer is 'Activate the alarm'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. Quick closing valve is fitted on

A. Boiler steam line
B. Main engine cooling system
C. Fuel Tanks above Double bottom Tanks
D. Compressed air line

Answer: C — Fuel Tanks above Double bottom Tanks

The correct answer is 'Fuel Tanks above Double bottom Tanks'. Quick closing valves provide remote emergency isolation for fuel and lubricating oil tanks outside machinery spaces.

29. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated application provide the largest shielding effect for the fire fighter?

A. Straight stream of water
B. Light water and foam mixture
C. Low velocity water fog
D. Carbon dioxide interface

Answer: C — Low velocity water fog

The correct answer is 'Low velocity water fog'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

30. One of the uses for low velocity fog is to;

A. Help produce mechanical foam
B. Break apart class “A” combustibles
C. Sweep burning liquids overboard
D. None of the above

Answer: D — None of the above

The correct answer is 'None of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

Set 7 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. A closed interior door will slow the spread of;

A. Smoke
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

A closed door acts as a barrier that limits oxygen supply and slows the spread of smoke, heat and flame between compartments. This is why SOLAS II-2 fire doors and the containment principle require doors to be kept shut.

2. After using a CO2 fire extinguisher, the nozzle gets extremely cold. This is a sign of

A. You should not use it
B. It is safe to continue
C. The material inside are running low
D. None of the above

Answer: A — You should not use it

The correct answer is 'You should not use it'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

3. Which of the following items shall be included in each fire drill?

A. Checking the operation of water tight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant communication equipment
B. Checking the fire wires
C. Checking closure mechanism for all air ventilators and other openings to accommodation, engine rooms and cargo spaces
D. Checking the operation of fire doors

Answer: A — Checking the operation of water tight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant communication equipment

The correct answer is 'Checking the operation of water tight doors, fire doors, fire dampers and relevant communication equipment'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

4. Each fire hydrant is required to have at least one spanner wrench and at least on

A. Hose rack or reel
B. All-purpose nozzle
C. Foma applicator
D. Pick axe

Answer: B — All-purpose nozzle

The correct answer is 'All-purpose nozzle'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

5. Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the following steps is/are essential?

A. The cause of the fire is to be known
B. The fire area is safe for men to enter without a breathing apparatus
C. The fire area is sufficiently cooled so that accidental skin burns will not occur
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

The correct answer is 'All the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. Low velocity water fog is used in firefighting as a;

A. Cooling agent
B. Smothering agent
C. Barrier against radiant heat
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

Low velocity water fog cools by absorbing heat as fine droplets turn to steam, and the steam helps smother by displacing oxygen. A fog curtain also shields firefighters from radiant heat, so it serves all three purposes.

7. What is the inherent danger in welding/cutting in piping containing Freon?

A. Development of nitrous gas
B. Depletion of oxygen in the air
C. Depletion of the ozone layer
D. Development of explosive gases

Answer: A — Development of nitrous gas

The correct answer is 'Development of nitrous gas'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

8. What type of fire extinguishers shall be used in the engine room?

A. Fire extinguishers of the handy size types only
B. Any fire extinguisher with weight of less than 50kgs
C. Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only
D. Fire extinguishers filled with fresh water only

Answer: C — Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only

The correct answer is 'Fire extinguishers equipped for powder or CO2 only'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. Effective Fixed Fire Fighting system for Chemical Cargo;

A. Fixed DCP
B. Fixed CO2
C. Inert Gas System
D. Nitrogen Padding

Answer: D — Nitrogen Padding

The correct answer is 'Nitrogen Padding'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

10. If discover a fire, what is the most important action to take?

A. Close doors and windows to remove the air supply
B. Report it bay raising the alarm
C. Tackle the fire with the nearest fire extinguisher
D. Find the seat of the fire

Answer: B — Report it bay raising the alarm

The correct answer is 'Report it bay raising the alarm'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

11. On a fire patrol at night, you see smoke coming from a closed cabin door. What action should you take first?

A. Activate the nearest fire alarm and advise bridge of the location of the fire
B. Take a look inside the cabin to see what the situation is
C. Get the nearest fire extinguisher and then open the door to see what the situation is
D. As most people are sleeping, call a friend and ask him to assist in putting the fire

Answer: A — Activate the nearest fire alarm and advise bridge of the location of the fire

The correct answer is 'Activate the nearest fire alarm and advise bridge of the location of the fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

12. Fixed DCP system is charged by;

A. CO2
B. Nitrogen
C. Compressed air
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Nitrogen

The correct answer is 'Nitrogen'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. When the BA team has withdrawn from a fire incident, what action should be taken by the team leader?

A. Instruct the BA wearer to change the bottles, then relax until called again if necessary
B. Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge
C. Make note, act as you think best. And keep information to yourself as others, such as the bridge team must not be overloaded with information
D. Check the equipment personally and ensure that it is safe for future use

Answer: B — Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge

The correct answer is 'Thoroughly de-brief the BA team and pass the information to the bridge'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

14. Which of the following is true about dry powder fire extinguishers?

A. You should avoid using them in confined spaces
B. They are best choice for electrical fires
C. You should only use them in confined spaces
D. There is a black band above them

Answer: A — You should avoid using them in confined spaces

Dry powder discharge reduces visibility and causes breathing difficulty, so avoid in confined spaces; CO2 is preferred for electrical and the black band denotes CO2.

15. If heavy smoke is observed to be issuing from a partially open door of a paint locker having a CO2 fire extinguishing system, the FIRST firefighting attack should be to

A. Leave the door and vents open, but release the CO2 flooding system
B. Open the door completely to evaluate the extent of the fire
C. Enter and use a portable extinguisher
D. Secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2

Answer: D — Secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2

The correct answer is 'Secure the door and vents, then manually release the CO2'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. Where shall manually operated call points in fixed fire- detection and alarm systems be located in accommodation spaces? (SOLAS II-2/13.2.1)?

A. In all crew and passenger cabins
B. In messrooms, public lounges and other public rooms
C. In stairways and escape routes
D. At exits and in corridors

Answer: D — At exits and in corridors

The correct answer is 'At exits and in corridors'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

17. Foam is more suitable to extinguish;

A. Class A type fire
B. Class B type fire
C. Class C type fire
D. Class D type fire

Answer: B — Class B type fire

The correct answer is 'Class B type fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

18. Which type of fire extinguish do you use to fight an electrical fire if a carbon dioxide extinguisher is unavailable?

A. water
B. Wet Chemical
C. foam
D. Dry powder

Answer: D — Dry powder

The correct answer is 'Dry powder'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

19. Water fire should be on fires started by which of the following materials?

A. Materials such as gasoline that are highly flammable
B. Materials made up of combustible metals
C. Fires caused by electricity
D. Materials such as paper, textiles, wood and other solid materials

Answer: D — Materials such as paper, textiles, wood and other solid materials

The correct answer is 'Materials such as paper, textiles, wood and other solid materials'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

20. If there is a black coloured band above the fire extinguisher; what does the colour of the band tell you?

A. That this extinguisher is a wet chemical fire extinguisher
B. That this extinguisher is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
C. That this extinguisher is broken and should not be used
D. That this extinguisher is a water fire extinguisher

Answer: B — That this extinguisher is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher

The correct answer is 'That this extinguisher is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. Titanium and aluminum materials can be classified under which of the following categories?

A. Category A
B. Category C
C. Category D
D. Category B

Answer: C — Category D

The correct answer is 'Category D'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

22. You should avoid using __________ fire extinguishers when extinguishing a fire in a confined space.

A. Dry Powder Fire Extinguishers
B. Water Fire Extinguishers
C. Foam Fire Extinguishers
D. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguishers

Answer: A — Dry Powder Fire Extinguishers

The correct answer is 'Dry Powder Fire Extinguishers'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

23. Which of the following fire extinguishers would you use in order to extinguish an electrical fire?

A. Water Fire Extinguisher
B. Foam Fire Extinguisher
C. Wet Chemical Fire Extinguisher
D. Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher

Answer: D — Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher

The correct answer is 'Carbon Dioxide Fire Extinguisher'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. While you are using a fire extinguisher containing to carbon dioxide; what happens to the nozzle?

A. It becomes extremely hot
B. It becomes warm
C. It becomes slightly cold
D. It becomes extremely cold

Answer: D — It becomes extremely cold

The correct answer is 'It becomes extremely cold'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

25. Which of the following types of fire extinguishers have a yellow band above it?

A. Foam
B. Water
C. Wet Chemical
D. Carbon Dioxide

Answer: C — Wet Chemical

The correct answer is 'Wet Chemical'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

26. Class A materials do not include which of the following?

A. Wood Materials
B. Propane Materials
C. Plastic Materials
D. Paper Materials

Answer: B — Propane Materials

The correct answer is 'Propane Materials'. Class A fires involve ordinary combustible solids such as wood, paper, cloth, trash, and plastics.

27. The fire assembly point can be best described as:

A. Where the fire extinguishers are stored
B. An area that has a high risk for fires to occur
C. An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire
D. An area you are required to avoid in the event of a fire

Answer: C — An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire

The correct answer is 'An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. When you see a fire on the worksite, what is the first thing you should do?

A. Sound the fire alarm
B. Tell you, master
C. Try and put the fire out
D. Grab your tools and quickly exit the area

Answer: A — Sound the fire alarm

The correct answer is 'Sound the fire alarm'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

29. Where should you go if you hear the fire alarm going off?

A. To the supervisor’s office in order to inform him what is happening
B. To the fire assembly point
C. To the break room to make sure everyone got out
D. Home, the work day is over

Answer: B — To the fire assembly point

The correct answer is 'To the fire assembly point'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

30. Fires that are fueled by _________ require you to use water fire extinguishers in order to fight them

A. Live electricity
B. Gasoline, kerosene, and other flammable liquids
C. Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile
D. Propane, butane, and other flammable gases

Answer: C — Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile

The correct answer is 'Solid materials; such as wood, paper, and textile'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

Set 8 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. When do you go to the fire assembly point?

A. When discussion about fire safety is taking place
B. When the fire alarm goes on
C. If you are the first one to see the fire
D. When practicing using the different types of fire extinguishers

Answer: B — When the fire alarm goes on

The correct answer is 'When the fire alarm goes on'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

2. The area you must assemble in the event of the fire is called :

A. The Fire Safety Meeting Spot
B. There is no specific name
C. The Fire Assembly Point
D. The supervisor’s office

Answer: C — The Fire Assembly Point

The correct answer is 'The Fire Assembly Point'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

3. A hot permit allows you to

A. Carry out work that can potentially cause a fire
B. To work on a worksite containing extreme temperatures
C. Gives you the authority to start a fire on the worksite
D. Allows you to practice fire drills on the worksite

Answer: A — Carry out work that can potentially cause a fire

The correct answer is 'Carry out work that can potentially cause a fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

4. Which of the following materials can be classified under Category D?

A. Titanium
B. Aluminum
C. Propane
D. Both A & B

Answer: D — Both A & B

Class D fires involve combustible metals such as titanium, aluminium, magnesium and sodium. They burn at very high temperatures and react with water, so they need special dry powder agents. Propane is a flammable gas, not a Class D material.

5. In the event of a fire, everyone is responsible for:

A. Informing the supervisor of what is happening
B. Pulling the fire alarm if they see a fire
C. Making sure everyone gets to the fire assembly point safely
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Pulling the fire alarm if they see a fire

The correct answer is 'Pulling the fire alarm if they see a fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. What are the criteria that it must be automatic fire detection on board?

A. It is the owner’s option to have fire detection onboard a ship with heat/smoke detectors and audio alarm
B. All ships that are built after 1986
C. All ships covered by the IMO safety conventions
D. All ships that are built on or after 1986 in accordance with local rules and regulations

Answer: C — All ships covered by the IMO safety conventions

The correct answer is 'All ships covered by the IMO safety conventions'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

7. How many fireman’s outfit are required to be carried on tankers?

A. At least three sets
B. At least four sets
C. At least one set
D. At least two sets

Answer: B — At least four sets

The correct answer is 'At least four sets'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

8. What is oxygen’s role in making a fire?

A. It sustains combustion
B. It cools down
C. It spreads it
D. none of these

Answer: A — It sustains combustion

The correct answer is 'It sustains combustion'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. Combustion generates

A. Fumes, gases, vapors
B. Heat smoke Light
C. Sound , rust, dust
D. Heat, vibration, smell

Answer: B — Heat smoke Light

The correct answer is 'Heat smoke Light'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

10. When extinguishing a fire you should?

A. Turn your back always to the north
B. Turn your back to the fire exit(Outward)
C. Turn your face to the fire exit(inward)
D. Turn your face always to the south

Answer: B — Turn your back to the fire exit(Outward)

When fighting a fire you keep your back to the exit or escape route, facing the fire. This keeps a safe way out behind you, so you can withdraw quickly if the fire spreads or the extinguisher runs out.

11. Of the four kinds of fire extinguishers, which one would use on a class B fire

A. Water
B. Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
C. Foam
D. Dry Chemical

Answer: C — Foam

The correct answer is 'Foam'. Class B fires involve flammable and combustible liquids such as fuel oil, petrol, lubricating oil, paints, and grease.

12. In order to discharge a CO2 portable extinguisher, the operator must first

A. open the discharge valve
B. remove the locking pin
C. invert the CO2 extinguisher
D. squeeze the two trigger handles together

Answer: B — remove the locking pin

The correct answer is 'remove the locking pin'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. The fire fighting water sprinklers covers a distance of

A. 16 sq meters
B. 5 sq meter
C. 10 sq meter
D. 3 sq meter

Answer: A — 16 sq meters

The correct answer is '16 sq meters'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

14. In order to produce a high velocity water fog using a all purpose nozzle, you must

A. Pull the nozzle handle halfway back
B. Pull the nozzle handle completely forward
C. Insert an in-line fog applicator
D. Change to a small nozzle tip after changing the position of the nozzle handle

Answer: A — Pull the nozzle handle halfway back

The correct answer is 'Pull the nozzle handle halfway back'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

15. Which mechanism is not a way to transfer heat?

A. Fusible link
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Radiation

Answer: A — Fusible link

The correct answer is 'Fusible link'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. Total weight of a portable extinguisher should be more than

A. 20 Kgs
B. 23 Kgs
C. 30 Kgs
D. 35 Kgs

Answer: B — 23 Kgs

FSS Code chapter 4 states that the total mass of a portable fire extinguisher shall not be more than 23 kg, so that one person can carry and use it. It must also have a fire-extinguishing capacity at least equal to 9 litres of fluid.

17. Before an emergency you should

A. Be able to recognize the sound/signal of a fire or evacuation alarm
B. Know the procedure in an emergency
C. Be aware of the emergency escape to a minimum of 2 exits from
D. All the above.

Answer: D — All the above.

Before an emergency one must recognise alarms, know procedures and know escape routes - all listed.

18. Fire extinguishing medium in cargo tank of a tanker is

A. CO2
B. Foam
C. Sea water
D. Dry powder

Answer: B — Foam

The correct answer is 'Foam'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

19. Removal of fuel from the fire triangle is called

A. Cooling
B. Starvation
C. Smothering
D. chain reaction

Answer: B — Starvation

The correct answer is 'Starvation'. Fire requires fuel, heat, oxygen, and an uninhibited chemical chain reaction to sustain combustion.

20. Fire is classed into

A. 4 types
B. 7 types
C. 5 types
D. 6 types

Answer: D — 6 types

The correct answer is '6 types'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. The Main objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is?

A. Extinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid
B. powder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter
C. Dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical equipment inoperative
D. Extinguisher need to be charged.

Answer: C — Dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical equipment inoperative

The correct answer is 'Dry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical equipment inoperative'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

22. C class (fire) divisions shall meet one of the listed requirements SOLAS II-2/3.5)

A. Constructed of ignition resistant material
B. Constructed of combustible material
C. Constructed of non combustible material
D. Constructed by steel or equivalent material

Answer: C — Constructed of non combustible material

SOLAS II-2/3.10: C-class divisions are constructed of approved non-combustible materials.

23. Whilst in engine room you hear the CO2 release alarm, what action if any should you take

A. Take no action as it is probably someone testing the system as the fire alarm has not been sounded and the engine room is not on fire
B. Proceed to the engine room and call the Bridge for further instructions
C. As CO2 can not kill you , secure present work and proceed out of engine room.
D. Leave the engine room as quickly as possible closing all doors behind you.

Answer: D — Leave the engine room as quickly as possible closing all doors behind you.

The correct answer is 'Leave the engine room as quickly as possible closing all doors behind you.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. Once the fire is contained, the master needs to evaluate the best strategy for the next stage , This might include a number of actions. In your opinion, which action does not belong?

A. keeping the fire contained
B. Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings
C. Other means of control
D. The use of fixed installations to put out the fire contained

Answer: B — Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings

The correct answer is 'Re-introducing air circulation by opening up fire dampers and other openings'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

25. Which spaces in regard to fire protection, shall be separated from rest of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries?(SOLAS II-2/2.2.2)?

A. Accommodation
B. Cargo compartments
C. Storage rooms for inflammable materials
D. Machinery spaces

Answer: A — Accommodation

SOLAS II-2/2.2.2: separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries.

26. What is the correct location of portable firefighting equipment during loading /discharging operations?

A. One fire hose and one powder extinguisher forward of the manifold area
B. One fire hose forward and aft of the manifold and portable extinguisher near to ship’s manifold
C. On the forecastle and poop deck.
D. Not necessary to locate portable firefighting equipment near to manifold.

Answer: B — One fire hose forward and aft of the manifold and portable extinguisher near to ship’s manifold

ISGOTT: fire hoses laid out forward and aft of the manifold with portable extinguishers (dry powder) placed near the manifold during cargo operations.

27. Means for forcing water out of a portable extinguisher

A. CO2 cartridge
B. A pump
C. Chemical cartridge
D. Nitrogen cartridge

Answer: A — CO2 cartridge

The correct answer is 'CO2 cartridge'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. There shall be at least one ___ Capacity or equivalent water extinguisher in each boiler room

A. 45 litre
B. 75 litre
C. 235 Litre
D. None

Answer: A — 45 litre

The correct answer is '45 litre'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

29. The elements needed for a fire include

A. Fuel
B. Oxygen
C. Heat
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

30. Which of the tools is designed for connecting and disconnecting fire hose coupling?

A. Vise grips
B. Channel locks
C. C-Spanner
D. Pipe wrench

Answer: C — C-Spanner

The correct answer is 'C-Spanner'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

Set 9 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. fire can be prevented by

A. Inspecting electrical appliances for damages
B. Not using extension cords
C. Smoking only in designated areas
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

2. A class D fire would involve the burning

A. Diesel oil
B. Magnesium
C. Dunnage
D. Electrical insulation

Answer: B — Magnesium

The correct answer is 'Magnesium'. Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, sodium, and potassium.

3. The most effective way of applying carbon dioxide from a portable extinguisher to a fire ?

A. Forming a cloud cover the flames.
B. Discharging the carbon dioxide into the heat of the flames
C. Directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion
D. Bouncing the discharge off an adjacent bulkhead just above the burning service

Answer: C — Directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion

The correct answer is 'Directing the gas at the base of the flame in a slow sweeping motion'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

4. A frying pan on the galley stove catches fire, which of the following should not be used on this type of fire.

A. Use water extinguisher to put out the fire
B. Cover pan with the blanket and switch of heat source
C. Raise the alarm and close the gallery door
D. Cover the pan and switch of the heat source

Answer: A — Use water extinguisher to put out the fire

The correct answer is 'Use water extinguisher to put out the fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

5. Fire extinguishers are classified by

A. The type of fire they are used on
B. Size of the fire put out
C. The temperature of fire
D. The colour of the fire

Answer: A — The type of fire they are used on

The correct answer is 'The type of fire they are used on'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. In the sprinkler system for accommodation the tank capacity should be simultaneous coverage of a minimum area of __at the application rate

A. 160 sq feet
B. 280 sq feet
C. 300 sq feet
D. 320 sq feet

Answer: B — 280 sq feet

FSS Code Ch.8: sprinkler pump/supply sized for simultaneous coverage of at least 280 m2 at the required application rate (question wrongly says sq feet).

7. Signaling communication through life line-repeated pull

A. I m alright
B. Give more slack
C. Pick up slack
D. Pull me out/come out

Answer: D — Pull me out/come out

The correct answer is 'Pull me out/come out'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

8. Which of the following fire extinguishers is used to put out Class ‘A’ fires?

A. CO2
B. Water
C. Multi – purpose dry chemical
D. Both b and c.

Answer: D — Both b and c.

The correct answer is 'Both b and c.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. Fully pressurized gas carriers are designed for excess pressure in cargo tank above?

A. 7 bar
B. 8 bar
C. 11 bar
D. 15 bar

Answer: D — 15 bar

Fully pressurised gas carriers carry LPG and ammonia at ambient temperature in Type C pressure vessels. These tanks are typically designed for working pressures of about 17.5 to 18 bar, well above the vapour pressure of propane at maximum ambient temperature, so they are designed for pressures above 15 bar.

10. Ideally the adjustable jet/spray nozzle on a hose should be used as

A. A spray of arc 60 degrees
B. A jet
C. A spray of arc 30 degrees
D. A spray of arc 90 degrees

Answer: A — A spray of arc 60 degrees

The correct answer is 'A spray of arc 60 degrees'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

11. Fire _____ is based on the type of fuel used to feed a fire

A. Detection
B. Classification
C. Prevention
D. Theory

Answer: B — Classification

The correct answer is 'Classification'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

12. Fires resulting from spontaneous combustion caused by the improper disposal of

A. Cigarette buts
B. Oily rags
C. Burner torches
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Oily rags

The correct answer is 'Oily rags'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. Dry chemical powder is more suitable to extinguish _____

A. Class A type fire
B. Class B type of fire
C. Class C type of fire
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Multipurpose dry chemical powder, such as ABC powder, stops the chemical chain reaction of combustion and works on ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids and gas fires. Shipboard training therefore treats it as suitable for all of these fire classes, though cooling with water is still needed for deep-seated Class A fires.

14. What does a red and white sign displaying a finger?

A. The location of the fire assembly point
B. The location of the fire extinguisher
C. The location of the fire alarm point
D. None of the above

Answer: C — The location of the fire alarm point

The correct answer is 'The location of the fire alarm point'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

15. What does AFFF stands in relation to fire fighting?

A. Active Fire fighting Foam
B. Anti Fire fighting Foam
C. Aqueous Film forming Foam
D. Aqueous Fire fighting Foam

Answer: C — Aqueous Film forming Foam

The correct answer is 'Aqueous Film forming Foam'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. Things to remember before opening the door of a fire compartment

A. Smoldering of fire
B. Flash over/Back draft
C. Explosion of flame
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

The correct answer is 'All of the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

17. Class D fires involve

A. Fire involving metal
B. Fire involving liquids
C. Fire involving Gas/Electrical
D. Fire involving solid material

Answer: A — Fire involving metal

The correct answer is 'Fire involving metal'. Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, sodium, and potassium.

18. Emergency escape routes should be kept

A. Open and clear
B. Locked at sea
C. Locked in port
D. Open when needed

Answer: A — Open and clear

The correct answer is 'Open and clear'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

19. A disadvantage of using CO2 for fire fighting is that

A. They are not effective on Class ‘C’ fires
B. They are not effective on Class ‘B’ fires
C. The cylinders are pressure regulated vessels
D. The CO2 does not cool the fire .

Answer: D — The CO2 does not cool the fire .

The correct answer is 'The CO2 does not cool the fire .'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

20. What is the job for the ship management team when the fire breaks out?

A. The ship management team must fight the fire and then call the fire squads
B. The ship management team must call shore office for assistance.
C. The ship management team must evacuate the ship
D. The ship management team must call the nearest fire brigade and police station

Answer: A — The ship management team must fight the fire and then call the fire squads

The correct answer is 'The ship management team must fight the fire and then call the fire squads'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. The most effective method in the use of CO2 fire extinguisher is for the discharge to be directed at

A. Middle of the fire
B. Top and sides of the fire
C. Base or nearest edge of the fire
D. Highest flames of a fire

Answer: C — Base or nearest edge of the fire

The correct answer is 'Base or nearest edge of the fire'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

22. A self contained Breathing apparatus should contain at least 1200 Litres of air. How long it should last a normal person when not carrying out hard work?

A. 45 Mins
B. 30 Mins
C. 15 Mins
D. 60 Mins

Answer: B — 30 Mins

The correct answer is '30 Mins'. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides respiratory protection in smoke, toxic fumes, or oxygen-deficient environments.

23. ________ are one of the most dependable ways to fight a fire

A. Work Permits
B. Automatic sprinkler systems
C. Fire escapes
D. Job safety analyses

Answer: B — Automatic sprinkler systems

The correct answer is 'Automatic sprinkler systems'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. Hazards in galley

A. Cooking oil, hot fat
B. Hot surfaces, oven, frying pan
C. Defective electrical connections
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Galley fire hazards include cooking oil and hot fat, which can ignite on their own; hot surfaces such as ovens, hot plates and frying pans; and defective electrical connections on high-load appliances. All are recognised causes of galley fires.

25. Low expansion foam is suitable for fighting fires in

A. Accommodation
B. Cargo Holds
C. Deck of a ship
D. Engine Room

Answer: C — Deck of a ship

The correct answer is 'Deck of a ship'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

26. Class C fires involve

A. Fire involving Gas/Electrical
B. Fire involving liquids
C. Fire involving solid material
D. Fire involving metal

Answer: A — Fire involving Gas/Electrical

The correct answer is 'Fire involving Gas/Electrical'. Class C fires involve flammable gases or energized electrical equipment depending on classification standards.

27. Welding and use of open flames on board tankers (without COW and IGS) in operation are subject to regulations laid down by the Norwegian Maritime Directorate (Norwegian Ship Control Legislation - NSCL). Which of the listed requirements regarding washing and gas freeing before hot work in cargo tanks corresponds to these regulations?

A. All cargo tanks, pump rooms and cofferdams shall be examined by type approved two explosimeters.
B. Gas measuring can be carried out by all deck officers.
C. One type approved explosimeter shall be used for gas measuring.
D. Hatches to not adjacent tanks which have not been cleaned or inerted shall be kept open during work.

Answer: A — All cargo tanks, pump rooms and cofferdams shall be examined by type approved two explosimeters.

The correct answer is 'All cargo tanks, pump rooms and cofferdams shall be examined by type approved two explosimeters.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

28. In addition to cargo & machinery spaces which other spaces if any have to be fitted with an approved fixed firefighting system on cargo ships?

A. No additional fixed systems are required.
B. Rope store
C. Paint store
D. Focsle store

Answer: C — Paint store

The correct answer is 'Paint store'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

29. Where can shore side personnel find necessary information on ship's fire control systems in an emergency situation?

A. From the duty officer.
B. A copy of the fire control plan is permanently posted in prominently marked locations onboard ships.
C. A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.
D. Information is to be given by the owners through the nearest rescue center.

Answer: C — A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.

The correct answer is 'A copy of the fire control plans/folders is stored in a watertight and prominently marked container outside the deckhouse or accommodation.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

30. What type of construction material should be avoided regarding fire protection purposes?

A. All uncovered wooden materials
B. All composite materials
C. All plastic materials
D. All combustible materials

Answer: D — All combustible materials

The correct answer is 'All combustible materials'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

Set 10 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. According to SOLAS - for carbon dioxide fire-fighting systems in machinery spaces the fixed piping system shall be such that

A. 70 % of the gas can be discharged into space within 2 minutes.
B. 100 % of the gas can be discharged into space within 3 minutes.
C. 100 % of the gas can be discharged into space within two minutes.
D. 85 % of the gas can be discharged into space within two minutes.

Answer: D — 85 % of the gas can be discharged into space within two minutes.

The correct answer is '85 % of the gas can be discharged into space within two minutes.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

2. Three methods of fire protection regarding internal divisional bulk heading may be adopted in accommodation and service spaces in cargo ships. Which of the given methods do not correspond to present rules?

A. Fitting of an automatic sprinkler, fire-detection and alarm system for the detection and extinction of fire in all spaces in which fire might be expected to originate
B. Fitting of a fixed fire-detection and alarm system in all spaces where fire might be expected to originate. No accommodation space bounded by an 'A' or 'B' class division to exceed 500 m
C. Construction of all internal bulkheads of non-combustible class 'B' or 'C' divisions
D. Construction of all internal bulkheads of class 'A' divisions

Answer: D — Construction of all internal bulkheads of class 'A' divisions

The correct answer is 'Construction of all internal bulkheads of class 'A' divisions'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

3. What information is found on a ship's fire plan?

A. The duties of each crew member in case of fire
B. The signal used on the ship to indicate there is a fire.
C. The action to take if you heard the fire alarm.
D. The locations of various firefighting appliances and equipment.

Answer: D — The locations of various firefighting appliances and equipment.

The correct answer is 'The locations of various firefighting appliances and equipment.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

4. Sanitary-, ballast-, bilge- or general service pumps may be accepted as fire pumps provided:

A. They can be started from a position outside the engine room
B. They are ready for use as fire pumps at any time
C. They are not normally used for pumping oil
D. They are fitted with automatic start connected to the fire alarm

Answer: C — They are not normally used for pumping oil

The correct answer is 'They are not normally used for pumping oil'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

5. A' class (fire) divisions are those divisions formed by bulkheads and decks. Which of the following requirements does not comply with the rules?

A. Preventing passage of smoke and flame to the end of a one-hour standard test
B. Suitably stiffened
C. Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material
D. Constructed of steel or other equivalent material

Answer: C — Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material

The correct answer is 'Insulated on both sides with approved non-combustible material'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

6. Which of the following types of breathing apparatus are most likely to be found onboard a modern ship?

A. Oxygen Breathing Apparatus.
B. Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.
C. Gas Mask type Breathing Apparatus.
D. Atmospheric Breathing Apparatus.

Answer: B — Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.

The correct answer is 'Compressed Air Breathing Apparatus.'. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides respiratory protection in smoke, toxic fumes, or oxygen-deficient environments.

7. Under ISO standard 3941 (used mostly in Europe), a fire involving a flammable solid fuel would be classed as which of the following?

A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.

Answer: A — Class A.

The correct answer is 'Class A.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

8. Fuel flowing in a pipe is prone to which of the following ignition sources?

A. High pressure action.
B. Friction.
C. Static electricity.
D. Chemical reaction.

Answer: C — Static electricity.

The correct answer is 'Static electricity.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

9. In addition to a fire suit, a fireman's outfit also comprises breathing apparatus and a fireproof lifeline. According to SOLAS- how many such sets of fireman's outfit are required to be carried by all ships?

A. At least one.
B. At least two.
C. As required by the ship's administration.
D. At least three.

Answer: B — At least two.

The correct answer is 'At least two.'. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA) provides respiratory protection in smoke, toxic fumes, or oxygen-deficient environments.

10. Which firefighting system is the most efficient and with the least side effects in the event of a fire in the engine room?

A. The powder extinguishing system.
B. The central foam extinguishing system.
C. The sprinkler extinguishing system.
D. The central CO2 extinguishing system.

Answer: D — The central CO2 extinguishing system.

The correct answer is 'The central CO2 extinguishing system.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

11. Fuel oil from a leaking fuel pipe has been collected in a drip tray under the boiler furnace. The oil is suddenly ignited by a backflash from the boiler burner. The boiler room is manned and the person present has the choice of various extinguishers. The fire is purely a surface fire. What would be the preferable extinguisher?

A. Powder
B. Any of the mentioned alternatives
C. CO2
D. Water

Answer: A — Powder

The correct answer is 'Powder'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

12. In pump rooms and pipe tunnels 'flameproof' electric light fittings are generally fitted. This means that:

A. Even if a fire occurs, it will not consume the fitting
B. The fitting is completely gastight and no gas can enter into contact with the bulb and electric connections
C. The electrical supply will disconnect automatically in cases of fire
D. Gas may enter, but even if an explosion takes place the fittings is so strong that the explosion will be contained within it and will not be blow out

Answer: D — Gas may enter, but even if an explosion takes place the fittings is so strong that the explosion will be contained within it and will not be blow out

The correct answer is 'Gas may enter, but even if an explosion takes place the fittings is so strong that the explosion will be contained within it and will not be blow out'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

13. Which of the following statements does not apply to fire doors in main vertical zone bulkheads and stairway enclosures in passenger ships?

A. If normally locked they do not have to be self-closing.
B. They shall be of the self-closing type.
C. They shall be capable of being closed from a control station unless they are normally closed.
D. They can have hold back hooks not subject to control station release providing the emergency plan details a person to close them.

Answer: D — They can have hold back hooks not subject to control station release providing the emergency plan details a person to close them.

SOLAS II-2/9.4.1.1.4: hold-back hooks not subject to control station release are not permitted; normally locked doors are exempt from self-closing requirements.

14. Oily rags and metal twist pose a particular fire hazard because:

A. They are not a hazard unless ignited.
B. They generate their own oxygen when ignited and are therefore difficult to extinguish.
C. They are liable to spontaneous combustion.
D. They are not a hazard.

Answer: C — They are liable to spontaneous combustion.

The correct answer is 'They are liable to spontaneous combustion.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

15. What is the maximum allowed suction head for the fire pump?

A. 4.5 meters.
B. 9 meters.
C. 1.5 meters.
D. 3 meters.

Answer: A — 4.5 meters.

The correct answer is '4.5 meters.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

16. Fire extinguishers that contain _____ have a red band located above them

A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet Chemicals

Answer: B — Water

The correct answer is 'Water'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

17. Water extinguishers are color coded

A. Red
B. Blue
C. White
D. Black

Answer: A — Red

Under the European colour coding generally used on ships, water extinguishers have a red body. Other types are identified by bands: cream for foam, blue for dry powder and black for CO2. This lets the right extinguisher be picked out quickly.

18. A Class C Fire would involve

A. Combustible gas
B. Fuel oil
C. Electrical insulation
D. Wood

Answer: A — Combustible gas

The correct answer is 'Combustible gas'. Class C fires involve flammable gases or energized electrical equipment depending on classification standards.

19. The use of Halon in fire extinguishing system and equipments is already prohibited for

A. Cargo ship
B. Existing ship
C. New built ship
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

The correct answer is 'All the above'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

20. Fire classed B type is

A. Metals
B. Liquids
C. Solid combustible material
D. Electrical equipment

Answer: B — Liquids

The correct answer is 'Liquids'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

21. Which of the following is not a way to extinguish fire?

A. Starve
B. Smother
C. Cool
D. Ignite

Answer: D — Ignite

The correct answer is 'Ignite'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

22. When combating an oil fire in a deep tank aboard ship, water fog can be used to Extinguish the fire and?

A. Contain The burning liquid
B. Prevent any deformation of the tank top
C. Cool the Surrounding metal
D. Eliminate flammable combustion gases

Answer: C — Cool the Surrounding metal

The correct answer is 'Cool the Surrounding metal'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

23. Fire will spread by Conduction, Radiation and _____

A. Convection
B. Chain reaction
C. Spontaneous combustion
D. Static electricity

Answer: A — Convection

The correct answer is 'Convection'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

24. To P.A.S.S methods stands for?

A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.
B. Pick up, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
C. Pull, Activate, Squirt, Sweep
D. None of the above.

Answer: A — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.

The correct answer is 'Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep.'. This is a standard requirement and safety procedure under DG Shipping STCW Fire Prevention and Fire Fighting (FPFF) guidelines.

25. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by ____.

A. Authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
B. Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
C. Puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
D. Recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder

Answer: B — Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder

In a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher the expellant gas is in a separate sealed cartridge which is used up when operated. After use the spent cartridge is replaced with a new, sealed one and the body is refilled with the correct grade and quantity of powder.

26. Immediately after a class B fire has been extinguished by the use of foam, crew members should ____.

A. Carefully apply a low-velocity fog over the foam blanket
B. Wade through the foam blanket to evenly distribute the foam
C. Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket
D. Sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment

Answer: C — Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket

Foam extinguishes a class B fire by forming a blanket that separates the fuel surface from air and suppresses vapour release. If the blanket is broken by walking through it or by water streams, flammable vapour can escape and the hot fuel can re-ignite.

27. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire-extinguishing agent is ____.

A. Permanent extinguishment regardless of re-ignition sources
B. Its excellent cooling ability
C. Its good stability and non-toxicity
D. All of the above

Answer: C — Its good stability and non-toxicity

Dry chemical powder is chemically stable in storage and is non-toxic, though it can irritate and reduce visibility. It knocks down flame quickly by interrupting the chain reaction but has very little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces remains possible.

28. A class B fire is most successfully fought by ____.

A. Preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material
B. Cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature
C. Using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistant
D. Using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat

Answer: A — Preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material

Class B fires involve flammable liquids, which burn as vapour above the liquid surface. They are best extinguished by smothering, cutting off oxygen with foam, CO2 or powder, because cooling a liquid below its flash point is usually impractical.

29. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may ____.

A. Deteriorate and give off noxious gases
B. Spontaneously heat and catch fire
C. Attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Spontaneously heat and catch fire

Oil-soaked rags slowly oxidise in air, generating heat. In a pile the heat cannot escape, so temperature rises until the auto-ignition point is reached and spontaneous combustion occurs. Oily rags should be kept in closed metal bins and disposed of regularly.

30. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?

A. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire
B. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases
C. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders
D. Foam sets up a vapour barrier over a flammable liquid, preventing flammable gases from rising

Answer: D — Foam sets up a vapour barrier over a flammable liquid, preventing flammable gases from rising

Foam floats on the surface of a burning liquid, forming a blanket that separates fuel from air and suppresses vapour release. Foam conducts electricity because it contains water, breaks down faster on hotter liquids and is ineffective against pressurised gas leaks.

Set 11 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The usual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by ____.

A. Spraying directly on the base of the fire
B. Flowing the foam down a vertical surface
C. Sweeping the fire with the foam
D. Spraying directly on the surface of the fire

Answer: B — Flowing the foam down a vertical surface

Foam should be applied gently so it spreads over the burning liquid without plunging into it. Bouncing it off a bulkhead or other vertical surface lets it flow down and across the surface, forming an unbroken blanket without agitating the fuel.

2. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

A. The fire pump
B. Exposed hard piping
C. The hydrant valve
D. The fire hose

Answer: D — The fire hose

Fire hoses are flexible, made of fabric and rubber, and are exposed to abrasion, heat, chafing, cuts and deterioration in storage. They are the component most likely to fail, which is why SOLAS requires regular inspection and spare hoses.

3. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should ____.

A. Cool the bulkheads around the fire
B. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. Close all openings to the area
D. Shut off all electric power

Answer: A — Cool the bulkheads around the fire

Conduction transfers heat through solid materials such as steel bulkheads and decks, which can ignite materials in adjacent spaces. Boundary cooling with water spray on the surrounding bulkheads removes this heat and stops the fire spreading by conduction.

4. Violent flames and heavy black smoke are typical of which sort of fire?

A. Wood fire
B. Paper fire
C. Fuel oil fire
D. Electrical fire

Answer: C — Fuel oil fire

Hydrocarbon fuels burn fiercely with intense flames, and incomplete combustion of their carbon-rich vapour produces dense black smoke. Class A materials such as wood and paper usually give lighter grey or white smoke.

5. A portable cartridge-type dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by ____.

A. Gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down
B. Pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher
C. Air pressure from a hand pump attached to the extinguisher
D. Pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical

Answer: B — Pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher

In a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher, piercing the CO2 gas cartridge pressurises the body and expels the powder through the hose. Stored-pressure types use nitrogen already in the body; neither relies on gravity, pumps or chemical reaction.

6. An aluminium powder fire is classified as class ____.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: D — D

Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, aluminium powder, sodium and titanium. They burn at very high temperatures and react with water, so special dry powders or dry sand are used.

7. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ____.

A. Fuel
B. Electricity
C. Oxygen
D. Heat

Answer: B — Electricity

The fire triangle consists of fuel, oxygen and heat; removing any one extinguishes the fire. Electricity is not an element of the triangle, although it can be the ignition source that provides heat.

8. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in:

A. Oil drums
B. Cargo tanks
C. A large fire
D. None of these

Answer: A — Oil drums

A portable foam extinguisher is designed for small Class B fires such as burning oil in drums or small spills, where the foam blanket smothers the liquid surface. Cargo tank and large fires require fixed deck foam or other fixed systems.

9. A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class:

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B

Answer: A — A

Trash and paper waste are ordinary combustible solids, so a fire in them is Class A. Cooling with water is the most effective extinguishing method, and the material should be overhauled to prevent re-ignition.

10. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class:

A. B
B. D
C. C
D. A

Answer: D — A

Dunnage is timber used to protect and secure cargo. As an ordinary solid combustible, a fire in dunnage is Class A and is best fought by cooling with water.

11. A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class:

A. D
B. C
C. A
D. B

Answer: C — A

Canvas is a textile, an ordinary solid combustible material. Fires in textiles are Class A and can smoulder deep within the material, so thorough cooling and overhaul are needed.

12. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitric oxide

Answer: B — Carbon monoxide

When a fire burns with limited oxygen, as in a closed compartment, combustion is incomplete and carbon monoxide is produced. CO is colourless, odourless, flammable and highly toxic because it combines with haemoglobin in preference to oxygen.

13. The outlet of a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing ____.

A. Vertically downward
B. Vertically upward
C. 45 degrees upward
D. All of the above

Answer: A — Vertically downward

Hydrant outlets are arranged between horizontal and pointing vertically downward so that the hose hangs naturally, avoids kinking at the coupling, and the hose can be readily coupled and laid out in an emergency.

14. A fire patrol should use which senses to identify a fire?

A. Sight only
B. Hearing and taste
C. Sight, smell and touch
D. Smell only

Answer: C — Sight, smell and touch

A fire patrol detects fire by seeing smoke or flames, smelling burning or smoke, and feeling for heat on doors, bulkheads and decks. Using all these senses allows early detection before automatic detectors operate.

15. Power-operated sliding watertight doors below the waterline must close, with the ship upright, in a time of:

A. Not less than 20 s and not more than 40 s
B. Not more than 45 s
C. Not more than 90 s
D. Not more than 10 s

Answer: A — Not less than 20 s and not more than 40 s

SOLAS II-1/13 requires power-operated sliding watertight doors to close at a uniform rate in not less than 20 seconds and not more than 40 seconds with the ship upright. Closure by hand gear must not exceed 90 seconds.

16. Before opening a closed door during a fire, you should always:

A. Open it quickly to assess the situation
B. Check the door for heat with the back of your hand
C. Kick the door open
D. Spray water under the door first

Answer: B — Check the door for heat with the back of your hand

Feeling the door and handle with the back of the hand indicates whether there is fire or intense heat behind it. Opening a hot door can admit air and cause a flashover or backdraught, endangering the fire fighters.

17. When should a fire watch be maintained for hot work activities?

A. Only before the hot work starts
B. Only during the hot work
C. During the hot work and for a period after it is completed
D. Only after the hot work is completed

Answer: C — During the hot work and for a period after it is completed

Sparks and heat from welding or cutting can ignite materials that smoulder unnoticed, including on the far side of bulkheads. A fire watch is therefore kept during the work and for a period afterwards, as required by the hot work permit.

18. Quick-closing valves on fuel oil tanks are designed to be operated from:

A. Only locally at the valve
B. A remote position outside the space concerned
C. Only from the bridge
D. Only from inside the tank

Answer: B — A remote position outside the space concerned

SOLAS II-2/4.2.2.3.4 requires suction valves on fuel oil tanks above the double bottom to be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the space, so the fuel supply can be shut off during an engine room fire.

19. If there has been a fire in a closed, unventilated compartment, it may be unsafe to enter because of ____.

A. excess hydrogen
B. unburned carbon particles
C. excess nitrogen
D. a lack of oxygen

Answer: D — a lack of oxygen

A fire in a closed space consumes the available oxygen and produces toxic combustion gases such as carbon monoxide. The atmosphere is likely to be oxygen-deficient, so entry without SCBA after testing is unsafe.

20. What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space?

A. Second degree burns
B. Electric shock
C. Suffocation
D. Burst eardrums

Answer: C — Suffocation

CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen. In a small enclosed space it can reduce oxygen to a level that causes suffocation of personnel, so the space must be ventilated before entry without breathing apparatus.

21. It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to ____.

A. Allow the exhaust fans to remove smoke
B. Extinguish the fire by carbon monoxide smothering
C. Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
D. Protect fire-fighting personnel from smoke

Answer: C — Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire

Removing oxygen from the fire triangle starves the fire. Stopping fans and closing dampers and openings prevents fresh air feeding the fire and is also essential before any fixed gas system such as CO2 is released.

22. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

A. Dry powder
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet chemical

Answer: A — Dry powder

Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium or titanium. Water and foam react violently with them, so special dry powder agents are used to smother the burning metal.

23. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

A. Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
B. Non-corrosive
C. Effective on electrical equipment
D. Will not deteriorate in storage

Answer: A — Effective even if ventilation is not shut down

CO2 extinguishes by reducing oxygen concentration, so it is ineffective if ventilation keeps supplying fresh air and dispersing the gas. It is clean, non-conducting, non-corrosive and stable in storage.

24. Mechanical foam used for fire fighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating ____.

A. Soda acid and water
B. Dry chemical and water
C. Foam concentrate with air and water
D. Bicarbonate of soda with air and water

Answer: C — Foam concentrate with air and water

Mechanical (air) foam is formed when foam concentrate is proportioned into water and the solution is aerated in a branch pipe or generator. Chemical foam, now obsolete, came from reacting sodium bicarbonate with aluminium sulphate.

25. When combating a Class C (electrical) fire, which of the following dangers may be present?

A. Flooding of the vessel
B. Water damage to machinery not involved in the fire
C. Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
D. Increased surface area of the burning fluid

Answer: C — Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock

Electrical fires involve energised equipment, so there is a risk of electric shock if conductive agents are used, and burning cable insulation such as PVC gives off toxic and corrosive fumes. Power should be isolated first.

26. A fire has broken out at the stern of your vessel. You should manoeuvre the vessel so that the wind ____.

A. Blows the fire back towards the vessel
B. Comes over the bow
C. Comes over the stern
D. Comes over either beam

Answer: B — Comes over the bow

With the wind over the bow, flames, heat and smoke from a fire aft are carried astern away from the rest of the ship. Bringing the wind over the stern would drive the fire forward over the vessel.

27. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a rise in heat in a compartment?

A. Manual fire detection system
B. Automatic fire detection system
C. Smoke detection system
D. Watchman's patrol system

Answer: B — Automatic fire detection system

Automatic fire detection systems use heat detectors that respond to a fixed temperature or rate of rise, raising an alarm without human action. Smoke detection responds to smoke, and manual systems rely on call points.

28. A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of ____.

A. Alternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapour
B. Absorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapour
C. Rapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapour
D. Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

Answer: D — Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

Water has a high latent heat of vaporisation, absorbing great heat as it turns to steam and cooling the fire. The steam expands about 1,700 times in volume, displacing air and helping to smother the fire.

29. Fire hydrant valves on a crude oil tanker shall be isolated from the crude oil washing system by ____.

A. Spade blanks
B. Face blanks
C. Non-return valves
D. Automatic closing valves

Answer: A — Spade blanks

Where the fire main or water supply could be cross-connected with the crude oil washing system, positive isolation is required so oil cannot enter the fire main. Spade blanks give a visible, positive separation that valves alone cannot guarantee.

30. How do you operate a portable CO2 fire extinguisher?

A. Point the horn down
B. Turn the cylinder upside down
C. Break the rupture disc
D. Pull the pin and squeeze the grip

Answer: D — Pull the pin and squeeze the grip

Modern portable CO2 extinguishers are operated by removing the safety pin, aiming the horn at the base of the fire and squeezing the operating lever. The horn is held by its insulated handle, as it becomes extremely cold.

Set 12 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. All portable fire extinguishers must be capable of being ____.

A. Carried by hand to a fire
B. Carried or rolled to a fire
C. Recharged in the field
D. Used on Class B fires

Answer: A — Carried by hand to a fire

By definition a portable extinguisher is one that can be carried by hand; the FSS Code limits its total mass to not more than 23 kg. Larger wheeled units are classed as semi-portable.

2. Fire pumps may be used for other purposes provided that one pump is ____.

A. On line to the fire main
B. Kept available for use on the fire main at all times
C. Capable of being connected to the fire main
D. Rated at or above 125 psi

Answer: B — Kept available for use on the fire main at all times

SOLAS II-2/10 permits fire pumps to be used for other services such as ballast or general service, provided at least one fire pump is always kept available for immediate use on the fire main.

3. Fire hoses should always be stowed at the fire hydrant in a manner which will allow ____.

A. All sections to be quickly connected
B. The nozzle end to be run out to the fire
C. All sections to be quickly drained
D. The nozzle and fittings to be easily and quickly inspected

Answer: B — The nozzle end to be run out to the fire

Hoses are kept connected or ready at the hydrant, faked or rolled so that the nozzle end can be run out towards the fire without kinking, allowing water to be applied in the shortest possible time.

4. Where must a duplicate set of fire control plans be located?

A. Near the gangway, in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse
B. In the engine room
C. In the crew mess
D. In the Chief Mate's office

Answer: A — Near the gangway, in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse

SOLAS II-2/15 requires a duplicate set of fire control plans to be kept permanently in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse, normally near the gangway, for the assistance of shore-side fire-fighting personnel.

5. A vessel's fire control plan shall be ____.

A. Posted every 150 feet along the most continuous deck
B. Permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers
C. Given to each crew member in booklet form
D. Translated into English, French and Spanish

Answer: B — Permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers

SOLAS II-2/15 requires general arrangement fire control plans to be permanently exhibited for the guidance of the ship's officers, showing fire stations, fire divisions, detection and extinguishing systems, ventilation controls and means of access.

6. The muster list shows each crew member's muster station, duties during abandonment, basic instructions and ____.

A. All emergency signals
B. Instructions for lowering the survival craft
C. The time each weekly drill will be held
D. The work schedule

Answer: A — All emergency signals

SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require the muster list to specify the general emergency alarm and other emergency signals, the action to be taken by crew and passengers when they sound, and each person's muster station and duties.

7. A fireman's outfit carried on board cargo vessels must include a ____.

A. Canister-type gas mask
B. Fresh-air hose breathing apparatus
C. Self-contained breathing apparatus
D. Combustible gas indicator

Answer: C — Self-contained breathing apparatus

Under SOLAS II-2/10 and the FSS Code a fireman's outfit comprises protective clothing, boots, helmet, safety lamp, axe and a self-contained compressed air breathing apparatus with fireproof lifeline. Canister masks give no protection in oxygen-deficient smoke.

8. The international shore connection ____.

A. Allows hook-up of fire-fighting water from shore facilities or another ship
B. Satisfies pollution prevention requirements
C. Allows emergency use of the fire main for deballasting
D. Permits discharge of waste oil to shore facilities

Answer: A — Allows hook-up of fire-fighting water from shore facilities or another ship

The international shore connection is a standard flange, defined in the FSS Code, that lets a ship's fire main be connected to a shore supply or another vessel with different hose couplings. SOLAS requires it on ships of 500 GT and above.

9. If ignited, which material would produce a Class B fire?

A. Magnesium
B. Paper
C. Wood
D. Diesel oil

Answer: D — Diesel oil

Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as diesel, fuel oil, lubricating oil and paints. Paper and wood are Class A ordinary combustibles, and magnesium is a Class D combustible metal.

10. The extinguishing agent most effective for combating wood fires is ____.

A. Water
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Foam
D. Dry chemical

Answer: A — Water

Wood is a Class A material that can smoulder deep inside. Water penetrates and cools the fuel below its ignition temperature, preventing re-ignition, whereas smothering agents may leave deep-seated embers burning.

11. When used to fight fire, carbon dioxide ____.

A. Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire
B. Has a greater cooling effect than water
C. Is lighter than air
D. Is harmless to cargo and crew

Answer: A — Is effective if used promptly on an oil fire

CO2 smothers a fire by displacing oxygen and is effective on small oil fires if applied quickly. It is heavier than air, has little cooling effect compared with water, and is an asphyxiant dangerous to personnel.

12. Carbon dioxide as a fire-fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

A. It causes minimal damage
B. It is safer for personnel
C. It is cheaper
D. It is most effective on a per unit basis

Answer: A — It causes minimal damage

CO2 is a clean gas that leaves no residue, does not conduct electricity and does not damage machinery, electronics or cargo. It is not safer for personnel, since it can cause asphyxiation in enclosed spaces.

13. You have carbon tetrachloride as part of the cargo. If a fire breaks out in the general area, what is the major danger from the carbon tetrachloride?

A. It will explode if exposed to a flame
B. Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes into contact with hot metal
C. It will burn rapidly once ignited
D. Water cannot be used to fight the fire because it reacts with the carbon tetrachloride

Answer: B — Phosgene gas may be formed if it comes into contact with hot metal

Carbon tetrachloride is non-flammable, but when heated by fire or hot surfaces it decomposes to produce highly toxic phosgene and hydrogen chloride gases. This is why it is no longer used as an extinguishing agent.

14. Radiation can cause a fire to spread by ____.

A. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. Burning liquids flowing into another space
C. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

Answer: D — The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

Radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves across open space without any medium, igniting nearby materials. Heat through steel is conduction, movement of hot gases is convection, and flowing burning liquid is direct flame spread.

15. You are on watch at night in port and discover a fire in No. 1 hatch. Which action should you take FIRST?

A. Advise the Chief Mate and Master
B. Release carbon dioxide into the hatch
C. Sound the general alarm
D. Lead a fire hose to the hatch

Answer: C — Sound the general alarm

Raising the alarm first brings the whole crew to their fire stations and starts the emergency organisation. Fighting the fire alone or releasing CO2 before the space is checked and sealed could waste time or endanger personnel.

16. The most common and widely used cooling agent for fighting fires on merchant vessels is ____.

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Flue gas
C. Water
D. Steam smothering

Answer: C — Water

Water is plentiful at sea, cheap, and has the greatest cooling capacity of all agents because of its high specific and latent heat. It is supplied through the fire main, hydrants, sprinklers and drenching systems.

17. The locker or space containing the self-contained breathing apparatus must be ____.

A. Located close to the bridge
B. Equipped with battery-powered emergency lighting
C. Marked SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS
D. Kept locked at all times with the key held by the Master

Answer: C — Marked SELF-CONTAINED BREATHING APPARATUS

Breathing apparatus must be stowed where it is readily accessible and clearly marked so crew can find it quickly in an emergency. Locking it away would cause dangerous delay, and its location is shown on the fire control plan.

18. Which statement is TRUE concerning the application of foam on an oil fire?

A. It cools the surface of the liquid
B. It gives protection to fire-fighting personnel against the heat of the fire
C. It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil
D. It should be applied at the same time as a solid stream of water

Answer: C — It forms a smothering blanket on the surface of the oil

Foam floats on the burning oil and forms a blanket that excludes oxygen and suppresses flammable vapours. Applying a solid water jet at the same time would break the foam blanket and spread the burning oil.

19. Why should you wear a self-contained breathing apparatus before entering the engine room after the fixed CO2 system has been discharged to combat a major fire?

A. Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation
B. Because carbon dioxide breaks down in a fire into carbon monoxide which may cause blood poisoning
C. Because carbon dioxide becomes highly toxic at high temperatures and quickly incapacitates a person
D. It is unnecessary, as carbon dioxide is not poisonous and is a harmless gas

Answer: A — Because carbon dioxide dilutes the oxygen concentration in the atmosphere and may cause asphyxiation

A total-flooding CO2 discharge reduces the oxygen in the space far below the level needed to sustain life. Anyone entering without SCBA would be asphyxiated, and the space also contains smoke and toxic combustion products.

20. Which of the following actions should be taken by the engineer on watch when the general alarm is sounded continuously for 10 seconds?

A. Engine room ventilation should be started
B. Main engines should be secured
C. The fire pump should be started
D. The fixed CO2 system should be activated

Answer: C — The fire pump should be started

A continuous sounding of the alarm signals fire. The engine room watch starts the fire pump and pressurises the fire main so hoses can be used immediately; the propulsion plant stays available unless the bridge orders otherwise.

21. To extinguish an electrical fire, your FIRST action should be to ____.

A. Apply low-velocity fog
B. Secure the power
C. Completely discharge a 15 lb (6.8 kg) CO2 extinguisher
D. Apply mechanical or chemical foam

Answer: B — Secure the power

Isolating the electrical supply removes the shock hazard and the source of ignition, often turning the fire into an ordinary Class A or B fire. A non-conducting agent such as CO2 or dry powder is then used.

22. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

A. The stream of dry chemical powder cools the fire
B. The dry chemical powder interrupts the chain reaction of combustion
C. The powder forms a solid coating over the surface
D. The dry chemical smothers the fire

Answer: B — The dry chemical powder interrupts the chain reaction of combustion

Dry chemical powders such as sodium or potassium bicarbonate work mainly by chemically interrupting the free-radical chain reaction in the flame. They have little cooling effect and only a minor smothering action.

23. One of the main concerns when fighting a galley fire is ____.

A. Contamination of food with the extinguishing agent
B. Spreading of fire through the engineering spaces
C. The loss of stability
D. The ignition of grease in the range hood exhaust duct

Answer: D — The ignition of grease in the range hood exhaust duct

Grease deposits build up in galley range exhaust ducts and can ignite, carrying fire through the ducting to other parts of the accommodation. SOLAS II-2/9 therefore requires grease traps, fire dampers and fixed extinguishing means in galley range ducts.

24. Operation of the release control valve on a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system will ____.

A. Release CO2 to the protected space
B. Secure all mechanical ventilation in the protected space
C. Sound the general alarm signal for a fire
D. Sound an alarm in the ballast control room

Answer: A — Release CO2 to the protected space

The release control valve admits CO2 from the cylinder bank to the distribution pipework of the selected space. A separate pre-discharge alarm must sound and ventilation must be stopped before the gas is released, as required by the FSS Code.

25. A continuous blast of the whistle for not less than 10 seconds, supplemented by continuous ringing of the general alarm bells for not less than 10 seconds, indicates ____.

A. Fire
B. Collision
C. Man overboard
D. Flooded compartment

Answer: A — Fire

Under U.S. Coast Guard station bill requirements, a continuous blast of the whistle and continuous ringing of the general alarm for at least 10 seconds is the fire and emergency signal. Ship-specific signals are shown on the muster list.

26. After extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to ____.

A. Use all the CO2 available to cool the surrounding area
B. Stand by with water or other extinguishing agents in case of re-ignition
C. Immediately ventilate the space thoroughly
D. Jettison all burning materials

Answer: B — Stand by with water or other extinguishing agents in case of re-ignition

CO2 has little cooling effect, so hot materials may re-ignite when air is readmitted. The space is kept closed to cool and boundary cooling continues, with charged hoses and other agents standing by before it is opened and ventilated.

27. The fixed fire extinguishing system used in container ship cargo holds will normally be ____.

A. Foam
B. Water
C. Dry chemical powder
D. CO2

Answer: D — CO2

Enclosed cargo holds on container ships are normally protected by a fixed CO2 total-flooding system under SOLAS II-2/10.7, since gas penetrates between stacked containers and causes no water damage to cargo.

28. To fight a large Class A fire in a closed compartment, the nozzleman should open a door just enough to insert the hose nozzle and initially ____.

A. Sweep a straight stream around the compartment
B. Hold the nozzle steady applying a straight stream where he suspects the source of the fire
C. Sweep a fog stream around the compartment
D. Hold the nozzle steady and direct a fog stream where he suspects the fire

Answer: C — Sweep a fog stream around the compartment

Sweeping a fog pattern through the hot upper layers absorbs heat rapidly, turns to steam that smothers the fire and cools the space, reducing the risk of flashover before the team enters to attack the seat of the fire.

29. What must be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

A. Pressure gauge
B. Strainer
C. Reduction valve
D. International shore connection

Answer: A — Pressure gauge

A pressure gauge on the fire pump discharge shows that the pump is delivering water at the required pressure to the fire main. A strainer is fitted on the suction side, and the shore connection is a separate fitting on deck.

30. The success of an indirect attack on a fire depends on the ____.

A. Size of the fire when initially observed
B. Complete containment of the fire
C. Cooling ability of the fire-fighting agent
D. Class of the fire

Answer: B — Complete containment of the fire

In an indirect attack, water fog or gas is introduced into a closed space and the steam or gas does the work. It succeeds only if the space is fully contained, with openings and ventilation closed so the smothering atmosphere is retained.

Set 13 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the FIRST action you should attempt is to ____.

A. Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
B. Begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
C. Top off the tank to force out all vapours
D. Station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls

Answer: A — Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank

Closing vents, sounding pipes and ventilation to the tank starves the fire of oxygen. Transferring fuel would draw in air and could spread fire, and topping off the tank increases the fuel available.

2. Blocking open or removing fire dampers can cause ____.

A. Fixed foam systems to be ineffective
B. Faster cooling of the fire
C. The accumulation of explosive gases
D. The fire to spread through the ventilation system

Answer: D — The fire to spread through the ventilation system

Fire dampers close automatically or manually to stop fire, heat and smoke passing through ventilation ducts that penetrate fire divisions. If wedged open or removed, ducts become a path for fire to spread to other spaces.

3. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on electrical fires?

A. Foam
B. CO2
C. Dry chemical
D. Water fog

Answer: B — CO2

CO2 is non-conducting, leaves no residue and does not damage electrical equipment, making it the preferred agent for live electrical fires. Dry powder is also non-conducting but leaves a corrosive residue, while foam and water conduct electricity.

4. The straight stream capability of an all-purpose nozzle is used in fighting a Class A fire to ____.

A. Shield fire fighters from radiant heat
B. Break up burning material
C. Get the most water possible on the fire
D. Drive heat and smoke ahead of the fire fighters

Answer: B — Break up burning material

A solid or straight stream has reach and force to penetrate and break apart burning Class A material such as bales or stacked wood, exposing deep-seated fire. Fog patterns are used for shielding and for driving heat and smoke.

5. Which of the listed fire extinguishing agents would be incorrect for direct use on a gasoline or oil fire?

A. A solid stream of water
B. Low-velocity water fog
C. High-velocity water fog
D. Mechanical fire-fighting foam

Answer: A — A solid stream of water

A solid jet of water plunges into the burning liquid, sinks, and splashes and spreads the burning oil, enlarging the fire. Water fog can cool and smother, and foam blankets the surface to exclude oxygen.

6. When a rescuer discovers a burn victim in the vicinity of electrical equipment or wiring, his first step is to ____.

A. Flush water over any burned area of the patient
B. Apply ointment to the burned areas
C. Shut down electrical power in the area
D. Remove the patient from the vicinity of the live electrical equipment

Answer: C — Shut down electrical power in the area

The rescuer must not become a second casualty. Isolating the power first removes the shock hazard; touching a victim still in contact with a live conductor could electrocute the rescuer. Burns are cooled only after the scene is safe.

7. Accommodation bulkheads are classified as ____.

A. A and B class
B. A, B and C class
C. A, B, C and D class
D. A class only

Answer: B — A, B and C class

SOLAS II-2 defines three classes of fire division: A class steel divisions, B class divisions of approved non-combustible material, and C class divisions of non-combustible material. Accommodation areas use combinations of A, B and C class bulkheads.

8. When fighting a fire on deck with foam, you should ____.

A. Play the foam stream directly onto the burning oil
B. Play the foam stream off nearby vertical structures
C. Use the foam only on flowing liquids
D. Play the foam stream onto the base of the fire with a whirling motion

Answer: B — Play the foam stream off nearby vertical structures

Foam should flow gently onto the burning surface to form a blanket. Bouncing it off a bulkhead or other vertical structure lets it run down and spread over the oil without plunging in and splashing the burning liquid.

9. When fighting a fire in a space containing IMO Class 1 hazardous cargo, the most effective firefighting procedure is to ____.

A. Shut down the ventilation and exclude all air to smother the fire
B. Use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system
C. Activate the fixed CO2 firefighting system
D. Use high-expansion foam

Answer: B — Use water from fire hoses or a sprinkler system

Class 1 explosives often contain their own oxygen supply, so smothering or gas flooding is ineffective. The IMDG Code EmS guidance for explosives is to use copious quantities of water to cool the cargo and prevent mass detonation.

10. When fighting a fire on a bulkhead using a portable carbon dioxide extinguisher, the discharge should be directed at the ____.

A. Base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish
B. Top of the flaming area, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames downward as they diminish
C. Center of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically from top to bottom
D. Bottom of the flaming area, moving the horn vertically to the top following the flames upward as they diminish

Answer: A — Base of the flames, moving the horn from side to side, following the flames upward as they diminish

With a portable CO2 extinguisher the horn is aimed at the base of the flames and swept side to side, working upward as the fire is knocked down, so the gas blankets the fuel surface where combustion is taking place.

11. Which of the following statements describes how the main bank of CO2 bottles is released into an engine room from most fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?

A. Manually releasing the bottles in groups of four
B. CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders
C. Steel wire trigger lines provided to all bottles in the main bank
D. Remote pull cables provided to each group of four bottles in the main bank

Answer: B — CO2 pressure from the pilot cylinders

In most fixed high-pressure CO2 systems the main bank is opened by gas pressure from pilot cylinders. Operating the release control discharges the pilot cylinders, whose pressure actuates the valve heads on all main bank cylinders simultaneously.

12. The BC Code has been replaced by the ____ Code.

A. IMDG
B. IMSBC
C. BLU
D. Grain

Answer: B — IMSBC

The BC Code (Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk Cargoes) was superseded by the International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC) Code, made mandatory under SOLAS Chapter VI from 1 January 2011.

13. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to ____.

A. Secure all openings to the tank
B. Discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable extinguisher
C. Direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
D. Spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling

Answer: A — Secure all openings to the tank

Securing all openings to a burning cargo or fuel oil tank cuts off the air supply and limits spread of fire and vapour. This is done first, before applying any extinguishing agent or boundary cooling.

14. The use of which type of fire extinguishing agent involves covering the burning surface by deflecting the agent from a bulkhead to avoid undue agitation?

A. Foam
B. Dry chemical
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Halon 1301

Answer: A — Foam

Foam should be applied gently so that it flows over the burning liquid surface. Deflecting the stream off a bulkhead or other vertical surface avoids plunging into the liquid, which would agitate it and break the foam blanket.

15. The BEST method of applying foam to a fire is to ____.

A. Spray directly on the base of the fire
B. Flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface
C. Sweep the fire with the foam
D. Spray directly on the surface of the fire

Answer: B — Flow the foam down a nearby vertical surface

Flowing foam down a nearby vertical surface lets it spread gently over the burning liquid as a continuous blanket. Spraying directly into the fire agitates the fuel, breaks up the foam and can spread burning liquid.

16. In cargo ships, the diameter of the fire main need only be sufficient for the discharge of ____ with two pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles.

A. 145 m3/h
B. 140 m3/h
C. 14 m3/h
D. 135 m3/h

Answer: B — 140 m3/h

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.3 requires the fire main diameter to suit the maximum discharge of two main fire pumps operating simultaneously, except that in cargo ships the diameter need only be sufficient for a discharge of 140 m3/h.

17. A cabinet or space containing the controls or valves for a fixed firefighting system must be ____.

A. Posted with instructions on the operation of the system
B. Ventilated and equipped with explosion-proof switches
C. Painted with red and black diagonal stripes
D. Equipped with a battery powered source of emergency lighting

Answer: A — Posted with instructions on the operation of the system

Clear operating instructions must be posted at the release cabinet or control space of a fixed fire-extinguishing system so that crew can operate it correctly and quickly under stress, as required by the FSS Code.

18. When electrical equipment is involved in a fire, the stream of dry chemical should be ____.

A. Aimed at the source of the flames
B. Fogged above the equipment
C. Shot off a flat surface onto the flames
D. Used to shield against electrical shock

Answer: A — Aimed at the source of the flames

Dry chemical powder is non-conductive and should be aimed at the base or source of the flames on electrical equipment, so the powder interrupts the combustion chain reaction where it is occurring.

19. A high-velocity fog stream can be used to drive heat and smoke ahead of firefighters in a passageway. This technique should only be used when ____.

A. Using a 2-1/2 inch hose
B. There is an outlet for the smoke and heat
C. The fire is totally contained by the ship's structure
D. At least two fog streams can be used

Answer: B — There is an outlet for the smoke and heat

Driving heat and smoke ahead with a fog stream only works if there is a vent or outlet for the displaced gases. Without one, the heat and smoke are pushed back onto the firefighters or spread to other spaces.

20. Before you activate the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a serious fire, you should ____.

A. Start the emergency diesel
B. Stop the main engine
C. Evacuate all engine room personnel
D. Turn off electrical power

Answer: C — Evacuate all engine room personnel

CO2 at extinguishing concentration is lethal, so all personnel must be evacuated and accounted for before release. The FSS Code requires a pre-discharge alarm for this reason.

21. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible, you should ____.

A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Abandon ship to windward
C. Call for assistance
D. Keep going at half speed

Answer: A — Put the vessel's stern into the wind

With a fire forward, putting the stern into the wind makes the relative wind blow the flames and smoke forward, away from the rest of the ship and the accommodation, and reduces the draught feeding the fire aft.

22. Which of the following statements represents the correct action to take when three crew members discover a fire?

A. One man reports the fire and the other two fight the fire
B. One man reports the fire, one fights the fire and one evacuates and secures the area
C. One man reports the fire, one fights the fire and one acts as a safety observer
D. All three fight the fire and report it after it is extinguished

Answer: A — One man reports the fire and the other two fight the fire

The alarm must be raised immediately, and the remaining crew attack the fire while it is still small. With three persons, one reports the fire and two fight it, giving the best chance of early control.

23. When discharging a portable CO2 fire extinguisher, you should NOT hold the horn because the horn ____.

A. Becomes extremely hot
B. Becomes extremely cold
C. Could come off in your hands
D. Is placed directly in the flames

Answer: B — Becomes extremely cold

Expanding CO2 cools sharply on discharge and the horn can reach temperatures low enough to cause frostbite. The extinguisher should be held by the insulated handle, never by the horn.

24. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the ____.

A. Ship's articles
B. Manning list
C. Official log book
D. Muster List ("Station Bill")

Answer: D — Muster List ("Station Bill")

SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require the muster list to show each crew member's emergency duties and stations, including fire and abandon-ship (lifeboat) stations. It is posted at the bridge, engine room and crew accommodation.

25. In addition to the lifejackets stowed in places that are readily accessible, lifejackets must also be stowed at_____.

A. The mess room
B. The steering gear room
C. Each manned watch station
D. Each fire station

Answer: C — Each manned watch station

SOLAS III/7.2.1 requires sufficient lifejackets for persons on watch, stowed on the bridge, in the engine control room and at any other manned watch station, in addition to those readily accessible in cabins or muster areas.

26. The vessel's fire control plan is laid out on which type of plan?

A. General arrangement
B. Midship section
C. Subdivision
D. Lines

Answer: A — General arrangement

The fire control plan is drawn on the general arrangement plan, showing control stations, fire sections, detection and extinguishing systems, means of access and ventilation details for each deck, as required by SOLAS II-2/15.2.4.

27. While working in the engine room, you hear seven short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle, supplemented by the same signal on the general alarm bells. You should ____.

A. Start the fire pump to charge the fire main
B. Standby the main console and await orders from the engineer on watch
C. Go to your fire station
D. Go to your lifeboat station

Answer: D — Go to your lifeboat station

Seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the whistle and general alarm is the general emergency alarm under SOLAS III/6.4 and the LSA Code. All persons proceed to their muster (lifeboat) stations.

28. Facilities for connecting the international shore connection must be provided so that it can be used ____.

A. On each side of the vessel
B. As close as possible to the house
C. On the main deck
D. On each level of the accommodation space

Answer: A — On each side of the vessel

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 requires that facilities be provided so that the international shore connection can be used on either side of the ship, allowing shore water supply whichever side is alongside.

29. You must ensure that lifesaving equipment is ____.

A. Locked up
B. Readily accessible for use
C. Inaccessible to passengers
D. On the topmost deck of the vessel at all times

Answer: B — Readily accessible for use

SOLAS III/13 and III/20 require lifesaving appliances to be in a state of continuous readiness and readily accessible for immediate use in an emergency. Locking them up or making them inaccessible defeats their purpose.

30. The general emergency alarm signal is composed of_____.

A. One long blast
B. Four long blasts followed by one short blast
C. An announcement on the PA system by the Master
D. Seven short blasts followed by one long blast

Answer: D — Seven short blasts followed by one long blast

The general emergency alarm signal under SOLAS III/6.4.2 and LSA Code 7.2 is seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast on the ship's whistle or siren, and on the general alarm bells.

Set 14 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT_____.

A. A power-available light
B. An audible alarm to notify the crew and identify the origin of the fire
C. A means to silence audible alarms while maintaining visible alarm lights
D. A way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions

Answer: D — A way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions

A fire detection control panel must show power availability, give audible and visual alarms identifying the section, and allow audible alarms to be silenced while visual indication remains. A facility to bypass the entire panel is not permitted under the FSS Code.

2. Rocket parachute flares used as distress signals must be stowed ____.

A. On or near the navigating bridge
B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat

Answer: A — On or near the navigating bridge

SOLAS III/6.3 requires not less than 12 rocket parachute flares to be carried and stowed on or near the navigation bridge, so the officer of the watch can use them without delay.

3. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by ____.

A. Smoke sensors
B. The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
C. Pressure loss due to air being heated
D. An electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam

Answer: B — The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals

A bimetallic heat detector uses two metals with different coefficients of thermal expansion bonded together. When heated, the strip bends and closes the alarm contacts at the set temperature.

4. How does foam extinguish an oil fire?

A. By cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
B. By removing the fuel source from the fire
C. By excluding the oxygen from the fire
D. By increasing the weight of the oil

Answer: C — By excluding the oxygen from the fire

Foam forms a blanket over the burning liquid that excludes oxygen and suppresses flammable vapours. Its water content also gives some cooling, but smothering is the main mechanism on oil fires.

5. The four basic components of a fire are chain reaction, heat, fuel, and _____.

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Any gaseous substance

Answer: B — Oxygen

The fire tetrahedron consists of fuel, heat, oxygen and the uninhibited chemical chain reaction. Removing any one of these extinguishes the fire, which is the basis of all firefighting methods.

6. High-velocity fog ____.

A. Is a finer, more diffuse water spray than low-velocity fog
B. Requires that the water pressure be no greater than 60 psi
C. Produces an effective fog pattern no more than 6 feet beyond the nozzle
D. Extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen

Answer: D — Extinguishes a fire by absorbing heat and reducing the supply of oxygen

High-velocity fog extinguishes fire mainly by absorbing heat as fine droplets turn to steam, and the steam produced dilutes the oxygen around the fire. Low-velocity fog is actually the finer spray.

7. Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by _____.

A. Removing the fuel
B. Interrupting the chain reaction
C. Removing the oxygen
D. Removing the heat

Answer: A — Removing the fuel

On board, fuel such as structure, fittings, cargo or bunkers usually cannot be removed from a burning space. Fires are therefore normally extinguished by cooling, smothering or breaking the chain reaction instead.

8. The four basic components of a fire are fuel, heat, oxygen and a chain reaction. Which of the following statements best describes what must be eliminated to extinguish a fire?

A. Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire
B. Any two components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire
C. Any three components must be eliminated to properly extinguish a fire
D. All four components must be eliminated to extinguish any fire

Answer: A — Any one component can be eliminated to extinguish a fire

Fire needs all four elements of the fire tetrahedron at the same time. Removing any one of them, whether fuel, heat, oxygen or the chain reaction, is enough to extinguish the fire.

9. Fires involving combustible metals are classified as ____.

A. Class A fires
B. Class B fires
C. Class C fires
D. Class D fires

Answer: D — Class D fires

Under the NFPA classification, Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, titanium and aluminium powder. They require special dry powder agents because water may react violently.

10. What are the most important reasons for using water fog to fight fires?

A. Smothers burning surfaces, organically destroys fuel
B. Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier
C. Reaches areas not protected by steam or CO2 smothering systems
D. Allows fire to be attacked from leeward, saturates liquid surfaces

Answer: B — Cools fire and adjacent surfaces, provides protective barrier

Water fog absorbs heat rapidly, cooling the fire and nearby surfaces, and a fog pattern forms a protective curtain that shields firefighters from radiant heat as they advance.

11. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class C fire must have which important property?

A. Cooling ability
B. Leaves no residue
C. Penetrating power
D. Nonconductivity

Answer: D — Nonconductivity

Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment, so the extinguishing agent must be non-conductive to avoid electric shock to the operator. CO2 and dry chemical meet this requirement.

12. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by _____.

A. Cooling the gas below the ignition point
B. Cutting off the supply of oxygen
C. Stopping the flow of gas
D. Interrupting the chain reaction

Answer: C — Stopping the flow of gas

A burning jet of escaping liquefied gas cannot be safely extinguished while gas is still flowing, because unburnt gas may form an explosive cloud and reignite. Stopping the flow at the source removes the fuel.

13. Under the NFPA classification, a Class C fire would occur in ____.

A. Bedding
B. Pipe insulation
C. Paint
D. A generator

Answer: D — A generator

Under the NFPA classification, Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment. A generator is electrical equipment, while bedding and insulation are Class A materials and paint is a Class B flammable liquid.

14. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is NOT designed for use on flammable liquid fires?

A. Foam (stored-pressure)
B. Water (cartridge-operated)
C. Dry chemical
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: B — Water (cartridge-operated)

A cartridge-operated water extinguisher is suitable only for Class A fires. A water jet on burning liquid spreads the fuel and can cause violent boil-over, so it must not be used on flammable liquid fires.

15. The fire main system should be flushed with fresh water whenever possible to ____.

A. Help destroy marine growth
B. Identify loose pipe joints
C. Prevent corrosion of valve stems
D. Eliminate cracking of fire hose linings

Answer: A — Help destroy marine growth

Fire mains are normally charged with sea water, which leaves marine growth and salt deposits in the piping. Flushing with fresh water when possible helps kill marine growth and keeps the lines clear.

16. Ventilation systems connected to a compartment in which a fire is burning are normally closed to prevent the rapid spread of the fire by ____.

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Spontaneous combustion

Answer: A — Convection

Convection is the transfer of heat by movement of hot gases and smoke. Closing the ventilation to a burning compartment stops these hot gases being carried through the trunking to ignite other spaces.

17. Convection spreads a fire by ____.

A. Transmitting the heat of a fire through the ship's metal
B. Burning liquids flowing into another space
C. Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems
D. The transfer of heat across an unobstructed space

Answer: C — Heated gases flowing through ventilation systems

Convection transfers heat through the movement of heated gases and smoke. On ships these hot gases travel through ventilation trunks, stairways and passageways and can ignite materials in distant spaces.

18. The three basic elements necessary for any fire are ____.

A. Heat, gas, and flames
B. Fuel, heat, and oxygen
C. Heat, nitrogen, and fuel
D. Fuel oil, nitrogen, and oxygen

Answer: B — Fuel, heat, and oxygen

The fire triangle shows that fuel, heat and oxygen must all be present for fire to exist. The fire tetrahedron adds the chemical chain reaction as the fourth element.

19. What is the MOST important consideration when determining how to fight an electrical fire?

A. Whether the fire is in machinery or passenger spaces
B. Danger of shock to personnel
C. The amount of toxic fumes created by the extinguisher
D. Maintaining electrical power

Answer: B — Danger of shock to personnel

Electric shock is the greatest danger in an electrical fire. The power should be isolated if possible and only non-conductive agents such as CO2 or dry powder used, keeping safe distances from live equipment.

20. Fire hose should always be stowed at the fire station in the hose rack ____.

A. After the hose has been completely drained
B. With the nozzle in the solid stream position
C. So the hose can be connected quickly if a fire occurs
D. So the nozzle is protected by the hose

Answer: A — After the hose has been completely drained

Hose must be drained completely before stowing in the rack, because water left inside promotes mildew and rot of the lining and can freeze in cold weather, damaging the hose.

21. The powder in a dry chemical fire extinguisher ____.

A. Is always ready for use and requires no attention
B. May cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated
C. Deteriorates to an unusable condition within three years
D. Puts out the fire with its cooling action

Answer: B — May cake up and fail to discharge properly if not occasionally agitated

Dry chemical powder can absorb moisture and settle or cake over time, so it may not discharge properly. Periodic inversion or agitation during inspection and servicing keeps the powder free-flowing.

22. Each fireman's outfit and its spare equipment on a tanker must be stowed in a(n) ____.

A. Locked cabinet in the machinery space
B. Unlocked cabinet in the machinery space
C. Separate and accessible location
D. Location near a fire hydrant

Answer: C — Separate and accessible location

SOLAS II-2/10.10.3 requires firefighter's outfits and personal equipment to be stored so as to be easily accessible and ready for use, and where more than one is carried, in widely separated positions.

23. Portable oil tank cleaning machines are usually supplied with water from the ____.

A. Inert gas scrubber
B. Firemain
C. Mucking supply system
D. Potable water supply

Answer: B — Firemain

Portable tank cleaning machines are connected by hose to the tank cleaning line, which is normally supplied by the fire main or a cargo pump delivering wash water from a sea suction.

24. If your vessel carries ten portable foam fire extinguishers, you must maintain a supply of at least ____.

A. One spare extinguisher
B. One spare charge
C. Five spare charges
D. Ten spare charges

Answer: D — Ten spare charges

SOLAS II-2/10.3.3 requires spare charges for 100% of the first ten portable extinguishers of each type and 50% of the remainder. For ten foam extinguishers, ten spare charges must be carried.

25. If you find that the pressure cartridge on a dry chemical fire extinguisher has been punctured, you must _____.

A. Replace the pressure cartridge and weigh the chemical charge
B. Replace the entire charge of chemical agent
C. Have the unit hydrostatically tested
D. Weigh the pressure cartridge to determine if it must be replaced

Answer: A — Replace the pressure cartridge and weigh the chemical charge

A punctured cartridge has discharged its gas, so it must be replaced. The powder charge should also be weighed and checked, since partial discharge or caking may have occurred.

26. Which of the listed devices is required to be located on the discharge side of the pump in a fire main system?

A. Pressure gauge
B. Strainer
C. Reduction valve
D. International shore connection

Answer: A — Pressure gauge

A pressure gauge must be fitted on the discharge side of each fire pump so the operator can confirm the pump is delivering the required pressure to the fire main. SOLAS II-2/10.2 sets minimum hydrant pressures.

27. A fire hose should be stowed in its rack with the ____.

A. Hose sections disconnected
B. Foam nozzle attached
C. All-purpose nozzle attached
D. Hose sections rolled separately

Answer: C — All-purpose nozzle attached

SOLAS II-2/10.2.3 requires each fire hose to be provided with a dual-purpose (jet/spray) nozzle and kept ready near its hydrant, so it can be brought into use immediately without searching for fittings.

28. When is it required for a dry chemical fire extinguisher to be recharged?

A. After each use
B. When the air temperature exceeds 90°F
C. Every six months
D. Every 12 months

Answer: A — After each use

Any discharge, even partial, leaves a dry chemical extinguisher with reduced powder and propellant. It must be recharged after every use so it is fully ready for the next emergency.

29. Fire hose couplings ____.

A. Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals
B. Should be painted red in order to identify hose lengths
C. Are specially hardened to prevent crushing
D. Should be greased frequently

Answer: A — Are made of bronze, brass, or soft alloy metals

Fire hose couplings are made of brass, bronze or similar soft non-sparking, corrosion-resistant alloys. They must be handled carefully as they dent easily, and should not be greased or painted.

30. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the ____.

A. Isolation of the fuel
B. Absorption of heat
C. Displacement of gases of combustion
D. Extinguishment of incipient smoldering

Answer: B — Absorption of heat

Water fog consists of fine droplets with a large surface area that absorb heat rapidly and turn into steam. This cooling effect is the principal means by which fog extinguishes a fire.

Set 15 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following fire extinguishers cannot easily be recharged on board ship?

A. Soda acid
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Dry chemical, cartridge-operated
D. Foam

Answer: B — Carbon dioxide

A CO2 extinguisher must be refilled with liquid CO2 at high pressure using special charging equipment ashore. Cartridge dry chemical and foam extinguishers can usually be recharged on board.

2. Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes _____.

A. Inspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range
B. Weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
C. Hydrostatic testing of the cylinder
D. Discharging, cleaning inside, and recharging

Answer: B — Weighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge

The contents of a CO2 extinguisher cannot be read from a gauge, so it is weighed at servicing. If weight loss exceeds 10% of the charge, the extinguisher must be recharged.

3. Which of the following is NOT required to be part of a vessel's Fire Control Plan?

A. Ventilation fan location
B. Ventilation fan capacity
C. Ventilation fan control
D. Ventilation dampers

Answer: B — Ventilation fan capacity

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 requires the fire control plan to show particulars of the ventilating system, including fan control positions, dampers and fan identification numbers. Fan capacity is not required.

4. Oil fires are best extinguished by ____.

A. Cutting off the supply of oxygen
B. Removing the fuel
C. Cooling below the ignition temperature
D. Spraying with water

Answer: A — Cutting off the supply of oxygen

Oil fires are best extinguished by smothering with foam or CO2, which excludes oxygen from the fuel surface. Water jets can spread burning oil and removal of fuel is rarely practicable.

5. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in ____.

A. Solid materials such as wood or bales of fiber
B. Flammable liquids
C. A piece of electrical equipment
D. Combustible metallic solids

Answer: B — Flammable liquids

Foam extinguishers are designed for Class B flammable liquid fires, forming a blanket that smothers the fire and seals in vapour. Foam is conductive, so it is unsuitable for electrical fires.

6. Under the NFPA classification, what is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a Class C fire?

A. Possibility of reflash
B. Electrocution or shock
C. Explosion
D. Flashover

Answer: B — Electrocution or shock

Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment, so the main additional hazard is electric shock or electrocution to firefighters, especially if water or foam is used.

7. What is the major fire hazard found in accommodation spaces?

A. Electrical appliances
B. Oily rag
C. Paint drum
D. Electric motor

Answer: A — Electrical appliances

In accommodation spaces, faulty or misused electrical appliances such as kettles, heaters, irons and overloaded sockets are a major cause of fires, alongside careless smoking.

8. Dry chemical extinguishers may be used on what class of fires?

A. A only
B. B only
C. B and C only
D. A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher

Answer: D — A, B or C as marked on the extinguisher

Dry chemical extinguishers are made with different powders: BC powder for flammable liquid and electrical fires, and ABC multipurpose powder for those plus ordinary combustibles. The suitable classes are marked on the extinguisher.

9. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

A. Foam
B. CO2
C. Water stream
D. Water fog

Answer: B — CO2

CO2 smothers a fire but has very little cooling effect. If the CO2 concentration drops before hot fuel has cooled below its ignition temperature, the fire can reflash.

10. What should be your FIRST action if you discover a fire aboard ship?

A. Sound the alarm
B. Attempt to put out the fire
C. Confine it by closing doors, ports and vents
D. Call the Master

Answer: A — Sound the alarm

Raising the alarm is the first action so that the whole crew is alerted and the fire party mustered. The discoverer can then attempt to tackle the fire if it is small and safe to do so.

11. Which of the following firefighting agents is the least hazardous to personnel?

A. CO2
B. Steam
C. Water
D. Carbon tetrachloride

Answer: C — Water

Water is non-toxic and does not displace oxygen, so it is the least hazardous agent to personnel. CO2 and steam can asphyxiate or scald, and carbon tetrachloride produces toxic phosgene gas.

12. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish Class B fires mainly by ____.

A. Cooling
B. Smothering
C. Oxygen dilution
D. Breaking the chain reaction

Answer: D — Breaking the chain reaction

Dry chemical powders extinguish Class B fires mainly by chemically interrupting the combustion chain reaction. Their smothering and cooling effects are minor in comparison, which is why reflash can occur if hot surfaces remain.

13. To extinguish an electrical fire, you should use ____.

A. Mechanical foam
B. Chemical foam
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Soda acid

Answer: C — Carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide is non-conductive and leaves no residue, making it suitable for electrical fires. Mechanical foam, chemical foam and soda acid contain water and conduct electricity.

14. You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then ____.

A. Use a portable foam extinguisher
B. Use a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
C. Use a portable CO2 extinguisher
D. Determine the cause of the fire

Answer: C — Use a portable CO2 extinguisher

After isolating power, a CO2 extinguisher is the preferred agent for a switchboard fire because it is non-conductive and leaves no residue to damage sensitive electrical equipment.

15. Which of the following firefighting agents produces a buoyant blanket to separate burning vapours from air?

A. CO2
B. Low-expansion foam
C. Water fog
D. Steam

Answer: B — Low-expansion foam

Low-expansion foam is lighter than oil and floats on the burning surface, forming a cohesive blanket that separates the fuel and its vapours from the air.

16. Before attempting to put out a Class C fire involving an electric-driven centrifugal pump, you should FIRST ____.

A. Insulate your shoes
B. Ground the fire hose
C. Secure its power supply
D. Start the fire pump

Answer: C — Secure its power supply

Isolating the electrical supply removes the shock hazard and the source of ignition. The fire can then be fought as an ordinary fire with suitable agents.

17. The three positions of an all-purpose fire nozzle handle are ____.

A. Forward: off, center: fog, back: solid stream
B. Forward: solid stream, center: fog, back: off
C. Forward: fog, center: solid stream, back: off
D. Forward: off, center: solid stream, back: fog

Answer: A — Forward: off, center: fog, back: solid stream

On the all-purpose nozzle, pushing the handle fully forward shuts the nozzle, the upright centre position gives high-velocity fog, and pulling the handle fully back gives a solid stream.

18. One disadvantage of CO2 when used as a total flooding agent is ____.

A. The lack of cooling effect on heated materials
B. It cannot be used in a dead ship condition without power for a CO2 pump
C. It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
D. It has no effect on a Class A fire even in an enclosed space

Answer: A — The lack of cooling effect on heated materials

CO2 extinguishes by smothering and has very little cooling effect. Heated materials stay above their ignition temperature, so the space must stay sealed for long periods to prevent reignition.

19. If a powdered aluminium fire is being fought, the correct extinguishing agent would be ____.

A. Dry powder
B. Water fog
C. CO2
D. Steam

Answer: A — Dry powder

Burning aluminium powder is a Class D metal fire. Water, steam or CO2 can react with or be ineffective on hot metal, so a special dry powder is used to smother and cool it.

20. The main advantage of a solid stream of water on a Class A fire is that it ____.

A. Breaks up and cools the fire
B. Protects the firefighting crew
C. Removes the oxygen
D. Washes the fire away

Answer: A — Breaks up and cools the fire

A solid stream has reach and impact to penetrate and break up burning Class A materials such as wood or bedding, and the water cools the fuel below its ignition temperature.

21. Which fire-fighting agent is most effective at removing heat?

A. Water spray
B. Foam
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Dry chemical

Answer: A — Water spray

Water has a very high specific heat and latent heat of vaporisation, and a spray of fine droplets exposes a large surface area. This makes water spray the most effective agent for removing heat.

22. Which of the following substances is to be considered as fuel for a Class "B" fire?

A. Wood
B. Rags
C. Electrical insulation
D. Fuel oil

Answer: D — Fuel oil

Class B fires involve flammable liquids such as fuel oil, lubricating oil, paints and solvents. Wood, rags and insulation are ordinary solid combustibles giving Class A fires.

23. Fires in combustible metals, such as sodium or magnesium, are classified as Class ____.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: D — D

Class D fires involve combustible metals like sodium, potassium and magnesium. They need special dry powder agents, as water can react violently with burning metals.

24. When choosing extinguishers to fight a Class "B" fire, do NOT use ____.

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Dry chemical
C. Foam (stored-pressure type)
D. Water (cartridge-operated)

Answer: D — Water (cartridge-operated)

A solid water jet on a burning liquid spreads the fuel and may cause violent boil-over or splashing. CO2, dry chemical and foam are all suitable for flammable liquid fires.

25. A fire discovered in an operating laundry room dryer is considered to be which of the listed classes of fire, as per NFPA?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: C — Class C

Under the NFPA classification, any fire involving energised electrical equipment is Class C. An operating dryer is live, so a non-conducting agent must be used until the power is isolated.

26. Which of the following is true concerning flammable liquid vapours with a concentration above the upper explosive limit?

A. The mixture is too lean to burn.
B. The mixture is too rich to burn.
C. The vapour is about to explode.
D. Conditions are perfect for combustion.

Answer: B — The mixture is too rich to burn.

Above the upper flammable (explosive) limit there is too much vapour and too little oxygen, so the mixture is too rich to burn. Dilution with air can bring it back into the flammable range, as ISGOTT warns.

27. What is the most important characteristic of the extinguishing agent in fighting a Class "C" fire under NFPA?

A. Weight
B. Temperature
C. Electrical nonconductivity
D. Cost

Answer: C — Electrical nonconductivity

Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment, so the agent must not conduct electricity, otherwise the operator risks electric shock. CO2 and dry powder are therefore preferred.

28. A fire in a pile of linen is a Class ____ fire.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: A — A

Linen, wood, paper, rags and other ordinary solid combustibles burn leaving embers and ash and are classified as Class A fires, best extinguished by cooling with water.

29. What, when removed, will result in the extinguishment of a fire?

A. Nitrogen
B. Sodium
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen is one side of the fire triangle. Removing or reducing it below about 15% by smothering, for example with CO2 or foam, extinguishes the fire.

30. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow reignition of a fire is ____.

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Foam
C. Water fog
D. Water stream

Answer: A — Carbon dioxide

CO2 extinguishes by smothering and has very little cooling effect. Once the gas disperses, hot surfaces can reignite the fuel, so a watch for re-flash is essential after CO2 use.

Set 16 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. As per NFPA, a fire in the radio transmitter would be of what class?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: C — C

A radio transmitter is energised electrical equipment, so a fire in it is Class C under NFPA. A non-conducting agent such as CO2 should be used and power isolated.

2. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the ____.

A. Harder it is to extinguish
B. Easier it is to extinguish
C. Less chance there is of reignition
D. Easier it is to control

Answer: A — Harder it is to extinguish

As an oil fire burns, surrounding structures and fuel heat up, more vapour is produced and the fire spreads, so it becomes progressively harder to extinguish. Early attack is vital.

3. Foam is effective in combating which of the listed classes of fire?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Classes A and B
D. Classes B and C

Answer: C — Classes A and B

Foam smothers and cools, so it works on solid combustibles of Class A and on flammable liquids of Class B. Being water based it conducts electricity and must not be used on live electrical Class C fires.

4. Which of the listed classes of fire would apply to a main switchboard fire, as per NFPA?

A. Class "A"
B. Class "B"
C. Class "C"
D. Class "D"

Answer: C — Class "C"

A main switchboard fire involves energised electrical equipment and is therefore Class C under NFPA. CO2 is the preferred agent because it is non-conducting and leaves no residue.

5. Why is carbon dioxide (CO2) better than dry chemical for fighting a Class "C" fire under NFPA?

A. The dry chemical is a conductor.
B. The dry chemical leaves a residue.
C. CO2 will not dissipate in air.
D. It takes smaller amounts of CO2 to cover the same area.

Answer: B — The dry chemical leaves a residue.

Both agents are non-conducting, but dry chemical leaves a corrosive powder residue that can damage switchboards, contacts and electronics. CO2 evaporates completely, leaving the equipment clean and undamaged.

6. What is required in addition to the heat, fuel and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?

A. Electricity
B. Chain reaction
C. Pressure
D. Smoke

Answer: B — Chain reaction

The fire tetrahedron adds the uninhibited chemical chain reaction to heat, fuel and oxygen. Dry powder and halon-type agents extinguish by interrupting this chain reaction.

7. Following an engine room bilge fire believed to be extinguished by the fixed CO2 system, the investigating team should re-enter the closed space ____.

A. No sooner than 15 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished
B. Via the lowest access door
C. Via the lowest access door, equipped with SCBA, no sooner than 30 minutes after the fire is believed extinguished
D. Via the highest access door, equipped with SCBA, one hour after the fire is believed extinguished

Answer: D — Via the highest access door, equipped with SCBA, one hour after the fire is believed extinguished

CO2 is heavier than air and settles low, so entry from the highest point avoids the densest gas. The team must wear SCBA and wait long enough for hot surfaces to cool so that admitting air does not cause reignition.

8. Which of the listed classes of fire can best be extinguished with water fog?

A. Classes A and B
B. Classes A and C
C. Classes B and C
D. Classes A, B and C

Answer: A — Classes A and B

Water fog cools solid combustibles in Class A fires and, by blanketing and cooling, can control flammable liquid Class B fires. Water conducts electricity, so it is not used on live electrical Class C fires.

9. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the engine room floor plates with a 6.8 kg (15 lb) CO2 extinguisher. Which of the dangers listed should you be prepared for next?

A. Complete lack of oxygen in the engine room
B. Chemical reaction of the CO2 and oil forming carbonic acid
C. Sudden stoppage of the main engine
D. Rekindling of the fire

Answer: D — Rekindling of the fire

CO2 has little cooling effect, and hot plates and oil may reignite once the gas disperses. A portable extinguisher is far too small to deplete oxygen in the whole engine room, so a re-flash watch is needed.

10. A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: B — B

Cooking grease and oil are flammable liquids, so among Classes A to D a galley grease fire is Class B. Newer schemes give cooking-oil fires a separate class (K or F) needing wet chemical agents.

11. Which of the following classes of fire would probably occur in the engine room bilges?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: B — Class B

Engine room bilges collect fuel oil, lubricating oil and oily water, so a bilge fire is a flammable liquid fire, Class B. Foam such as AFFF is effective against it.

12. Halon is not used as a fire extinguishing medium nowadays because ____.

A. It is not a good extinguishing agent
B. It affects the human body
C. It reacts with metals
D. It is not environmentally friendly

Answer: D — It is not environmentally friendly

Halons are ozone-depleting substances banned under the Montreal Protocol. SOLAS II-2/10 and MARPOL Annex VI prohibit new installations containing halons on ships, so CO2, foam and water-mist systems are used instead.

13. What type of fire extinguisher would you use on a fire categorised as a Class F fire?

A. Carbon dioxide extinguisher
B. Water extinguisher
C. Wet chemical extinguisher
D. Dry powder extinguisher

Answer: C — Wet chemical extinguisher

Class F fires involve cooking oils and fats. Wet chemical agents saponify the burning fat surface, forming a soapy blanket that smothers and cools it, preventing reignition.

14. Extinguishing a fire by removing the fuel element from it is called ____.

A. Cooling the material
B. Starving the fire
C. Smothering the fire
D. All of the above

Answer: B — Starving the fire

Starvation removes the fuel side of the fire triangle, for example by closing fuel valves or removing combustibles. Cooling removes heat and smothering removes oxygen.

15. When should a fire be ventilated?

A. When attacking the fire directly
B. When using a steam smothering system
C. When using the fixed CO2 system
D. When the space has been sealed to starve the fire of oxygen

Answer: A — When attacking the fire directly

Controlled ventilation helps a direct attack by releasing heat and smoke and improving visibility for the hose team. Smothering systems such as CO2 or steam need the space closed, so ventilation would defeat them.

16. Before a shipboard fire can be declared completely out, which of the following conditions must be established?

A. The cause of the fire is known
B. The fire area is safe for men to enter without breathing apparatus
C. The fire area is cooled sufficiently that accidental skin burns will not occur
D. All portable extinguishers used have been recharged

Answer: B — The fire area is safe for men to enter without breathing apparatus

A fire is only declared out when the area has been cooled, checked for hot spots and ventilated so that the atmosphere is safe to enter without breathing apparatus. The cause can be investigated afterwards.

17. The designated smoking areas on board are specified in the ____.

A. Company's manual
B. SOLAS
C. Red book
D. IMDG Code

Answer: A — Company's manual

SOLAS does not list smoking areas; each company's safety management manual and the master's standing orders designate smoking places, in agreement with the terminal when in port as ISGOTT recommends.

18. If the cargo emits flammable gases, what should you do?

A. Make the hold airtight
B. Ventilate the hold
C. Put up a warning sign only
D. Raise the hold temperature

Answer: B — Ventilate the hold

Ventilating the hold, usually surface ventilation as required by the IMSBC Code for coal, removes flammable gases before they can build up to an explosive concentration.

19. The risk of fire and explosion in tankers is ____.

A. Very low
B. Negligible when carrying crude oil
C. Very high
D. The same as on general cargo ships

Answer: C — Very high

Tankers carry large quantities of flammable liquids that give off hydrocarbon vapours, so fire and explosion risk is very high. This is why SOLAS requires inert gas and deck foam systems and ISGOTT sets strict precautions.

20. Many cargoes carried in chemical carriers are ____.

A. Non-flammable
B. Non-toxic
C. Flammable
D. Non-reactive

Answer: C — Flammable

Many IBC Code cargoes are flammable as well as toxic, corrosive or reactive. Fire protection requirements for chemical tankers in SOLAS II-2 and IBC Code chapter 11 reflect this.

21. Tapioca is susceptible to ____ when damp.

A. Liquefaction
B. Self-heating and spontaneous combustion
C. Emission of toxic gases
D. Polymerisation

Answer: B — Self-heating and spontaneous combustion

Tapioca chips and pellets are organic cargoes that can self-heat when damp due to biological and oxidation processes, which may lead to spontaneous combustion. They must be kept dry and temperatures monitored.

22. Ships carrying more than 36 passengers should maintain a ____.

A. Fire drill every day
B. Fire patrol system
C. Fixed CO2 system in cabins
D. Extinguisher in each cabin

Answer: B — Fire patrol system

SOLAS II-2/7.8 requires ships carrying more than 36 passengers to maintain an efficient patrol system so that an outbreak of fire may be promptly detected; patrol members are trained and carry portable radios.

23. The manual call point for the fire alarm is ____.

A. Located near a fire detector
B. Located near an exit
C. Located near a fire extinguisher
D. Located inside each cabin

Answer: B — Located near an exit

Under the FSS Code chapter 9, manual call points are installed throughout accommodation, service spaces and control stations, with one located at each exit, so a person can raise the alarm while escaping.

24. How can the static charge of two paint drums be made equal?

A. By pouring paint from one drum into the other
B. By keeping both drums on the floor
C. By placing one drum in contact with the other
D. By wiping both drums with a dry cloth

Answer: C — By placing one drum in contact with the other

Putting the drums in metal-to-metal contact bonds them, equalising their electrical potential so no spark can jump between them. Pouring liquid or wiping with a dry cloth can generate more static.

25. A fire pump may be used for other purposes if ____.

A. The other services are run off a reducing station with a pressure gauge
B. One of the required pumps is kept available for use on the fire main at all times
C. No relief valves are installed
D. The fire pump capacity is doubled

Answer: B — One of the required pumps is kept available for use on the fire main at all times

SOLAS II-2/10.2.2 permits sanitary, ballast, bilge or general service pumps to serve as fire pumps, provided they are not normally used for oil and that one of the required fire pumps is always available for the fire main.

26. A Class 2 watertight door is a ____.

A. Hinged door
B. Manually operated sliding door
C. Power and manually operated sliding door
D. Power-operated hinged door

Answer: B — Manually operated sliding door

Watertight doors are classed as Class 1 hinged, Class 2 hand-operated sliding, and Class 3 sliding doors operated by power as well as by hand.

27. Which type of fire blanket is no longer to be used?

A. Wool
B. Treated with flame-retardant fluid
C. Asbestos
D. Glass fibre

Answer: C — Asbestos

Asbestos is a carcinogen and SOLAS II-2/3-5 prohibits new installation of materials containing asbestos on all ships. Modern fire blankets are made of glass fibre or treated wool.

28. Additional safety measures for bulk carriers are given in ____.

A. IMSBC Code
B. BLU Code
C. SOLAS Chapter XII
D. MARPOL Annex V

Answer: C — SOLAS Chapter XII

SOLAS Chapter XII, Additional safety measures for bulk carriers, covers damage stability, structural strength, hold water level detectors and loading instruments for bulk carriers, following losses of bulk carriers in the 1990s.

29. When using foam, a Class B fire is extinguished by ____.

A. Cooling the surface
B. Removing the fuel
C. Smothering the fire
D. Inhibiting the chain reaction

Answer: C — Smothering the fire

Foam forms a blanket on the burning liquid surface, cutting off oxygen and suppressing vapour release. This smothering action is the main way foam extinguishes Class B fires, with some secondary cooling.

30. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to ____.

A. Manoeuvre the hose more easily
B. Obtain the best available air for breathing
C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D. Avoid being seen by the fire

Answer: C — Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead

Heat, smoke and steam generated when water hits the fire rise to the deckhead. Crouching low keeps the team below this hot layer and reduces the risk of burns.

Set 17 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the full form of LFL?

A. Lower fire limit
B. Lower flexi limit
C. Lower flammable limit
D. Lower fuel level

Answer: C — Lower flammable limit

LFL is the Lower Flammable Limit, the minimum concentration of hydrocarbon vapour in air below which the mixture is too lean to burn. ISGOTT also calls it the lower explosive limit.

2. Isolating valves are fitted to separate the section of the fire main within the ____ from the rest of the system.

A. Machinery space
B. Accommodation space
C. Deck space
D. Cargo holds

Answer: A — Machinery space

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.4 requires isolating valves to separate the fire main section within the machinery space containing the main fire pumps, so the emergency fire pump can supply the rest of the main if that space is lost.

3. The control station of the fixed fire-fighting system for the cargo area of a chemical tanker should be located ____.

A. Near the cargo area
B. Outside the cargo area
C. Inside the cargo area
D. In the cargo pump room

Answer: B — Outside the cargo area

SOLAS II-2/10.8 and the IBC Code require the main control station for the deck foam system to be outside the cargo area, so it remains accessible and is not cut off by a cargo fire.

4. If heat is felt on the deck over a cargo hold, what should be done?

A. Cool it with water
B. Abandon ship
C. Cool it with a foam extinguisher
D. Open the hatch to inspect

Answer: A — Cool it with water

Heat on deck indicates a fire or heating cargo below. Boundary cooling with water spray limits spread, while hatches are kept closed to deny air and the fixed system is prepared.

5. The oxidation process creates ____.

A. Cooling
B. Inert gas
C. Heat
D. Electricity

Answer: C — Heat

Oxidation is an exothermic chemical reaction that releases heat. If heat builds up faster than it is lost, as in oily rags or damp cargo, spontaneous combustion can occur.

6. In an automatic sprinkler system, the drop in pressure tank pressure triggers an automatic pressure relay that starts the ____.

A. Fresh water pump
B. Sea water pump
C. Air compressor
D. Bilge pump

Answer: B — Sea water pump

The FSS Code requires the sprinkler pressure tank of fresh water to be backed by an independent pump that starts automatically on pressure drop and supplies sea water continuously.

7. Where would you look to find out what your duties are during a fire?

A. Ship's articles
B. Certificate of inspection
C. Muster list
D. Oil record book

Answer: C — Muster list

SOLAS III/8 and III/37 require a muster list showing each crew member's duties and stations in an emergency, including fire. It is posted in conspicuous places such as the bridge, engine room and crew accommodation.

8. Besides general arrangement plans, what other medium may be used to provide fire control details to officers during fires and emergencies?

A. Microfilm
B. Blueprint
C. Booklet form
D. Video recording

Answer: C — Booklet form

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 allows the Administration to accept fire control plan details in booklet form, with a copy for each officer and one available on board at all times.

9. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF) is also known as ____.

A. Chemical foam
B. High-expansion foam
C. Mechanical foam
D. Wet chemical agent

Answer: C — Mechanical foam

AFFF is a mechanical (air) foam, made by mixing concentrate with water and air in a branch pipe. Chemical foam was the old type from reacting chemicals, and AFFF is used at low expansion.

10. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF), commonly known as 'light water', is especially suitable for fighting ____.

A. Oil fires in the engine room bilges
B. Class C fires in paint lockers
C. Any Class D fire
D. Electrical switchboard fires

Answer: A — Oil fires in the engine room bilges

AFFF spreads a thin aqueous film over hydrocarbon fuel, rapidly smothering and sealing the vapour. This makes it ideal for oil fires such as those in engine room bilges.

11. An advantage of a dry chemical extinguisher over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is its ____.

A. Greater range
B. Cooling ability
C. Cleanliness
D. Ability to leave no residue

Answer: A — Greater range

Dry chemical powder is discharged as a dense cloud with a longer throw than CO2, which loses effect quickly in the open. CO2 is cleaner, while dry chemical has little cooling effect.

12. The most important tool for fire prevention is ____.

A. Cleaning and good housekeeping
B. Cleaning bilge pump strainers
C. Knowledge of colour-coded manuals
D. Carrying extra extinguishers

Answer: A — Cleaning and good housekeeping

Most shipboard fires start from oily rags, leaks and accumulated rubbish. Good housekeeping removes fuel and ignition risks, which is the basis of fire prevention.

13. Dry powder extinguishers containing a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent are generally used to fight which type of fire?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: D — Class D

Special dry powders such as graphite or sodium chloride are used for combustible metal fires, which are Class D. They form a crust over the burning metal, excluding oxygen and absorbing heat.

14. Which of the listed fire extinguishers is recommended for use on an electrical switchboard fire?

A. CO2
B. ABC dry chemical
C. CO2-propelled foam
D. Water spray

Answer: A — CO2

CO2 is non-conducting and leaves no residue, so it is preferred for switchboards. Dry chemical also works but its residue damages contacts, and foam or water conducts electricity.

15. Where is the emergency fire pump located?

A. In the main engine room alongside the main fire pumps
B. In a space separate from that containing the main fire pumps
C. In the accommodation pantry
D. On the navigation bridge

Answer: B — In a space separate from that containing the main fire pumps

SOLAS II-2/10.2.2.3 requires the emergency fire pump, its power source and sea connection to be outside the space containing the main fire pumps, so that a fire there does not disable all fire pumps.

16. Which statement correctly describes 'A' class divisions?

A. Made of combustible material with insulation, preventing flame for 15 minutes
B. Made of steel or equivalent, suitably stiffened, preventing passage of smoke and flame to the end of the one-hour standard fire test
C. Made of approved non-combustible material with no requirement to stop smoke
D. Made of any material that prevents flame passage for the first 30 minutes

Answer: B — Made of steel or equivalent, suitably stiffened, preventing passage of smoke and flame to the end of the one-hour standard fire test

SOLAS II-2/3.2 defines 'A' class divisions as bulkheads and decks of steel or equivalent, suitably stiffened, that prevent passage of smoke and flame to the end of the one-hour standard fire test and are insulated as required.

17. Where is the CO2 release alarm fitted in a fixed CO2 system protecting the engine room?

A. Only on the bridge
B. Only in the CO2 room
C. Inside the protected engine room space
D. Only in the ship's office

Answer: C — Inside the protected engine room space

The FSS Code chapter 5 requires automatic audible and visual warning of CO2 release inside spaces where personnel normally work, so people in the engine room can evacuate before the gas is discharged.

18. 'C' class divisions shall meet which of the listed requirements?

A. Constructed of low flame-spread material
B. Constructed of ignition-resistant material
C. Constructed of non-combustible material
D. Constructed of steel or equivalent material

Answer: C — Constructed of non-combustible material

SOLAS II-2/3 defines 'C' class divisions as those constructed of approved non-combustible materials. They need meet no smoke, flame or temperature-rise requirements, though combustible veneers are permitted.

19. Which extinguishing agent is best to use on a fire in a burning cabin that has been electrically isolated?

A. Dry powder (dry chemical)
B. Foam
C. Water
D. Carbon dioxide (CO2)

Answer: C — Water

A cabin fire involves bedding, furniture and other Class A materials. Once electrical power is isolated, water is the best agent because its cooling penetrates and prevents reignition.

20. Which fixed and portable extinguishers are commonly found on gas tankers because they are considered most effective against burning gas?

A. Water
B. Foam
C. Dry powder (dry chemical)
D. CO2

Answer: C — Dry powder (dry chemical)

The IGC Code chapter 11 requires a dry chemical powder system on gas carriers. Dry powder rapidly knocks down gas fires by interrupting the combustion chain reaction.

21. The lowest temperature at which the heat from combustion of a burning vapour is capable of producing sufficient vapour to sustain combustion is called the ____.

A. Flash point
B. Self-ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Fire point

At the fire point, vapour is produced fast enough to keep burning after ignition. At the flash point the vapour only flashes momentarily when an ignition source is applied and does not sustain burning.

22. You are carrying out a search in a smoke-filled room wearing BA. How would you conduct this search?

A. As soon as you enter, carry out a right or left hand search by placing the hand on the bulkhead and following it round as quickly as possible
B. Carry out a right or left hand search, proceeding carefully, feeling the area in front with the foot and using the back of the free hand to check ahead
C. Proceed straight ahead to the far bulkhead and then carry out a left or right hand search
D. Proceed to the approximate centre of the room and carry out the search in a circular pattern

Answer: B — Carry out a right or left hand search, proceeding carefully, feeling the area in front with the foot and using the back of the free hand to check ahead

Keeping contact with the bulkhead on one side ensures a safe way out. Moving carefully, testing the deck with the foot and sweeping with the back of the hand avoids falls and protects against live electrical contact.

23. Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be located?

A. In mess rooms, public lounges and other public rooms
B. In stairways, corridors and escape routes
C. Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation
D. In all crew and passenger cabins

Answer: B — In stairways, corridors and escape routes

SOLAS II-2/7.5 requires smoke detectors in all stairways, corridors and escape routes within accommodation spaces, so that smoke threatening the means of escape is detected early.

24. Which spaces, with regard to fire protection, shall be separated from the rest of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries?

A. Cargo compartments
B. Storage rooms for flammable materials
C. Machinery spaces
D. Accommodation spaces

Answer: D — Accommodation spaces

SOLAS II-2/2.2 lists separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries as a basic fire safety principle, protecting crew and passengers.

25. The amount of heat released by the complete combustion of a unit mass of fuel is called its ____.

A. Specific heat
B. Latent heat
C. Calorific (thermal) value
D. Flash point

Answer: C — Calorific (thermal) value

Calorific or thermal value is the heat released per unit mass of fuel burnt, for example in kJ/kg. Fuels with a high calorific value produce more intense fires.

26. The transfer of heat by the physical movement of heated gases or liquids from a hotter to a colder zone is called ____.

A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Combustion

Answer: C — Convection

Convection carries heat by circulation of heated fluid, such as hot smoke rising through stairways and ducts. Radiation transfers heat by electromagnetic waves and needs no medium.

27. For 'B' class divisions, the average temperature of the unexposed side shall not rise more than ____ above the original temperature within the time listed.

A. 100°C
B. 140°C
C. 180°C
D. 225°C

Answer: B — 140°C

SOLAS II-2/3 requires 'B' class insulation such that the average unexposed-side temperature rise does not exceed 140°C, and at any one point does not exceed 225°C, within the listed time.

28. In the case of Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) cargo, contact with water may lead to ____.

A. Release of chlorine gas
B. Vigorous re-oxidation with evolution of heat and hydrogen
C. Liquefaction of the cargo
D. Release of oxygen

Answer: B — Vigorous re-oxidation with evolution of heat and hydrogen

Under the IMSBC Code, DRI reacts with water and air, re-oxidising and generating heat and hydrogen. Hydrogen can form explosive mixtures, so DRI holds are kept dry and often inerted.

29. Portable fire extinguishers on board ships are available as ____.

A. CO2 and foam types only
B. Dry powder types only
C. Water, foam, dry powder and CO2 types
D. Water and CO2 types only

Answer: C — Water, foam, dry powder and CO2 types

Portable extinguishers approved under the FSS Code chapter 4 include water, foam, dry powder and CO2 types, selected to suit the fire hazards of each space.

30. Where would you aim a fire extinguisher when putting out a fire?

A. At the top of the fire
B. At the base of the fire
C. At the centre of the flames
D. Away from the fire

Answer: B — At the base of the fire

The agent must reach the burning fuel, which is at the base of the fire. Aiming at the flames above wastes agent and does not extinguish the source.

Set 18 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The temperature at which the vapour near the surface of a liquid ignites without an external flame or spark is called the ____.

A. Fire point
B. Flash point
C. Self-ignition temperature
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Self-ignition temperature

The self-ignition (auto-ignition) temperature is when a substance ignites spontaneously without an external ignition source. At the flash point an external flame or spark is still needed.

2. A dry powder fire extinguisher has a ____ colour band.

A. Cream
B. Blue
C. Yellow
D. Red

Answer: B — Blue

Under the European colour coding (BS EN 3), red-bodied extinguishers carry a coloured band identifying the agent: blue for dry powder, cream for foam, black for CO2 and red for water.

3. Which of the following colours identifies a foam fire extinguisher?

A. Blue
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Cream

Answer: D — Cream

Under BS EN 3 colour coding, red-bodied foam extinguishers carry a cream band or label, while dry powder is identified by blue, CO2 by black and water by red.

4. When the low-pressure warning whistle of an SCBA sounds, the wearer should ____.

A. Continue working for about 30 more minutes
B. Leave the space immediately, as only a small reserve of air remains
C. Reduce breathing rate and continue the task
D. Remove the face mask to save air

Answer: B — Leave the space immediately, as only a small reserve of air remains

The warning whistle sounds when cylinder pressure falls to a set level, leaving only a small reserve for escape (around 10 minutes). The wearer must withdraw immediately to fresh air.

5. The transfer of heat between two objects at different temperatures that are in direct contact is called ____.

A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Ignition

Answer: C — Conduction

Conduction is heat transfer through direct contact within or between solids, such as steel bulkheads. This is why boundary cooling of adjacent bulkheads and decks is needed to stop fire spreading.

6. Compared with air, carbon dioxide is ____.

A. Lighter
B. Heavier, about 1.5 times as dense
C. Of the same density
D. Lighter, about half as dense

Answer: B — Heavier, about 1.5 times as dense

CO2 is about 1.5 times heavier than air, so it settles in low places such as bilges and tank bottoms. This is why entry after CO2 flooding is from the top and low areas are tested.

7. Combustion is a rapid ____ reaction that produces heat and light.

A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Neutralisation
D. Hydrolysis

Answer: B — Oxidation

Combustion, or fire, is a rapid oxidation of fuel with oxygen, releasing energy as heat and light. Slower oxidation, such as rusting, releases heat without flame.

8. At the flash point, the vapour above a liquid ____.

A. Ignites spontaneously without any ignition source
B. Ignites momentarily only when an external spark or flame is applied
C. Continues to burn steadily after ignition
D. Cannot be ignited by any means

Answer: B — Ignites momentarily only when an external spark or flame is applied

Flash point is the lowest temperature at which enough vapour is given off to flash momentarily when an external ignition source is applied. Sustained burning occurs at the fire point.

9. Stairways and corridors used as means of escape shall not be less than ____ in clear width.

A. 400 mm
B. 500 mm
C. 700 mm
D. 1200 mm

Answer: C — 700 mm

SOLAS II-2/13.3 requires stairways and corridors used as means of escape to be not less than 700 mm in clear width, with a handrail on one side, so persons can escape safely.

10. The four simple steps for operating a fire extinguisher are remembered by the term PASS, which stands for ____.

A. Push, Aim, Spray, Stop
B. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
C. Pull, Alert, Spray, Stand
D. Point, Activate, Squeeze, Shut

Answer: B — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS means Pull the safety pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the operating lever, and Sweep from side to side over the burning area.

11. Portable fire extinguishers on board should be inspected at least ____.

A. Once a month
B. Once every two years
C. Once every five years
D. Only after use

Answer: A — Once a month

MSC.1/Circ.1432 requires monthly inspection of portable extinguishers to verify they are in place, charged, undamaged and with seals intact, alongside annual servicing by a competent person.

12. Ships of ____ gross tonnage and upwards must carry at least one international shore connection.

A. 150
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 3000

Answer: B — 500

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 requires ships of 500 gross tonnage and upwards to have at least one international shore connection, so shore water can be supplied to the fire main on either side.

13. The emergency source of power for the fire detection and alarm system must be available for at least ____.

A. 12 hours on passenger ships and 3 hours on cargo ships
B. 24 hours on passenger ships and 12 hours on cargo ships
C. 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships
D. 18 hours on passenger ships and 12 hours on cargo ships

Answer: C — 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships

SOLAS II-1/42 and 43 require the emergency source of power to supply the fire detection and alarm systems for 36 hours on passenger ships and 18 hours on cargo ships.

14. When a fire breaks out on board a ship alongside in port that cannot be controlled, the ship should ____.

A. Fight it with own crew and inform shore only after it is extinguished
B. Raise the alarm and call the shore fire brigade and terminal immediately
C. Unmoor and proceed to sea immediately
D. Inform the company first and wait for instructions

Answer: B — Raise the alarm and call the shore fire brigade and terminal immediately

ISGOTT and port regulations require the ship to raise the alarm and immediately inform the terminal and shore fire services, so that shore assistance arrives quickly while the crew fights the fire.

15. Under the FSS Code, the capacity of required portable fluid fire extinguishers shall be ____.

A. Not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres
B. Not more than 9 litres and not less than 4.5 litres
C. Not more than 20 litres and not less than 13.5 litres
D. Exactly 45 litres

Answer: A — Not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres

FSS Code Chapter 4 states that the capacity of required portable fluid extinguishers shall be not more than 13.5 litres and not less than 9 litres, so that they carry enough agent yet remain light enough to be carried and operated by one person.

16. Static electricity is best described as electricity ____.

A. Produced on dissimilar materials through physical contact and separation
B. Produced only by lightning strikes during thunderstorms
C. Supplied by the ship's main switchboard through earthed cables
D. Generated only by alternating current machines

Answer: A — Produced on dissimilar materials through physical contact and separation

Static electricity is the charge generated when dissimilar materials come into contact and then separate, such as liquid flowing through pipes or splashing. ISGOTT treats it as a major ignition source, which is why bonding, earthing and flow-rate limits are applied.

17. "C" class divisions are constructed of approved non-combustible materials and ____.

A. Need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise
B. Must prevent the passage of smoke and flame up to the end of the one-hour standard fire test
C. Must prevent the passage of smoke and flame up to the end of the first half hour of the standard fire test
D. Must be insulated so that the unexposed side does not rise more than 140°C above ambient

Answer: A — Need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise

SOLAS II-2/3 defines C class divisions as divisions constructed of approved non-combustible materials which need meet neither requirements relative to the passage of smoke and flame nor limitations relative to the temperature rise. A and B class divisions have those integrity and insulation requirements.

18. Under the FSS Code, the mass of a fully charged portable fire extinguisher shall not exceed ____.

A. 23 kg
B. 13 kg
C. 9 kg
D. 35 kg

Answer: A — 23 kg

FSS Code Chapter 4 limits portable fire extinguishers to a mass of not more than 23 kg when fully charged, so that one person can carry and operate them. The statement that the limit is 13 kg is therefore incorrect.

19. The high-velocity fog tip used with the all-purpose fire-fighting nozzle should always be ____.

A. Attached by a chain
B. Coated with heavy grease to prevent corrosion
C. Painted red for identity as emergency equipment
D. Stored in the clip at each fire station

Answer: A — Attached by a chain

The high-velocity fog tip is kept attached to the all-purpose nozzle by a short chain so that it cannot be lost or mislaid and is immediately available when the nozzle handle is moved to the fog position during fire fighting.

20. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by ____.

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Windage

Answer: A — Convection

Convection is heat transfer by the movement of a heated fluid such as air or smoke. Hot gases carried along ventilation trunking can ignite combustibles in distant compartments, which is why fire dampers and ventilation shutdown are essential first actions.

21. The lowest temperature at which the vapours of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the ____.

A. Fire point
B. Auto-ignition temperature
C. Vaporization temperature
D. Flash point

Answer: A — Fire point

At the flash point vapours only flash momentarily when ignited. The fire point, a few degrees higher, is the lowest temperature at which enough vapour is produced to keep burning after ignition. Auto-ignition temperature requires no external flame or spark.

22. What is the primary purpose of a fire risk assessment?

A. To identify potential fire hazards and assess their impact
B. To determine the building's energy efficiency
C. To calculate insurance premiums
D. To evaluate employee satisfaction

Answer: A — To identify potential fire hazards and assess their impact

A fire risk assessment systematically identifies sources of ignition, fuel and oxygen, the people at risk and the likely consequences, so that control measures can be put in place. On board this forms part of the ISM Code risk assessment process.

23. Which fire extinguisher is suitable for fires involving combustible metals?

A. Dry powder extinguisher
B. Water extinguisher
C. Foam extinguisher
D. CO2 extinguisher

Answer: A — Dry powder extinguisher

Burning metals such as magnesium, sodium or aluminium react violently with water and foam and are not extinguished by CO2. Special dry powder agents smother the metal and form a crust that excludes oxygen, making dry powder the correct choice.

24. What should be the first step when operating a portable fire extinguisher?

A. Pull the pin on the extinguisher
B. Assess the size of the fire
C. Aim the nozzle at the base of the flames
D. Squeeze the operating lever

Answer: A — Pull the pin on the extinguisher

Following the PASS sequence, the safety pin must be pulled first; until it is removed the operating lever cannot be squeezed. The operator then aims at the base of the fire, squeezes the lever and sweeps from side to side.

25. What is the primary purpose of fire-resistant construction materials?

A. To slow down the spread of fire and protect structural integrity
B. To reduce construction costs
C. To make the structure aesthetically pleasing
D. To provide insulation during winter months

Answer: A — To slow down the spread of fire and protect structural integrity

Fire-resistant materials and insulated divisions contain a fire within its compartment for a set period and keep the structure from failing. SOLAS II-2 structural fire protection uses A, B and C class divisions for this purpose.

26. What is the purpose of the fire triangle?

A. To illustrate the relationship between fuel, oxygen and heat in a fire
B. To represent the three main types of fires
C. To indicate the three primary escape routes
D. To identify the locations of fire extinguishers

Answer: A — To illustrate the relationship between fuel, oxygen and heat in a fire

The fire triangle shows that fuel, oxygen and heat must all be present for combustion. Removing any one side, by starving, smothering or cooling, extinguishes the fire, which is the basis of every fire-fighting method taught in FPFF.

27. What is the purpose of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS/MSDS)?

A. To provide information on the properties and hazards of hazardous materials
B. To outline the company's budget for fire prevention
C. To list the names of crew trained in fire safety
D. To document the history of past fire incidents

Answer: A — To provide information on the properties and hazards of hazardous materials

An SDS gives the physical and chemical properties, fire and explosion hazards, suitable extinguishing media, health effects and handling precautions for a substance. SOLAS VI/5-1 requires an MSDS for MARPOL Annex I cargoes and marine fuel oils.

28. In the galley, what should be done if cooking oil catches fire in a pan?

A. Cover the pan with a metal lid or fire blanket to smother the fire
B. Pour water on it to extinguish the flames
C. Ignore it and let it burn out on its own
D. Carry the burning pan outside

Answer: A — Cover the pan with a metal lid or fire blanket to smother the fire

Water on burning oil turns to steam instantly and throws burning oil over a wide area. Shutting off the heat and covering the pan with a lid or fire blanket excludes oxygen and smothers the fire safely.

29. Under the US (NFPA) classification, which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment?

A. Class C
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Class D

Answer: A — Class C

In the NFPA classification Class A is ordinary combustibles, Class B flammable liquids and gases, Class C energized electrical equipment and Class D combustible metals. Non-conductive agents such as CO2 or dry powder are used on Class C fires.

30. What should you do if you encounter heavy smoke during a fire evacuation?

A. Stay low, cover your nose and mouth, and evacuate if possible
B. Proceed upright and quickly through the smoke
C. Open windows and ports to let the smoke escape
D. Wait in the smoke until rescuers arrive

Answer: A — Stay low, cover your nose and mouth, and evacuate if possible

Hot smoke and toxic gases rise, so cleaner, cooler air is found near the deck. Keeping low, protecting the airway and following the escape route, using an EEBD where provided, gives the best chance of survival.

Set 19 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Under the US (NFPA) classification, what class of fire involves cooking oils and fats?

A. Class K
B. Class B
C. Class A
D. Class D

Answer: A — Class K

NFPA classifies fires in cooking appliances involving vegetable or animal oils and fats as Class K, equivalent to Class F in the European/ISO system. Wet chemical extinguishers are used because they cool the oil and form a soap-like layer.

2. How can the spread of fire within a ship or building be minimized?

A. By closing doors to confine the fire and smoke
B. By leaving doors and windows open during a fire
C. By using fans to redirect smoke
D. By relying on sprinkler systems alone

Answer: A — By closing doors to confine the fire and smoke

Closing doors, fire dampers and ventilation openings restricts the oxygen supply and keeps fire and smoke within the compartment, buying time for boundary cooling and attack. This is a standard first action in shipboard fire-fighting.

3. In fire fighting, what does the term "flashover" refer to?

A. Near-simultaneous ignition of all combustible material in a compartment
B. The extinguishing of a fire
C. The activation of fire alarms
D. The evacuation of a building

Answer: A — Near-simultaneous ignition of all combustible material in a compartment

Flashover occurs when radiant heat from the fire and hot smoke layer raises all exposed combustibles in an enclosed space to their ignition temperature, so the whole compartment bursts into flame almost at once. Survival inside after flashover is unlikely.

4. What is the purpose of fire drills on ships?

A. To practise and evaluate emergency response procedures
B. To test the ship's speed in case of fire
C. To simulate onboard parties for crew members
D. To assess the quality of onboard catering services

Answer: A — To practise and evaluate emergency response procedures

SOLAS III/19 requires fire drills so that crew practise their muster list duties, use of equipment and communications, and so that the drill can be evaluated and deficiencies corrected. Drills keep the crew familiar with the ship's fire-fighting arrangements.

5. What is the recommended method for storing flammable liquids on board?

A. Store them in well-ventilated areas away from ignition sources
B. Keep them in open containers for easy access
C. Place them near electrical equipment for convenience
D. Mix different flammable liquids in the same container

Answer: A — Store them in well-ventilated areas away from ignition sources

Flammable liquids such as paints and thinners give off vapour, so they must be kept in closed containers in a ventilated store, such as the paint locker, away from heat and ignition sources, with fire extinguishing arrangements as required by SOLAS II-2.

6. Which of the following is a key component of fire prevention?

A. Regularly inspecting and maintaining fire safety equipment
B. Ignoring potential hazards
C. Smoking anywhere on deck
D. Storing flammable materials near heat sources

Answer: A — Regularly inspecting and maintaining fire safety equipment

Fire prevention depends on controlling fuel and ignition sources and keeping detection and fire-fighting equipment ready. SOLAS II-2/14 requires fire protection systems to be maintained and inspected according to an onboard maintenance plan.

7. When using a portable fire extinguisher, what does the acronym "PASS" stand for?

A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Push, Assess, Spray, Secure
C. Point, Activate, Stop, Scan
D. Prevent, Announce, Seek, Secure

Answer: A — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS is the operating sequence for a portable extinguisher: pull the safety pin, aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, squeeze the operating lever, and sweep the discharge from side to side across the burning area.

8. Under the US (NFPA) classification, which class of fire involves flammable liquids and gases?

A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: A — Class B

In the NFPA system Class B covers flammable liquids and gases such as fuel oil, lubricating oil, paints and LPG. Such fires are fought with foam, dry powder or CO2; a solid water jet may spread burning liquid.

9. How should you respond if your clothing catches fire?

A. Stop, drop to the ground, cover your face, and roll
B. Run quickly to the nearest exit
C. Fan the flames with your hands
D. Stand still and wait for assistance

Answer: A — Stop, drop to the ground, cover your face, and roll

Running feeds the fire with oxygen and drives flames towards the face. Stopping, dropping, covering the face and rolling smothers the flames and protects the airway; a fire blanket or water can then be applied by others.

10. Which of the following is a common cause of electrical fires?

A. Overloaded electrical outlets
B. Regular equipment maintenance
C. Using appliances as intended
D. Switching off electrical devices when not in use

Answer: A — Overloaded electrical outlets

Overloading sockets and extension leads causes conductors to overheat beyond their rating, damaging insulation and igniting nearby material. Unauthorised multi-plug adaptors and personal appliances in cabins are a frequent cause of accommodation fires.

11. What type of portable fire extinguisher is suitable for electrical fires?

A. CO2 extinguisher
B. Water extinguisher
C. Foam extinguisher
D. Soda-acid extinguisher

Answer: A — CO2 extinguisher

CO2 is non-conductive and leaves no residue, so it is safe and effective on live electrical equipment. Water, foam and soda-acid extinguishers conduct electricity and can give the operator a shock.

12. What should you do if you discover a small, contained fire?

A. Raise the alarm and attempt to extinguish it with the appropriate portable extinguisher
B. Ignore it and assume someone else will handle it
C. Leave the area without telling anyone
D. Document the fire for later investigation

Answer: A — Raise the alarm and attempt to extinguish it with the appropriate portable extinguisher

A small fire can usually be controlled with the right portable extinguisher if tackled immediately, but the alarm must be raised so that help is on the way if the attempt fails. Delay allows a small fire to grow rapidly.

13. What is the purpose of a fire blanket?

A. To smother and extinguish small fires, such as burning clothing or a pan fire
B. To warm individuals during cold weather
C. To cover furniture and prevent fire damage
D. To provide a cushion for emergency landings

Answer: A — To smother and extinguish small fires, such as burning clothing or a pan fire

A fire blanket is made of non-combustible woven material. Wrapped around a person or laid over a pan, it cuts off the oxygen supply and smothers the flames, which is why one is kept in the galley.

14. On discovering a fire, what is the first step in the emergency response?

A. Raise the alarm
B. Evacuate the area immediately
C. Call the shore fire brigade
D. Attempt to extinguish the fire

Answer: A — Raise the alarm

The first action on discovering a fire is to raise the alarm so that the bridge and crew are alerted and the fire party mustered. Only then should an attempt be made to fight a small fire with available extinguishers.

15. What is the recommended method of checking whether a door is safe to open during a fire?

A. Feel the door and handle with the back of your hand for heat
B. Open the door quickly and assess the situation
C. Smell for smoke under the door
D. Knock on the door to check for a response

Answer: A — Feel the door and handle with the back of your hand for heat

The back of the hand is sensitive to heat and, if burned, leaves the palm usable. A hot door indicates fire behind it; opening it may cause a backdraught, so the door should be kept closed and boundary cooled.

16. Under the US (NFPA) classification, which class of fire involves combustible metals?

A. Class D
B. Class A
C. Class B
D. Class C

Answer: A — Class D

Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, sodium, potassium and titanium. They burn at very high temperatures and react with water, so special dry powder agents are used to smother them.

17. What does the acronym "RACE" stand for in fire safety?

A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish
B. Rescue, Assess, Contain, Evacuate
C. Run, Alert, Cover, Escape
D. Remove, Activate, Control, Extinguish

Answer: A — Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish

RACE sets out the priority of actions on discovering a fire: rescue anyone in immediate danger, raise the alarm, confine the fire by closing doors and openings, then extinguish it if it is safe to do so.

18. How often should portable fire extinguishers be checked on board for correct location, charge and condition?

A. Monthly
B. Every five years
C. Every three years
D. Only when visibly damaged

Answer: A — Monthly

IMO MSC.1/Circ.1432 requires monthly checks that portable extinguishers are in place, properly charged and undamaged, with an annual inspection and periodic hydrostatic testing. Leaving inspection until damage is visible is unacceptable.

19. What should you do if you are unable to extinguish a fire with a portable extinguisher?

A. Withdraw, close the door and report so that the fire team can take over
B. Keep trying until the fire is out
C. Wait for someone else to handle it
D. Use water on it regardless of the type of fire

Answer: A — Withdraw, close the door and report so that the fire team can take over

If a portable extinguisher does not control the fire, the operator should withdraw, close the door to confine the fire, and report so that the fire party can attack with hoses and fixed systems. Persisting risks being cut off by the fire.

20. Which of the following is a common cause of galley fires?

A. Leaving cooking unattended
B. Regular cleaning and maintenance of cooking appliances
C. Storing flammable materials away from the galley
D. Switching off the range after use

Answer: A — Leaving cooking unattended

Unattended pans can overheat and the oil reach its auto-ignition temperature. Grease build-up in hoods and ducts then spreads the fire, so cooking must never be left unattended and exhaust ducts and filters must be cleaned regularly.

21. Under the US (NFPA) classification, what class of fire involves ordinary combustible materials such as wood, paper and cloth?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: A — Class A

Class A fires involve ordinary solid combustibles that leave embers or ash, such as wood, paper, cloth and rubbish. Water is the most effective agent because it cools the burning material below its ignition temperature.

22. What is the purpose of fire doors?

A. To control the spread of fire and smoke
B. To provide a decorative element to the structure
C. To serve as emergency exits only
D. To keep the accommodation warm in winter

Answer: A — To control the spread of fire and smoke

Fire doors maintain the integrity of A or B class divisions. Kept closed, they prevent fire and smoke spreading between compartments; SOLAS II-2/9 requires them to be self-closing where fitted in main vertical zone boundaries and stairway enclosures.

23. What is the correct method of using a fire hose on a burning solid?

A. Aim at the base of the flames and sweep from side to side
B. Hold the hose above the flames to smother them
C. Direct the water stream only towards the ceiling
D. Keep the hose coiled until the fire is larger

Answer: A — Aim at the base of the flames and sweep from side to side

Water must reach the burning fuel to cool it below ignition temperature, so the jet or spray is directed at the base of the fire and swept across the burning area rather than into the flames and smoke above.

24. Why is it important to keep electrical cords in good condition?

A. To prevent electrical fires and shocks
B. To reduce clutter in the workspace
C. To make it easier to plug and unplug devices
D. To save on electricity costs

Answer: A — To prevent electrical fires and shocks

Damaged insulation can expose live conductors and cause short circuits, arcing and overheating, which may ignite nearby material or electrocute anyone touching them. Worn cables should be removed from service and replaced.

25. Before a BA team enters a smoke-filled compartment, who records the names of wearers, time of entry and cylinder pressures, and calculates the expected time of the low-pressure warning?

A. The officer of the watch on the bridge
B. The BA entry control officer at the entry point
C. The Chief Engineer in the engine control room
D. The leading wearer of the BA team

Answer: B — The BA entry control officer at the entry point

A BA entry control officer stationed at the point of entry keeps the BA control board, logging each wearer, entry time and cylinder pressure, and works out when the warning whistle is due so that overdue teams are detected and a back-up team can be sent in.

26. Which signs at a closed compartment door most strongly warn of a possible backdraught?

A. Bright flames visible through a porthole with clear air at deck level
B. Smoke puffing in and out around the door gaps, hot door and little visible flame
C. A cool door with light grey smoke drifting from the ventilator
D. Water dripping from the deckhead sprinkler heads outside the space

Answer: B — Smoke puffing in and out around the door gaps, hot door and little visible flame

A backdraught occurs when air is suddenly admitted to an oxygen-starved compartment full of hot, unburnt fuel gases. Pulsing smoke at gaps, a very hot door, blackened glass and little flame indicate this condition, so the door must not be thrown open.

27. When a hose team is about to open the door of a compartment that is on fire, where should the team members position themselves?

A. Behind the door on the hinge side with the hose stowed
B. Crouched low and to the side of the door, out of the path of escaping heat
C. Inside the compartment ahead of the door opening
D. Standing upright directly in front of the door

Answer: B — Crouched low and to the side of the door, out of the path of escaping heat

Hot gases and flame emerge through the upper part of the doorway when it is opened. Keeping low and to the side, shielded by the door, protects the team from this outflow while the nozzle is made ready to apply spray or fog.

28. Why do BA wearers searching a smoke-filled space normally work in pairs or teams rather than alone?

A. So that one wearer can assist or raise the alarm if the other gets into difficulty
B. Because the lifeline must be held by two people at all times
C. So that the cylinders last twice as long
D. Because each SCBA set can only be started by a second person

Answer: A — So that one wearer can assist or raise the alarm if the other gets into difficulty

Smoke-filled spaces are dark, hot and disorientating. Working in pairs means a wearer who becomes trapped, entangled, injured or runs short of air has immediate help, and the partner can communicate the situation to the entry control point.

29. A BA team searching a smoke-filled accommodation finds an unconscious casualty. What should they normally do?

A. Report the find and remove the casualty to fresh air by the shortest safe route
B. Wait beside the casualty until the fire is extinguished
C. Remove their own face masks and share air with the casualty
D. Leave the casualty and complete the full search first

Answer: A — Report the find and remove the casualty to fresh air by the shortest safe route

Saving life takes priority. The team informs the entry control point and evacuates the casualty to fresh air by the quickest safe route, where first aid and oxygen can be given; another team can be committed to continue the search.

30. While advancing into a hot compartment, the hose team applies short bursts of fine water fog into the hot smoke layer overhead. What is the main purpose?

A. To increase the oxygen content of the compartment
B. To cool the hot gas layer and reduce the risk of flashover
C. To wash soot off the deckhead
D. To push all the smoke out through the door behind the team

Answer: B — To cool the hot gas layer and reduce the risk of flashover

Short pulses of fine fog absorb heat from the hot fire gases overhead without producing excessive steam, lowering their temperature below the point at which they would ignite and so protecting the team from flashover.

Set 20 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. During a search in thick smoke, what should a BA team do if the hose or guideline they followed in is lost?

A. Continue the search and rely on finding another exit
B. Remove the face mask to see better at deck level
C. Stop, keep together, report by radio and retrace the route by wall contact
D. Separate to search for the line in different directions

Answer: C — Stop, keep together, report by radio and retrace the route by wall contact

Losing the hose or guideline is an emergency. The team should not separate; they report their situation to the entry control point and retrace their route keeping contact with the bulkhead, while a back-up team can be sent along the hose to locate them.

2. Why should a fire-fighter not stand fully upright when advancing in a hot, smoke-filled compartment?

A. Temperatures and smoke are much more severe near the deckhead than near the deck
B. The face mask cannot seal when the head is raised
C. The lifeline would be pulled too tight
D. Standing upright reduces the air flow from the SCBA

Answer: A — Temperatures and smoke are much more severe near the deckhead than near the deck

Hot gases and smoke rise and form a layer under the deckhead, so heat increases sharply with height. Moving crouched or low keeps the wearer in the cooler zone, improves visibility and reduces heat stress and the risk of burns.

3. When should a standby BA team be ready at the entry point during an attack with SCBA?

A. Only when the fire has been extinguished
B. As soon as the first team enters, fully dressed and checked
C. Only after the first team has failed to return
D. Only when the Master orders abandon ship

Answer: B — As soon as the first team enters, fully dressed and checked

A fully equipped and checked standby team must be ready at the entry point whenever a team is committed, so that a wearer in distress, an overdue team or an injured fire-fighter can be rescued without delay.

4. What is the purpose of the negative-pressure face mask check carried out when donning SCBA?

A. To test the low-pressure warning whistle
B. To measure the remaining cylinder pressure
C. To check that the demand valve is closed
D. To confirm the mask seals properly on the face

Answer: D — To confirm the mask seals properly on the face

With the supply blocked or demand valve disconnected, the wearer inhales; the mask should be pulled onto the face and hold. If air leaks in, the seal is faulty, so smoke could enter in use and the mask must be readjusted before entry.

5. Under the FSS Code, before the air in an SCBA cylinder has fallen to what volume must the audible alarm warn the wearer?

A. 50 litres
B. 1200 litres
C. 600 litres
D. 200 litres

Answer: D — 200 litres

FSS Code chapter 3 requires SCBA to be fitted with an audible alarm and a visual or other device which alerts the user before the air volume in the cylinder has been reduced to no less than 200 litres, leaving a reserve for escape.

6. Under SOLAS II-2/10.10, how many spare charges must normally be carried for each required breathing apparatus?

A. Four spare charges
B. Three spare charges
C. One spare charge
D. Two spare charges

Answer: D — Two spare charges

SOLAS requires two spare charges for each required breathing apparatus. Cargo ships equipped with suitably located means for fully recharging air cylinders free from contamination need carry only one spare charge for each required apparatus.

7. What is the minimum number of two-way portable radiotelephones that SOLAS requires for each fire party for fire-fighters' communication?

A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. Three

Answer: A — Two

SOLAS II-2/10.10.4 requires a minimum of two two-way portable radiotelephone apparatus for each fire party for fire-fighters' communication; on tankers and ships with restricted areas they must be explosion-proof or intrinsically safe.

8. What is the minimum burning period required for the electric safety lamp forming part of a fire-fighter's outfit?

A. One hour
B. Three hours
C. Thirty minutes
D. Twelve hours

Answer: B — Three hours

The FSS Code requires the fire-fighter's outfit to include an approved electric safety lamp (hand lantern) with a minimum burning period of three hours; lamps on tankers and for hazardous areas must be of an explosion-proof type.

9. For which purpose is an Emergency Escape Breathing Device (EEBD) NOT to be used?

A. Escaping from a machinery space after a fire alarm
B. Evacuating through a smoke-logged escape trunk
C. Escaping from a smoke-filled accommodation
D. Fighting fires or entering oxygen-deficient tanks

Answer: D — Fighting fires or entering oxygen-deficient tanks

An EEBD is a short-duration device intended only for escape from a hazardous atmosphere. It must not be used for fire fighting, for entering oxygen-deficient voids or tanks, or worn by fire-fighters, for which SCBA is required.

10. Under SOLAS II-2/13, at least how many EEBDs must be carried within the accommodation spaces of a cargo ship?

A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Six

Answer: B — Two

SOLAS II-2/13.3.4 requires all cargo ships to carry at least two emergency escape breathing devices within accommodation spaces, in addition to those required in machinery spaces according to the fire safety guidance on their number and location.

11. Which item is required by the FSS Code as part of the personal equipment of a fire-fighter's outfit?

A. A portable foam applicator
B. A gas-tight chemical suit
C. A portable CO2 extinguisher
D. An axe with a handle provided with high-voltage insulation

Answer: D — An axe with a handle provided with high-voltage insulation

Personal equipment comprises protective clothing, boots and gloves of non-electrically conductive material, a rigid helmet, an approved electric safety lamp of at least three hours and an axe whose handle has high-voltage insulation.

12. After a fire in a cabin has been knocked down with water, what is meant by 'overhaul'?

A. Re-stowing fire hoses on their racks
B. Searching for and extinguishing hidden hot spots and smouldering material
C. Servicing the fire pumps after use
D. Repainting and refurbishing the damaged cabin

Answer: B — Searching for and extinguishing hidden hot spots and smouldering material

Overhaul means opening up linings, turning over debris and dampening smouldering material so that hidden pockets of fire cannot rekindle. It is carried out before the fire is declared out and a re-ignition watch is then maintained.

13. After an engine-room fire has been extinguished by the fixed CO2 system, why is the space not ventilated and opened immediately?

A. The CO2 alarm cannot be silenced until the space is opened
B. Ventilation fans cannot run in a CO2 atmosphere
C. CO2 must be recovered back into the cylinders first
D. Hot surfaces may re-ignite fuel when fresh air is admitted

Answer: D — Hot surfaces may re-ignite fuel when fresh air is admitted

CO2 smothers but has little cooling effect, so metal and fuel may remain above ignition temperature. Opening the space early admits oxygen and can cause re-ignition; boundaries are kept cooled and the space left closed until it has cooled sufficiently.

14. Before personnel enter a space without breathing apparatus after a fire, which atmosphere checks are required?

A. Only the temperature of the space
B. Oxygen content, toxic gases such as CO, and flammable vapours
C. Only the CO2 cylinder pressures
D. Only the humidity of the space

Answer: B — Oxygen content, toxic gases such as CO, and flammable vapours

A space after a fire may be oxygen-deficient and contain carbon monoxide, other toxic combustion products and flammable vapours. Entry without breathing apparatus is allowed only after testing confirms a safe oxygen level and no harmful or flammable gases.

15. Why is a re-ignition (fire) watch kept at the scene after a fire has been declared extinguished?

A. To wait for the classification surveyor to arrive
B. To prevent the space from being used by the crew
C. Smouldering material or heated surfaces may cause the fire to flare up again
D. To keep the fire hoses pressurised for the drill record

Answer: C — Smouldering material or heated surfaces may cause the fire to flare up again

Deep-seated or concealed fires can smoulder unseen and rekindle hours later. A watch with charged hoses or extinguishers checks the area and adjacent compartments for heat and smoke so any flare-up is tackled immediately.

16. In fire investigation, what does a V-shaped burn pattern on a bulkhead usually indicate?

A. The bulkhead is an A-60 division
B. The fire was extinguished with foam
C. The fire started at the deckhead above the V
D. The point of origin is at or near the bottom of the V

Answer: D — The point of origin is at or near the bottom of the V

Flames and hot gases rise and spread outward from their source, leaving a V-shaped burn pattern widening upward. The low point of the V generally points towards the area where the fire started, a useful clue for investigators.

17. Why should the fire scene be disturbed as little as possible once the fire is out and the area made safe?

A. To avoid having to make a log-book entry
B. Because the debris is needed for the next drill
C. So that the insurance surveyor can repair it
D. To preserve evidence for investigation into the cause of the fire

Answer: D — To preserve evidence for investigation into the cause of the fire

Evidence such as burn patterns, failed equipment and ignition sources is needed to determine the cause. Preserving the scene, photographing it, saving VDR data and recording witness statements supports the investigation and prevents recurrence.

18. After a fire has been dealt with, which action is part of restoring the ship's fire-fighting readiness?

A. Removing the fire control plan for updating ashore
B. Draining the fire main permanently
C. Disconnecting the fire detection system until repairs are complete
D. Recharging used extinguishers and refilling BA cylinders

Answer: D — Recharging used extinguishers and refilling BA cylinders

Before the ship can respond to another fire, used extinguishers must be recharged or replaced, BA cylinders refilled, hoses drained, dried and restowed, and fixed systems reinstated or replenished, with any equipment not yet available reported to the Master.

19. Under the ISM Code, what must the ship's safety management system include regarding a fire on board?

A. A requirement to report only to the port State
B. A rule that only fires causing injuries are reported
C. An exemption for fires extinguished with portable extinguishers
D. Procedures for reporting accidents and hazardous occurrences to the Company for investigation

Answer: D — Procedures for reporting accidents and hazardous occurrences to the Company for investigation

ISM Code element 9 requires procedures ensuring that non-conformities, accidents and hazardous situations are reported to the Company, investigated and analysed, with corrective action taken. A fire is such an occurrence, and the flag Administration must also be informed as required.

20. Where should details of a fire on board, the actions taken and the equipment used be formally recorded?

A. In the ship's official log book
B. Only in the fire-fighter's personal notebook
C. In the oil record book
D. Only on the fire control plan

Answer: A — In the ship's official log book

The fire, its time, location, actions taken, equipment and extinguishing media used, injuries and damage must be entered in the official log book, forming the legal record that supports the Master's report and any investigation.

21. Following a fire, re-entry teams find that the bulkheads of an adjacent compartment are still hot. What should be done?

A. Continue boundary cooling and inspect the adjacent space for fire spread
B. Ignore it since the main fire is out
C. Stop all cooling to prevent water damage
D. Open all ventilation to the adjacent space at once

Answer: A — Continue boundary cooling and inspect the adjacent space for fire spread

Heat conducted through steel bulkheads can ignite materials on the other side. Hot boundaries mean the danger persists, so boundary cooling continues and adjacent spaces are checked for smoke, heat or secondary fires until temperatures have fallen.

22. What is the recommended first aid for a thermal burn to a crew member's forearm?

A. Apply ice directly to the burn for 5 minutes
B. Cool the burn under cool running water for at least 20 minutes
C. Cover the burn with butter or grease
D. Burst any blisters and leave the burn open to the air

Answer: B — Cool the burn under cool running water for at least 20 minutes

Current first-aid guidance is to cool a thermal burn with cool (not ice-cold) running water for at least 20 minutes, which limits tissue damage and pain. Ice, grease and bursting blisters increase injury and infection risk.

23. After cooling a burn, which covering is most suitable before the casualty receives further medical care?

A. Cotton wool pressed onto the burn
B. Adhesive plaster stuck directly on the burnt skin
C. A tight bandage wound firmly around the limb
D. Cling film or a sterile non-fluffy dressing applied loosely

Answer: D — Cling film or a sterile non-fluffy dressing applied loosely

Burns should be covered loosely with cling film or a sterile non-adherent dressing to protect from infection without sticking. Fluffy material sticks to the wound and tight wrapping can restrict circulation as swelling develops.

24. A fire-fighter's clothing is stuck to a burn on his leg. What should the first-aider do?

A. Soak the clothing in fuel oil to loosen it
B. Pull the clothing off quickly to expose the burn
C. Cut the skin around the clothing to free it
D. Leave the stuck clothing in place and cool over it

Answer: D — Leave the stuck clothing in place and cool over it

Clothing adhering to a burn must not be pulled off, as this tears damaged skin. Loose clothing and jewellery are removed before swelling starts, but stuck material is left in place and cooling is applied over it.

25. Under the 'rule of nines', what percentage of body surface area is represented by one entire arm of an adult?

A. 18%
B. 27%
C. 1%
D. 9%

Answer: D — 9%

The rule of nines estimates burn area in adults: head 9%, each arm 9%, front of trunk 18%, back of trunk 18%, each leg 18% and perineum 1%. The estimate helps judge severity and fluid needs.

26. For estimating small or scattered burns, approximately what percentage of body surface area does the casualty's own palm with fingers represent?

A. About 5%
B. About 0.1%
C. About 9%
D. About 1%

Answer: D — About 1%

The palm of the casualty's own hand, including fingers, is about 1% of total body surface area. It is a quick way to estimate the extent of irregular or scattered burns where the rule of nines is less practical.

27. Which signs in a casualty rescued from a smoke-filled cabin suggest burns to the airway?

A. Cold, pale feet
B. A small blister on one finger
C. Soot around the mouth and nose, singed nasal hair and a hoarse voice
D. A slow but regular pulse with no other signs

Answer: C — Soot around the mouth and nose, singed nasal hair and a hoarse voice

Soot around the nose and mouth, singed facial or nasal hair, hoarseness, coughing and difficulty breathing indicate inhalation injury. Airway swelling can develop quickly, so the casualty needs oxygen, close monitoring and urgent medical advice.

28. Why is carbon monoxide inhaled during a fire so dangerous to casualties?

A. It causes immediate severe skin burns
B. It is heavier than water and fills the lungs
C. It binds to haemoglobin far more readily than oxygen, starving tissues of oxygen
D. It neutralises the effect of breathing apparatus

Answer: C — It binds to haemoglobin far more readily than oxygen, starving tissues of oxygen

Carbon monoxide combines with haemoglobin about 200 to 250 times more readily than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and preventing oxygen transport. Victims may become confused and unconscious, so they are removed to fresh air and given high-concentration oxygen.

29. Why can a pulse oximeter reading be misleading in a casualty with carbon monoxide poisoning?

A. It always shows zero in a smoke victim
B. It is affected by the colour of the casualty's clothing
C. It may show normal oxygen saturation because it cannot distinguish carboxyhaemoglobin
D. It measures only the casualty's temperature

Answer: C — It may show normal oxygen saturation because it cannot distinguish carboxyhaemoglobin

Standard pulse oximeters read carboxyhaemoglobin as if it were oxygenated haemoglobin, giving a falsely normal saturation. Smoke casualties should therefore be given high-flow oxygen based on history and symptoms, not on the oximeter reading.

30. A crew member has a chemical splashed onto his skin while fighting a cargo fire. What is the first-aid priority?

A. Neutralise the chemical with another chemical from the store
B. Apply burn ointment immediately without washing
C. Wipe the chemical off with a dry cloth and continue working
D. Remove contaminated clothing and irrigate with copious water for at least 20 minutes

Answer: D — Remove contaminated clothing and irrigate with copious water for at least 20 minutes

Chemical burns are treated by removing contaminated clothing, taking care not to contaminate the rescuer, and flooding the area with plenty of water for at least 20 minutes. Neutralising agents can cause further heat injury; the SDS gives specific advice.

Set 21 — 30 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. When several casualties are brought out from a fire scene, how should the first-aid team decide whom to treat first?

A. By treating casualties in the order they were brought out
B. By rank, treating senior officers first
C. By treating the casualty who is shouting loudest first
D. By triage, giving priority to life-threatening airway, breathing and circulation problems

Answer: D — By triage, giving priority to life-threatening airway, breathing and circulation problems

Triage sorts casualties by the urgency of their condition. Those with airway obstruction, breathing difficulty or severe bleeding and shock are treated first, while noisy casualties who can talk and breathe can usually wait.

2. Under FSS Code chapter 9, smoke detectors must be certified to operate before smoke density exceeds what obscuration per metre?

A. 50%
B. 25%
C. 2%
D. 12.5%

Answer: D — 12.5%

FSS Code chapter 9 requires smoke detectors to operate before the smoke density exceeds 12.5% obscuration per metre, but not until it exceeds 2% obscuration per metre, balancing early warning against false alarms.

3. Under FSS Code chapter 9, heat detectors in normal spaces must operate before the temperature exceeds what value (rate of rise less than 1°C per minute)?

A. 78°C
B. 54°C
C. 130°C
D. 100°C

Answer: A — 78°C

Heat detectors must operate before the temperature exceeds 78°C but not until it exceeds 54°C when raised at less than 1°C per minute. Higher settings, up to 130°C or 140°C in saunas, are allowed in drying rooms and similar hot spaces.

4. What is the maximum floor area per smoke detector given in FSS Code chapter 9?

A. 37 m²
B. 100 m²
C. 150 m²
D. 74 m²

Answer: D — 74 m²

The FSS Code table for detector spacing gives a maximum floor area of 74 m² per smoke detector, maximum 11 m between centres and 5.5 m from bulkheads, compared with 37 m², 9 m and 4.5 m for heat detectors.

5. Heat detectors respond more slowly than smoke detectors. Under FSS Code chapter 9, what is the largest floor area that one heat detector may cover?

A. 20 m²
B. 37 m²
C. 50 m²
D. 74 m²

Answer: B — 37 m²

Heat detectors respond more slowly than smoke detectors and so must be more closely spaced: the FSS Code allows a maximum floor area of 37 m² per heat detector, 9 m between centres and 4.5 m from bulkheads.

6. Which type of fire detector responds to ultraviolet or infrared radiation emitted by flames?

A. Ionisation smoke detector
B. Rate-of-rise heat detector
C. Flame detector
D. Fixed-temperature heat detector

Answer: C — Flame detector

Flame detectors sense the ultraviolet or infrared radiation from flames and respond very quickly to flaming fires with little smoke, so they are used in places such as engine rooms near purifiers, boilers and main engines.

7. Under FSS Code chapter 9, a section of fire detectors covering a control station, service space or accommodation space shall NOT include which space?

A. A machinery space of category A
B. A stairway enclosure
C. A corridor of the same deck
D. A cabin on the same deck

Answer: A — A machinery space of category A

The FSS Code requires that a detector section covering control stations, service spaces or accommodation spaces must not include a machinery space of category A, so that alarms from these very different risk areas are clearly identified.

8. How are fixed fire detection systems required to be tested regularly on board?

A. Only by pressing the test button on the control panel
B. Only by the manufacturer at five-yearly intervals
C. By holding a lit match under each detector
D. Using equipment producing hot air, smoke or aerosol particles at the detector

Answer: D — Using equipment producing hot air, smoke or aerosol particles at the detector

SOLAS and the FSS Code require periodic testing of fixed fire detection systems using equipment that produces hot air at the appropriate temperature, or smoke or aerosol particles of suitable density, so that each detector's response is proven.

9. Where must the control panel of a fixed fire detection and fire alarm system be located?

A. In the CO2 room
B. On the navigation bridge or in the continuously manned central control station
C. In the steering gear room
D. In the engine-room workshop

Answer: B — On the navigation bridge or in the continuously manned central control station

The FSS Code requires the control panel to be on the navigation bridge or in the continuously manned central control station, so that alarms are seen and acted on immediately and the fire location can be identified.

10. For a CO2 system protecting a machinery space, the quantity of CO2 must be sufficient to give a minimum volume of free gas equal to what percentage of the gross volume of the largest machinery space, excluding the casing?

A. 25%
B. 30%
C. 85%
D. 40%

Answer: D — 40%

FSS Code chapter 5 requires CO2 for machinery spaces to give free gas equal to the larger of 40% of the gross volume of the largest space excluding the casing, or 35% of the gross volume including the casing.

11. For calculating the quantity of CO2 required, the volume of free carbon dioxide is taken as how many cubic metres per kilogram?

A. 0.25 m³/kg
B. 0.56 m³/kg
C. 1.56 m³/kg
D. 1.0 m³/kg

Answer: B — 0.56 m³/kg

The FSS Code specifies that, for the purpose of calculating the required quantity of CO2, the volume of free carbon dioxide shall be taken as 0.56 m³ per kg.

12. How many separate controls are required for releasing CO2 into a protected space, and in what order must they operate?

A. Two: one opens the valve to the space, the other discharges the gas from the containers
B. Three: alarm, ventilation stop and release, in any order
C. Two, which may be operated in any order
D. One single push-button that releases all cylinders

Answer: A — Two: one opens the valve to the space, the other discharges the gas from the containers

The FSS Code requires two separate controls for releasing CO2: one to open the valve of the piping to the protected space and a second to discharge the gas from its containers, positively ensuring they can only be operated in that order.

13. For a CO2 system protecting a space normally entered by personnel, how long must the pre-discharge alarm operate before the gas is released?

A. Exactly 2 minutes
B. At least 20 seconds
C. At least 5 seconds
D. No delay is required

Answer: B — At least 20 seconds

The FSS Code requires an automatic audible and visual pre-discharge alarm, activated when the release cabinet door is opened, to operate for long enough to evacuate the space but not less than 20 seconds before the medium is released.

14. SOLAS requires fixed local application fire-fighting systems (such as water mist) in machinery spaces of category A above 500 m³ in ships of what size?

A. 500 gross tonnage and above
B. 10,000 gross tonnage and above
C. 2,000 gross tonnage and above
D. All passenger ships only

Answer: C — 2,000 gross tonnage and above

SOLAS II-2/10.5.6 requires passenger ships of 500 GT and above and cargo ships of 2,000 GT and above to fit water-based local application systems over fire hazard areas such as engine fuel parts, purifiers, boiler fronts and incinerators in category A spaces above 500 m³.

15. Which arrangement is required for a galley exhaust duct passing through accommodation spaces?

A. Only a mesh screen at the hood
B. A CO2 portable extinguisher inside the duct
C. No special arrangement if the duct is steel
D. A grease trap, a fire damper and a fixed means of extinguishing a fire in the duct

Answer: D — A grease trap, a fire damper and a fixed means of extinguishing a fire in the duct

SOLAS II-2/9.7.5 requires galley exhaust ducts passing through accommodation or spaces containing combustible materials to have a readily removable grease trap, a fire damper at the lower end of the duct, remote stopping of exhaust fans and a fixed means for extinguishing a fire within the duct.

16. In a fixed high-expansion foam system for machinery spaces, what is the maximum expansion ratio permitted by the FSS Code for the traditional system?

A. 10,000 to 1
B. 100 to 1
C. 1,000 to 1
D. 12 to 1

Answer: C — 1,000 to 1

The FSS Code defines high-expansion foam systems as producing foam with an expansion ratio not exceeding 1,000 to 1, able to fill the protected space rapidly, whereas deck foam systems on tankers use low-expansion foam not exceeding 12 to 1.

17. Under current SOLAS II-2/4.5.5, oil tankers constructed on or after 1 January 2016 must be fitted with a fixed inert gas system if they are of at least what deadweight?

A. 40,000 tonnes
B. 8,000 tonnes
C. 5,000 tonnes
D. 20,000 tonnes

Answer: B — 8,000 tonnes

Amendments to SOLAS II-2/4.5.5 lowered the threshold so that oil tankers and chemical tankers of 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above, constructed on or after 1 January 2016 and carrying low-flashpoint cargoes, must have a fixed inert gas system; previously it was 20,000 dwt.

18. Under the FSS Code, the inert gas system must be capable of delivering inert gas with an oxygen content not exceeding what percentage by volume?

A. 8%
B. 21%
C. 11%
D. 5%

Answer: D — 5%

FSS Code chapter 15 requires the inert gas system to supply gas with an oxygen content of not more than 5% by volume and to maintain the cargo tank atmosphere at an oxygen content not exceeding 8% by volume at a positive pressure.

19. In an inerted cargo tank, the oxygen content of the tank atmosphere must be maintained at not more than what percentage by volume?

A. 15%
B. 8%
C. 11%
D. 5%

Answer: B — 8%

SOLAS and the FSS Code require the inert gas system to keep the cargo tank atmosphere at an oxygen content not exceeding 8% by volume, and at a positive pressure, so that the atmosphere cannot support combustion and air cannot enter.

20. Approximately what is the flammable range of typical crude oil hydrocarbon gas mixed with air?

A. About 15% to 50% by volume
B. About 0.1% to 1% by volume
C. About 10% to 30% by volume
D. About 1% to 10% by volume

Answer: D — About 1% to 10% by volume

ISGOTT gives the flammable range of hydrocarbon gas from typical petroleum cargoes as roughly 1% (lower flammable limit) to 10% (upper flammable limit) by volume in air; outside this range the mixture is too lean or too rich to burn.

21. Under SOLAS II-2/4.5.10, the hydrocarbon gas detection system in a cargo pump-room must alarm at a pre-set level not higher than what?

A. 100% of the lower flammable limit
B. 1% of the upper flammable limit
C. 50% of the lower flammable limit
D. 10% of the lower flammable limit

Answer: D — 10% of the lower flammable limit

SOLAS requires cargo pump-rooms of tankers to have continuous monitoring of hydrocarbon gas concentration, giving audible and visual alarms in the pump-room, engine control room, cargo control room and bridge at a pre-set level not higher than 10% of the LFL.

22. What minimum ventilation capacity does SOLAS require for the mechanical exhaust ventilation of a tanker's cargo pump-room?

A. 6 air changes per hour
B. 45 air changes per hour
C. 20 air changes per hour
D. 10 air changes per hour

Answer: C — 20 air changes per hour

Cargo pump-rooms must be mechanically ventilated with exhaust outlets discharging to a safe place on deck, with a capacity of at least 20 changes of air per hour based on the gross volume of the space, so that cargo vapour does not accumulate.

23. Which fixed fire-extinguishing systems are acceptable under SOLAS II-2/10.9 for the cargo pump-room of an oil tanker?

A. Only portable dry powder extinguishers
B. Steam smothering only
C. Only the deck foam monitors
D. CO2, high-expansion foam or fixed pressure water-spraying

Answer: D — CO2, high-expansion foam or fixed pressure water-spraying

SOLAS requires each cargo pump-room to be protected by a fixed system operated from outside the space: carbon dioxide, high-expansion foam or a fixed pressure water-spraying system, with audible CO2 alarms safe for use in a flammable atmosphere.

24. According to ISGOTT, before hot work in a cargo tank, the hydrocarbon gas concentration in the tank should not exceed what value?

A. 1% of the LFL
B. 5% by volume
C. 10% of the LFL
D. 50% of the LFL

Answer: A — 1% of the LFL

ISGOTT requires that, before hot work is permitted in or near cargo spaces, the area be gas-freed and tested so that the hydrocarbon gas concentration does not exceed 1% of the lower flammable limit, with continuous monitoring throughout the work.

25. A fire breaks out at the cargo manifold of a tanker discharging at a terminal. What should be done first?

A. Raise the alarm, stop cargo operations and close manifold valves, and inform the terminal
B. Open all tank lids to release pressure
C. Disconnect the hoses immediately while cargo is flowing
D. Continue discharging to empty the tanks quickly

Answer: A — Raise the alarm, stop cargo operations and close manifold valves, and inform the terminal

ISGOTT emergency procedures call for raising the alarm, stopping cargo and bunker operations, closing valves, and informing the terminal so that shore pumping stops and the terminal emergency plan is activated, before attacking the fire with foam or dry powder.

26. What is the purpose of emergency towing-off pennants (fire wires) rigged on a tanker alongside an oil terminal?

A. To allow tugs to tow the ship off the berth in an emergency such as fire
B. To secure the cargo hoses to the manifold
C. To earth the ship to the shore and prevent static
D. To hang fenders against the jetty

Answer: A — To allow tugs to tow the ship off the berth in an emergency such as fire

Emergency towing-off pennants are rigged on the offshore bow and quarter, with their eyes near the waterline, so that tugs can quickly connect and pull the ship away from the berth if a fire or other emergency makes this necessary.

27. In the tanker emergency organisation recommended by ISGOTT, which group directs the response and maintains external communications?

A. The command team, normally led by the Master on the bridge or cargo control room
B. The back-up team at the accommodation
C. The terminal's mooring gang
D. The engineers' group in the engine room

Answer: A — The command team, normally led by the Master on the bridge or cargo control room

ISGOTT describes an emergency organisation with a command centre in overall control and handling communications, an emergency team that fights the incident, a back-up team supporting it, and an engineers' group responsible for machinery and services.

28. A fire occurs at the outlet of a cargo tank vent (mast riser) during loading. What is the first action?

A. Open the tank ullage ports to divert the vapour
B. Increase the loading rate to clear the vent
C. Stop loading so that vapour flow from the vent ceases
D. Shut down the inert gas system immediately

Answer: C — Stop loading so that vapour flow from the vent ceases

A vent fire is fed by cargo vapour displaced during loading. Stopping cargo operations removes the vapour flow; the fire can then be extinguished, for example with dry powder or by closing the vent, while adjacent areas are cooled with water spray.

29. Under FSS Code chapter 14, what is the maximum expansion ratio of the foam produced by a tanker's fixed deck foam system?

A. 100 to 1
B. 500 to 1
C. 12 to 1
D. 1,000 to 1

Answer: C — 12 to 1

FSS Code chapter 14 specifies the deck foam system for tankers as a low-expansion system with an expansion ratio not exceeding 12 to 1, which produces a heavy foam that resists wind and can be thrown by monitors and applicators.

30. Under FSS Code chapter 14, the foam solution supply rate must be not less than the greatest of several values. Which is one of them?

A. 1 l/min per m² of accommodation deck area
B. 0.1 l/min per m² of cargo deck area
C. 0.6 l/min per m² of cargo deck area
D. 10 l/min per m² of cargo deck area

Answer: C — 0.6 l/min per m² of cargo deck area

The supply rate must be the greatest of 0.6 l/min per m² of cargo deck area, 6 l/min per m² of the horizontal sectional area of the single tank with the largest such area, or 3 l/min per m² of area protected by the largest monitor, but not less than 1,250 l/min.

Set 22 — 26 FPFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Under FSS Code chapter 14, what is the minimum capacity of each foam monitor on a tanker's deck foam system?

A. 200 l/min
B. 5,000 l/min
C. 1,250 l/min
D. 400 l/min

Answer: C — 1,250 l/min

Each monitor must deliver at least 3 l/min of foam solution per m² of deck area it protects, and in any case not less than 1,250 l/min, so that a burning area of deck can be covered quickly.

2. Under FSS Code chapter 14, what is the minimum capacity and throw of each foam applicator on a tanker's deck?

A. 200 l/min with a throw of at least 5 m
B. 400 l/min with a throw of at least 15 m
C. 1,250 l/min with a throw of at least 30 m
D. 100 l/min with a throw of at least 10 m

Answer: B — 400 l/min with a throw of at least 15 m

FSS Code chapter 14 requires at least four foam applicators, each with a capacity of not less than 400 l/min and a throw in still air of not less than 15 m, for flexibility in attacking fires that monitors cannot reach.

3. Under FSS Code chapter 14, where must foam monitors be positioned in relation to the poop front or accommodation?

A. Only inside the cargo pump-room
B. Only at the forecastle head
C. On both port and starboard sides at the poop front or accommodation facing the cargo area
D. Only on the monkey island

Answer: C — On both port and starboard sides at the poop front or accommodation facing the cargo area

FSS Code chapter 14 requires monitors and hose connections for foam applicators to be situated on both the port and starboard sides at the front of the poop or accommodation spaces facing the cargo area, so the deck can be attacked from either side.

4. Under FSS Code chapter 14, the distance from a deck foam monitor to the farthest extremity of the area it protects forward must not exceed what?

A. 50% of the monitor throw in still air
B. 25 metres in all cases
C. 75% of the monitor throw in still air
D. 100% of the monitor throw in still air

Answer: C — 75% of the monitor throw in still air

The FSS Code limits the distance from a monitor to the farthest extremity of the protected area forward of it to not more than 75% of the monitor throw in still air, allowing for wind and loss of range in a real fire.

5. Why are isolation valves fitted in the foam main and fire main immediately forward of each monitor position on a tanker's deck?

A. To stop foam reaching the accommodation
B. To regulate the expansion ratio of the foam
C. To drain the mains after each drill
D. To allow damaged sections of the mains to be isolated so the system remains usable

Answer: D — To allow damaged sections of the mains to be isolated so the system remains usable

FSS Code chapter 14 requires valves in the foam main and in the fire main immediately forward of every monitor position so that a section damaged by fire or explosion can be isolated while the rest of the system continues to deliver foam and water.

6. Under MSC.1/Circ.1312, when should the first periodical control test of foam concentrate (other than certain premix types) be carried out?

A. Only every 10 years
B. Every month from the date of supply
C. Only when the foam is used in a fire
D. After 3 years from supply, and every year thereafter

Answer: D — After 3 years from supply, and every year thereafter

MSC.1/Circ.1312 on periodical control of foam concentrates provides that the first test should be performed after three years and thereafter annually, with samples analysed by a laboratory or the manufacturer to confirm the concentrate still performs.

7. Under the FSS Code, a portable foam applicator unit must include a portable tank containing at least how much foam concentrate, plus one spare tank?

A. 50 litres
B. 5 litres
C. 10 litres
D. 20 litres

Answer: D — 20 litres

FSS Code chapter 4 requires a portable foam applicator unit to consist of an air-foam nozzle or branch pipe of an inductor type connected to the fire main by a hose, with a portable tank containing at least 20 litres of foam concentrate and at least one spare tank.

8. Why should water jets not be directed onto a foam blanket that is covering a burning cargo spill on deck?

A. Water causes the foam to become electrically charged and explode
B. Water turns the foam into a toxic gas
C. Water increases the expansion ratio of the foam
D. Water breaks down the foam blanket and allows vapour to escape and re-ignite

Answer: D — Water breaks down the foam blanket and allows vapour to escape and re-ignite

A foam blanket works by sealing the liquid surface from air and suppressing vapour. Water jets or heavy spray break up the bubbles and wash the foam away, re-exposing the fuel; water may be used only for cooling surrounding structures.

9. Under the IGC Code, gas carriers of what cargo capacity must be fitted with at least two independent self-contained dry chemical powder units?

A. 500 m³ or more
B. 1,000 m³ or more
C. 5,000 m³ or more
D. All gas carriers regardless of size

Answer: B — 1,000 m³ or more

IGC Code chapter 11 requires ships carrying flammable products to have a fixed dry chemical powder system for the cargo area, and ships with a cargo capacity of 1,000 m³ or more to be fitted with at least two independent self-contained dry chemical powder units.

10. Under the IGC Code, what is the minimum discharge rate of a dry chemical powder monitor?

A. 10 kg/s
B. 1 kg/s
C. 3.5 kg/s
D. 45 kg/s

Answer: A — 10 kg/s

IGC Code chapter 11 requires dry chemical powder monitors to have a capacity of at least 10 kg/s; a 10 kg/s monitor is taken to cover up to 10 m, a 25 kg/s monitor up to 30 m and a 45 kg/s monitor up to 40 m.

11. Under the IGC Code, what is the maximum length of a dry chemical powder hand hose line?

A. 20 m
B. 15 m
C. 50 m
D. 33 m

Answer: D — 33 m

IGC Code chapter 11 limits hand hose lines to a maximum length of 33 m; they must be non-kinkable, and the area they protect is taken as no greater than the length of the hose.

12. Under the IGC Code, each dry chemical powder container must hold enough powder for a minimum discharge time of how long for all monitors and hand hose lines attached to that unit?

A. 20 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 seconds
D. 45 seconds

Answer: D — 45 seconds

The IGC Code requires a sufficient quantity of dry chemical powder in each container to give a minimum of 45 seconds discharge for all monitors and hand hose lines attached to that powder unit.

13. What gas is normally used to fluidise and propel the powder in a gas carrier's fixed dry chemical powder system?

A. Compressed oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrocarbon vapour
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: B — Nitrogen

Dry chemical powder units on gas carriers use nitrogen stored in high-pressure cylinders to pressurise and fluidise the powder in the container and to propel it through the piping to the monitors and hand hose lines.

14. Why should a gas jet fire at a leaking flange on a gas carrier not normally be extinguished with dry powder before the leak is isolated?

A. Dry powder will freeze the leaking flange solid
B. The powder will block the manifold drip tray
C. Dry powder reacts with the gas to form a toxic cloud
D. Unburnt escaping gas may form a vapour cloud that can re-ignite explosively

Answer: D — Unburnt escaping gas may form a vapour cloud that can re-ignite explosively

If the flame is put out while gas is still escaping, a flammable vapour cloud can build up and find an ignition source, causing an explosion. The burning leak is controlled and surroundings cooled with water spray until the supply is isolated.

15. What is the main limitation of dry chemical powder when used against a gas or flammable liquid fire on a gas carrier deck?

A. It increases the rate of vaporisation of the liquid
B. It conducts electricity
C. It has little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces is possible
D. It cannot be thrown more than one metre

Answer: C — It has little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces is possible

Dry powder extinguishes flame rapidly by interrupting the chain reaction but provides little cooling or lasting cover. Hot steelwork can re-ignite vapour, so water spray is used to cool surrounding structures and equipment.

16. Why are dry chemical powder hoses and piping blown through with nitrogen after the system has been used?

A. To recharge the powder container
B. To cool the hose reels after a fire
C. To test the hydrostatic strength of the hoses
D. To clear residual powder that could otherwise cake and block the lines

Answer: D — To clear residual powder that could otherwise cake and block the lines

Residual powder left in piping, valves and hoses can absorb moisture and cake, causing blockages the next time the system is needed. Purging with nitrogen after each discharge leaves the lines clear and the system ready for use.

17. Why is alcohol-resistant foam required for fires involving cargoes such as alcohols and ketones?

A. Alcohol-resistant foam has a higher expansion ratio
B. Ordinary foam ignites on contact with them
C. These cargoes react violently with dry powder
D. Water-miscible polar solvents rapidly break down ordinary foam

Answer: D — Water-miscible polar solvents rapidly break down ordinary foam

Polar solvents such as alcohols and ketones mix with water and destroy the bubble structure of ordinary foam. Alcohol-resistant foam forms a polymeric membrane between the fuel and the foam blanket and remains effective on these cargoes.

18. In column 'o' of IBC Code chapter 17, what does the code letter 'A' indicate for a product?

A. Dry chemical
B. Regular foam
C. Alcohol-resistant foam
D. Water spray

Answer: C — Alcohol-resistant foam

Column o of IBC Code chapter 17 lists suitable fire-fighting media: A is alcohol-resistant foam (or multi-purpose foam), B regular foam including all non-alcohol-resistant types, C water spray, D dry chemical, and No means no special requirement.

19. In column 'o' of IBC Code chapter 17, what does the code letter 'D' indicate for a product?

A. Deluge water spray
B. Dry chemical
C. Dangerous: no water
D. Double-hull protection

Answer: B — Dry chemical

In the IBC Code chapter 17 summary of minimum requirements, column o shows the fire-fighting media: A alcohol-resistant foam, B regular foam, C water spray and D dry chemical, which the master uses with the cargo data to plan a fire response.

20. On a chemical tanker, where should the crew find specific fire-fighting media and hazards for the cargo on board?

A. In the ship's oil record book
B. In the ship's radio log
C. In the Safety Data Sheet and cargo information supplied for the product
D. On the general fire control plan only

Answer: C — In the Safety Data Sheet and cargo information supplied for the product

The Safety Data Sheet and cargo information required by the IBC Code give each product's flammability, reactivity, toxicity, suitable extinguishing media and emergency procedures, which must be available on board and consulted before and during a cargo fire response.

21. Under IGC Code chapter 11, what is the minimum water spray application rate for horizontal projected surfaces such as exposed cargo tank domes on a gas carrier?

A. 4 l/m² per minute
B. 25 l/m² per minute
C. 1 l/m² per minute
D. 10 l/m² per minute

Answer: D — 10 l/m² per minute

The IGC Code water-spray system for cooling, fire prevention and crew protection must give a uniform application of at least 10 l/m² per minute for the largest projected horizontal surfaces and 4 l/m² per minute for vertical surfaces.

22. Under IGC Code chapter 11, what is the minimum water spray application rate for vertical surfaces such as the boundaries of the accommodation facing the cargo area?

A. 20 l/m² per minute
B. 0.5 l/m² per minute
C. 4 l/m² per minute
D. 10 l/m² per minute

Answer: C — 4 l/m² per minute

IGC Code chapter 11 requires the water-spray system to apply at least 4 l/m² per minute to vertical surfaces, including exposed boundaries of superstructures facing the cargo area, and at least 10 l/m² per minute to horizontal projected surfaces.

23. Why should water not be sprayed directly onto a pool of spilled LNG on deck?

A. It freezes into ice which ignites
B. It adds heat and greatly increases the rate of vaporisation
C. It neutralises the LNG and stops vapour release
D. It reacts chemically with methane to form acid

Answer: B — It adds heat and greatly increases the rate of vaporisation

Water is far warmer than LNG at about minus 162°C, so applying water to a pool transfers heat and sharply increases vaporisation, enlarging the flammable vapour cloud. Water is instead used to protect steel structures and to form curtains.

24. Why is a water curtain run along the ship's side below the manifold during LNG cargo transfer?

A. To cool the cargo before it enters the tanks
B. To provide drinking water for the deck crew
C. To protect the hull steel from brittle fracture if cryogenic cargo leaks
D. To wash away paint chips from the manifold

Answer: C — To protect the hull steel from brittle fracture if cryogenic cargo leaks

Ordinary hull steel becomes brittle at very low temperatures. A water curtain running down the shell beneath the manifold keeps the plating warm, so any LNG leaking from the manifold does not cause brittle fracture of the hull.

25. During cargo operations on an oil or chemical tanker, why are deck scuppers kept plugged?

A. To contain any spill on deck and prevent it going overboard or spreading as a burning liquid
B. To keep rainwater off the cargo tanks
C. To reduce static electricity on deck
D. To prevent air entering the cargo tanks

Answer: A — To contain any spill on deck and prevent it going overboard or spreading as a burning liquid

ISGOTT requires deck scuppers to be effectively plugged during cargo and bunker operations, so that any spill is retained on deck where it can be contained, recovered and protected with foam, instead of polluting the sea or spreading fire alongside.

26. When fighting a fire involving a spilled flammable liquid on deck, why should a straight water jet not be directed into the liquid?

A. It produces large quantities of foam
B. It can splash and spread the burning liquid over a wider area
C. It increases the cargo's flash point
D. It immediately extinguishes the fire but corrodes the deck

Answer: B — It can splash and spread the burning liquid over a wider area

A solid jet striking burning liquid scatters it and carries burning fuel further across the deck or into the sea alongside. The spill should be contained and covered with foam or dry powder, using water spray only for cooling and protection.

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FPFF exit exam questions and answers — Fire Prevention & Fire Fighting

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