AFF exit exam questions and answers
All 218 questions from the Advanced Fire Fighting (AFF) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 1 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. What is the primary purpose of boundary cooling during a fire on a ship?
- A. To minimize smoke production
- B. To accelerate the combustion process
- C. To increase the temperature inside the compartment
- D. To prevent fire spread by cooling adjacent surfaces
Answer: D — To prevent fire spread by cooling adjacent surfaces
Boundary cooling involves applying water to surfaces adjacent to a fire. Its primary purpose is to absorb heat, preventing transfer via conduction, convection, and radiation, thereby inhibiting the fire from spreading to new compartments or fuel sources. This maintains the structural integrity and confines the fire.
2. In advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of using a Class A foam?
- A. To neutralize acidic fumes
- B. To control oil and fuel fires
- C. To cool down hot surfaces
- D. To suppress flammable gas release
Answer: B — To control oil and fuel fires
Class B foam is specifically designed for flammable liquid fires (oil, fuel, grease), forming a blanket that separates the fuel from oxygen and cools the surface. This creates a vapor seal to prevent reignition. Class A foam is generally for ordinary combustibles like wood or paper.
3. During a firefighting operation, what does the term "smoke curtain" refer to?
- A. A cloud of water droplets to control temperature
- B. A curtain made of fire-resistant material to contain smoke
- C. A warning signal for evacuation
- D. A physical barrier to prevent the entry of firefighters
Answer: B — A curtain made of fire-resistant material to contain smoke
A smoke curtain, often part of a ship's passive fire protection system, is a flexible, fire-resistant barrier. Its purpose is to automatically deploy and contain smoke and hot gases, preventing their spread to other areas, thereby improving visibility and maintaining tenable conditions for escape.
4. Which firefighting equipment is specifically designed for use in confined spaces onboard a ship?
- A. Foam monitors
- B. Fire extinguishers
- C. Fire hoses
- D. Breathing apparatus
Answer: D — Breathing apparatus
Breathing apparatus (BA) is essential for firefighters entering confined or smoke-filled spaces where oxygen levels may be depleted or toxic gases are present. It provides an independent supply of breathable air, ensuring the safety and operational effectiveness of personnel in hazardous atmospheres.
5. What is the primary purpose of the International Shore Connection (ISC) on a ship?
- A. To connect with the shore power supply
- B. To supply freshwater to the crew
- C. To enhance communication with nearby vessels
- D. To facilitate shore-based firefighting assistance
Answer: D — To facilitate shore-based firefighting assistance
The International Shore Connection (ISC), mandated by SOLAS, is a standardized flange on ships. Its primary purpose is to connect the ship's fire main to a shore-based water supply or another vessel's fire main, enabling external firefighting assistance if the ship's pumps are insufficient or incapacitated.
6. In advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of using a water fog nozzle?
- A. To increase the range of water projection
- B. To create a visual signal for distress
- C. To create a dense fog for cooling purposes
- D. To generate a fine mist for fire suppression
Answer: D — To generate a fine mist for fire suppression
A water fog nozzle disperses water into fine droplets, creating a large surface area for rapid heat absorption and conversion into steam. This rapidly cools the fire, displaces oxygen, and can protect firefighters from radiant heat, making it effective for general fire suppression and boundary cooling.
7. What is the role of a fire blanket in firefighting?
- A. To smother small fires by cutting off the oxygen supply
- B. To cool down hot surfaces in a fire-affected area
- C. To create a barrier against radiant heat
- D. To provide an escape route for trapped personnel
Answer: A — To smother small fires by cutting off the oxygen supply
A fire blanket is used to smother small fires, particularly those involving cooking oil or clothing, by cutting off the oxygen supply. Made of fire-resistant material, it forms an airtight seal over the flames, interrupting the combustion process effectively and safely.
8. In the context of firefighting, what does the acronym PASS stand for?
- A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
- B. Pressure Application Safety System
- C. Portable Aqueous Suppression System
- D. Primary Air Supply Source
Answer: A — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS is a mnemonic acronym for the correct sequence of operations when using a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side. This ensures effective and safe extinguisher deployment.
9. What is the purpose of a fire screen in advanced firefighting?
- A. To detect flammable gases
- B. To separate different compartments for ventilation
- C. To extinguish fires through a fine mist
- D. To protect firefighters from radiant heat
Answer: D — To protect firefighters from radiant heat
A fire screen, or thermal barrier, is utilized to shield firefighters from intense radiant heat emanating from a fire. It allows personnel to approach closer to the fire source for more effective direct attack, while significantly reducing the risk of heat-related injuries and fatigue.
10. When using a fire hose, what is the recommended nozzle pattern for initial cooling of a fire in a confined space?
- A. Straight stream
- B. Cone spray
- C. Fog pattern
- D. Solid stream
Answer: C — Fog pattern
For initial cooling in a confined space, a fog pattern nozzle is recommended. The fine water droplets rapidly absorb heat and turn into steam, displacing oxygen and pushing back heat and smoke, thereby improving conditions for firefighters and preventing flashover.
11. In advanced firefighting, what is the primary function of a fire axe?
- A. Ventilating smoke from the compartment
- B. Applying foam to the fire
- C. Cutting through bulkheads and doors
- D. Spraying water in a concentrated stream
Answer: C — Cutting through bulkheads and doors
A fire axe is a crucial tool for firefighters, primarily used for forcible entry, breaking through lightweight bulkheads, doors, or clearing obstructions to gain access to a fire. Its design enables effective penetration and leverage in emergency situations.
12. What does the term "fire tetrahedron" refer to in the context of firefighting?
- A. A four-sided firefighting tool
- B. The four elements required for combustion
- C. A specialized firefighting drill
- D. A geometric shape used in fire suppression
Answer: B — The four elements required for combustion
The fire tetrahedron illustrates the four components necessary for fire: heat, fuel, oxygen, and a chemical chain reaction. Removing any one of these elements will extinguish the fire, which forms the fundamental principle behind all firefighting strategies and agent selection.
13. In the event of an electrical fire onboard, which firefighting equipment is specifically designed for use?
- A. Foam extinguisher
- B. Dry powder extinguisher
- C. Water mist extinguisher
- D. CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguisher
Answer: D — CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguisher
CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires (Class C). Carbon dioxide is a non-conductive gas that smothers the fire by displacing oxygen without leaving a residue, making it ideal for protecting sensitive electrical equipment.
14. What is the purpose of a fireman's outfit (protective clothing) in advanced firefighting?
- A. To store firefighting tools
- B. To enhance physical agility
- C. To provide protection from heat and flame
- D. To identify firefighting personnel
Answer: C — To provide protection from heat and flame
A fireman's outfit, mandated by SOLAS, provides essential personal protective equipment (PPE) for firefighters. It is constructed from heat-resistant materials to shield the wearer from high temperatures, flames, radiant heat, and minor mechanical hazards, ensuring safety during firefighting operations.
15. In the context of fire safety, what does the acronym "RECAAR" stand for?
- A. Rescue, Evacuation, Containment, Assessment, and Recovery
- B. Rescue, Evacuation, and Containment of Aerial Risks
- C. Response, Escape, and Control Against Adverse Reactions
- D. Rapid Escape and Control Against Radiant heat
Answer: A — Rescue, Evacuation, Containment, Assessment, and Recovery
RECAAR is a structured approach to emergency response and incident management, particularly in maritime contexts. It stands for Rescue, Evacuation, Containment (of the incident), Assessment (of damage/situation), and Recovery (returning to normalcy), guiding comprehensive emergency procedures.
16. What is the purpose of a flame arrester in firefighting?
- A. To arrest the progression of flames in a compartment
- B. To control the spread of flammable liquids
- C. To provide visual cues during firefighting operations
- D. To enhance communication among firefighters
Answer: B — To control the spread of flammable liquids
A flame arrester is a device fitted to tank vents or pipes carrying flammable vapors. Its primary purpose is to prevent the propagation of a flame through a flammable gas mixture by rapidly cooling the flame below its ignition temperature, thus stopping flashback or explosion.
17. During a shipboard fire emergency, what is the primary purpose of the muster list?
- A. To account for all personnel and passengers
- B. To allocate firefighting responsibilities
- C. To identify the location of fire hydrants
- D. To provide instructions for firefighting techniques
Answer: A — To account for all personnel and passengers
The muster list, as per SOLAS, is a crucial document detailing duties for crew members in various emergencies, including fire. Its primary purpose during an emergency muster is to ensure all personnel and passengers are accounted for and to verify their safety and assigned roles.
18. What is the recommended method for handling an injured person during a shipboard firefighting operation?
- A. Immediate evacuation to the shore
- B. Moving the person to a designated safe area
- C. Placing the person in a confined space
- D. Administering first aid at the fire location
Answer: B — Moving the person to a designated safe area
During a shipboard fire, the immediate priority for an injured person is to move them quickly and safely to a designated safe area, away from direct fire hazards or smoke. Administering first aid should follow once the individual is in a secure environment.
19. Which firefighting agent is commonly used to suppress fires involving flammable metals?
- A. Foam
- B. Dry powder
- C. Water
- D. CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)
Answer: B — Dry powder
Dry powder extinguishers (Class D) are specifically designed for fires involving combustible metals like magnesium, titanium, or sodium. These specialized powders smother the fire and form a crust that excludes oxygen, effectively suppressing these unique and intense fires.
20. What is the purpose of a fire control plan on a ship?
- A. To provide guidance for controlling and suppressing fires
- B. To outline emergency escape routes for passengers
- C. To specify the locations of fire alarm pull stations
- D. To identify the ship's navigation routes
Answer: A — To provide guidance for controlling and suppressing fires
The fire control plan, prominently displayed on ships as per SOLAS, provides critical information on the ship's fire protection arrangements. It guides effective fire control and suppression by indicating locations of fire-extinguishing appliances, fire-resistant divisions, and means of escape.
21. What is the purpose of a deluge system in shipboard firefighting?
- A. To deliver a high-pressure water mist
- B. To control electrical fires with a dry powder
- C. To generate foam for flammable liquid fires
- D. To flood a compartment with water rapidly
Answer: D — To flood a compartment with water rapidly
A deluge system is a fixed fire suppression system designed to rapidly discharge a large volume of water over a protected area or into a compartment. It's used in high-hazard areas to quickly cool and smother large fires or create an effective water barrier.
22. During a shipboard firefighting operation, what is the primary function of a portable gas detector?
- A. To monitor radio communication
- B. To identify flammable gases
- C. To measure ambient temperature
- D. To locate fire hydrants
Answer: B — To identify flammable gases
A portable gas detector is a vital piece of equipment used to monitor the atmosphere for the presence of flammable, toxic, or oxygen-deficient gases. It ensures the safety of personnel entering confined spaces or areas potentially affected by gas leaks during a fire emergency.
23. In the context of advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of a water curtain?
- A. To supply water to firefighting hoses
- B. To create a visual signal for distress
- C. To generate foam for liquid fires
- D. To create a barrier against radiant heat
Answer: D — To create a barrier against radiant heat
A water curtain, formed by a series of nozzles spraying water, creates a dense sheet of water. This acts as a thermal barrier, absorbing radiant heat and protecting adjacent areas or personnel from intense heat radiation, thereby preventing fire spread or providing a safe egress path.
24. Which firefighting equipment is commonly used to cut ventilation openings in ship compartments?
- A. Water fog nozzle
- B. Hydraulic rescue tool
- C. Fire axe
- D. Thermal imaging camera
Answer: B — Hydraulic rescue tool
Hydraulic rescue tools, such as spreaders and cutters, are powerful implements used for heavy-duty cutting and forcing open structural components. They are highly effective for cutting ventilation openings in robust ship compartments or structures where conventional tools are insufficient.
25. During a shipboard firefighting operation, what is the primary purpose of a positive pressure breathing apparatus (PPBA)?
- A. To maintain positive pressure inside the mask
- B. To prevent smoke from entering the mask
- C. To supply fresh air to the compartment
- D. To enhance communication among firefighters
Answer: A — To maintain positive pressure inside the mask
A positive pressure breathing apparatus (PPBA) maintains a slightly higher pressure inside the mask than the ambient pressure. This crucial feature prevents toxic smoke or gases from leaking into the mask, even with minor seal imperfections, ensuring the wearer breathes only clean, supplied air.
26. What is the primary function of the emergency generator automatic starting relay during a main power failure?
- A. Stop the emergency fire pump motor
- B. Open the main engine fuel oil quick closing valve
- C. Discharge fixed CO2 into cargo holds
- D. Automatically start the emergency diesel generator and connect it to the emergency switchboard within 45 seconds
Answer: D — Automatically start the emergency diesel generator and connect it to the emergency switchboard within 45 seconds
SOLAS requires the emergency generator to start automatically and restore essential emergency power within 45 seconds of main power loss.
27. Under STCW Code Table A-VI/2, what is the mandatory requirement regarding deck and engine room operational protocols during Advanced Fire Fighting operations?
- A. Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
- B. Optional adherence based on vessel size
- C. Applicable only during drydock operations
- D. Verbal recommendation without documentation
Answer: A — Strict compliance with approved safety procedures and flag state regulations
STCW Code Table A-VI/2 mandates strict compliance with approved safety protocols for Advanced Fire Fighting.
28. What is the mandatory maintenance requirement under SOLAS Chapter II-2 for international shore connections on cargo ships?
- A. Kept readily accessible on deck with a gasket, bolts, and nuts ready for immediate use
- B. Stowed in the chief mate's office
- C. Kept in the paint locker
- D. Stored inside the engine room workshop
Answer: A — Kept readily accessible on deck with a gasket, bolts, and nuts ready for immediate use
SOLAS requires the international shore connection to be kept readily accessible on deck along with its flange, gasket, 4 bolts, and 4 nuts.
29. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for deck and engine room operational protocols under Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
- B. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
- C. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
- D. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
Answer: A — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.
30. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in deck and engine room operational protocols during Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. Crew List document
- B. Bill of Lading description
- C. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
- D. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
Answer: C — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.
Set 2 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. Regarding deck and engine room operational protocols in Advanced Fire Fighting, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-VI/2?
- A. Non-mandatory recommendation
- B. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
- C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
- D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols
STCW Code Section A-VI/2 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Advanced Fire Fighting.
2. What is the primary function of the emergency fire pump isolation valve located on the main deck?
- A. Divert water to the bilge system
- B. Prevent backflow to the sea chest
- C. Increase water pressure to the bridge
- D. Isolate the engine room fire main from the deck fire main
Answer: D — Isolate the engine room fire main from the deck fire main
The isolation valve ensures the deck fire main remains pressurized if the engine room line is breached.
3. Under SOLAS regulations, what is the minimum water capacity for the emergency fire pump on cargo vessels?
- A. At least 25 m³/h or 40% of required main pump capacity
- B. 10 m³/h fixed rate
- C. 50 m³/h continuous flow
- D. 100 m³/h at maximum RPM
Answer: A — At least 25 m³/h or 40% of required main pump capacity
SOLAS Chapter II-2 mandates emergency fire pumps supply at least 40% of total main fire pump capacity.
4. What type of fixed fire extinguishing system is required for paint lockers having a deck area greater than 4 m²?
- A. Inert gas generator
- B. High-expansion foam only
- C. Dry powder system only
- D. Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling fire extinguishing system
Answer: D — Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling fire extinguishing system
Paint lockers must be protected by an approved fixed fire extinguishing system suitable for flammable liquids.
5. What pre-release protocol must be completed before discharging CO2 into an engine room space?
- A. Ensure all personnel are evacuated, ventilation fans stopped, and dampers closed tight
- B. Open skylights to vent pressure
- C. Start emergency generator
- D. Keep exhaust ventilation running at half speed
Answer: A — Ensure all personnel are evacuated, ventilation fans stopped, and dampers closed tight
Stopping ventilation prevents loss of CO2 concentration and starves the fire of oxygen.
6. What is the principal extinguishing mechanism of High-Expansion Foam when applied to machinery space bilges?
- A. Absorbing oil spills
- B. Cooling hot steel bulkheads
- C. Rapid volume filling and total smothering of flammable surface vapors
- D. Diluting fuel vapors
Answer: C — Rapid volume filling and total smothering of flammable surface vapors
High-expansion foam expands up to 1000:1 ratio, smothering fires in large volumetric spaces.
7. What is the maximum allowable pressure drop before an SCBA compressed air cylinder must be recharged?
- A. 25% below working pressure
- B. 5 bar drop
- C. 50% below working pressure
- D. 10% below nominal working pressure
Answer: D — 10% below nominal working pressure
SCBA cylinders must be maintained at full capacity; a drop over 10% requires immediate recharging.
8. What is the function of the International Shore Connection fitted on shipboard fire mains?
- A. Discharge oily bilge water to shore
- B. Enable shore fire lines to connect to the vessel's fire main regardless of port hose fittings
- C. Bunker fresh water from shore
- D. Supply shore electrical power
Answer: B — Enable shore fire lines to connect to the vessel's fire main regardless of port hose fittings
The International Shore Connection provides a standard flange coupling compatible worldwide.
9. What is the primary objective of boundary cooling during a shipboard compartment fire?
- A. Prevent heat transfer through bulkheads and decks to stop fire spread to adjacent spaces
- B. Extinguish the primary fire flame
- C. Cool the firefighting team's turnout suits
- D. Reduce water pressure in the fire main
Answer: A — Prevent heat transfer through bulkheads and decks to stop fire spread to adjacent spaces
Boundary cooling prevents thermal conduction from igniting combustible materials in neighboring rooms.
10. Under SOLAS Chapter II-2, how many firefighter outfits must be carried on cargo ships of 500 GT and above?
- A. At least 6 outfits
- B. At least 2 firefighter outfits
- C. At least 4 outfits
- D. At least 1 outfit
Answer: B — At least 2 firefighter outfits
SOLAS requires a minimum of 2 firefighter outfits on cargo vessels of 500 GT and above.
11. What safety precaution is mandatory when entering a compartment after a fixed CO2 system has been discharged?
- A. Wait 5 minutes without testing
- B. Verify complete gas-freeing and atmospheric testing (O2 at 20.9%) using approved sensors
- C. Enter immediately after opening door
- D. Wear a cotton dust mask only
Answer: B — Verify complete gas-freeing and atmospheric testing (O2 at 20.9%) using approved sensors
CO2 is asphyxiating; spaces must be thoroughly ventilated and tested before entry without breathing apparatus.
12. What is the purpose of the relief valve fitted on a fire main isolation system?
- A. Drain water during freezing weather
- B. Supply water to deck scuppers
- C. Allow air to vent from the system
- D. Protect fire piping from over-pressurization during emergency pump operation
Answer: D — Protect fire piping from over-pressurization during emergency pump operation
Relief valves protect piping from pressure surges when nozzles are shut down.
13. Which SOLAS requirement applies to quick-closing valves on fuel oil tanks in case of engine room fire?
- A. They must be tested every 5 years
- B. They can only be operated manually inside the engine room
- C. They must be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the engine room
- D. They must close automatically at 50 degrees C
Answer: C — They must be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the engine room
Quick-closing valves allow rapid isolation of fuel supplies from a remote position during a fire.
14. What is the minimum operating duration required for an approved SCBA cylinder used in firefighting?
- A. At least 30 minutes
- B. 60 minutes
- C. 15 minutes
- D. 45 minutes
Answer: A — At least 30 minutes
Standard firefighter SCBA sets must provide a minimum of 30 minutes operating time.
15. What type of foam compound is most effective for extinguishing polar solvent alcohol fires on chemical tankers?
- A. Alcohol-Resistant Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AR-AFFF)
- B. High-Expansion Synthetic Foam
- C. Fluoroprotein Foam
- D. Standard Protein Foam
Answer: A — Alcohol-Resistant Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AR-AFFF)
AR-AFFF forms a protective membrane over polar solvents, preventing foam degradation.
16. Why must fire hoses be pressure tested annually onboard ships?
- A. To verify structural integrity and prevent hose burst under emergency working pressure
- B. To clean internal salt deposits
- C. To satisfy customs inspections
- D. To measure water flow rate
Answer: A — To verify structural integrity and prevent hose burst under emergency working pressure
Annual hydro-testing ensures fire hoses will not fail when pressurized during emergencies.
17. What is the main advantage of a water mist fire extinguishing system compared to traditional sprinkler systems?
- A. Requires no pumps or piping
- B. Fills the space with chemical powder
- C. Requires higher electrical voltage
- D. Uses significantly less water while providing high heat absorption and rapid oxygen displacement
Answer: D — Uses significantly less water while providing high heat absorption and rapid oxygen displacement
Water mist droplets evaporate instantly, absorbing heat and displacing oxygen with lower water damage.
18. Under STCW, what is the role of the On-Scene Commander during a major shipboard fire incident?
- A. Operate the main engine throttle
- B. Maintain passenger headcount in mess room
- C. Direct tactical firefighting operations at the fire scene and communicate with the Command Team
- D. Stay on the bridge to navigate the ship
Answer: C — Direct tactical firefighting operations at the fire scene and communicate with the Command Team
The On-Scene Commander leads tactical entry teams and reports status to the Master.
19. What safety feature prevents accidental discharge of fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?
- A. Automatic trigger at 30°C
- B. Double-valve protection with pilot control and alarm trip switches in locked release cabinets
- C. Threaded cap on main discharge pipe
- D. Single push button on the bridge
Answer: B — Double-valve protection with pilot control and alarm trip switches in locked release cabinets
Locked cabinets with micro-switches initiate pre-discharge alarms before main valves can open.
20. What device must be worn by firefighters in low oxygen or toxic smoke environments?
- A. Dust filter mask
- B. Canister gas mask
- C. Wet handkerchief
- D. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
Answer: D — Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)
SCBA supplies positive-pressure breathable air independent of the ambient atmosphere.
21. How often must emergency fire pumps be tested operational according to SOLAS safety management system routines?
- A. Monthly
- B. Annually
- C. Quarterly
- D. Weekly
Answer: D — Weekly
Emergency fire pumps must be tested weekly to ensure immediate readiness.
22. What is the correct procedure for searching a smoke-filled compartment during search and rescue?
- A. Crawl along ceiling piping
- B. Run to the far corner immediately
- C. Maintain continuous physical or wall contact and sweep floor area systematically
- D. Walk upright quickly with flashlight
Answer: C — Maintain continuous physical or wall contact and sweep floor area systematically
Staying low reduces heat/smoke exposure and wall contact prevents disorientation.
23. What is the primary function of drenching systems fitted on roll-on/roll-off (Ro-Ro) vehicle decks?
- A. Provide rapid total-area water coverage to extinguish vehicle fires quickly
- B. Cool exhaust manifolds
- C. Wash down vehicle tires
- D. Provide fresh drinking water
Answer: A — Provide rapid total-area water coverage to extinguish vehicle fires quickly
Ro-Ro vehicle deck drenchers deliver heavy water spray across open vehicle bays.
24. Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment such as switchboards or electric motors?
- A. Class B
- B. Class A
- C. Class C (or Electrical Fire)
- D. Class D
Answer: C — Class C (or Electrical Fire)
Electrical fires require non-conductive extinguishing agents like CO2 or dry chemical.
25. Why must firefighter turnout gear be thoroughly cleaned after exposure to heavy smoke?
- A. To increase thermal weight
- B. To remove carcinogenic combustion products and flammable chemical residues
- C. To restore shiny color
- D. To shrink the material tight
Answer: B — To remove carcinogenic combustion products and flammable chemical residues
Soot accumulation reduces thermal protection and exposes crew to toxic chemicals.
26. What is the purpose of a flame arrestor fitted on a fuel tank vent pipe?
- A. Regulate fuel pumping speed
- B. Prevent external flames from traveling into the fuel vapor space
- C. Stop fuel overflow
- D. Filter air dust
Answer: B — Prevent external flames from traveling into the fuel vapor space
Flame arrestors quench flame fronts via fine wire mesh heat dissipation.
27. What is the minimum number of spare SCBA air charges required onboard cargo ships?
- A. None required if compressor available
- B. 5 spare charges per set
- C. At least 2 spare charges per required SCBA set
- D. 1 spare charge total
Answer: C — At least 2 spare charges per required SCBA set
SOLAS requires two spare charges for each required breathing apparatus.
28. A safety is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent:
- A. Rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
- B. Over pressurization of the space being flooded
- C. Flooding of a space where personnel are present
- D. Over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
Answer: D — Over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping
A safety relief device, often a bursting disc, is installed on CO2 discharge piping to prevent over-pressurization. In the event of an abnormal pressure build-up, it ruptures to release the CO2, protecting the piping system from damage or catastrophic failure, compliant with the FSS Code.
29. Apart from red what other color is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher:
- A. Yellow
- B. Blue
- C. Black
- D. Red
Answer: C — Black
While the main body of fire extinguishers is typically red, different types are identified by a color band or the entire body color. For CO2 extinguishers, the body is often black or has a black band, clearly distinguishing them from other types for rapid identification.
30. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the first action you should attempt is to:
- A. Station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
- B. Begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
- C. Top off the tank to force out all vapors
- D. Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
Answer: D — Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank
For a fire in a fuel tank, the first critical step is to eliminate the oxygen supply by securing all openings, vents, and fresh air sources. This starves the fire, helping to contain it before applying extinguishing agents and mitigating the risk of rapid spread.
Set 3 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to:
- A. Direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
- B. Spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling
- C. Discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable extinguisher
- D. Secure all openings to the tank
Answer: D — Secure all openings to the tank
Securing all openings to a cargo or fuel oil tank immediately cuts off the oxygen supply, a critical element for combustion. This primary action helps to contain the fire, reduces its intensity, and prepares the space for the safe and effective application of fixed extinguishing systems.
2. Three side of fire triangle are fuel, heat and ............?
- A. Oxygen
- B. Petrol
- C. Gases
- D. Combustible material
Answer: A — Oxygen
The fire triangle comprises three essential elements for combustion: fuel (combustible material), heat (ignition source), and oxygen (oxidizer). Removing or disrupting any one of these elements will effectively extinguish the fire, a fundamental concept in firefighting theory and practice.
3. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least:
- A. 4
- B. 3
- C. 2
- D. 6
Answer: C — 2
According to SOLAS regulations and the FSS Code, in a fixed CO2 system where pilot cylinders release CO2 from the main bank, there must be at least two pilot cylinders. This redundancy ensures system reliability, so a single pilot cylinder failure does not render the entire system inoperable.
4. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or:
- A. the engine room
- B. spaces open to the atmosphere
- C. cargo holds
- D. the paint locker
Answer: B — spaces open to the atmosphere
Fixed CO2 systems work by displacing oxygen to smother a fire. They are ineffective and potentially dangerous in spaces open to the atmosphere, such as open decks or other unenclosed areas, as the CO2 would rapidly dissipate, failing to achieve the necessary concentration to extinguish the fire.
5. Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?
- A. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.
- B. Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
- C. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
- D. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
Answer: D — Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.
For an electrical fire in the engine room, personnel must first evacuate due to the danger of toxic smoke and CO2 deployment. Subsequently, the fixed CO2 system should be released, as CO2 is non-conductive and effectively smothers electrical fires without causing further damage to equipment.
6. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least:
- A. 3
- B. 1
- C. 4
- D. 2
Answer: D — 2
As per SOLAS and FSS Code requirements for fixed CO2 systems, if pilot cylinders are used to release the CO2 from the main storage cylinders, a minimum of two pilot cylinders are mandatory. This ensures critical operational redundancy and system reliability, preventing a single point of failure.
7. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space:
- A. doused with water to prevent reflash
- B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
- C. opened and burned material removed
- D. checked for oxygen content
Answer: B — left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
After a CO2 discharge, the space should remain closed with ventilation secured until all boundaries have cooled down. Opening the space too soon can introduce oxygen, potentially causing re-ignition or flashover due to residual heat, a critical post-fire procedure to prevent secondary incidents.
8. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2:
- A. from inside the engine room
- B. from the bridge
- C. at the cylinder location
- D. from the cargo control station
Answer: C — at the cylinder location
SOLAS regulations require that fixed CO2 systems with remote release mechanisms also have a provision for local release at the cylinder location. This ensures the system can still be activated manually in case of a remote control malfunction, providing a critical backup and enhancing system reliability.
9. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?
- A. The door must be kept unlocked.
- B. The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.
- C. The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F.
- D. The compartment must be properly ventilated.
Answer: A — The door must be kept unlocked.
The statement that the door must be kept unlocked is FALSE. The CO2 cylinder room must be kept locked to prevent unauthorized access, but with clear instructions and readily available keys for authorized personnel. SOLAS and FSS Code mandate proper ventilation, clear marking, and temperature control.
10. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the:
- A. compartment is closed and ventilators are opened
- B. air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers
- C. compartment is closed and airtight
- D. compartment is left open to the air
Answer: C — compartment is closed and airtight
To extinguish a fire with CO2, the compartment must be sealed to contain the gas, thereby reducing the oxygen concentration to a level below that required for combustion. Increasing air flow or leaving the compartment open would disperse the CO2, rendering it ineffective.
11. CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must:
- A. have an audible alarm
- B. All of the above
- C. be automatically operated by a heat actuator
- D. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
Answer: D — NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2
SOLAS regulations require CO2 cylinders for cargo spaces to not exceed 200 pounds of CO2 for safety and regulatory compliance. While alarms are important, this specific weight limit is a key requirement for these cylinders in such applications.
12. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT:
- A. to run the emergency wiring to the space
- B. in connection with the fire-detecting system
- C. in connection with the water sprinkler system
- D. to ventilate the space
Answer: B — in connection with the fire-detecting system
Piping for fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems is dedicated solely to its fire suppression function to ensure reliability and prevent contamination or obstruction. While fire detection systems share an area, CO2 piping cannot be used for ventilation or other unrelated purposes.
13. Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when:
- A. it is impractical to locate them outside
- B. an automatic heat-sensing trip is installed
- C. the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
- D. there is also a control valve outside
Answer: D — there is also a control valve outside
Control valves for CO2 systems in protected spaces are typically located outside. However, if impractical, they may be located inside provided a secondary control valve is also present externally for safe manual operation during an emergency.
14. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should:
- A. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
- B. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
- C. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
- D. make sure all doors and vents are secured
Answer: C — retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
If a CO2 system activates accidentally while you are in the space, the immediate priority is personal safety. Retreating to fresh air and ensuring the compartment is ventilated before re-entry is crucial as CO2 displaces oxygen, posing an asphyxiation risk.
15. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the:
- A. ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space
- B. persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils
- C. ventilation system is kept operating
- D. persons in the space wear gas masks
Answer: A — ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space
For effective CO2 fire suppression in enclosed spaces like pumprooms, the ventilation system must be secured to maintain the required concentration of CO2. This also necessitates ensuring all personnel have evacuated the space prior to discharge.
16. Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the:
- A. living quarters
- B. galley
- C. machinery spaces
- D. cargo compartments
Answer: C — machinery spaces
Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is mandatory for CO2 systems protecting machinery spaces to ensure the inerting effect of the CO2 is maintained. This prevents dilution and maximizes the effectiveness of the extinguishing agent.
17. Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?
- A. It causes minimal damage.
- B. It is most effective on a per unit basis.
- C. It is safer for personnel.
- D. It is cheaper.
Answer: A — It causes minimal damage.
Carbon dioxide offers the advantage of being a clean agent, meaning it leaves no residue after discharge. This is particularly beneficial for protecting sensitive equipment where water or foam might cause collateral damage.
18. CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every:
- A. 2 years
- B. 12 years
- C. year
- D. 6 years
Answer: B — 12 years
SOLAS regulations mandate that CO2 cylinders used in fixed fire extinguishing systems must undergo hydrostatic testing every 12 years to ensure their structural integrity and safety for continued use.
19. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and:
- A. separate control to release the CO2
- B. three separate controls to release the CO2
- C. two separate controls to release the CO2
- D. the same control releasing the CO2
Answer: C — two separate controls to release the CO2
For normally manned machinery spaces protected by a CO2 system with a stop valve, a two-control operation is required. One control initiates the process (e.g., opening the stop valve), and a second control actually releases the CO2.
20. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by:
- A. three controls
- B. one control
- C. none of the above
- D. two controls
Answer: B — one control
If a CO2 system for a machinery space is designed without a stop valve in the line to the protected space, the release of CO2 is achieved through a single control mechanism. This simplifies the activation process in such configurations.
21. On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any 'tight' space shall be completed within:
- A. 6 minutes
- B. 4 minutes
- C. 2 minutes
- D. 1 minute
Answer: C — 2 minutes
SOLAS requires that the discharge of the designed quantity of carbon dioxide into a 'tight' space on cargo vessels be completed within 2 minutes. This rapid discharge is essential for quickly suppressing the fire before it escalates.
22. Aboard a cargo vessel, the supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space:
- A. all cargo spaces
- B. the space requiring the largest amount
- C. the engine room and largest cargo space
- D. all the spaces of a vessel
Answer: B — the space requiring the largest amount
The supply of CO2 for a fixed extinguishing system on a cargo vessel must be sufficient to protect the single space that requires the largest quantity of gas. This ensures adequate protection for the most demanding scenario.
23. How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge:
- A. quarterly
- B. biannually
- C. annually
- D. semiannually
Answer: C — annually
CO2 cylinders in fixed fire extinguishing systems are required to be inspected annually. This inspection includes weighing the cylinders to confirm they are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge.
24. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds:
- A. 10% of weight of full bottle
- B. 10% of weight of charge
- C. 15% of weight of full bottle
- D. 20% of weight of charge
Answer: B — 10% of weight of charge
CO2 cylinders for fixed fire extinguishing systems must be recharged if their weight loss exceeds 10% of the original weight of the charge. This ensures the system contains the correct amount of agent for effective fire suppression.
25. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must:
- A. secure the machinery in the engine room
- B. All of the above
- C. secure the engine room ventilation
- D. evacuate all engine room personnel
Answer: B — All of the above
Before activating a fixed CO2 system in an engine room, essential safety precautions include securing the ventilation to contain the CO2, stopping the machinery to prevent further hazards, and evacuating all personnel to prevent asphyxiation.
26. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are:
- A. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
- B. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm
- C. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
- D. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle
Answer: A — break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
The typical sequence for actuating a fixed CO2 flooding system involves a series of steps to ensure safety and proper function: breaking the glass to access controls, pulling a handle or lever to release the CO2, and confirming cylinder control activation.
27. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?
- A. More protective against re-flash
- B. Compatible with all foam agents
- C. Cleaner
- D. All of the above
Answer: A — More protective against re-flash
Dry chemical agents offer a greater advantage over CO2 in preventing re-flash because they form a crust on the burning material, effectively isolating it from oxygen. CO2 primarily works by diluting oxygen and cooling.
28. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?
- A. Will not deteriorate in storage
- B. Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
- C. Effective on electrical equipment
- D. Non-corrosive
Answer: B — Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
Carbon dioxide is not effective if ventilation is not shut down, as its extinguishing action relies on displacing oxygen and cooling. The other listed characteristics—stability, non-corrosiveness, and effectiveness on electrical fires—are indeed advantages of CO2.
29. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating:
- A. two controls
- B. one control
- C. none of the above
- D. three controls
Answer: A — two controls
When a fixed CO2 system for a machinery space includes a stop valve in the line to the protected space, its activation requires two controls. One control operates the stop valve, and the second control releases the CO2 from the cylinders.
30. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to:
- A. Increase ventilation
- B. De-energize the circuit
- C. Use chemical foam
- D. Apply water fog immediately
Answer: B — De-energize the circuit
De-energizing the circuit is the most critical step when fighting an electrical (Class C) fire. This removes the power source, preventing electric shock hazards and the risk of reignition.
Set 4 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?
- A. Flame detection system
- B. Automatic fire detection system
- C. Manual pull stations
- D. Smoke obstruction system
Answer: B — Automatic fire detection system
An automatic fire detection system can be actuated by sensing a heat rise, which triggers an alarm or the activation of a fire suppression system. Other systems listed detect flame, require manual activation, or sense smoke particles.
2. Water fog is an effective firefighting agent because it:
- A. Has a great cooling ability
- B. Breaks the molecular chain reaction chemically
- C. Smothers the fire using dense foam
- D. Displaces oxygen completely
Answer: A — Has a great cooling ability
Water fog is effective because its fine spray creates a large surface area, maximizing heat absorption and thus providing significant cooling. This cooling effect is crucial in suppressing fires of Class A and B types.
3. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by:
- A. Cooling the surrounding storage cylinders
- B. Applying large amounts of dry chemical powder
- C. Flooding with low-velocity fog
- D. Stopping the flow of gas
Answer: D — Stopping the flow of gas
The best way to extinguish a fire involving escaping liquefied flammable gas is to stop the flow of the gas itself. Applying extinguishing agents can be dangerous and may not effectively stop the fuel source.
4. When combating a Class C fire, which of the following dangers may be present?
- A. Exploding fuel-air vapor mixtures
- B. Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
- C. High expansion foam flashover
- D. Spontaneous combustion of scrap metal
Answer: B — Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
Class C fires, involving energized electrical equipment, pose the risk of toxic fumes from burning insulation materials and the immediate danger of electric shock to personnel.
5. The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the:
- A. Flash Point
- B. Critical Point
- C. Ignition Point
- D. Fire Point
Answer: D — Fire Point
The Fire Point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off vapors that can sustain combustion after ignition. This is distinct from the Flash Point, which is the temperature at which vapors ignite momentarily.
6. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel-electric drive vessel is usually a:
- A. Dry powder station
- B. Fixed CO2 system
- C. Water sprinkler system
- D. Fixed foam system
Answer: B — Fixed CO2 system
Diesel-electric drive vessels commonly use fixed CO2 systems to protect propulsion motors and generators. CO2 is suitable for electrical equipment as it is non-conductive and leaves no residue.
7. Metal fires should be fought using which extinguisher type?
- A. Halon gas
- B. Carbon dioxide
- C. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
- D. Dry powder
Answer: D — Dry powder
Metal fires (Class D) require specialized extinguishing agents like dry powder. Agents such as CO2, AFFF, or Halon can react violently with burning metals, intensifying the fire or causing explosions.
8. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?
- A. Carbon dioxide
- B. Dry powder
- C. Dry chemical
- D. Water spray
Answer: B — Dry powder
Class D fires, involving combustible metals, require specific dry powder extinguishers designed to smother and cool the metal. CO2 and dry chemical are generally unsuitable and can be hazardous for metal fires.
9. Class 1 watertight doors are:
- A. Rolling type
- B. Hinged type
- C. Vertical sliding type
- D. Horizontal sliding type
Answer: B — Hinged type
Class 1 watertight doors are hinged types, typically found in passenger ships, designed to be quickly closed. Class 2 doors are usually sliding types and are often operated remotely.
10. A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a:
- A. Class A fire
- B. Class C fire
- C. Class B fire
- D. Class D fire
Answer: C — Class B fire
A fire in a fuel oil settling tank involves flammable liquids, classifying it as a Class B fire. Class A involves ordinary combustibles, Class C electrical, and Class D metals.
11. The symbols for Fire Control plans are approved by which organization?
- A. International Labor Organization (ILO)
- B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
- C. International Standards Organization (ISO)
- D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B — International Maritime Organization (IMO)
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is responsible for approving the symbols used on Fire Control plans, ensuring standardized representation of fire safety equipment and arrangements across vessels.
12. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 6.8 kg CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?
- A. Suffocation inside the main casing
- B. Rupture of downstream valves
- C. Rekindling of the fire
- D. Freezing of mechanical controls
Answer: C — Rekindling of the fire
After using a CO2 extinguisher on an oil fire, rekindling is a potential danger as the CO2 dissipates and the hot oil may reach its ignition temperature again if not properly cooled or smothered.
13. What emergency equipment is NOT found in the crew mess in the view of a Fire Control plan?
- A. Portable fire extinguisher
- B. Heat sensor
- C. Emergency escape breathing device (EEBD)
- D. Fire axe
Answer: B — Heat sensor
Heat sensors are part of an automatic fire detection system and are typically located in the protected spaces themselves, not in general areas like the crew mess. Other listed items are emergency equipment often found in such locations.
14. Dry powder fire extinguishers which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as firefighting agents are generally used to fight which type of fire?
- A. Class C electrical fire
- B. Class B fuel oil fire
- C. Class D metal fire
- D. Class A wood fire
Answer: C — Class D metal fire
Dry powder extinguishers containing graphite and sodium chloride are specifically designed for Class D fires, which involve combustible metals. These agents form a crust, smothering the fire and preventing re-ignition.
15. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more are required to have facilities to enable connection on each side of the ship for this fire control equipment:
- A. Emergency bilge pump suction manifold
- B. Fixed sprinkler bypass valve
- C. High expansion foam generator
- D. International Shore connection
Answer: D — International Shore connection
On oil tankers of 500 gross tons or more, an International Shore Connection is required on each side of the ship. This allows shore-based fire fighting equipment to connect to the vessel's fire main system.
16. Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating:
- A. Dry chemical powder with water stream
- B. Foam chemical with nitrogen gas
- C. Liquid CO2 with water solution
- D. Foam chemical with air and water
Answer: D — Foam chemical with air and water
Mechanical foam used in firefighting is generated by mixing a foam concentrate with water and then agitating this mixture with air. This process creates a foam blanket that cools and smothers the fire.
17. What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the master and crew?
- A. SOLAS training booklet
- B. International code of signals chart
- C. Vessel maintenance record
- D. Emergency instructions
Answer: D — Emergency instructions
Emergency instructions detailing actions to be taken during emergencies must be prominently displayed at the vessel's operating station for immediate access by the master and crew.
18. The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and:
- A. Engine room operating instructions
- B. All emergency signals
- C. Next port of call logistics
- D. Navigation course parameters
Answer: B — All emergency signals
A muster list, as required by SOLAS, details not only muster stations and duties but also all relevant emergency signals to ensure all crew are aware of the different alarm sounds and their meanings.
19. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should first:
- A. Direct a stream of water at the flames
- B. Shut off the fuel oil supply
- C. Evacuate all personnel immediately
- D. Release the fixed CO2 system
Answer: B — Shut off the fuel oil supply
The immediate priority in a fuel oil leak fire is to stop the source of fuel. Shutting off the fuel supply removes the fuel element of the fire triangle, thus allowing the fire to extinguish. Releasing CO2 or using water are secondary actions, and evacuation is appropriate if the fire cannot be controlled.
20. If there has been a fire in a closed, unventilated compartment, it may be unsafe to enter because of:
- A. High accumulations of nitrogen gas
- B. Excess relative humidity
- C. lack of oxygen
- D. Built-up electrostatic charges
Answer: C — lack of oxygen
Fires consume oxygen for combustion. In a closed compartment, the oxygen level will significantly decrease, creating an atmosphere with insufficient oxygen to support human life. Therefore, entering such a compartment without self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is extremely hazardous due to potential asphyxiation.
21. Which of the listed classes of fires can best be extinguished with a water fog?
- A. Class B and C
- B. Class A and B
- C. Class A and D
- D. Class C and D
Answer: B — Class A and B
Water fog is particularly effective for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, cloth) by cooling and penetrating the material, and for Class B fires (flammable liquids) by cooling the liquid surface to below its flashpoint and forming a barrier. It is not suitable for Class C (electrical) or Class D (combustible metals) fires.
22. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room?
- A. Right before entering the space with an SCBA
- B. One hour after initial discharge regardless of temperature
- C. After the metal surfaces have cooled down
- D. Immediately after the fire goes out
Answer: C — After the metal surfaces have cooled down
After a CO2 discharge, hot surfaces can re-ignite vapours. Venting the compartment after the metal surfaces have cooled down reduces the risk of re-ignition and allows hazardous gases to dissipate safely before entry, ideally while wearing SCBA.
23. A definite advantage of using water as a firefighting agent is its characteristic of:
- A. Leaving clean residue that acts as a fire barrier
- B. Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
- C. Breaking down chemical bonding chains safely
- D. Non-conductivity near live machinery
Answer: B — Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
Water's high latent heat of vaporization means it absorbs a significant amount of heat as it turns to steam. This rapid expansion helps to cool the burning material and can also help to push flames away from the surface.
24. What is NOT a characteristic of a carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent?
- A. It leaves no messy residue after use
- B. It displaces air to smother a fire
- C. It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down
- D. It can cause frostbite upon contact with skin
Answer: C — It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down
Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers displace oxygen to smother a fire, and as they discharge, the rapid expansion of gas causes extreme cooling, potentially leading to frostbite. However, CO2 is electrically conductive and must not be used on live electrical equipment if safer alternatives exist, and ventilation is crucial after use to clear the oxygen-deficient atmosphere.
25. It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to:
- A. Retain toxic gases to help smother flames
- B. Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
- C. Limit the expansion of cooling steam lines
- D. Protect the ventilation fan motor from overspeeding
Answer: B — Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
Forcing ventilation into a compartment with a fire provides an additional supply of oxygen, which fuels the combustion process. Securing the ventilation removes this oxygen source, aiding in fire suppression, consistent with removing an element of the fire triangle.
26. The four basic components of a fire are a chain reaction, heat, fuel, and:
- A. Nitrogen
- B. Carbon dioxide
- C. Oxygen
- D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: C — Oxygen
The fire triangle, representing the essential components for combustion, consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. The chain reaction is often considered the fourth element in the fire tetrahedron, but oxygen is the fundamental component that sustains the combustion process.
27. The flammable limits of an atmosphere are the:
- A. Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
- B. Maximum temperatures at which an oil source produces vapors
- C. Minimum moisture concentrations needed to halt spontaneous ignition
- D. Safe ambient operating thresholds for storage facilities
Answer: A — Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
Flammable limits define the range of concentrations of a flammable gas or vapor in air that will burn or explode when an ignition source is present. The lower flammable limit (LFL) is the minimum concentration, and the upper flammable limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration.
28. A fire must be ventilated:
- A. To cool down fuel reservoirs below their flashpoints
- B. To supply additional oxygen to speed up burning
- C. To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
- D. Immediately after triggering a fixed gas smothering system
Answer: C — To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
Ventilation is crucial in firefighting to remove smoke and toxic gases produced by combustion, ensuring a safer environment for firefighters to operate and preventing the spread of toxic fumes to other areas of the vessel. Supplying extra oxygen would worsen the fire.
29. A fire in a radio transmitter would be of what class under NFPA?
- A. Class B
- B. Class D
- C. Class C
- D. Class A
Answer: C — Class C
Fires involving electrical equipment are classified as Class C fires. A radio transmitter is an electrical device, making any fire within it a Class C fire, requiring extinguishing agents that are non-conductive.
30. Containers are manufactured as per standards set by:
- A. SOLAS
- B. ISO
- C. MARPOL
- D. IMO
Answer: B — ISO
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) sets standards for various products, including containers. These standards ensure uniformity, safety, and interoperability in the manufacturing and use of containers globally.
Set 5 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. What, when removed, will assist in the self-extinguishment of a fire?
- A. Argon
- B. Carbon dioxide
- C. Oxygen
- D. Nitrogen
Answer: C — Oxygen
Oxygen is a key component of the fire triangle; its removal breaks the combustion process. Therefore, removing oxygen will assist in the self-extinguishment of a fire by starving it of this essential element.
2. Classification of fire bulkheads inside accommodation spaces is based on fire resisting capabilities. They are classified as:
- A. Class X, Y, Z
- B. Class H, J, K
- C. Class 1, 2, 3
- D. Class A, B, C
Answer: D — Class A, B, C
SOLAS classifies fire integrity of bulkheads and decks into Class A, B, and C, based on their fire-resisting properties and the duration they can withstand a standard fire test. Class A offers the highest integrity, followed by B and C.
3. Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by:
- A. Eliminating potential fuel sources
- B. Cooling electrical control systems
- C. Improving the speed of bilge pumps
- D. Increasing structural fire boundaries
Answer: A — Eliminating potential fuel sources
Good housekeeping is fundamental to fire prevention as it involves keeping spaces clean and orderly, thereby eliminating or minimizing potential fuel sources such as oily rags, waste, and accumulated debris.
4. "Below lower flammable limit" means:
- A. The vapor mixture is highly volatile and ready to explode
- B. There is insufficient structural oxygen available for combustion
- C. It is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases which is not sufficient to initiate a fire (too lean)
- D. The atmosphere is completely saturated with fuel vapors (too rich)
Answer: C — It is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases which is not sufficient to initiate a fire (too lean)
"Below lower flammable limit" means the concentration of flammable vapor in the air is too low to sustain combustion. The mixture is too lean, and an ignition source will not cause it to burn or explode.
5. The oxidation process creates:
- A. Free radical inhibitors
- B. Heavy scale deposits
- C. Heat
- D. Cooling vapors
Answer: C — Heat
Oxidation is a chemical process that involves the loss of electrons and typically the gain of oxygen. In the context of fire, this process releases energy, primarily in the form of heat.
6. An important tool for fire prevention is:
- A. Increasing high-expansion foam reserves
- B. Periodic paint applications
- C. Cleaning and good housekeeping
- D. Keeping internal ventilation doors wide open
Answer: C — Cleaning and good housekeeping
Effective cleaning and good housekeeping practices are essential for fire prevention. They reduce the amount of combustible material available to fuel a fire and help identify potential hazards early.
7. The tendency or ability of a liquid to vaporize is called:
- A. Viscosity
- B. Capillarity
- C. Density
- D. Volatility
Answer: D — Volatility
Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance, particularly a liquid, to vaporize or form gases at a given temperature. Liquids with high volatility evaporate readily, posing a greater fire risk.
8. A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?
- A. Generator room
- B. Inside a cargo tank hatch
- C. Pumproom space
- D. Open deck near vapor manifold lines
Answer: A — Generator room
Operating electrical equipment like an air compressor should ideally be done in a safe area free from flammable vapors. A generator room is typically well-ventilated and designed for such equipment, unlike cargo tanks or pumprooms which may contain flammable gases.
9. The most efficient way of transferring heat in liquids and gases is called:
- A. Convection
- B. Radiation
- C. Insulation
- D. Conduction
Answer: A — Convection
Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). As the fluid heats up, it becomes less dense and rises, while cooler, denser fluid sinks, creating a continuous circulation pattern.
10. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the:
- A. Cargo manifest layout
- B. Master list (station bill)
- C. Logbook register
- D. Crew contract binder
Answer: B — Master list (station bill)
The Master List, also known as the Station Bill, details essential information for the crew, including muster stations, fire stations, and lifeboat assignments, as required by maritime regulations like SOLAS.
11. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the:
- A. Deck logbook entries
- B. Bridge passage plan
- C. Master list
- D. Safety equipment certificate booklet
Answer: C — Master list
The Master List or Station Bill, which is posted on board, indicates the designated abandon ship post for each crew member. This ensures everyone knows their assigned location during an emergency.
12. In order to achieve the fire safety objective, which of the following functional requirements are embodied in SOLAS regulations?
- A. All of the above
- B. Division of the ship into main horizontal/vertical zones by thermal and structural boundaries
- C. Separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries
- D. Protective means of escape and access for firefighting
Answer: A — All of the above
SOLAS Chapter II-2 outlines comprehensive fire safety measures. These include dividing the ship into zones, separating accommodation from machinery spaces, and ensuring adequate means of escape and fire-fighting access, encompassing all listed requirements.
13. The vessel's Fire Control plan is laid out on which of the following types of plan?
- A. General arrangement
- B. Midship structural section
- C. Lines plan drawing
- D. Tank capacity schematic
Answer: A — General arrangement
The Fire Control Plan, mandated by SOLAS, is typically a detailed General Arrangement plan showing the location of fire detection systems, fire-fighting equipment, means of escape, and boundaries of fire zones.
14. Carbon dioxide is stored under pressure in liquid form inside a fire:
- A. Cylinder
- B. Storage box enclosure
- C. Hose connection reel
- D. Foam applicator drum
Answer: A — Cylinder
Carbon dioxide (CO2) for fire suppression is stored under pressure in liquid form within robust cylinders, which are part of the fixed or portable fire extinguishing systems.
15. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?
- A. It extinguishes fire by smothering action
- B. It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space
- C. It leaves no dynamic residue on machinery components
- D. It can be utilized safely on electrical fires
Answer: B — It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space
While CO2 is effective and safe for electrical fires, it displaces oxygen and can cause asphyxiation. It is NOT safe to use near personnel in a confined space without proper respiratory protection and prior ventilation.
16. Which class division is considered capable of preventing the passage of ONLY flame to the end of the first half-hour of a standard fire test?
- A. Class B
- B. Class D
- C. Class A
- D. Class C
Answer: A — Class B
Class B divisions are designed according to SOLAS regulations to prevent the passage of flame for the first half-hour of a standard fire test. This provides crucial time for evacuation and initial firefighting efforts.
17. A fire hose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service when:
- A. Clearing choked scupper valves
- B. Washing down cargo decks at sea
- C. Used for drills and testing
- D. Supplying cooling fluid to a temporary generator
Answer: C — Used for drills and testing
Fire hoses are critical safety equipment and should primarily be used for firefighting. Their use for drills and testing is permissible and necessary for ensuring their readiness, but other uses can compromise their integrity.
18. How many CO2 fire extinguishers ought to be kept in accommodation areas?
- A. Four on each deck landing
- B. Two near the galley spaces
- C. No extinguishers
- D. One per room corridor
Answer: C — No extinguishers
CO2 extinguishers are generally not recommended for accommodation areas due to the risk of asphyxiation in confined spaces. Water-based or foam extinguishers are more commonly found in these areas, with specific types and numbers dictated by regulations.
19. Portable foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on which classes of fires?
- A. Class A and D fires
- B. Class A and B fires
- C. Class B and C fires
- D. Class C and D fires
Answer: B — Class A and B fires
Portable foam fire extinguishers are primarily designed for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles) and Class B fires (flammable liquids). They work by creating a foam blanket that smothers the fire and cools the fuel.
20. The removal of fuel in the firefighting process is known as:
- A. Inhibition
- B. Starvation
- C. Smothering
- D. Cooling
Answer: B — Starvation
Starvation is the fire extinguishment technique of removing the fuel source. By cutting off the supply of fuel to the fire, the combustion process ceases.
21. Why is a CO2 type of fire extinguisher preferred for electrical installations?
- A. It expands into a sticky visual foam barrier
- B. It provides extensive long-term cooling
- C. It can be safely deployed without isolating power circuits
- D. It leaves no residue and does not damage any equipment
Answer: D — It leaves no residue and does not damage any equipment
CO2 is preferred for electrical installations because it is a non-conductive gas that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen and cooling, and importantly, it leaves no residue that could damage sensitive electronic components.
22. Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?
- A. Mechanical foam spray
- B. Dry chemical powder
- C. Carbon dioxide gas
- D. Water
Answer: D — Water
Water is generally unsuitable for liquid paint fires (Class B) as it can spread the burning liquid due to its immiscibility and lower density, potentially intensifying the fire. Foam, dry chemical, and CO2 are more appropriate agents.
23. As per NFPA (National Fire Protection Association), a fire in cooking appliances involving vegetable/animal oils and fats is classified as:
- A. Class K
- B. Class C
- C. Class D
- D. Class B
Answer: A — Class K
Fires involving cooking appliances and the specific oils and fats used in them are classified as Class K fires under the NFPA system, distinct from Class B which covers general flammable liquids.
24. Designated areas for smoking are specified in the:
- A. Company manual
- B. Crew mess instruction card
- C. Port state entry document
- D. International code manual
Answer: A — Company manual
Designated smoking areas are safety-critical zones established by the company's Safety Management System (SMS) to prevent fire hazards. These are clearly defined in the company manual and shipboard standing orders to ensure compliance with international safety standards.
25. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by:
- A. Convection
- B. Conduction
- C. Absorption
- D. Radiation
Answer: A — Convection
Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). In a vessel's ventilation system, hot air and gases rise and circulate, carrying heat to other parts of the ship and potentially spreading fire.
26. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels, what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?
- A. Rigid boots and gloves
- B. Protective clothing
- C. Combustible gas indicator
- D. Flame safety lamp or breathing apparatus
Answer: C — Combustible gas indicator
A combustible gas indicator is used to detect flammable gases, which is not a standard component of the basic fireman's outfit required by SOLAS. The outfit focuses on protection from heat, flames, and providing breathing apparatus for toxic atmospheres.
27. A fire hose kept in its box should have a wrench and an:
- A. High expansion foam generator tube
- B. All-purpose nozzle
- C. High-pressure mechanical lance tool
- D. International Shore standard coupling flange
Answer: B — All-purpose nozzle
An all-purpose nozzle allows for adjustment of the water stream from a spray to a solid jet, which is essential for effective firefighting. While other items might be associated with firefighting equipment, the nozzle is a primary component of a hose box.
28. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the:
- A. Main switchboard power grid distribution
- B. Emergency bilge pump circuits
- C. Supply and exhaust ventilation
- D. Main engine propulsion controls
Answer: C — Supply and exhaust ventilation
Activating a fixed CO2 system is designed to extinguish fires by displacing oxygen. To prevent re-ignition and potential damage, it automatically shuts down ventilation fans that could supply air to the fire or spread the gas. Engine propulsion and power distribution are typically handled manually or through other safety interlocks.
29. During a fire onboard, communication is to be:
- A. Relayed solely via messengers
- B. Complex, thoroughly detailed, and extensive
- C. Concise, precise, and short
- D. Postponed until structural assessments end
Answer: C — Concise, precise, and short
During a fire, clear and rapid communication is paramount for effective response and safety. Messages must be concise and precise to avoid confusion, ensuring that critical information is understood quickly by all involved parties.
30. A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting nozzle when the handle is:
- A. Pulled all the way back
- B. Pushed all the way forward
- C. Twisted ninety degrees counterclockwise
- D. Positioned halfway into its casing
Answer: A — Pulled all the way back
On most firefighting nozzles, pulling the handle back is the action that adjusts the nozzle to produce a solid stream of water. Pushing it forward typically creates a spray pattern, which is also useful for cooling but not for a solid stream.
Set 6 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to:
- A. Drain internal oil recovery sumps directly
- B. Restore structural compartment ventilation fully
- C. Open up all access ports to inspect inside details
- D. Stand by with water or other agents
Answer: D — Stand by with water or other agents
CO2 displaces oxygen and can cause asphyxiation. Immediately after use, there is a risk of re-flash if the heat source remains, or re-ignition due to the presence of unburnt fuel. Therefore, standing by with backup extinguishing agents is crucial.
2. Ships carrying more than 36 passengers should maintain a:
- A. Double bulkhead smoke containment grid
- B. Dedicated fire drill barge trailer connection
- C. Continuous automated water system monitor
- D. Fire patrol system
Answer: D — Fire patrol system
SOLAS regulations require passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers to maintain a fire patrol system. This involves regular patrols by crew members to detect and report fire hazards, ensuring prompt response.
3. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should first:
- A. Douse structural pipelines with sea spray
- B. Stop the transfer of cargo
- C. Sound the international collision alarm whistle
- D. Rig a mechanical foam generator station
Answer: B — Stop the transfer of cargo
During cargo operations, the immediate priority upon discovering a fire related to cargo transfer is to stop the source of the fuel. Stopping the cargo transfer prevents further spillage and fuel supply to the fire.
4. Radio station logs involving communication during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least:
- A. Ten years inside safe archive storage boxes
- B. Three years from the date of the last entry
- C. One year from entry initiation
- D. Five years under legal maritime seals
Answer: B — Three years from the date of the last entry
Radio station logs, particularly those pertaining to emergency communications, must be maintained for a specified period to serve as official records for investigations or audits. SOLAS and relevant maritime regulations typically mandate a retention period of three years from the date of the last entry.
5. The deep fryer oil overheated because of a:
- A. Lack of fresh liquid fat inputs
- B. Thermostat malfunctioning
- C. Blockage inside draining pipe lines
- D. Mechanical failure inside the extractor canopy
Answer: B — Thermostat malfunctioning
Deep fryer fires are often caused by overheating oil, which can result from a malfunctioning thermostat. If the thermostat fails to regulate the temperature, the oil can reach its smoke point and then its flashpoint, leading to ignition.
6. The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is to:
- A. Sound the internal automatic distress loop button
- B. Place a voice phone link call to shore coordination networks
- C. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal
- D. Contact an adjacent vessel via bridge VHF radio link
Answer: C — Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal
The most effective way to test the functionality of an Inmarsat-C terminal, including its ability to transmit and receive messages, is to send a test message to itself or a known contact. This verifies the communication path and system response without relying on external systems.
7. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT:
- A. way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
- B. Test switches to check structural loop indicators
- C. Visual indicators showing alarm sectors
- D. An audible device to signal alarms or system faults
Answer: A — way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
Fire detection system control panels are designed with safety and operational indicators, including ways to silence alarms, reset the system, and identify the zone of activation. Bypassing the entire panel is a safety risk and not a standard feature; systems should remain functional or be manually overridden at zone levels if necessary.
8. Tapioca is susceptible to ________ when damp.
- A. Chemical crystallization
- B. Electrostatic discharges
- C. Liquefaction slide effects
- D. Spontaneous combustion
Answer: D — Spontaneous combustion
Tapioca, like many organic materials, can undergo self-heating when damp due to microbial activity or chemical reactions. If this heat cannot dissipate, it can lead to spontaneous combustion, igniting the material.
9. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause:
- A. Severe toxic vapor contamination inside boiler loops
- B. Freeze burns and blistering
- C. Spontaneous flashover due to compression waves
- D. Corrosion of sensitive mechanical gears
Answer: B — Freeze burns and blistering
CO2 is stored under pressure and expands rapidly when released, causing a significant drop in temperature. This extreme cold can cause freeze burns or blistering on contact with skin, and also reduces visibility by creating fog.
10. As per NFPA, a fire in an electrical generator is considered to be a:
- A. Class C fire
- B. Class D fire
- C. Class B fire
- D. Class A fire
Answer: A — Class C fire
Fires involving electrical equipment, such as generators, are classified as Class C fires. This classification specifically denotes fires that involve energized electrical equipment where the use of a conductive extinguishing agent could lead to electrocution.
11. If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should:
- A. Remain inside their cabins behind closed safety doors
- B. Be evacuated on an auxiliary service tender craft
- C. Gather exclusively at public dining lounges
- D. Take part
Answer: D — Take part
During abandon ship drills, all persons on board, including passengers, are expected to participate. This ensures they are familiar with procedures, muster stations, and the use of safety equipment, aligning with SOLAS requirements.
12. On the vessel's Fire Control plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT:
- A. Instructions for activation of the system
- B. Total weight and type of chemical storage canisters
- C. Location of piping distribution loops
- D. Placement of discharge nozzles across compartments
Answer: A — Instructions for activation of the system
Fire control plans, as mandated by SOLAS, detail the layout, locations of fire detection and suppression systems, and emergency equipment. While they show system components and operational instructions, specific activation procedures are usually found in operational manuals rather than on the plans themselves.
13. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
- A. Heat of condensation
- B. Heat of vaporization
- C. Heat of radiation
- D. Heat of oxidation
Answer: D — Heat of oxidation
Spontaneous ignition occurs when combustible materials generate enough heat internally to reach their ignition temperature without an external ignition source. This process is primarily driven by the heat of oxidation, where slow chemical reactions release heat over time.
14. Fusible link fire dampers are operated by:
- A. Electronic loop control commands from the safety desk
- B. Hydrostatic water pressure changes from water spray systems
- C. The heat of the fire melting the link
- D. Structural balance wires linked with the bridge desk
Answer: C — The heat of the fire melting the link
Fusible link fire dampers are designed to close automatically when the temperature reaches a certain point. The heat from a fire melts a solder or alloy link, allowing the damper to fall shut and restrict airflow, thus preventing fire and smoke spread.
15. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15-pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?
- A. Frostbite cracks inside fuel line connection joints
- B. Reflashing of the fire
- C. Complete systemic failure of main engine gear oil feeds
- D. Toxic gas ignition inside air trunk lines
Answer: B — Reflashing of the fire
CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen but does not cool the fuel significantly. Therefore, any remaining hot spots or fuel near the ignition temperature can easily re-flash once the CO2 dissipates and oxygen returns.
16. The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because:
- A. Skywave atmospheric returns are highly unstable at sea
- B. Internal wire resistances limit low-level signal paths
- C. Higher placement reduces tracking ground interference loops
- D. VHF communications are basically line of sight
Answer: D — VHF communications are basically line of sight
VHF radio waves travel in straight lines and are limited by the curvature of the Earth; thus, they are fundamentally line-of-sight communications. Antenna height is crucial for extending this line of sight and improving the range of communication.
17. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
- A. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
- B. Dry chemical powder mix
- C. CO2
- D. Water fog stream
Answer: C — CO2
CO2 is a gaseous extinguishing agent that works by displacing oxygen and cooling. However, it does not effectively cool the burning fuel below its ignition temperature, making reflash a significant risk once the CO2 disperses.
18. A vessel's Fire Control plan shall have:
- A. duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house in a prominent weatherproof enclosure
- B. Blueprint files locked exclusively in the captain's office
- C. Plastic layout cards stapled on every accommodation deck door
- D. Microfiche summary records mounted inside all lifeboats
Answer: A — duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house in a prominent weatherproof enclosure
SOLAS regulations require fire control plans to be readily accessible to crew and emergency responders. A duplicate set stored in a prominent, weatherproof enclosure outside the navigation bridge ensures vital information is available even if the bridge is inaccessible.
19. In the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is true concerning a fireman's outfit?
- A. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type
- B. Two outfits are needed for each active deck crewman
- C. Each outfit must contain an electric welding cutting tool
- D. Air tanks must carry five hours of continuous storage reserves
Answer: A — Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type
According to SOLAS regulations, each fireman's outfit must include a flame safety lamp or an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. This is to ensure the safety of the firefighter in potentially hazardous and oxygen-deficient atmospheres.
20. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by:
- A. Light scattering effects across laser sensors
- B. Air pressure changes inside trunk compartments
- C. Moisture tracking limits inside structural wiring panels
- D. The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
Answer: D — The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
Thermostats used in fire alarm systems, particularly bimetallic types, operate based on the principle that two different metals expand at different rates when heated. This differential expansion causes the strip to bend, closing an electrical contact and triggering an alarm.
21. For the safety of the personnel working with fire hoses, the fire pumps are fitted with a:
- A. Pressure gauge and relief valve on the discharge side
- B. Flexible expansion joint directly on the water suction intake
- C. Mechanical safety clutch linkage on driving engines
- D. Remote automated vacuum seal breaker
Answer: A — Pressure gauge and relief valve on the discharge side
Fire pumps are equipped with pressure gauges to monitor discharge pressure and relief valves to prevent over-pressurization, which could damage the pump, hoses, or injure personnel. This is a critical safety feature ensuring stable operation.
22. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish Class B fires to the greatest extent by:
- A. Breaking the chain reaction
- B. Cooling fuel temperatures down below flashpoint margins
- C. Freezing burning vapor pools immediately
- D. Displacing essential atmospheric nitrogen compounds
Answer: A — Breaking the chain reaction
Dry chemical powders interrupt the chemical chain reaction of a fire, effectively stopping the combustion process. While they have some cooling effect, their primary extinguishing mechanism for Class B and C fires is the breaking of the chain reaction.
23. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?
- A. All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated
- B. Lifeboats must be launched and run at service speeds for an hour
- C. Emergency bilge suctions must be run on full backflow parameters
- D. Cargo tank hatches must be opened for visual gas checking
Answer: A — All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated
During a combined fire and boat drill, operational checks of essential safety equipment are conducted. Operating watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill ensures their functionality and familiarizes the crew with their operation under simulated emergency conditions.
24. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and:
- A. High expansion foam blanket throw
- B. CO2 continuous vapor jet
- C. Low velocity fog
- D. High velocity solid water jet
Answer: C — Low velocity fog
When fighting a fire from windward, using a low-velocity fog pattern from a nozzle applicator helps shield firefighters from radiant heat and smoke. The water droplets absorb heat and create a screen, allowing safer approach and application of the extinguishing agent.
25. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow re-ignition of a fire is:
- A. Water fog
- B. Mechanical foam spray
- C. Carbon dioxide
- D. Dry chemical powder
Answer: C — Carbon dioxide
Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen. However, it has minimal cooling effect, meaning that if the fuel remains hot enough, it can re-ignite once the CO2 dissipates and oxygen is reintroduced.
26. The risk of fire and explosion is ________ in tankers.
- A. Identical to generic dry cargo vessels
- B. Controlled solely by hull thickness layout
- C. Negligible under standard cruising speeds
- D. Very high
Answer: D — Very high
Tankers, especially those carrying petroleum products, handle large quantities of flammable liquids. These cargoes create a very high risk of fire and explosion, necessitating stringent safety measures and procedures as per MARPOL and other regulations.
27. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?
- A. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire
- B. To speed up chemical stabilization loops of active foam bubbles
- C. To avoid cooling structural steel components unevenly
- D. To maximize the coverage range of standard delivery equipment
Answer: A — To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire
When applying foam to an oil fire, banking it off a bulkhead prevents the direct force of the foam stream from agitating the oil surface. Agitation can spread the burning oil and potentially worsen the fire, hindering extinguishment.
28. A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with:
- A. Solid streams of sea water
- B. High pressure carbon dioxide gas grids
- C. Foam
- D. Portable dry powder spray canisters
Answer: C — Foam
Foam is the most effective agent for fighting large oil fires on decks because it spreads across the surface, cools the fuel, and smothers the fire by forming a blanket that separates the fuel from the oxygen.
29. The minimum flashpoint of oil fuel carried on board a ship is:
- A. 50 degrees Celsius
- B. 70 degrees Celsius
- C. 60 degrees Celsius
- D. 40 degrees Celsius
Answer: C — 60 degrees Celsius
According to the International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code and ISM Code, the minimum flashpoint for fuel oil permitted for carriage on board ships is generally 60 degrees Celsius (closed cup).
30. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position, you will use:
- A. High velocity solid jet stream
- B. Shutoff position with zero output flow
- C. Foam solution delivery parameter
- D. Low velocity fog
Answer: D — Low velocity fog
With an applicator attached to a fire hose nozzle, placing the handle in the vertical position typically adjusts the nozzle to produce a low-velocity fog pattern. This is effective for cooling and creating a protective screen.
Set 7 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should:
- A. Run a hand-held exhaust blower for five minutes first
- B. Wear a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
- C. Wear a generic particulate dust filter mask
- D. Wait ten minutes for gas settlement before walking in
Answer: B — Wear a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
Carbon dioxide (CO2) displaces oxygen and can create a hazardous atmosphere for breathing. Entering a compartment where CO2 has been released requires a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to ensure a safe supply of breathable air.
2. The international shore connection:
- A. Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
- B. Links ship navigation logs with port administration grids
- C. Supplies high voltage electrical power to propulsion links
- D. Drains oily bilge slops safely to dockside collection tanks
Answer: A — Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
The international shore connection is a standardized coupling that allows a ship's fire main system to be connected to shore-based firefighting water supplies. This provides an external source of water in emergencies.
3. A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind:
- A. Blows at right angles to cross-vent the hull decks
- B. Comes directly over the stern layout beam
- C. Comes over the bow
- D. Changes into circular thermal swirling patterns
Answer: C — Comes over the bow
When fighting a fire on a vessel, positioning the ship so the wind blows the fire away from you is crucial. Approaching the fire with the wind coming over the bow allows the wind to help push the flames and heat away from the firefighting crew.
4. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is:
- A. Water fog
- B. Halon gas
- C. Dry chemical powder formulation
- D. Aqueous film-forming foam solution
Answer: A — Water fog
Water fog, when applied correctly, has multiple extinguishing properties. It cools the fuel below its ignition temperature, dilutes combustible vapors, displaces oxygen, and provides a screen against radiant heat and smoke.
5. The expansion of LFL is:
- A. Light Flame Location
- B. Liquid Fuel Line
- C. Lower Flammable Limit
- D. Low Flashpoint Liquid
Answer: C — Lower Flammable Limit
LFL stands for Lower Flammable Limit, which is the minimum concentration of a flammable gas or vapor in air that will burn or explode when an ignition source is present. This concept is critical for assessing fire and explosion hazards.
6. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
- A. The active agent drops fuel core parameters past absolute freezing margins
- B. The dry chemical creates a dense visual foam overlay block
- C. It relies on heavy moisture transformation into structural vapor screens
- D. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction
Answer: D — The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction
Dry chemical powders primarily extinguish fires by interrupting the chemical chain reaction of combustion. They also have a slight cooling effect and can form a barrier between the fuel and oxygen.
7. What is the most important consideration when determining to fight an electrical fire?
- A. Danger of shock to personnel
- B. Shutting down auxiliary lighting networks across accommodation spaces
- C. The replacement costs of burnt circuitry components
- D. The clean-up time required for active extinguishing residue
Answer: A — Danger of shock to personnel
When fighting electrical fires, the primary concern is the risk of electric shock to personnel. This risk necessitates the use of appropriate extinguishing agents that do not conduct electricity.
8. If you see an oil leakage, you clean it immediately. This is an example of:
- A. Good housekeeping
- B. ISO structural standard declaration rules
- C. Deck log monitoring instructions
- D. Preventive machinery tuning parameters
Answer: A — Good housekeeping
Promptly cleaning up oil leakages is an essential practice known as good housekeeping. Maintaining a clean and orderly environment prevents slip hazards and potential fire risks.
9. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out Class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical:
- A. Reacts aggressively with marine steel materials
- B. Vaporizes into flammable gas compounds under heat exposure
- C. Does little or no cooling
- D. Displaces air structures for only a few seconds
Answer: C — Does little or no cooling
Dry chemical agents are effective at suppressing Class B fires by interrupting the chemical reaction, but they offer minimal cooling. This lack of cooling capability means that the fuel can still vaporize and re-ignite if the heat source persists.
10. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
- A. Carbon dioxide gas jet
- B. Dry chemical powder spray
- C. Mechanical foam blanket expansion
- D. Water fog
Answer: D — Water fog
Water fog, or spray, has the greatest capacity for heat absorption among the listed agents due to water's high latent heat of vaporization. This rapid cooling is crucial for extinguishing fires.
11. The expansion of IBC code is:
- A. International Bilge Control code
- B. International Bulk Cargo code
- C. International Bulk Chemical code
- D. Intermaritime Boiler Construction code
Answer: C — International Bulk Chemical code
The IBC Code, or International Bulk Chemical Code, provides regulations for the carriage of dangerous chemicals in bulk by sea. It is part of the IMO's framework for maritime safety and environmental protection.
12. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?
- A. Greater range
- B. It is non-toxic inside confined spaces
- C. It offers significant localized thermal cooling effects
- D. It leaves no visible residue cleanup footprint on components
Answer: A — Greater range
Dry chemical extinguishers have a longer discharge range compared to carbon dioxide extinguishers. This allows firefighters to tackle fires from a safer distance.
13. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the firefighter?
- A. Continuous carbon dioxide stream jet
- B. Low velocity water fog
- C. Straight high-velocity water jet
- D. High-expansion chemical foam spray
Answer: B — Low velocity water fog
Low velocity water fog provides a significant shielding effect for firefighters by absorbing heat and producing steam, which displaces oxygen and limits flame spread. This creates a safer working environment.
14. An example of a type of smoke detector is the:
- A. Visual infrared flame scanner screen
- B. Ionization type
- C. Hydrostatic expansion capsule sensor
- D. Thermal differential bimetallic link switch
Answer: B — Ionization type
The ionization type smoke detector is a common fire detection device that works by monitoring changes in electrical conductivity within an ionization chamber.
15. Which firefighting agent is most effective in removing heat?
- A. Carbon dioxide vapor stream
- B. Dry chemical powder blanket throw
- C. Mechanical structural foam solution
- D. Water spray
Answer: D — Water spray
Water spray, including water fog, is the most effective firefighting agent for removing heat from a fire. Its high latent heat of vaporization allows it to absorb a significant amount of thermal energy as it turns into steam.
16. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the:
- A. Displacement of active fuel structures safely
- B. Exclusion of atmospheric nitrogen elements
- C. Chemical breakdown of active free radicals
- D. Absorption of heat
Answer: D — Absorption of heat
When water fog is applied to a fire, its primary extinguishing mechanism is the rapid absorption of heat. As the water vaporizes into steam, it cools the fuel below its ignition temperature.
17. Fire extinguishers of sizes 3, 4, and 5 are designated as:
- A. Hand portable
- B. Semi-portable
- C. Fixed system bank units
- D. Auxiliary utility modules
Answer: B — Semi-portable
Fire extinguishers with sizes 3, 4, and 5 (typically kilograms or pounds) are classified as semi-portable. They are too heavy to be easily carried by one person but can be moved with effort.
18. Dangerous goods are classified into how many groups?
- A. Three groups
- B. Five groups
- C. Twelve groups
- D. Nine groups
Answer: D — Nine groups
Dangerous goods, as defined by international regulations like the IMDG Code, are classified into nine hazard classes based on their properties and the risks they pose.
19. The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed:
- A. At the top perimeter layout of smoke clouds
- B. Directly into adjacent ventilation return trunks
- C. At the base of the flames
- D. In wide looping circles across structural partition bulkheads
Answer: C — At the base of the flames
The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should always be directed at the base of the flames. This is where the fuel is being vaporized and combustion is occurring, allowing CO2 to displace oxygen and cool the fuel.
20. Which statement is true concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?
- A. You should direct the spray at the base of the fire
- B. They are deployed safely on metal fires like sodium or magnesium
- C. You should direct the spray at the top edges of structural smoke screens
- D. They provide deep cooling to prevent any risk of re-ignition
Answer: A — You should direct the spray at the base of the fire
When using dry chemical extinguishers, the spray should always be directed at the base of the fire. This action smothers the fire by interrupting the chemical chain reaction and forming a barrier.
21. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried on ships of 1000 GRT and above?
- A. Eight
- B. Three
- C. Five
- D. Two
Answer: C — Five
According to SOLAS regulations, ships of 1000 GRT and above must carry a minimum of five portable fire extinguishers, ensuring adequate fire-fighting capability across the vessel.
22. What is the primary function of the emergency fire pump isolate valve fitted on main deck?
- A. Prevent backflow to sea chest
- B. Divert water to bilges
- C. Isolate engine room fire main from deck fire main
- D. Increase fire water pressure to accommodation
Answer: C — Isolate engine room fire main from deck fire main
The isolation valve ensures deck fire main remains pressurized if engine room fire line ruptures.
23. Under SOLAS, what is the minimum duration for SCBA cylinder duration calculation margin?
- A. 45 minutes at standard atmosphere
- B. 15 minutes at 20 L/min breathing rate
- C. 60 minutes continuous flow
- D. 30 minutes at 40 L/min breathing rate
Answer: D — 30 minutes at 40 L/min breathing rate
Standard SCBA cylinder nominal duration calculation is based on 40 L/min consumption rate.
24. What type of fixed fire extinguishing system is mandatory for paint lockers exceeding specified floor area?
- A. Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling system
- B. Dry powder system
- C. High expansion foam only
- D. Inert gas generator
Answer: A — Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling system
SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires paint lockers to be protected by fixed fire extinguishing system suitable for flammable liquids.
25. What action must be taken regarding mechanical ventilation before releasing CO2 into engine room?
- A. Open skylights for pressure relief
- B. Keep exhaust fans running to remove smoke
- C. Stop all fans and close all dampers tight
- D. Set ventilation to 50% capacity
Answer: C — Stop all fans and close all dampers tight
Stopping ventilation prevents loss of CO2 concentration and starves fire of oxygen.
26. What is the main advantage of High-Expansion Foam in engine room bilges?
- A. Rapidly fills volume and smothers fire without liquid weight accumulation
- B. Cools hot steel faster than water jet
- C. Conducts electricity safely
- D. Absorbs oil completely
Answer: A — Rapidly fills volume and smothers fire without liquid weight accumulation
High-expansion foam expands up to 1000:1 ratio filling large structural spaces quickly.
27. How often must fixed CO2 cylinder weight/pressure checks be conducted on ships?
- A. Annually by certified technician or competent officer
- B. Monthly by chief officer
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years during drydock
Answer: A — Annually by certified technician or competent officer
Annual inspection verifies cylinder content level and detects potential slow leaks.
28. What is the International Shore Connection used for?
- A. Shore electrical power supply
- B. Connecting shore fire water supply to ship fire main
- C. Bunkering fuel from shore
- D. Discharging bilges to shore
Answer: B — Connecting shore fire water supply to ship fire main
The International Shore Connection allows standardized coupling to shore fire hoses regardless of port fittings.
29. What is boundary cooling in shipboard firefighting?
- A. Cooling sea chest strainers
- B. Cooling adjacent bulkheads and decks to prevent heat transfer and fire spread
- C. Cooling the fire hose nozzle
- D. Cooling the SCBA wearer with water spray
Answer: B — Cooling adjacent bulkheads and decks to prevent heat transfer and fire spread
Boundary cooling prevents conduction of heat to neighboring compartments and stops fire propagation.
30. Which nozzle spray setting is recommended when advancing on an interior cabin fire?
- A. Shut off until inside cabin
- B. Wide fog spray at maximum pressure
- C. Solid jet stream directly at ceiling
- D. Narrow fog spray for protection and heat absorption
Answer: D — Narrow fog spray for protection and heat absorption
Narrow fog provides protective water screen while absorbing heat efficiently.
Set 8 — 8 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. What safety mechanism prevents accidental discharge of a fixed CO2 total flooding system?
- A. Breakable glass seal on main manifold
- B. Hydraulic interlock from bridge
- C. Master key held only by Captain
- D. Two-step control valve box with alarm microswitches
Answer: D — Two-step control valve box with alarm microswitches
SOLAS requires a dedicated cabinet with pre-discharge alarm activated upon opening cabinet door.
2. What specific safety precaution must be observed when managing deck and engine room operational protocols for Advanced Fire Fighting on board?
- A. Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
- B. Disabling automated safety alarms to save time
- C. Delegating tasks exclusively to untrained crew members
- D. Proceeding without informing the officer on watch
Answer: A — Conducting a thorough risk assessment and briefing all involved personnel prior to starting work
Risk assessments and pre-job briefings ensure all team members understand hazards during Advanced Fire Fighting operations.
3. Which international regulation specifies the minimum standard for deck and engine room operational protocols concerning Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. STCW Code Section A-VI/2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
- B. International Load Line Certificate Annex 3
- C. Port State Control advisory note only
- D. Tonnage Measurement Convention 1969
Answer: A — STCW Code Section A-VI/2 and relevant SOLAS/MARPOL conventions
STCW Code Section A-VI/2 sets international standards for training and operational competency in Advanced Fire Fighting.
4. In the event of an emergency involving deck and engine room operational protocols during Advanced Fire Fighting tasks, what immediate action is required?
- A. Attempt to resolve the incident silently without raising the alarm
- B. Wait until the end of the watch to log the issue
- C. Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
- D. Evacuate the vessel immediately without informing the bridge
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, notify the Officer of the Watch, and execute assigned muster list duties
Prompt alarm activation ensures emergency response teams can mobilize immediately.
5. How frequently must operational drills and practical checks for deck and engine room operational protocols be conducted for Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. Only when requested by port State control inspectors
- B. At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
- C. Once every 5 years during special survey
- D. Annually prior to vessel drydocking
Answer: B — At least monthly or as mandated by SOLAS and shipboard safety management system (SMS)
Regular drills maintain crew emergency readiness and satisfy SOLAS requirements.
6. What documented record must be maintained on board following completion of tasks related to deck and engine room operational protocols in Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. Verbal update to port agent without logging
- B. Unsigned note on the shipboard notice board
- C. Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
- D. No written record is required
Answer: C — Entry in the official Deck or Engine Logbook recording date, time, and operational parameters
Official logbook entries provide mandatory legal documentation of shipboard safety tasks.
7. What type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential when handling deck and engine room operational protocols under Advanced Fire Fighting guidelines?
- A. High-visibility vest only
- B. Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
- C. Basic cotton coveralls without eye or foot protection
- D. Standard street clothing with rubber gloves
Answer: B — Certified task-specific PPE meeting SOLAS/IMO performance standards
Approved PPE protects personnel against specific physical and chemical hazards.
8. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for deck and engine room operational protocols related to Advanced Fire Fighting?
- A. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
- B. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
- C. Temperature check only
- D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
Answer: B — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.
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