AFF exit exam questions and answers — Advanced Fire Fighting

All 517 questions from the Advanced Fire Fighting (AFF) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the primary purpose of boundary cooling during a fire on a ship?

A. To minimize smoke production
B. To accelerate the combustion process
C. To increase the temperature inside the compartment
D. To prevent fire spread by cooling adjacent surfaces

Answer: D — To prevent fire spread by cooling adjacent surfaces

Boundary cooling involves applying water to surfaces adjacent to a fire. Its primary purpose is to absorb heat, preventing transfer via conduction, convection, and radiation, thereby inhibiting the fire from spreading to new compartments or fuel sources. This maintains the structural integrity and confines the fire.

2. In advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of using a Class A foam?

A. To neutralize acidic fumes
B. To control oil and fuel fires
C. To cool down hot surfaces
D. To suppress flammable gas release

Answer: C — To cool down hot surfaces

Class A foam is a wetting/cooling agent for ordinary combustibles; it improves water penetration and cooling of hot surfaces. Oil/fuel fires need Class B foam.

3. During a firefighting operation, what does the term "smoke curtain" refer to?

A. A cloud of water droplets to control temperature
B. A curtain made of fire-resistant material to contain smoke
C. A warning signal for evacuation
D. A physical barrier to prevent the entry of firefighters

Answer: B — A curtain made of fire-resistant material to contain smoke

A smoke curtain, often part of a ship's passive fire protection system, is a flexible, fire-resistant barrier. Its purpose is to automatically deploy and contain smoke and hot gases, preventing their spread to other areas, thereby improving visibility and maintaining tenable conditions for escape.

4. Which firefighting equipment is specifically designed for use in confined spaces onboard a ship?

A. Foam monitors
B. Fire extinguishers
C. Fire hoses
D. Breathing apparatus

Answer: D — Breathing apparatus

Breathing apparatus (BA) is essential for firefighters entering confined or smoke-filled spaces where oxygen levels may be depleted or toxic gases are present. It provides an independent supply of breathable air, ensuring the safety and operational effectiveness of personnel in hazardous atmospheres.

5. What is the primary purpose of the International Shore Connection (ISC) on a ship?

A. To connect with the shore power supply
B. To supply freshwater to the crew
C. To enhance communication with nearby vessels
D. To facilitate shore-based firefighting assistance

Answer: D — To facilitate shore-based firefighting assistance

The International Shore Connection (ISC), mandated by SOLAS, is a standardized flange on ships. Its primary purpose is to connect the ship's fire main to a shore-based water supply or another vessel's fire main, enabling external firefighting assistance if the ship's pumps are insufficient or incapacitated.

6. In advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of using a water fog nozzle?

A. To increase the range of water projection
B. To create a visual signal for distress
C. To create a dense fog for cooling purposes
D. To generate a fine mist for fire suppression

Answer: D — To generate a fine mist for fire suppression

A water fog nozzle disperses water into fine droplets, creating a large surface area for rapid heat absorption and conversion into steam. This rapidly cools the fire, displaces oxygen, and can protect firefighters from radiant heat, making it effective for general fire suppression and boundary cooling.

7. What is the role of a fire blanket in firefighting?

A. To smother small fires by cutting off the oxygen supply
B. To cool down hot surfaces in a fire-affected area
C. To create a barrier against radiant heat
D. To provide an escape route for trapped personnel

Answer: A — To smother small fires by cutting off the oxygen supply

A fire blanket is used to smother small fires, particularly those involving cooking oil or clothing, by cutting off the oxygen supply. Made of fire-resistant material, it forms an airtight seal over the flames, interrupting the combustion process effectively and safely.

8. In the context of firefighting, what does the acronym PASS stand for?

A. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
B. Pressure Application Safety System
C. Portable Aqueous Suppression System
D. Primary Air Supply Source

Answer: A — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS is a mnemonic acronym for the correct sequence of operations when using a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side. This ensures effective and safe extinguisher deployment.

9. What is the purpose of a fire screen in advanced firefighting?

A. To detect flammable gases
B. To separate different compartments for ventilation
C. To extinguish fires through a fine mist
D. To protect firefighters from radiant heat

Answer: D — To protect firefighters from radiant heat

A fire screen, or thermal barrier, is utilized to shield firefighters from intense radiant heat emanating from a fire. It allows personnel to approach closer to the fire source for more effective direct attack, while significantly reducing the risk of heat-related injuries and fatigue.

10. When using a fire hose, what is the recommended nozzle pattern for initial cooling of a fire in a confined space?

A. Straight stream
B. Cone spray
C. Fog pattern
D. Solid stream

Answer: C — Fog pattern

For initial cooling in a confined space, a fog pattern nozzle is recommended. The fine water droplets rapidly absorb heat and turn into steam, displacing oxygen and pushing back heat and smoke, thereby improving conditions for firefighters and preventing flashover.

11. In advanced firefighting, what is the primary function of a fire axe?

A. Ventilating smoke from the compartment
B. Applying foam to the fire
C. Cutting through bulkheads and doors
D. Spraying water in a concentrated stream

Answer: C — Cutting through bulkheads and doors

A fire axe is a crucial tool for firefighters, primarily used for forcible entry, breaking through lightweight bulkheads, doors, or clearing obstructions to gain access to a fire. Its design enables effective penetration and leverage in emergency situations.

12. What does the term "fire tetrahedron" refer to in the context of firefighting?

A. A four-sided firefighting tool
B. The four elements required for combustion
C. A specialized firefighting drill
D. A geometric shape used in fire suppression

Answer: B — The four elements required for combustion

The fire tetrahedron illustrates the four components necessary for fire: heat, fuel, oxygen, and a chemical chain reaction. Removing any one of these elements will extinguish the fire, which forms the fundamental principle behind all firefighting strategies and agent selection.

13. In the event of an electrical fire onboard, which firefighting equipment is specifically designed for use?

A. Foam extinguisher
B. Dry powder extinguisher
C. Water mist extinguisher
D. CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguisher

Answer: D — CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguisher

CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) extinguishers are specifically designed for electrical fires (Class C). Carbon dioxide is a non-conductive gas that smothers the fire by displacing oxygen without leaving a residue, making it ideal for protecting sensitive electrical equipment.

14. What is the purpose of a fireman's outfit (protective clothing) in advanced firefighting?

A. To store firefighting tools
B. To enhance physical agility
C. To provide protection from heat and flame
D. To identify firefighting personnel

Answer: C — To provide protection from heat and flame

A fireman's outfit, mandated by SOLAS, provides essential personal protective equipment (PPE) for firefighters. It is constructed from heat-resistant materials to shield the wearer from high temperatures, flames, radiant heat, and minor mechanical hazards, ensuring safety during firefighting operations.

15. In the context of fire safety, what does the acronym "RECAAR" stand for?

A. Rescue, Evacuation, Containment, Assessment, and Recovery
B. Rescue, Evacuation, and Containment of Aerial Risks
C. Response, Escape, and Control Against Adverse Reactions
D. Rapid Escape and Control Against Radiant heat

Answer: A — Rescue, Evacuation, Containment, Assessment, and Recovery

RECAAR is a structured approach to emergency response and incident management, particularly in maritime contexts. It stands for Rescue, Evacuation, Containment (of the incident), Assessment (of damage/situation), and Recovery (returning to normalcy), guiding comprehensive emergency procedures.

16. What is the purpose of a flame arrester in firefighting?

A. To arrest the progression of flames in a compartment
B. To control the spread of flammable liquids
C. To provide visual cues during firefighting operations
D. To enhance communication among firefighters

Answer: A — To arrest the progression of flames in a compartment

A flame arrester is a device (mesh/element) that stops flame propagation through an opening by absorbing heat; of the options only 'arrest the progression of flames' describes this.

17. During a shipboard fire emergency, what is the primary purpose of the muster list?

A. To account for all personnel and passengers
B. To allocate firefighting responsibilities
C. To identify the location of fire hydrants
D. To provide instructions for firefighting techniques

Answer: A — To account for all personnel and passengers

The muster list, as per SOLAS, is a crucial document detailing duties for crew members in various emergencies, including fire. Its primary purpose during an emergency muster is to ensure all personnel and passengers are accounted for and to verify their safety and assigned roles.

18. What is the recommended method for handling an injured person during a shipboard firefighting operation?

A. Immediate evacuation to the shore
B. Moving the person to a designated safe area
C. Placing the person in a confined space
D. Administering first aid at the fire location

Answer: B — Moving the person to a designated safe area

During a shipboard fire, the immediate priority for an injured person is to move them quickly and safely to a designated safe area, away from direct fire hazards or smoke. Administering first aid should follow once the individual is in a secure environment.

19. Which firefighting agent is commonly used to suppress fires involving flammable metals?

A. Foam
B. Dry powder
C. Water
D. CO2 (Carbon Dioxide)

Answer: B — Dry powder

Dry powder extinguishers (Class D) are specifically designed for fires involving combustible metals like magnesium, titanium, or sodium. These specialized powders smother the fire and form a crust that excludes oxygen, effectively suppressing these unique and intense fires.

20. What is the purpose of a fire control plan on a ship?

A. To provide guidance for controlling and suppressing fires
B. To outline emergency escape routes for passengers
C. To specify the locations of fire alarm pull stations
D. To identify the ship's navigation routes

Answer: A — To provide guidance for controlling and suppressing fires

The fire control plan, prominently displayed on ships as per SOLAS, provides critical information on the ship's fire protection arrangements. It guides effective fire control and suppression by indicating locations of fire-extinguishing appliances, fire-resistant divisions, and means of escape.

21. What is the purpose of a deluge system in shipboard firefighting?

A. To deliver a high-pressure water mist
B. To control electrical fires with a dry powder
C. To generate foam for flammable liquid fires
D. To flood a compartment with water rapidly

Answer: D — To flood a compartment with water rapidly

A deluge system is a fixed fire suppression system designed to rapidly discharge a large volume of water over a protected area or into a compartment. It's used in high-hazard areas to quickly cool and smother large fires or create an effective water barrier.

22. During a shipboard firefighting operation, what is the primary function of a portable gas detector?

A. To monitor radio communication
B. To identify flammable gases
C. To measure ambient temperature
D. To locate fire hydrants

Answer: B — To identify flammable gases

A portable gas detector is a vital piece of equipment used to monitor the atmosphere for the presence of flammable, toxic, or oxygen-deficient gases. It ensures the safety of personnel entering confined spaces or areas potentially affected by gas leaks during a fire emergency.

23. In the context of advanced firefighting, what is the purpose of a water curtain?

A. To supply water to firefighting hoses
B. To create a visual signal for distress
C. To generate foam for liquid fires
D. To create a barrier against radiant heat

Answer: D — To create a barrier against radiant heat

A water curtain, formed by a series of nozzles spraying water, creates a dense sheet of water. This acts as a thermal barrier, absorbing radiant heat and protecting adjacent areas or personnel from intense heat radiation, thereby preventing fire spread or providing a safe egress path.

24. Which firefighting equipment is commonly used to cut ventilation openings in ship compartments?

A. Water fog nozzle
B. Hydraulic rescue tool
C. Fire axe
D. Thermal imaging camera

Answer: B — Hydraulic rescue tool

Hydraulic rescue tools, such as spreaders and cutters, are powerful implements used for heavy-duty cutting and forcing open structural components. They are highly effective for cutting ventilation openings in robust ship compartments or structures where conventional tools are insufficient.

25. During a shipboard firefighting operation, what is the primary purpose of a positive pressure breathing apparatus (PPBA)?

A. To maintain positive pressure inside the mask
B. To prevent smoke from entering the mask
C. To supply fresh air to the compartment
D. To enhance communication among firefighters

Answer: A — To maintain positive pressure inside the mask

A positive pressure breathing apparatus (PPBA) maintains a slightly higher pressure inside the mask than the ambient pressure. This crucial feature prevents toxic smoke or gases from leaking into the mask, even with minor seal imperfections, ensuring the wearer breathes only clean, supplied air.

26. What is the primary function of the emergency generator automatic starting relay during a main power failure?

A. Stop the emergency fire pump motor
B. Open the main engine fuel oil quick closing valve
C. Discharge fixed CO2 into cargo holds
D. Automatically start the emergency diesel generator and connect it to the emergency switchboard within 45 seconds

Answer: D — Automatically start the emergency diesel generator and connect it to the emergency switchboard within 45 seconds

SOLAS requires the emergency generator to start automatically and restore essential emergency power within 45 seconds of main power loss.

27. What is the mandatory maintenance requirement under SOLAS Chapter II-2 for international shore connections on cargo ships?

A. Kept readily accessible on deck with a gasket, bolts, and nuts ready for immediate use
B. Stowed in the chief mate's office
C. Kept in the paint locker
D. Stored inside the engine room workshop

Answer: A — Kept readily accessible on deck with a gasket, bolts, and nuts ready for immediate use

SOLAS requires the international shore connection to be kept readily accessible on deck along with its flange, gasket, 4 bolts, and 4 nuts.

28. Regarding deck and engine room operational protocols in Advanced Fire Fighting, what is the mandatory safety standard required under STCW Code Table A-VI/2?

A. Non-mandatory recommendation
B. Optional compliance based on crew discretion
C. Applicable only when vessel is anchored
D. Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

Answer: D — Full compliance with approved STCW safety procedures and SMS protocols

STCW Code Section A-VI/2 requires strict adherence to approved safety protocols for Advanced Fire Fighting.

29. What is the primary function of the emergency fire pump isolation valve located on the main deck?

A. Divert water to the bilge system
B. Prevent backflow to the sea chest
C. Increase water pressure to the bridge
D. Isolate the engine room fire main from the deck fire main

Answer: D — Isolate the engine room fire main from the deck fire main

The isolation valve ensures the deck fire main remains pressurized if the engine room line is breached.

30. Under SOLAS regulations, what is the minimum water capacity for the emergency fire pump on cargo vessels?

A. At least 25 m³/h or 40% of required main pump capacity
B. 10 m³/h fixed rate
C. 50 m³/h continuous flow
D. 100 m³/h at maximum RPM

Answer: A — At least 25 m³/h or 40% of required main pump capacity

SOLAS Chapter II-2 mandates emergency fire pumps supply at least 40% of total main fire pump capacity.

Set 2 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. What type of fixed fire extinguishing system is required for paint lockers having a deck area greater than 4 m²?

A. Inert gas generator
B. High-expansion foam only
C. Dry powder system only
D. Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling fire extinguishing system

Answer: D — Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling fire extinguishing system

Paint lockers must be protected by an approved fixed fire extinguishing system suitable for flammable liquids.

2. What pre-release protocol must be completed before discharging CO2 into an engine room space?

A. Ensure all personnel are evacuated, ventilation fans stopped, and dampers closed tight
B. Open skylights to vent pressure
C. Start emergency generator
D. Keep exhaust ventilation running at half speed

Answer: A — Ensure all personnel are evacuated, ventilation fans stopped, and dampers closed tight

Stopping ventilation prevents loss of CO2 concentration and starves the fire of oxygen.

3. What is the principal extinguishing mechanism of High-Expansion Foam when applied to machinery space bilges?

A. Absorbing oil spills
B. Cooling hot steel bulkheads
C. Rapid volume filling and total smothering of flammable surface vapors
D. Diluting fuel vapors

Answer: C — Rapid volume filling and total smothering of flammable surface vapors

High-expansion foam expands up to 1000:1 ratio, smothering fires in large volumetric spaces.

4. What is the maximum allowable pressure drop before an SCBA compressed air cylinder must be recharged?

A. 25% below working pressure
B. 5 bar drop
C. 50% below working pressure
D. 10% below nominal working pressure

Answer: D — 10% below nominal working pressure

SCBA cylinders must be maintained at full capacity; a drop over 10% requires immediate recharging.

5. What is the function of the International Shore Connection fitted on shipboard fire mains?

A. Discharge oily bilge water to shore
B. Enable shore fire lines to connect to the vessel's fire main regardless of port hose fittings
C. Bunker fresh water from shore
D. Supply shore electrical power

Answer: B — Enable shore fire lines to connect to the vessel's fire main regardless of port hose fittings

The International Shore Connection provides a standard flange coupling compatible worldwide.

6. What is the primary objective of boundary cooling during a shipboard compartment fire?

A. Prevent heat transfer through bulkheads and decks to stop fire spread to adjacent spaces
B. Extinguish the primary fire flame
C. Cool the firefighting team's turnout suits
D. Reduce water pressure in the fire main

Answer: A — Prevent heat transfer through bulkheads and decks to stop fire spread to adjacent spaces

Boundary cooling prevents thermal conduction from igniting combustible materials in neighboring rooms.

7. Under SOLAS Chapter II-2, how many firefighter outfits must be carried on cargo ships of 500 GT and above?

A. At least 6 outfits
B. At least 2 firefighter outfits
C. At least 4 outfits
D. At least 1 outfit

Answer: B — At least 2 firefighter outfits

SOLAS requires a minimum of 2 firefighter outfits on cargo vessels of 500 GT and above.

8. What safety precaution is mandatory when entering a compartment after a fixed CO2 system has been discharged?

A. Wait 5 minutes without testing
B. Verify complete gas-freeing and atmospheric testing (O2 at 20.9%) using approved sensors
C. Enter immediately after opening door
D. Wear a cotton dust mask only

Answer: B — Verify complete gas-freeing and atmospheric testing (O2 at 20.9%) using approved sensors

CO2 is asphyxiating; spaces must be thoroughly ventilated and tested before entry without breathing apparatus.

9. What is the purpose of the relief valve fitted on a fire main isolation system?

A. Drain water during freezing weather
B. Supply water to deck scuppers
C. Allow air to vent from the system
D. Protect fire piping from over-pressurization during emergency pump operation

Answer: D — Protect fire piping from over-pressurization during emergency pump operation

Relief valves protect piping from pressure surges when nozzles are shut down.

10. Which SOLAS requirement applies to quick-closing valves on fuel oil tanks in case of engine room fire?

A. They must be tested every 5 years
B. They can only be operated manually inside the engine room
C. They must be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the engine room
D. They must close automatically at 50 degrees C

Answer: C — They must be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the engine room

Quick-closing valves allow rapid isolation of fuel supplies from a remote position during a fire.

11. What is the minimum operating duration required for an approved SCBA cylinder used in firefighting?

A. At least 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 45 minutes

Answer: A — At least 30 minutes

Standard firefighter SCBA sets must provide a minimum of 30 minutes operating time.

12. What type of foam compound is most effective for extinguishing polar solvent alcohol fires on chemical tankers?

A. Alcohol-Resistant Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AR-AFFF)
B. High-Expansion Synthetic Foam
C. Fluoroprotein Foam
D. Standard Protein Foam

Answer: A — Alcohol-Resistant Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AR-AFFF)

AR-AFFF forms a protective membrane over polar solvents, preventing foam degradation.

13. Why must fire hoses be pressure tested annually onboard ships?

A. To verify structural integrity and prevent hose burst under emergency working pressure
B. To clean internal salt deposits
C. To satisfy customs inspections
D. To measure water flow rate

Answer: A — To verify structural integrity and prevent hose burst under emergency working pressure

Annual hydro-testing ensures fire hoses will not fail when pressurized during emergencies.

14. What is the main advantage of a water mist fire extinguishing system compared to traditional sprinkler systems?

A. Requires no pumps or piping
B. Fills the space with chemical powder
C. Requires higher electrical voltage
D. Uses significantly less water while providing high heat absorption and rapid oxygen displacement

Answer: D — Uses significantly less water while providing high heat absorption and rapid oxygen displacement

Water mist droplets evaporate instantly, absorbing heat and displacing oxygen with lower water damage.

15. Under STCW, what is the role of the On-Scene Commander during a major shipboard fire incident?

A. Operate the main engine throttle
B. Maintain passenger headcount in mess room
C. Direct tactical firefighting operations at the fire scene and communicate with the Command Team
D. Stay on the bridge to navigate the ship

Answer: C — Direct tactical firefighting operations at the fire scene and communicate with the Command Team

The On-Scene Commander leads tactical entry teams and reports status to the Master.

16. What safety feature prevents accidental discharge of fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems?

A. Automatic trigger at 30°C
B. Double-valve protection with pilot control and alarm trip switches in locked release cabinets
C. Threaded cap on main discharge pipe
D. Single push button on the bridge

Answer: B — Double-valve protection with pilot control and alarm trip switches in locked release cabinets

Locked cabinets with micro-switches initiate pre-discharge alarms before main valves can open.

17. What device must be worn by firefighters in low oxygen or toxic smoke environments?

A. Dust filter mask
B. Canister gas mask
C. Wet handkerchief
D. Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)

Answer: D — Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)

SCBA supplies positive-pressure breathable air independent of the ambient atmosphere.

18. How often must emergency fire pumps be tested operational according to SOLAS safety management system routines?

A. Monthly
B. Annually
C. Quarterly
D. Weekly

Answer: D — Weekly

Emergency fire pumps must be tested weekly to ensure immediate readiness.

19. What is the correct procedure for searching a smoke-filled compartment during search and rescue?

A. Crawl along ceiling piping
B. Run to the far corner immediately
C. Maintain continuous physical or wall contact and sweep floor area systematically
D. Walk upright quickly with flashlight

Answer: C — Maintain continuous physical or wall contact and sweep floor area systematically

Staying low reduces heat/smoke exposure and wall contact prevents disorientation.

20. What is the primary function of drenching systems fitted on roll-on/roll-off (Ro-Ro) vehicle decks?

A. Provide rapid total-area water coverage to extinguish vehicle fires quickly
B. Cool exhaust manifolds
C. Wash down vehicle tires
D. Provide fresh drinking water

Answer: A — Provide rapid total-area water coverage to extinguish vehicle fires quickly

Ro-Ro vehicle deck drenchers deliver heavy water spray across open vehicle bays.

21. Which class of fire involves energized electrical equipment such as switchboards or electric motors?

A. Class B
B. Class A
C. Class C (or Electrical Fire)
D. Class D

Answer: C — Class C (or Electrical Fire)

Electrical fires require non-conductive extinguishing agents like CO2 or dry chemical.

22. Why must firefighter turnout gear be thoroughly cleaned after exposure to heavy smoke?

A. To increase thermal weight
B. To remove carcinogenic combustion products and flammable chemical residues
C. To restore shiny color
D. To shrink the material tight

Answer: B — To remove carcinogenic combustion products and flammable chemical residues

Soot accumulation reduces thermal protection and exposes crew to toxic chemicals.

23. What is the purpose of a flame arrestor fitted on a fuel tank vent pipe?

A. Regulate fuel pumping speed
B. Prevent external flames from traveling into the fuel vapor space
C. Stop fuel overflow
D. Filter air dust

Answer: B — Prevent external flames from traveling into the fuel vapor space

Flame arrestors quench flame fronts via fine wire mesh heat dissipation.

24. What is the minimum number of spare SCBA air charges required onboard cargo ships?

A. None required if compressor available
B. 5 spare charges per set
C. At least 2 spare charges per required SCBA set
D. 1 spare charge total

Answer: C — At least 2 spare charges per required SCBA set

SOLAS requires two spare charges for each required breathing apparatus.

25. A safety is provided on the CO2 discharge piping to prevent:

A. Rupture of cylinder due to temperature increase
B. Over pressurization of the space being flooded
C. Flooding of a space where personnel are present
D. Over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping

Answer: D — Over pressurization of the CO2 discharge piping

A safety relief device, often a bursting disc, is installed on CO2 discharge piping to prevent over-pressurization. In the event of an abnormal pressure build-up, it ruptures to release the CO2, protecting the piping system from damage or catastrophic failure, compliant with the FSS Code.

26. Apart from red what other color is frequently used for a CO2 extinguisher:

A. Yellow
B. Blue
C. Black
D. Red

Answer: C — Black

While the main body of fire extinguishers is typically red, different types are identified by a color band or the entire body color. For CO2 extinguishers, the body is often black or has a black band, clearly distinguishing them from other types for rapid identification.

27. In fighting a fire in a fuel tank, the first action you should attempt is to:

A. Station someone at the fixed CO2 release controls
B. Begin transferring the fuel to other tanks
C. Top off the tank to force out all vapors
D. Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank

Answer: D — Secure all sources of fresh air to the tank

For a fire in a fuel tank, the first critical step is to eliminate the oxygen supply by securing all openings, vents, and fresh air sources. This starves the fire, helping to contain it before applying extinguishing agents and mitigating the risk of rapid spread.

28. The FIRST course of action in fighting a fire in a cargo or fuel oil tank is to:

A. Direct a fire hose into the tank and energize the fire main
B. Spray the tank boundaries with a fire hose to promote cooling
C. Discharge an initial charge of CO2 with a hand portable extinguisher
D. Secure all openings to the tank

Answer: D — Secure all openings to the tank

Securing all openings to a cargo or fuel oil tank immediately cuts off the oxygen supply, a critical element for combustion. This primary action helps to contain the fire, reduces its intensity, and prepares the space for the safe and effective application of fixed extinguishing systems.

29. Three side of fire triangle are fuel, heat and ............?

A. Oxygen
B. Petrol
C. Gases
D. Combustible material

Answer: A — Oxygen

The fire triangle comprises three essential elements for combustion: fuel (combustible material), heat (ignition source), and oxygen (oxidizer). Removing or disrupting any one of these elements will effectively extinguish the fire, a fundamental concept in firefighting theory and practice.

30. In a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system where pressure from pilot cylinders is used to release the CO2 from the main bank of cylinders, the number of required pilot cylinders shall be at least:

A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 6

Answer: C — 2

According to SOLAS regulations and the FSS Code, in a fixed CO2 system where pilot cylinders release CO2 from the main bank, there must be at least two pilot cylinders. This redundancy ensures system reliability, so a single pilot cylinder failure does not render the entire system inoperable.

Set 3 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Fixed CO2 systems would not be used on crew's quarters or:

A. the engine room
B. spaces open to the atmosphere
C. cargo holds
D. the paint locker

Answer: B — spaces open to the atmosphere

Fixed CO2 systems work by displacing oxygen to smother a fire. They are ineffective and potentially dangerous in spaces open to the atmosphere, such as open decks or other unenclosed areas, as the CO2 would rapidly dissipate, failing to achieve the necessary concentration to extinguish the fire.

2. Your vessel is equipped with a fixed CO2 system and a fire main system. In the event of an electrical fire in the engine room what is the correct procedure for fighting the fire?

A. Evacuate the engine room and use the fire main system.
B. Use the CO2 system and evacuate the engine room.
C. Use the fire main system and evacuate the engine room.
D. Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.

Answer: D — Evacuate the engine room and use the CO2 system.

For an electrical fire in the engine room, personnel must first evacuate due to the danger of toxic smoke and CO2 deployment. Subsequently, the fixed CO2 system should be released, as CO2 is non-conductive and effectively smothers electrical fires without causing further damage to equipment.

3. When pilot cylinder pressure is used as a means to release the CO2 from a fixed fire extinguishing system consisting of four storage cylinders, the number of pilot cylinders shall be at least:

A. 3
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2

Answer: D — 2

As per SOLAS and FSS Code requirements for fixed CO2 systems, if pilot cylinders are used to release the CO2 from the main storage cylinders, a minimum of two pilot cylinders are mandatory. This ensures critical operational redundancy and system reliability, preventing a single point of failure.

4. After extinguishing a paint locker fire using the fixed CO2 system, the next action is to have the space:

A. doused with water to prevent reflash
B. left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool
C. opened and burned material removed
D. checked for oxygen content

Answer: B — left closed with vents off until all boundaries are cool

After a CO2 discharge, the space should remain closed with ventilation secured until all boundaries have cooled down. Opening the space too soon can introduce oxygen, potentially causing re-ignition or flashover due to residual heat, a critical post-fire procedure to prevent secondary incidents.

5. In a fixed CO2 extinguishing system where provision is made for the release of CO2 by operation of a remote control, provision shall also be made for releasing the CO2:

A. from inside the engine room
B. from the bridge
C. at the cylinder location
D. from the cargo control station

Answer: C — at the cylinder location

SOLAS regulations require that fixed CO2 systems with remote release mechanisms also have a provision for local release at the cylinder location. This ensures the system can still be activated manually in case of a remote control malfunction, providing a critical backup and enhancing system reliability.

6. Which of the following statements is FALSE, concerning the regulations pertaining to the cylinder room of a fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system?

A. The door must be kept unlocked.
B. The compartment shall be clearly marked and identifiable.
C. The temperature of the room should never exceed 130°F.
D. The compartment must be properly ventilated.

Answer: A — The door must be kept unlocked.

The statement that the door must be kept unlocked is FALSE. The CO2 cylinder room must be kept locked to prevent unauthorized access, but with clear instructions and readily available keys for authorized personnel. SOLAS and FSS Code mandate proper ventilation, clear marking, and temperature control.

7. You are releasing carbon dioxide gas (CO2) into an engine compartment to extinguish a fire. The CO2 will be most effective if the:

A. compartment is closed and ventilators are opened
B. air flow to the compartment is increased with blowers
C. compartment is closed and airtight
D. compartment is left open to the air

Answer: C — compartment is closed and airtight

To extinguish a fire with CO2, the compartment must be sealed to contain the gas, thereby reducing the oxygen concentration to a level below that required for combustion. Increasing air flow or leaving the compartment open would disperse the CO2, rendering it ineffective.

8. CO2 cylinders, which protect the small space in which they are stored must:

A. have an audible alarm
B. All of the above
C. be automatically operated by a heat actuator
D. NOT contain more than 200 pounds of CO2

Answer: C — be automatically operated by a heat actuator

Per USCG 46 CFR (small CO2 systems up to 300 lb), cylinders stored inside the protected space must also be operated automatically by a heat actuator. The 200 lb limit is wrong, so 'All of the above' fails.

9. In areas where CO2 piping is installed, such piping may not be used for any other purpose EXCEPT:

A. to run the emergency wiring to the space
B. in connection with the fire-detecting system
C. in connection with the water sprinkler system
D. to ventilate the space

Answer: B — in connection with the fire-detecting system

Piping for fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems is dedicated solely to its fire suppression function to ensure reliability and prevent contamination or obstruction. While fire detection systems share an area, CO2 piping cannot be used for ventilation or other unrelated purposes.

10. Control valves of a CO2 system may be located within the protected space when:

A. it is impractical to locate them outside
B. an automatic heat-sensing trip is installed
C. the CO2 cylinders are also in the space
D. there is also a control valve outside

Answer: D — there is also a control valve outside

Control valves for CO2 systems in protected spaces are typically located outside. However, if impractical, they may be located inside provided a secondary control valve is also present externally for safe manual operation during an emergency.

11. While you are working in a space, the fixed CO2 system is accidentally activated. You should:

A. continue with your work as there is nothing you can do to stop the flow of CO2
B. secure the applicators to preserve the charge in the cylinders
C. retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning
D. make sure all doors and vents are secured

Answer: C — retreat to fresh air and ventilate the compartment before returning

If a CO2 system activates accidentally while you are in the space, the immediate priority is personal safety. Retreating to fresh air and ensuring the compartment is ventilated before re-entry is crucial as CO2 displaces oxygen, posing an asphyxiation risk.

12. Large volumes of carbon dioxide are safe and effective for fighting fires in enclosed spaces, such as in a pumproom, provided that the:

A. ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space
B. persons in the space wear damp cloths over their mouths and nostrils
C. ventilation system is kept operating
D. persons in the space wear gas masks

Answer: A — ventilation system is secured and all persons leave the space

For effective CO2 fire suppression in enclosed spaces like pumprooms, the ventilation system must be secured to maintain the required concentration of CO2. This also necessitates ensuring all personnel have evacuated the space prior to discharge.

13. Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is required for CO2 systems protecting the:

A. living quarters
B. galley
C. machinery spaces
D. cargo compartments

Answer: C — machinery spaces

Automatic mechanical ventilation shutdown is mandatory for CO2 systems protecting machinery spaces to ensure the inerting effect of the CO2 is maintained. This prevents dilution and maximizes the effectiveness of the extinguishing agent.

14. Carbon dioxide as a fire fighting agent has which advantage over other agents?

A. It causes minimal damage.
B. It is most effective on a per unit basis.
C. It is safer for personnel.
D. It is cheaper.

Answer: A — It causes minimal damage.

Carbon dioxide offers the advantage of being a clean agent, meaning it leaves no residue after discharge. This is particularly beneficial for protecting sensitive equipment where water or foam might cause collateral damage.

15. CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every:

A. 2 years
B. 12 years
C. year
D. 6 years

Answer: B — 12 years

SOLAS regulations mandate that CO2 cylinders used in fixed fire extinguishing systems must undergo hydrostatic testing every 12 years to ensure their structural integrity and safety for continued use.

16. Fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing systems, for machinery spaces that are normally manned, are actuated by one control to open the stop valve in the line leading to the space, and:

A. separate control to release the CO2
B. three separate controls to release the CO2
C. two separate controls to release the CO2
D. the same control releasing the CO2

Answer: A — separate control to release the CO2

FSS Code Ch.5 / SOLAS II-2: two separate controls are needed, one to open the valve in the line to the protected space and a separate control to discharge the gas from the containers.

17. A fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITHOUT a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, is actuated by:

A. three controls
B. one control
C. none of the above
D. two controls

Answer: B — one control

If a CO2 system for a machinery space is designed without a stop valve in the line to the protected space, the release of CO2 is achieved through a single control mechanism. This simplifies the activation process in such configurations.

18. On cargo vessels, the discharge of the required quantity of carbon dioxide into any 'tight' space shall be completed within:

A. 6 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 2 minutes
D. 1 minute

Answer: C — 2 minutes

SOLAS requires that the discharge of the designed quantity of carbon dioxide into a 'tight' space on cargo vessels be completed within 2 minutes. This rapid discharge is essential for quickly suppressing the fire before it escalates.

19. Aboard a cargo vessel, the supply of carbon dioxide used in a fixed extinguishing system MUST at least be sufficient for what space:

A. all cargo spaces
B. the space requiring the largest amount
C. the engine room and largest cargo space
D. all the spaces of a vessel

Answer: B — the space requiring the largest amount

The supply of CO2 for a fixed extinguishing system on a cargo vessel must be sufficient to protect the single space that requires the largest quantity of gas. This ensures adequate protection for the most demanding scenario.

20. How often must CO2 systems be inspected to confirm cylinders are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge:

A. quarterly
B. biannually
C. annually
D. semiannually

Answer: C — annually

CO2 cylinders in fixed fire extinguishing systems are required to be inspected annually. This inspection includes weighing the cylinders to confirm they are within 10% of the stamped full weight of the charge.

21. In weighing CO2 cylinders, they must be recharged if weight loss exceeds:

A. 10% of weight of full bottle
B. 10% of weight of charge
C. 15% of weight of full bottle
D. 20% of weight of charge

Answer: B — 10% of weight of charge

CO2 cylinders for fixed fire extinguishing systems must be recharged if their weight loss exceeds 10% of the original weight of the charge. This ensures the system contains the correct amount of agent for effective fire suppression.

22. Before using a fixed CO2 system to fight an engine room fire, you must:

A. secure the machinery in the engine room
B. All of the above
C. secure the engine room ventilation
D. evacuate all engine room personnel

Answer: B — All of the above

Before activating a fixed CO2 system in an engine room, essential safety precautions include securing the ventilation to contain the CO2, stopping the machinery to prevent further hazards, and evacuating all personnel to prevent asphyxiation.

23. The CO2 flooding system is actuated by a sequence of steps which are:

A. break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control
B. open stop valve, open control valve, trip alarm
C. sound evacuation alarm, pull handle
D. open bypass valve, break glass, pull handle

Answer: A — break glass, pull valve, break glass, pull cylinder control

The typical sequence for actuating a fixed CO2 flooding system involves a series of steps to ensure safety and proper function: breaking the glass to access controls, pulling a handle or lever to release the CO2, and confirming cylinder control activation.

24. Which advantage does dry chemical have over carbon dioxide (CO2) in firefighting?

A. More protective against re-flash
B. Compatible with all foam agents
C. Cleaner
D. All of the above

Answer: A — More protective against re-flash

Dry chemical agents offer a greater advantage over CO2 in preventing re-flash because they form a crust on the burning material, effectively isolating it from oxygen. CO2 primarily works by diluting oxygen and cooling.

25. What is NOT a characteristic of carbon dioxide fire-extinguishing agents?

A. Will not deteriorate in storage
B. Effective even if ventilation is not shut down
C. Effective on electrical equipment
D. Non-corrosive

Answer: B — Effective even if ventilation is not shut down

Carbon dioxide is not effective if ventilation is not shut down, as its extinguishing action relies on displacing oxygen and cooling. The other listed characteristics—stability, non-corrosiveness, and effectiveness on electrical fires—are indeed advantages of CO2.

26. In a fixed carbon dioxide extinguishing system for a machinery space, designed WITH a stop valve in the line leading to the protected space, the flow of CO2 is established by actuating:

A. two controls
B. one control
C. none of the above
D. three controls

Answer: A — two controls

When a fixed CO2 system for a machinery space includes a stop valve in the line to the protected space, its activation requires two controls. One control operates the stop valve, and the second control releases the CO2 from the cylinders.

27. An important step in fighting any electrical fire is to:

A. Increase ventilation
B. De-energize the circuit
C. Use chemical foam
D. Apply water fog immediately

Answer: B — De-energize the circuit

De-energizing the circuit is the most critical step when fighting an electrical (Class C) fire. This removes the power source, preventing electric shock hazards and the risk of reignition.

28. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?

A. Flame detection system
B. Automatic fire detection system
C. Manual pull stations
D. Smoke obstruction system

Answer: B — Automatic fire detection system

An automatic fire detection system can be actuated by sensing a heat rise, which triggers an alarm or the activation of a fire suppression system. Other systems listed detect flame, require manual activation, or sense smoke particles.

29. Water fog is an effective firefighting agent because it:

A. Has a great cooling ability
B. Breaks the molecular chain reaction chemically
C. Smothers the fire using dense foam
D. Displaces oxygen completely

Answer: A — Has a great cooling ability

Water fog is effective because its fine spray creates a large surface area, maximizing heat absorption and thus providing significant cooling. This cooling effect is crucial in suppressing fires of Class A and B types.

30. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by:

A. Cooling the surrounding storage cylinders
B. Applying large amounts of dry chemical powder
C. Flooding with low-velocity fog
D. Stopping the flow of gas

Answer: D — Stopping the flow of gas

The best way to extinguish a fire involving escaping liquefied flammable gas is to stop the flow of the gas itself. Applying extinguishing agents can be dangerous and may not effectively stop the fuel source.

Set 4 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. When combating a Class C fire, which of the following dangers may be present?

A. Exploding fuel-air vapor mixtures
B. Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
C. High expansion foam flashover
D. Spontaneous combustion of scrap metal

Answer: B — Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock

Class C fires, involving energized electrical equipment, pose the risk of toxic fumes from burning insulation materials and the immediate danger of electric shock to personnel.

2. The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the:

A. Flash Point
B. Critical Point
C. Ignition Point
D. Fire Point

Answer: D — Fire Point

The Fire Point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off vapors that can sustain combustion after ignition. This is distinct from the Flash Point, which is the temperature at which vapors ignite momentarily.

3. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel-electric drive vessel is usually a:

A. Dry powder station
B. Fixed CO2 system
C. Water sprinkler system
D. Fixed foam system

Answer: B — Fixed CO2 system

Diesel-electric drive vessels commonly use fixed CO2 systems to protect propulsion motors and generators. CO2 is suitable for electrical equipment as it is non-conductive and leaves no residue.

4. Metal fires should be fought using which extinguisher type?

A. Halon gas
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
D. Dry powder

Answer: D — Dry powder

Metal fires (Class D) require specialized extinguishing agents like dry powder. Agents such as CO2, AFFF, or Halon can react violently with burning metals, intensifying the fire or causing explosions.

5. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Dry powder
C. Dry chemical
D. Water spray

Answer: B — Dry powder

Class D fires, involving combustible metals, require specific dry powder extinguishers designed to smother and cool the metal. CO2 and dry chemical are generally unsuitable and can be hazardous for metal fires.

6. Class 1 watertight doors are:

A. Rolling type
B. Hinged type
C. Vertical sliding type
D. Horizontal sliding type

Answer: B — Hinged type

Class 1 watertight doors are hinged types, typically found in passenger ships, designed to be quickly closed. Class 2 doors are usually sliding types and are often operated remotely.

7. A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a:

A. Class A fire
B. Class C fire
C. Class B fire
D. Class D fire

Answer: C — Class B fire

A fire in a fuel oil settling tank involves flammable liquids, classifying it as a Class B fire. Class A involves ordinary combustibles, Class C electrical, and Class D metals.

8. The symbols for Fire Control plans are approved by which organization?

A. International Labor Organization (ILO)
B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
C. International Standards Organization (ISO)
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

Answer: B — International Maritime Organization (IMO)

The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is responsible for approving the symbols used on Fire Control plans, ensuring standardized representation of fire safety equipment and arrangements across vessels.

9. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 6.8 kg CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?

A. Suffocation inside the main casing
B. Rupture of downstream valves
C. Rekindling of the fire
D. Freezing of mechanical controls

Answer: C — Rekindling of the fire

After using a CO2 extinguisher on an oil fire, rekindling is a potential danger as the CO2 dissipates and the hot oil may reach its ignition temperature again if not properly cooled or smothered.

10. What emergency equipment is NOT found in the crew mess in the view of a Fire Control plan?

A. Portable fire extinguisher
B. Heat sensor
C. Emergency escape breathing device (EEBD)
D. Fire axe

Answer: B — Heat sensor

Heat sensors are part of an automatic fire detection system and are typically located in the protected spaces themselves, not in general areas like the crew mess. Other listed items are emergency equipment often found in such locations.

11. Dry powder fire extinguishers which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as firefighting agents are generally used to fight which type of fire?

A. Class C electrical fire
B. Class B fuel oil fire
C. Class D metal fire
D. Class A wood fire

Answer: C — Class D metal fire

Dry powder extinguishers containing graphite and sodium chloride are specifically designed for Class D fires, which involve combustible metals. These agents form a crust, smothering the fire and preventing re-ignition.

12. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more are required to have facilities to enable connection on each side of the ship for this fire control equipment:

A. Emergency bilge pump suction manifold
B. Fixed sprinkler bypass valve
C. High expansion foam generator
D. International Shore connection

Answer: D — International Shore connection

On oil tankers of 500 gross tons or more, an International Shore Connection is required on each side of the ship. This allows shore-based fire fighting equipment to connect to the vessel's fire main system.

13. Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating:

A. Dry chemical powder with water stream
B. Foam chemical with nitrogen gas
C. Liquid CO2 with water solution
D. Foam chemical with air and water

Answer: D — Foam chemical with air and water

Mechanical foam used in firefighting is generated by mixing a foam concentrate with water and then agitating this mixture with air. This process creates a foam blanket that cools and smothers the fire.

14. What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the master and crew?

A. SOLAS training booklet
B. International code of signals chart
C. Vessel maintenance record
D. Emergency instructions

Answer: D — Emergency instructions

Emergency instructions detailing actions to be taken during emergencies must be prominently displayed at the vessel's operating station for immediate access by the master and crew.

15. The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and:

A. Engine room operating instructions
B. All emergency signals
C. Next port of call logistics
D. Navigation course parameters

Answer: B — All emergency signals

A muster list, as required by SOLAS, details not only muster stations and duties but also all relevant emergency signals to ensure all crew are aware of the different alarm sounds and their meanings.

16. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should first:

A. Direct a stream of water at the flames
B. Shut off the fuel oil supply
C. Evacuate all personnel immediately
D. Release the fixed CO2 system

Answer: B — Shut off the fuel oil supply

The immediate priority in a fuel oil leak fire is to stop the source of fuel. Shutting off the fuel supply removes the fuel element of the fire triangle, thus allowing the fire to extinguish. Releasing CO2 or using water are secondary actions, and evacuation is appropriate if the fire cannot be controlled.

17. If there has been a fire in a closed, unventilated compartment, it may be unsafe to enter because of:

A. High accumulations of nitrogen gas
B. Excess relative humidity
C. lack of oxygen
D. Built-up electrostatic charges

Answer: C — lack of oxygen

Fires consume oxygen for combustion. In a closed compartment, the oxygen level will significantly decrease, creating an atmosphere with insufficient oxygen to support human life. Therefore, entering such a compartment without self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is extremely hazardous due to potential asphyxiation.

18. Which of the listed classes of fires can best be extinguished with a water fog?

A. Class B and C
B. Class A and B
C. Class A and D
D. Class C and D

Answer: B — Class A and B

Water fog is particularly effective for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, cloth) by cooling and penetrating the material, and for Class B fires (flammable liquids) by cooling the liquid surface to below its flashpoint and forming a barrier. It is not suitable for Class C (electrical) or Class D (combustible metals) fires.

19. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room?

A. Right before entering the space with an SCBA
B. One hour after initial discharge regardless of temperature
C. After the metal surfaces have cooled down
D. Immediately after the fire goes out

Answer: C — After the metal surfaces have cooled down

After a CO2 discharge, hot surfaces can re-ignite vapours. Venting the compartment after the metal surfaces have cooled down reduces the risk of re-ignition and allows hazardous gases to dissipate safely before entry, ideally while wearing SCBA.

20. A definite advantage of using water as a firefighting agent is its characteristic of:

A. Leaving clean residue that acts as a fire barrier
B. Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
C. Breaking down chemical bonding chains safely
D. Non-conductivity near live machinery

Answer: B — Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam

Water's high latent heat of vaporization means it absorbs a significant amount of heat as it turns to steam. This rapid expansion helps to cool the burning material and can also help to push flames away from the surface.

21. What is NOT a characteristic of a carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent?

A. It leaves no messy residue after use
B. It displaces air to smother a fire
C. It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down
D. It can cause frostbite upon contact with skin

Answer: C — It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down

Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers displace oxygen to smother a fire, and as they discharge, the rapid expansion of gas causes extreme cooling, potentially leading to frostbite. However, CO2 is electrically conductive and must not be used on live electrical equipment if safer alternatives exist, and ventilation is crucial after use to clear the oxygen-deficient atmosphere.

22. It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to:

A. Retain toxic gases to help smother flames
B. Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
C. Limit the expansion of cooling steam lines
D. Protect the ventilation fan motor from overspeeding

Answer: B — Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire

Forcing ventilation into a compartment with a fire provides an additional supply of oxygen, which fuels the combustion process. Securing the ventilation removes this oxygen source, aiding in fire suppression, consistent with removing an element of the fire triangle.

23. The four basic components of a fire are a chain reaction, heat, fuel, and:

A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon monoxide

Answer: C — Oxygen

The fire triangle, representing the essential components for combustion, consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. The chain reaction is often considered the fourth element in the fire tetrahedron, but oxygen is the fundamental component that sustains the combustion process.

24. The flammable limits of an atmosphere are the:

A. Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
B. Maximum temperatures at which an oil source produces vapors
C. Minimum moisture concentrations needed to halt spontaneous ignition
D. Safe ambient operating thresholds for storage facilities

Answer: A — Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present

Flammable limits define the range of concentrations of a flammable gas or vapor in air that will burn or explode when an ignition source is present. The lower flammable limit (LFL) is the minimum concentration, and the upper flammable limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration.

25. A fire must be ventilated:

A. To cool down fuel reservoirs below their flashpoints
B. To supply additional oxygen to speed up burning
C. To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
D. Immediately after triggering a fixed gas smothering system

Answer: C — To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters

Ventilation is crucial in firefighting to remove smoke and toxic gases produced by combustion, ensuring a safer environment for firefighters to operate and preventing the spread of toxic fumes to other areas of the vessel. Supplying extra oxygen would worsen the fire.

26. A fire in a radio transmitter would be of what class under NFPA?

A. Class B
B. Class D
C. Class C
D. Class A

Answer: C — Class C

Fires involving electrical equipment are classified as Class C fires. A radio transmitter is an electrical device, making any fire within it a Class C fire, requiring extinguishing agents that are non-conductive.

27. Containers are manufactured as per standards set by:

A. SOLAS
B. ISO
C. MARPOL
D. IMO

Answer: B — ISO

The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) sets standards for various products, including containers. These standards ensure uniformity, safety, and interoperability in the manufacturing and use of containers globally.

28. What, when removed, will assist in the self-extinguishment of a fire?

A. Argon
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

Answer: C — Oxygen

Oxygen is a key component of the fire triangle; its removal breaks the combustion process. Therefore, removing oxygen will assist in the self-extinguishment of a fire by starving it of this essential element.

29. Classification of fire bulkheads inside accommodation spaces is based on fire resisting capabilities. They are classified as:

A. Class X, Y, Z
B. Class H, J, K
C. Class 1, 2, 3
D. Class A, B, C

Answer: D — Class A, B, C

SOLAS classifies fire integrity of bulkheads and decks into Class A, B, and C, based on their fire-resisting properties and the duration they can withstand a standard fire test. Class A offers the highest integrity, followed by B and C.

30. Good housekeeping on a vessel prevents fire by:

A. Eliminating potential fuel sources
B. Cooling electrical control systems
C. Improving the speed of bilge pumps
D. Increasing structural fire boundaries

Answer: A — Eliminating potential fuel sources

Good housekeeping is fundamental to fire prevention as it involves keeping spaces clean and orderly, thereby eliminating or minimizing potential fuel sources such as oily rags, waste, and accumulated debris.

Set 5 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. "Below lower flammable limit" means:

A. The vapor mixture is highly volatile and ready to explode
B. There is insufficient structural oxygen available for combustion
C. It is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases which is not sufficient to initiate a fire (too lean)
D. The atmosphere is completely saturated with fuel vapors (too rich)

Answer: C — It is a mixture of hydrocarbon gases which is not sufficient to initiate a fire (too lean)

"Below lower flammable limit" means the concentration of flammable vapor in the air is too low to sustain combustion. The mixture is too lean, and an ignition source will not cause it to burn or explode.

2. The oxidation process creates:

A. Free radical inhibitors
B. Heavy scale deposits
C. Heat
D. Cooling vapors

Answer: C — Heat

Oxidation is a chemical process that involves the loss of electrons and typically the gain of oxygen. In the context of fire, this process releases energy, primarily in the form of heat.

3. An important tool for fire prevention is:

A. Increasing high-expansion foam reserves
B. Periodic paint applications
C. Cleaning and good housekeeping
D. Keeping internal ventilation doors wide open

Answer: C — Cleaning and good housekeeping

Effective cleaning and good housekeeping practices are essential for fire prevention. They reduce the amount of combustible material available to fuel a fire and help identify potential hazards early.

4. The tendency or ability of a liquid to vaporize is called:

A. Viscosity
B. Capillarity
C. Density
D. Volatility

Answer: D — Volatility

Volatility refers to the tendency of a substance, particularly a liquid, to vaporize or form gases at a given temperature. Liquids with high volatility evaporate readily, posing a greater fire risk.

5. A person may operate an air compressor in which of the following areas on board a tank barge?

A. Generator room
B. Inside a cargo tank hatch
C. Pumproom space
D. Open deck near vapor manifold lines

Answer: A — Generator room

Operating electrical equipment like an air compressor should ideally be done in a safe area free from flammable vapors. A generator room is typically well-ventilated and designed for such equipment, unlike cargo tanks or pumprooms which may contain flammable gases.

6. The most efficient way of transferring heat in liquids and gases is called:

A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Insulation
D. Conduction

Answer: A — Convection

Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). As the fluid heats up, it becomes less dense and rises, while cooler, denser fluid sinks, creating a continuous circulation pattern.

7. Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the:

A. Cargo manifest layout
B. Master list (station bill)
C. Logbook register
D. Crew contract binder

Answer: B — Master list (station bill)

The Master List, also known as the Station Bill, details essential information for the crew, including muster stations, fire stations, and lifeboat assignments, as required by maritime regulations like SOLAS.

8. You can find the location of your abandon ship post by checking the:

A. Deck logbook entries
B. Bridge passage plan
C. Master list
D. Safety equipment certificate booklet

Answer: C — Master list

The Master List or Station Bill, which is posted on board, indicates the designated abandon ship post for each crew member. This ensures everyone knows their assigned location during an emergency.

9. In order to achieve the fire safety objective, which of the following functional requirements are embodied in SOLAS regulations?

A. All of the above
B. Division of the ship into main horizontal/vertical zones by thermal and structural boundaries
C. Separation of accommodation spaces from the remainder of the ship by thermal and structural boundaries
D. Protective means of escape and access for firefighting

Answer: A — All of the above

SOLAS Chapter II-2 outlines comprehensive fire safety measures. These include dividing the ship into zones, separating accommodation from machinery spaces, and ensuring adequate means of escape and fire-fighting access, encompassing all listed requirements.

10. The vessel's Fire Control plan is laid out on which of the following types of plan?

A. General arrangement
B. Midship structural section
C. Lines plan drawing
D. Tank capacity schematic

Answer: A — General arrangement

The Fire Control Plan, mandated by SOLAS, is typically a detailed General Arrangement plan showing the location of fire detection systems, fire-fighting equipment, means of escape, and boundaries of fire zones.

11. Carbon dioxide is stored under pressure in liquid form inside a fire:

A. Cylinder
B. Storage box enclosure
C. Hose connection reel
D. Foam applicator drum

Answer: A — Cylinder

Carbon dioxide (CO2) for fire suppression is stored under pressure in liquid form within robust cylinders, which are part of the fixed or portable fire extinguishing systems.

12. Which statement concerning carbon dioxide is FALSE?

A. It extinguishes fire by smothering action
B. It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space
C. It leaves no dynamic residue on machinery components
D. It can be utilized safely on electrical fires

Answer: B — It is safe to use near personnel in a confined space

While CO2 is effective and safe for electrical fires, it displaces oxygen and can cause asphyxiation. It is NOT safe to use near personnel in a confined space without proper respiratory protection and prior ventilation.

13. Which class division is considered capable of preventing the passage of ONLY flame to the end of the first half-hour of a standard fire test?

A. Class B
B. Class D
C. Class A
D. Class C

Answer: A — Class B

Class B divisions are designed according to SOLAS regulations to prevent the passage of flame for the first half-hour of a standard fire test. This provides crucial time for evacuation and initial firefighting efforts.

14. A fire hose can be used for purposes other than firefighting service when:

A. Clearing choked scupper valves
B. Washing down cargo decks at sea
C. Used for drills and testing
D. Supplying cooling fluid to a temporary generator

Answer: C — Used for drills and testing

Fire hoses are critical safety equipment and should primarily be used for firefighting. Their use for drills and testing is permissible and necessary for ensuring their readiness, but other uses can compromise their integrity.

15. How many CO2 fire extinguishers ought to be kept in accommodation areas?

A. Four on each deck landing
B. Two near the galley spaces
C. No extinguishers
D. One per room corridor

Answer: C — No extinguishers

CO2 extinguishers are generally not recommended for accommodation areas due to the risk of asphyxiation in confined spaces. Water-based or foam extinguishers are more commonly found in these areas, with specific types and numbers dictated by regulations.

16. Portable foam fire extinguishers are designed for use on which classes of fires?

A. Class A and D fires
B. Class A and B fires
C. Class B and C fires
D. Class C and D fires

Answer: B — Class A and B fires

Portable foam fire extinguishers are primarily designed for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles) and Class B fires (flammable liquids). They work by creating a foam blanket that smothers the fire and cools the fuel.

17. The removal of fuel in the firefighting process is known as:

A. Inhibition
B. Starvation
C. Smothering
D. Cooling

Answer: B — Starvation

Starvation is the fire extinguishment technique of removing the fuel source. By cutting off the supply of fuel to the fire, the combustion process ceases.

18. Why is a CO2 type of fire extinguisher preferred for electrical installations?

A. It expands into a sticky visual foam barrier
B. It provides extensive long-term cooling
C. It can be safely deployed without isolating power circuits
D. It leaves no residue and does not damage any equipment

Answer: D — It leaves no residue and does not damage any equipment

CO2 is preferred for electrical installations because it is a non-conductive gas that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen and cooling, and importantly, it leaves no residue that could damage sensitive electronic components.

19. Which of the listed extinguishing agents is NOT suitable for fighting a liquid paint fire?

A. Mechanical foam spray
B. Dry chemical powder
C. Carbon dioxide gas
D. Water

Answer: D — Water

Water is generally unsuitable for liquid paint fires (Class B) as it can spread the burning liquid due to its immiscibility and lower density, potentially intensifying the fire. Foam, dry chemical, and CO2 are more appropriate agents.

20. As per NFPA (National Fire Protection Association), a fire in cooking appliances involving vegetable/animal oils and fats is classified as:

A. Class K
B. Class C
C. Class D
D. Class B

Answer: A — Class K

Fires involving cooking appliances and the specific oils and fats used in them are classified as Class K fires under the NFPA system, distinct from Class B which covers general flammable liquids.

21. Designated areas for smoking are specified in the:

A. Company manual
B. Crew mess instruction card
C. Port state entry document
D. International code manual

Answer: A — Company manual

Designated smoking areas are safety-critical zones established by the company's Safety Management System (SMS) to prevent fire hazards. These are clearly defined in the company manual and shipboard standing orders to ensure compliance with international safety standards.

22. The spreading of fire as a result of heat being carried through a vessel's ventilation system is an example of heat transfer by:

A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Absorption
D. Radiation

Answer: A — Convection

Convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). In a vessel's ventilation system, hot air and gases rise and circulate, carrying heat to other parts of the ship and potentially spreading fire.

23. On cargo and miscellaneous vessels, what is NOT a required part of the fireman's outfit?

A. Rigid boots and gloves
B. Protective clothing
C. Combustible gas indicator
D. Flame safety lamp or breathing apparatus

Answer: C — Combustible gas indicator

A combustible gas indicator is used to detect flammable gases, which is not a standard component of the basic fireman's outfit required by SOLAS. The outfit focuses on protection from heat, flames, and providing breathing apparatus for toxic atmospheres.

24. A fire hose kept in its box should have a wrench and an:

A. High expansion foam generator tube
B. All-purpose nozzle
C. High-pressure mechanical lance tool
D. International Shore standard coupling flange

Answer: B — All-purpose nozzle

An all-purpose nozzle allows for adjustment of the water stream from a spray to a solid jet, which is essential for effective firefighting. While other items might be associated with firefighting equipment, the nozzle is a primary component of a hose box.

25. Actuating the fixed CO2 system should cause the automatic shutdown of the:

A. Main switchboard power grid distribution
B. Emergency bilge pump circuits
C. Supply and exhaust ventilation
D. Main engine propulsion controls

Answer: C — Supply and exhaust ventilation

Activating a fixed CO2 system is designed to extinguish fires by displacing oxygen. To prevent re-ignition and potential damage, it automatically shuts down ventilation fans that could supply air to the fire or spread the gas. Engine propulsion and power distribution are typically handled manually or through other safety interlocks.

26. During a fire onboard, communication is to be:

A. Relayed solely via messengers
B. Complex, thoroughly detailed, and extensive
C. Concise, precise, and short
D. Postponed until structural assessments end

Answer: C — Concise, precise, and short

During a fire, clear and rapid communication is paramount for effective response and safety. Messages must be concise and precise to avoid confusion, ensuring that critical information is understood quickly by all involved parties.

27. A solid stream of water is produced by an all-purpose firefighting nozzle when the handle is:

A. Pulled all the way back
B. Pushed all the way forward
C. Twisted ninety degrees counterclockwise
D. Positioned halfway into its casing

Answer: A — Pulled all the way back

On most firefighting nozzles, pulling the handle back is the action that adjusts the nozzle to produce a solid stream of water. Pushing it forward typically creates a spray pattern, which is also useful for cooling but not for a solid stream.

28. Immediately after extinguishing a fire with CO2, it is advisable to:

A. Drain internal oil recovery sumps directly
B. Restore structural compartment ventilation fully
C. Open up all access ports to inspect inside details
D. Stand by with water or other agents

Answer: D — Stand by with water or other agents

CO2 displaces oxygen and can cause asphyxiation. Immediately after use, there is a risk of re-flash if the heat source remains, or re-ignition due to the presence of unburnt fuel. Therefore, standing by with backup extinguishing agents is crucial.

29. Ships carrying more than 36 passengers should maintain a:

A. Double bulkhead smoke containment grid
B. Dedicated fire drill barge trailer connection
C. Continuous automated water system monitor
D. Fire patrol system

Answer: D — Fire patrol system

SOLAS regulations require passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers to maintain a fire patrol system. This involves regular patrols by crew members to detect and report fire hazards, ensuring prompt response.

30. During cargo operations, a deck fire has occurred due to a leaking cargo line. You should first:

A. Douse structural pipelines with sea spray
B. Stop the transfer of cargo
C. Sound the international collision alarm whistle
D. Rig a mechanical foam generator station

Answer: B — Stop the transfer of cargo

During cargo operations, the immediate priority upon discovering a fire related to cargo transfer is to stop the source of the fuel. Stopping the cargo transfer prevents further spillage and fuel supply to the fire.

Set 6 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Radio station logs involving communication during a disaster shall be kept by the station licensee for at least:

A. Ten years inside safe archive storage boxes
B. Three years from the date of the last entry
C. One year from entry initiation
D. Five years under legal maritime seals

Answer: B — Three years from the date of the last entry

Radio station logs, particularly those pertaining to emergency communications, must be maintained for a specified period to serve as official records for investigations or audits. SOLAS and relevant maritime regulations typically mandate a retention period of three years from the date of the last entry.

2. The deep fryer oil overheated because of a:

A. Lack of fresh liquid fat inputs
B. Thermostat malfunctioning
C. Blockage inside draining pipe lines
D. Mechanical failure inside the extractor canopy

Answer: B — Thermostat malfunctioning

Deep fryer fires are often caused by overheating oil, which can result from a malfunctioning thermostat. If the thermostat fails to regulate the temperature, the oil can reach its smoke point and then its flashpoint, leading to ignition.

3. The best way to test the Inmarsat-C terminal is to:

A. Sound the internal automatic distress loop button
B. Place a voice phone link call to shore coordination networks
C. Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal
D. Contact an adjacent vessel via bridge VHF radio link

Answer: C — Compose and send a brief message to your own Inmarsat-C terminal

The most effective way to test the functionality of an Inmarsat-C terminal, including its ability to transmit and receive messages, is to send a test message to itself or a known contact. This verifies the communication path and system response without relying on external systems.

4. The control panel of a fire detection system must have all of the following EXCEPT:

A. way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions
B. Test switches to check structural loop indicators
C. Visual indicators showing alarm sectors
D. An audible device to signal alarms or system faults

Answer: A — way to bypass the entire panel if it malfunctions

Fire detection system control panels are designed with safety and operational indicators, including ways to silence alarms, reset the system, and identify the zone of activation. Bypassing the entire panel is a safety risk and not a standard feature; systems should remain functional or be manually overridden at zone levels if necessary.

5. Tapioca is susceptible to ________ when damp.

A. Chemical crystallization
B. Electrostatic discharges
C. Liquefaction slide effects
D. Spontaneous combustion

Answer: D — Spontaneous combustion

Tapioca, like many organic materials, can undergo self-heating when damp due to microbial activity or chemical reactions. If this heat cannot dissipate, it can lead to spontaneous combustion, igniting the material.

6. As a firefighting medium, CO2 can be dangerous under certain conditions as it can cause:

A. Severe toxic vapor contamination inside boiler loops
B. Freeze burns and blistering
C. Spontaneous flashover due to compression waves
D. Corrosion of sensitive mechanical gears

Answer: B — Freeze burns and blistering

CO2 is stored under pressure and expands rapidly when released, causing a significant drop in temperature. This extreme cold can cause freeze burns or blistering on contact with skin, and also reduces visibility by creating fog.

7. As per NFPA, a fire in an electrical generator is considered to be a:

A. Class C fire
B. Class D fire
C. Class B fire
D. Class A fire

Answer: A — Class C fire

Fires involving electrical equipment, such as generators, are classified as Class C fires. This classification specifically denotes fires that involve energized electrical equipment where the use of a conductive extinguishing agent could lead to electrocution.

8. If passengers are on board when an abandon ship drill is carried out, they should:

A. Remain inside their cabins behind closed safety doors
B. Be evacuated on an auxiliary service tender craft
C. Gather exclusively at public dining lounges
D. Take part

Answer: D — Take part

During abandon ship drills, all persons on board, including passengers, are expected to participate. This ensures they are familiar with procedures, muster stations, and the use of safety equipment, aligning with SOLAS requirements.

9. On the vessel's Fire Control plan, all parts of a fixed fire suppression system are listed EXCEPT:

A. Instructions for activation of the system
B. Total weight and type of chemical storage canisters
C. Location of piping distribution loops
D. Placement of discharge nozzles across compartments

Answer: A — Instructions for activation of the system

Fire control plans, as mandated by SOLAS, detail the layout, locations of fire detection and suppression systems, and emergency equipment. While they show system components and operational instructions, specific activation procedures are usually found in operational manuals rather than on the plans themselves.

10. Through which of the listed processes is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?

A. Heat of condensation
B. Heat of vaporization
C. Heat of radiation
D. Heat of oxidation

Answer: D — Heat of oxidation

Spontaneous ignition occurs when combustible materials generate enough heat internally to reach their ignition temperature without an external ignition source. This process is primarily driven by the heat of oxidation, where slow chemical reactions release heat over time.

11. Fusible link fire dampers are operated by:

A. Electronic loop control commands from the safety desk
B. Hydrostatic water pressure changes from water spray systems
C. The heat of the fire melting the link
D. Structural balance wires linked with the bridge desk

Answer: C — The heat of the fire melting the link

Fusible link fire dampers are designed to close automatically when the temperature reaches a certain point. The heat from a fire melts a solder or alloy link, allowing the damper to fall shut and restrict airflow, thus preventing fire and smoke spread.

12. You have just extinguished an oil fire on the floor plates of the engine room with a 15-pound CO2 extinguisher. Which of the listed dangers should you now be preparing to handle?

A. Frostbite cracks inside fuel line connection joints
B. Reflashing of the fire
C. Complete systemic failure of main engine gear oil feeds
D. Toxic gas ignition inside air trunk lines

Answer: B — Reflashing of the fire

CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen but does not cool the fuel significantly. Therefore, any remaining hot spots or fuel near the ignition temperature can easily re-flash once the CO2 dissipates and oxygen returns.

13. The height of a VHF radio antenna is more important than the power output wattage of the radio because:

A. Skywave atmospheric returns are highly unstable at sea
B. Internal wire resistances limit low-level signal paths
C. Higher placement reduces tracking ground interference loops
D. VHF communications are basically line of sight

Answer: D — VHF communications are basically line of sight

VHF radio waves travel in straight lines and are limited by the curvature of the Earth; thus, they are fundamentally line-of-sight communications. Antenna height is crucial for extending this line of sight and improving the range of communication.

14. Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?

A. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
B. Dry chemical powder mix
C. CO2
D. Water fog stream

Answer: C — CO2

CO2 is a gaseous extinguishing agent that works by displacing oxygen and cooling. However, it does not effectively cool the burning fuel below its ignition temperature, making reflash a significant risk once the CO2 disperses.

15. A vessel's Fire Control plan shall have:

A. duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house in a prominent weatherproof enclosure
B. Blueprint files locked exclusively in the captain's office
C. Plastic layout cards stapled on every accommodation deck door
D. Microfiche summary records mounted inside all lifeboats

Answer: A — duplicate set of plans permanently stored outside the deck house in a prominent weatherproof enclosure

SOLAS regulations require fire control plans to be readily accessible to crew and emergency responders. A duplicate set stored in a prominent, weatherproof enclosure outside the navigation bridge ensures vital information is available even if the bridge is inaccessible.

16. In the regulations for cargo vessels, which statement is true concerning a fireman's outfit?

A. Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type
B. Two outfits are needed for each active deck crewman
C. Each outfit must contain an electric welding cutting tool
D. Air tanks must carry five hours of continuous storage reserves

Answer: A — Each fireman's outfit shall contain a flame safety lamp of an approved type

According to SOLAS regulations, each fireman's outfit must include a flame safety lamp or an approved self-contained breathing apparatus. This is to ensure the safety of the firefighter in potentially hazardous and oxygen-deficient atmospheres.

17. Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by:

A. Light scattering effects across laser sensors
B. Air pressure changes inside trunk compartments
C. Moisture tracking limits inside structural wiring panels
D. The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals

Answer: D — The difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals

Thermostats used in fire alarm systems, particularly bimetallic types, operate based on the principle that two different metals expand at different rates when heated. This differential expansion causes the strip to bend, closing an electrical contact and triggering an alarm.

18. For the safety of the personnel working with fire hoses, the fire pumps are fitted with a:

A. Pressure gauge and relief valve on the discharge side
B. Flexible expansion joint directly on the water suction intake
C. Mechanical safety clutch linkage on driving engines
D. Remote automated vacuum seal breaker

Answer: A — Pressure gauge and relief valve on the discharge side

Fire pumps are equipped with pressure gauges to monitor discharge pressure and relief valves to prevent over-pressurization, which could damage the pump, hoses, or injure personnel. This is a critical safety feature ensuring stable operation.

19. Dry chemical extinguishers extinguish Class B fires to the greatest extent by:

A. Breaking the chain reaction
B. Cooling fuel temperatures down below flashpoint margins
C. Freezing burning vapor pools immediately
D. Displacing essential atmospheric nitrogen compounds

Answer: A — Breaking the chain reaction

Dry chemical powders interrupt the chemical chain reaction of a fire, effectively stopping the combustion process. While they have some cooling effect, their primary extinguishing mechanism for Class B and C fires is the breaking of the chain reaction.

20. What shall be conducted during a fire and boat drill?

A. All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated
B. Lifeboats must be launched and run at service speeds for an hour
C. Emergency bilge suctions must be run on full backflow parameters
D. Cargo tank hatches must be opened for visual gas checking

Answer: A — All watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill shall be operated

During a combined fire and boat drill, operational checks of essential safety equipment are conducted. Operating watertight doors in the vicinity of the drill ensures their functionality and familiarizes the crew with their operation under simulated emergency conditions.

21. When approaching a fire from windward, you should shield firefighters from the fire by using an applicator and:

A. High expansion foam blanket throw
B. CO2 continuous vapor jet
C. Low velocity fog
D. High velocity solid water jet

Answer: C — Low velocity fog

When fighting a fire from windward, using a low-velocity fog pattern from a nozzle applicator helps shield firefighters from radiant heat and smoke. The water droplets absorb heat and create a screen, allowing safer approach and application of the extinguishing agent.

22. The extinguishing agent most likely to allow re-ignition of a fire is:

A. Water fog
B. Mechanical foam spray
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Dry chemical powder

Answer: C — Carbon dioxide

Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen. However, it has minimal cooling effect, meaning that if the fuel remains hot enough, it can re-ignite once the CO2 dissipates and oxygen is reintroduced.

23. The risk of fire and explosion is ________ in tankers.

A. Identical to generic dry cargo vessels
B. Controlled solely by hull thickness layout
C. Negligible under standard cruising speeds
D. Very high

Answer: D — Very high

Tankers, especially those carrying petroleum products, handle large quantities of flammable liquids. These cargoes create a very high risk of fire and explosion, necessitating stringent safety measures and procedures as per MARPOL and other regulations.

24. Why should foam be banked off a bulkhead when extinguishing an oil fire?

A. To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire
B. To speed up chemical stabilization loops of active foam bubbles
C. To avoid cooling structural steel components unevenly
D. To maximize the coverage range of standard delivery equipment

Answer: A — To prevent agitation of the oil and spreading the fire

When applying foam to an oil fire, banking it off a bulkhead prevents the direct force of the foam stream from agitating the oil surface. Agitation can spread the burning oil and potentially worsen the fire, hindering extinguishment.

25. A large oil fire on the deck of a ship can be fought most effectively with:

A. Solid streams of sea water
B. High pressure carbon dioxide gas grids
C. Foam
D. Portable dry powder spray canisters

Answer: C — Foam

Foam is the most effective agent for fighting large oil fires on decks because it spreads across the surface, cools the fuel, and smothers the fire by forming a blanket that separates the fuel from the oxygen.

26. The minimum flashpoint of oil fuel carried on board a ship is:

A. 50 degrees Celsius
B. 70 degrees Celsius
C. 60 degrees Celsius
D. 40 degrees Celsius

Answer: C — 60 degrees Celsius

SOLAS II-2/4.2.1: oil fuel with a flashpoint below 60 C shall not be used (general rule; 43 C allowed only for emergency generators).

27. You are operating a fire hose with an applicator attached. If you put the handle of the nozzle in the vertical position, you will use:

A. High velocity solid jet stream
B. Shutoff position with zero output flow
C. Foam solution delivery parameter
D. Low velocity fog

Answer: D — Low velocity fog

With an applicator attached to a fire hose nozzle, placing the handle in the vertical position typically adjusts the nozzle to produce a low-velocity fog pattern. This is effective for cooling and creating a protective screen.

28. To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should:

A. Run a hand-held exhaust blower for five minutes first
B. Wear a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
C. Wear a generic particulate dust filter mask
D. Wait ten minutes for gas settlement before walking in

Answer: B — Wear a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)

Carbon dioxide (CO2) displaces oxygen and can create a hazardous atmosphere for breathing. Entering a compartment where CO2 has been released requires a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) to ensure a safe supply of breathable air.

29. The international shore connection:

A. Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
B. Links ship navigation logs with port administration grids
C. Supplies high voltage electrical power to propulsion links
D. Drains oily bilge slops safely to dockside collection tanks

Answer: A — Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities

The international shore connection is a standardized coupling that allows a ship's fire main system to be connected to shore-based firefighting water supplies. This provides an external source of water in emergencies.

30. A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind:

A. Blows at right angles to cross-vent the hull decks
B. Comes directly over the stern layout beam
C. Comes over the bow
D. Changes into circular thermal swirling patterns

Answer: C — Comes over the bow

When fighting a fire on a vessel, positioning the ship so the wind blows the fire away from you is crucial. Approaching the fire with the wind coming over the bow allows the wind to help push the flames and heat away from the firefighting crew.

Set 7 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is:

A. Water fog
B. Halon gas
C. Dry chemical powder formulation
D. Aqueous film-forming foam solution

Answer: A — Water fog

Water fog, when applied correctly, has multiple extinguishing properties. It cools the fuel below its ignition temperature, dilutes combustible vapors, displaces oxygen, and provides a screen against radiant heat and smoke.

2. The expansion of LFL is:

A. Light Flame Location
B. Liquid Fuel Line
C. Lower Flammable Limit
D. Low Flashpoint Liquid

Answer: C — Lower Flammable Limit

LFL stands for Lower Flammable Limit, which is the minimum concentration of a flammable gas or vapor in air that will burn or explode when an ignition source is present. This concept is critical for assessing fire and explosion hazards.

3. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?

A. The active agent drops fuel core parameters past absolute freezing margins
B. The dry chemical creates a dense visual foam overlay block
C. It relies on heavy moisture transformation into structural vapor screens
D. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction

Answer: D — The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction

Dry chemical powders primarily extinguish fires by interrupting the chemical chain reaction of combustion. They also have a slight cooling effect and can form a barrier between the fuel and oxygen.

4. What is the most important consideration when determining to fight an electrical fire?

A. Danger of shock to personnel
B. Shutting down auxiliary lighting networks across accommodation spaces
C. The replacement costs of burnt circuitry components
D. The clean-up time required for active extinguishing residue

Answer: A — Danger of shock to personnel

When fighting electrical fires, the primary concern is the risk of electric shock to personnel. This risk necessitates the use of appropriate extinguishing agents that do not conduct electricity.

5. If you see an oil leakage, you clean it immediately. This is an example of:

A. Good housekeeping
B. ISO structural standard declaration rules
C. Deck log monitoring instructions
D. Preventive machinery tuning parameters

Answer: A — Good housekeeping

Promptly cleaning up oil leakages is an essential practice known as good housekeeping. Maintaining a clean and orderly environment prevents slip hazards and potential fire risks.

6. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out Class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical:

A. Reacts aggressively with marine steel materials
B. Vaporizes into flammable gas compounds under heat exposure
C. Does little or no cooling
D. Displaces air structures for only a few seconds

Answer: C — Does little or no cooling

Dry chemical agents are effective at suppressing Class B fires by interrupting the chemical reaction, but they offer minimal cooling. This lack of cooling capability means that the fuel can still vaporize and re-ignite if the heat source persists.

7. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?

A. Carbon dioxide gas jet
B. Dry chemical powder spray
C. Mechanical foam blanket expansion
D. Water fog

Answer: D — Water fog

Water fog, or spray, has the greatest capacity for heat absorption among the listed agents due to water's high latent heat of vaporization. This rapid cooling is crucial for extinguishing fires.

8. The expansion of IBC code is:

A. International Bilge Control code
B. International Bulk Cargo code
C. International Bulk Chemical code
D. Intermaritime Boiler Construction code

Answer: C — International Bulk Chemical code

The IBC Code, or International Bulk Chemical Code, provides regulations for the carriage of dangerous chemicals in bulk by sea. It is part of the IMO's framework for maritime safety and environmental protection.

9. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?

A. Greater range
B. It is non-toxic inside confined spaces
C. It offers significant localized thermal cooling effects
D. It leaves no visible residue cleanup footprint on components

Answer: A — Greater range

Dry chemical extinguishers have a longer discharge range compared to carbon dioxide extinguishers. This allows firefighters to tackle fires from a safer distance.

10. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the firefighter?

A. Continuous carbon dioxide stream jet
B. Low velocity water fog
C. Straight high-velocity water jet
D. High-expansion chemical foam spray

Answer: B — Low velocity water fog

Low velocity water fog provides a significant shielding effect for firefighters by absorbing heat and producing steam, which displaces oxygen and limits flame spread. This creates a safer working environment.

11. An example of a type of smoke detector is the:

A. Visual infrared flame scanner screen
B. Ionization type
C. Hydrostatic expansion capsule sensor
D. Thermal differential bimetallic link switch

Answer: B — Ionization type

The ionization type smoke detector is a common fire detection device that works by monitoring changes in electrical conductivity within an ionization chamber.

12. Which firefighting agent is most effective in removing heat?

A. Carbon dioxide vapor stream
B. Dry chemical powder blanket throw
C. Mechanical structural foam solution
D. Water spray

Answer: D — Water spray

Water spray, including water fog, is the most effective firefighting agent for removing heat from a fire. Its high latent heat of vaporization allows it to absorb a significant amount of thermal energy as it turns into steam.

13. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the:

A. Displacement of active fuel structures safely
B. Exclusion of atmospheric nitrogen elements
C. Chemical breakdown of active free radicals
D. Absorption of heat

Answer: D — Absorption of heat

When water fog is applied to a fire, its primary extinguishing mechanism is the rapid absorption of heat. As the water vaporizes into steam, it cools the fuel below its ignition temperature.

14. Fire extinguishers of sizes 3, 4, and 5 are designated as:

A. Hand portable
B. Semi-portable
C. Fixed system bank units
D. Auxiliary utility modules

Answer: B — Semi-portable

Fire extinguishers with sizes 3, 4, and 5 (typically kilograms or pounds) are classified as semi-portable. They are too heavy to be easily carried by one person but can be moved with effort.

15. Dangerous goods are classified into how many groups?

A. Three groups
B. Five groups
C. Twelve groups
D. Nine groups

Answer: D — Nine groups

Dangerous goods, as defined by international regulations like the IMDG Code, are classified into nine hazard classes based on their properties and the risks they pose.

16. The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed:

A. At the top perimeter layout of smoke clouds
B. Directly into adjacent ventilation return trunks
C. At the base of the flames
D. In wide looping circles across structural partition bulkheads

Answer: C — At the base of the flames

The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should always be directed at the base of the flames. This is where the fuel is being vaporized and combustion is occurring, allowing CO2 to displace oxygen and cool the fuel.

17. Which statement is true concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?

A. You should direct the spray at the base of the fire
B. They are deployed safely on metal fires like sodium or magnesium
C. You should direct the spray at the top edges of structural smoke screens
D. They provide deep cooling to prevent any risk of re-ignition

Answer: A — You should direct the spray at the base of the fire

When using dry chemical extinguishers, the spray should always be directed at the base of the fire. This action smothers the fire by interrupting the chemical chain reaction and forming a barrier.

18. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried on ships of 1000 GRT and above?

A. Eight
B. Three
C. Five
D. Two

Answer: C — Five

According to SOLAS regulations, ships of 1000 GRT and above must carry a minimum of five portable fire extinguishers, ensuring adequate fire-fighting capability across the vessel.

19. What is the primary function of the emergency fire pump isolate valve fitted on main deck?

A. Prevent backflow to sea chest
B. Divert water to bilges
C. Isolate engine room fire main from deck fire main
D. Increase fire water pressure to accommodation

Answer: C — Isolate engine room fire main from deck fire main

The isolation valve ensures deck fire main remains pressurized if engine room fire line ruptures.

20. Under SOLAS, what is the minimum duration for SCBA cylinder duration calculation margin?

A. 45 minutes at standard atmosphere
B. 15 minutes at 20 L/min breathing rate
C. 60 minutes continuous flow
D. 30 minutes at 40 L/min breathing rate

Answer: D — 30 minutes at 40 L/min breathing rate

Standard SCBA cylinder nominal duration calculation is based on 40 L/min consumption rate.

21. What type of fixed fire extinguishing system is mandatory for paint lockers exceeding specified floor area?

A. Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling system
B. Dry powder system
C. High expansion foam only
D. Inert gas generator

Answer: A — Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling system

SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires paint lockers to be protected by fixed fire extinguishing system suitable for flammable liquids.

22. What action must be taken regarding mechanical ventilation before releasing CO2 into engine room?

A. Open skylights for pressure relief
B. Keep exhaust fans running to remove smoke
C. Stop all fans and close all dampers tight
D. Set ventilation to 50% capacity

Answer: C — Stop all fans and close all dampers tight

Stopping ventilation prevents loss of CO2 concentration and starves fire of oxygen.

23. What is the main advantage of High-Expansion Foam in engine room bilges?

A. Rapidly fills volume and smothers fire without liquid weight accumulation
B. Cools hot steel faster than water jet
C. Conducts electricity safely
D. Absorbs oil completely

Answer: A — Rapidly fills volume and smothers fire without liquid weight accumulation

High-expansion foam expands up to 1000:1 ratio filling large structural spaces quickly.

24. How often must fixed CO2 cylinder weight/pressure checks be conducted on ships?

A. Annually by certified technician or competent officer
B. Monthly by chief officer
C. Every 2 years
D. Every 5 years during drydock

Answer: A — Annually by certified technician or competent officer

Annual inspection verifies cylinder content level and detects potential slow leaks.

25. What is the International Shore Connection used for?

A. Shore electrical power supply
B. Connecting shore fire water supply to ship fire main
C. Bunkering fuel from shore
D. Discharging bilges to shore

Answer: B — Connecting shore fire water supply to ship fire main

The International Shore Connection allows standardized coupling to shore fire hoses regardless of port fittings.

26. What is boundary cooling in shipboard firefighting?

A. Cooling sea chest strainers
B. Cooling adjacent bulkheads and decks to prevent heat transfer and fire spread
C. Cooling the fire hose nozzle
D. Cooling the SCBA wearer with water spray

Answer: B — Cooling adjacent bulkheads and decks to prevent heat transfer and fire spread

Boundary cooling prevents conduction of heat to neighboring compartments and stops fire propagation.

27. Which nozzle spray setting is recommended when advancing on an interior cabin fire?

A. Shut off until inside cabin
B. Wide fog spray at maximum pressure
C. Solid jet stream directly at ceiling
D. Narrow fog spray for protection and heat absorption

Answer: D — Narrow fog spray for protection and heat absorption

Narrow fog provides protective water screen while absorbing heat efficiently.

28. What safety mechanism prevents accidental discharge of a fixed CO2 total flooding system?

A. Breakable glass seal on main manifold
B. Hydraulic interlock from bridge
C. Master key held only by Captain
D. Two-step control valve box with alarm microswitches

Answer: D — Two-step control valve box with alarm microswitches

SOLAS requires a dedicated cabinet with pre-discharge alarm activated upon opening cabinet door.

29. Emergency response services to a security incident do not include:

A. Police
B. Military
C. RSO
D. Fire services

Answer: C — RSO

A Recognized Security Organization (RSO) is an organisation authorised by the Administration under the ISPS Code to carry out security assessments, plan approval and verification on its behalf. It is not an emergency responder; police, military and fire services are the agencies that respond to an actual security incident.

30. What is auto-ignition?

A. The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs
B. Automatic ignition of material in a hot atmosphere
C. Ignition of materials when they come in contact with each other
D. Ignition caused by a mixture of vapours given off by cargoes

Answer: A — The ignition of a combustible material without initiation by a spark or flame, when the material has been raised to a temperature at which self-sustaining combustion occurs

ISGOTT defines auto-ignition as ignition of a combustible material without any external spark or flame once it has been heated to its auto-ignition temperature. Hot surfaces such as exhaust manifolds or steam pipes can therefore ignite oil vapour or spray without any open flame being present.

Set 8 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. On the all-purpose nozzle, the position of the valve when the handle is all the way forward is ____.

A. Fog
B. Spray
C. Solid stream
D. Shut

Answer: D — Shut

On the all-purpose (combination) nozzle the handle pushed fully forward closes the valve. Pulling the handle to the vertical position gives fog, and pulling it fully back towards the operator gives a solid stream. Remembering this prevents accidental discharge when charging the hose.

2. Fire is a process of combustion accompanied by the rapid release of heat and ____ in varying intensities.

A. Light
B. Energy
C. Destruction
D. None of the above

Answer: A — Light

Fire is a rapid chemical oxidation (combustion) of a fuel that gives off heat and light, the light being seen as flame or glow. The intensity of heat and light varies with the fuel, the oxygen supply and the rate of burning.

3. Recharging a previously used cartridge-operated dry chemical fire extinguisher is accomplished by ____.

A. Authorized fire equipment servicing personnel only
B. Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder
C. Puncturing the cartridge seal after installation
D. Recharging the cartridge and refilling it with powder

Answer: B — Replacing the propellant cartridge and refilling it with powder

In a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher the expellant gas is in a separate sealed cartridge which is used up when operated. After use the spent cartridge is replaced with a new, sealed one and the body is refilled with the correct grade and quantity of powder.

4. What is the minimum capacity of each required fire pump on a cargo ship?

A. 20 m3/h
B. 25 m3/h
C. 30 m3/h
D. 40 m3/h

Answer: B — 25 m3/h

SOLAS II-2/10.2.2.4 requires each required fire pump (other than an emergency pump) to have a capacity of not less than 80% of the total required capacity divided by the number of required pumps, and in any case not less than 25 m3/h.

5. In which language must the fire control plan on board be written?

A. Only in the language of the flag State
B. In the language of the Administration, with a translation into English or French if that language is neither
C. In any language understood by the master
D. Only in the working language of the crew

Answer: B — In the language of the Administration, with a translation into English or French if that language is neither

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 requires fire control plans to be in the language or languages required by the Administration; where that language is neither English nor French, a translation into one of those languages must be included. In practice most ships carry English plans.

6. When a ship's low-pressure CO2 fixed fire-extinguishing system is activated from a remote location, what determines the quantity of CO2 being released into a selected space?

A. The number of discharge nozzles in the space
B. The discharge continues until the temperature of the space returns to normal ambient temperature
C. The main CO2 tank is partitioned into sections individually designated for each protected space
D. A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve and is preset for each space

Answer: D — A pneumatic timer controls each discharge selector valve and is preset for each space

A low-pressure CO2 system stores the gas in a single refrigerated bulk tank. The quantity sent to a given space is controlled by the time the selector valve stays open, set by a timer preset for the volume of that space, rather than by a fixed number of cylinders.

7. Fires which occur in energized electrical equipment, such as switchboard insulation, are class ____.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: C — C

In the classification used in maritime training (NFPA/USCG), class C fires involve energized electrical equipment. Non-conducting agents such as CO2 or dry powder are used, and the equipment should be de-energized as soon as possible. Class D covers combustible metals.

8. Immediately after a class B fire has been extinguished by the use of foam, crew members should ____.

A. Carefully apply a low-velocity fog over the foam blanket
B. Wade through the foam blanket to evenly distribute the foam
C. Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket
D. Sweep the foam blanket overboard and secure firefighting equipment

Answer: C — Be careful not to disturb the foam blanket

Foam extinguishes a class B fire by forming a blanket that separates the fuel surface from air and suppresses vapour release. If the blanket is broken by walking through it or by water streams, flammable vapour can escape and the hot fuel can re-ignite.

9. The advantage of using a dry chemical fire-extinguishing agent is ____.

A. Permanent extinguishment regardless of re-ignition sources
B. Its excellent cooling ability
C. Its good stability and non-toxicity
D. All of the above

Answer: C — Its good stability and non-toxicity

Dry chemical powder is chemically stable in storage and is non-toxic, though it can irritate and reduce visibility. It knocks down flame quickly by interrupting the chain reaction but has very little cooling effect, so re-ignition from hot surfaces remains possible.

10. The state of charge of a stored-pressure type dry chemical fire extinguisher can be readily determined by ____.

A. Visual inspection of the pressure gauge
B. Weighing the cylinder
C. Removing the lid and checking the level of dry chemical
D. Weighing the CO2 cartridge

Answer: A — Visual inspection of the pressure gauge

In a stored-pressure extinguisher the powder and expellant gas share the same container, and a pressure gauge shows whether the pressure is in the operable (green) range. Cartridge-type extinguishers have no gauge and are checked by weighing the cartridge.

11. A class B fire is most successfully fought by ____.

A. Preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material
B. Cooling the burning material below its ignition temperature
C. Using the extinguishing agent to make the burning material fire-resistant
D. Using the extinguishing agent to absorb the heat

Answer: A — Preventing oxygen from reaching the burning material

Class B fires involve flammable liquids, which burn as vapour above the liquid surface. They are best extinguished by smothering, cutting off oxygen with foam, CO2 or powder, because cooling a liquid below its flash point is usually impractical.

12. Fires of which classes would most likely occur in the engine room of a ship?

A. Classes A and B
B. Classes B and C
C. Classes C and D
D. Classes A and D

Answer: B — Classes B and C

Engine rooms contain large quantities of fuel and lubricating oil, which are class B hazards, and extensive energized electrical equipment such as switchboards, generators and motors, which are class C hazards. These are therefore the most likely fire types in machinery spaces.

13. Oily rags stored in a pile that is open to the atmosphere are a hazard because they may ____.

A. Deteriorate and give off noxious gases
B. Spontaneously heat and catch fire
C. Attract lice and other vermin and serve as a breeding ground
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Spontaneously heat and catch fire

Oil-soaked rags slowly oxidise in air, generating heat. In a pile the heat cannot escape, so temperature rises until the auto-ignition point is reached and spontaneous combustion occurs. Oily rags should be kept in closed metal bins and disposed of regularly.

14. Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?

A. Damaged eardrums
B. Electric shock
C. Frostbite
D. Respiratory arrest

Answer: D — Respiratory arrest

CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen, and in an enclosed space it equally displaces the oxygen people need. High CO2 concentrations cause rapid unconsciousness and respiratory arrest, which is why spaces are evacuated and counted before total flooding.

15. Which statement is TRUE concerning carbon dioxide?

A. It is lighter than air
B. It is used mostly on class A fires
C. It is an inert gas
D. All of the above

Answer: C — It is an inert gas

CO2 is an inert, non-combustible gas that does not support combustion, which is why it is used as a smothering agent. It is about 1.5 times heavier than air and is mainly used for class B and electrical fires, not class A fires.

16. An advantage of an ABC dry chemical extinguisher over a carbon dioxide extinguisher is ____.

A. Lack of toxicity
B. The multipurpose extinguishing ability
C. Cooling ability
D. Burn-back protection

Answer: B — The multipurpose extinguishing ability

ABC (monoammonium phosphate) powder is effective on class A, B and C fires, so one extinguisher covers ordinary combustibles, flammable liquids and electrical equipment. CO2 is effective mainly on class B and electrical fires and is poor on deep-seated class A fires.

17. One gallon of high-expansion foam solution will produce ____.

A. 8 to 10 gallons of foam
B. 25 to 50 gallons of foam
C. 100 to 200 gallons of foam
D. 500 to 1000 gallons of foam

Answer: D — 500 to 1000 gallons of foam

High-expansion foam has an expansion ratio of roughly 200:1 up to 1000:1, so each gallon of solution produces hundreds of gallons of foam. FSS Code ch.6 limits the expansion ratio of fixed high-expansion systems to not more than 1000 to 1.

18. The preferred agent used in fighting a helicopter crash fire is ____.

A. CO2
B. Dry chemical
C. Water
D. Foam

Answer: D — Foam

A helicopter crash fire is mainly a burning aviation fuel spill. SOLAS II-2/18 and the FSS Code require foam applicators or monitors at the helideck, since foam blankets the fuel, suppresses vapour and prevents re-ignition while rescue proceeds.

19. Which statement is TRUE about firefighting foam?

A. The air bubbles in foam act as an insulator in fighting a class C fire
B. The effectiveness of foam in forming a blanket over a burning liquid increases as the temperature of the liquid increases
C. Foam can be used to control gases escaping from compressed gas cylinders
D. Foam sets up a vapour barrier over a flammable liquid, preventing flammable gases from rising

Answer: D — Foam sets up a vapour barrier over a flammable liquid, preventing flammable gases from rising

Foam floats on the surface of a burning liquid, forming a blanket that separates fuel from air and suppresses vapour release. Foam conducts electricity because it contains water, breaks down faster on hotter liquids and is ineffective against pressurised gas leaks.

20. When fighting an oil or gasoline fire in the bilge, which of the following should NOT be used?

A. All-purpose nozzle
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Foam
D. Solid stream water nozzle

Answer: D — Solid stream water nozzle

A solid stream of water striking burning oil splashes and scatters it, spreading the fire, and the water sinks below the oil without smothering it. Foam, CO2 or water fog from an all-purpose nozzle are suitable for bilge oil fires.

21. The canvas covering of a fire hose is called the ____.

A. Casing
B. Jacket
C. Line cover
D. Outer hose

Answer: B — Jacket

A fire hose consists of a rubber or synthetic inner lining and an outer woven covering called the jacket. The jacket gives the hose its strength against pressure and protects the lining from abrasion.

22. Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning the proper procedure in handling a fire hose?

A. A 1-1/2 inch hose should be deployed with a minimum of a nozzleman and a hoseman
B. The nozzleman should always hold the nozzle with one hand on top, to prevent kickback
C. Back-up hosemen should be placed wherever the hose makes a significant turn
D. Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of hose is always critical

Answer: D — Use of a spanner wrench when attaching nozzles or additional lengths of hose is always critical

Hose couplings are normally hand-tightened, and spanners are only needed to tighten a leaking joint or to break apart a tight connection, so saying their use is always critical is false. The other statements describe correct hose-handling practice.

23. To remedy a leaking fire hose connection at the hydrant, secure the valve and ____.

A. Reduce fire pump pressure
B. Replace the gasket in the male coupling
C. Replace the gasket in the female coupling
D. Rethread the male coupling

Answer: C — Replace the gasket in the female coupling

The sealing gasket of a threaded fire hose coupling sits in the female coupling. A leak at the hydrant connection is normally caused by a worn or missing gasket, so the valve is shut and the gasket in the female coupling replaced.

24. Which instrument is suitable for determining the presence of explosive concentrations of fuel oil vapours in tanks?

A. A flame safety lamp
B. A liquid cargo meter
C. A combustible gas indicator
D. All of the above

Answer: C — A combustible gas indicator

A combustible gas indicator (explosimeter) measures flammable vapour concentration as a percentage of the lower flammable limit. ISGOTT requires such instruments to check tank atmospheres before entry or hot work. A flame safety lamp is unsuitable and itself an ignition risk.

25. Which type of fire extinguisher do you use to fight an electrical fire if a carbon dioxide extinguisher is unavailable?

A. Water
B. Wet chemical
C. Foam
D. Dry powder

Answer: D — Dry powder

Dry powder is non-conductive and safe on live electrical equipment, so it is the alternative when CO2 is not available. Water, wet chemical and foam all contain water and conduct electricity, exposing the operator to shock.

26. You should avoid using ____ when extinguishing a fire in a confined space.

A. Dry powder fire extinguishers
B. Water fire extinguishers
C. Foam fire extinguishers
D. Wet chemical fire extinguishers

Answer: A — Dry powder fire extinguishers

Discharging dry powder in a confined space creates a dense cloud that severely reduces visibility and can be inhaled, making escape and firefighting dangerous. Guidance therefore advises against dry powder in small enclosed areas unless the operator can withdraw safely.

27. A deck-stowed 40-foot container is giving off smoke, and one end is discoloured from heat. The cargo is valuable and easily damaged by water. You want to extinguish the fire without further damage if possible. What action should you take?

A. Connect a portable line from the ship's fixed system and discharge CO2 into the container
B. Cool the exterior of the container with water and close all vents, then keep it cooled until it can be off-loaded
C. Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2 extinguishers, then add more CO2 hourly
D. Flood the container with water and disregard any cargo damage as the fire threatens the entire vessel

Answer: C — Pierce the container and discharge 6 or more portable CO2 extinguishers, then add more CO2 hourly

Piercing the container wall and injecting CO2 smothers the fire inside without water damage to the cargo. Because a closed container leaks gas and deep-seated cargo fires smoulder for a long time, the CO2 concentration must be topped up at regular intervals.

28. If heavy smoke is coming from the paint locker, the FIRST firefighting response should be to ____.

A. Open the door to evaluate the extent of the fire
B. Enter and use a portable extinguisher
C. Secure the ventilation
D. Release the CO2 flooding system

Answer: C — Secure the ventilation

Shutting off ventilation and closing openings starves the fire of oxygen and stops smoke and fire spreading. Opening the door would feed the fire, and the fixed system should only be released once the space is closed and confirmed clear of personnel.

29. A carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is required to be recharged if the weight loss exceeds what percentage of the weight of the charge?

A. One percent
B. Five percent
C. Seven percent
D. Ten percent

Answer: D — Ten percent

CO2 extinguishers are checked by weighing because they have no pressure gauge. Regulations and maker's instructions require recharging when the loss exceeds 10% of the original charge weight, since performance can then no longer be relied upon.

30. The usual method for effectively applying foam on a fire is by ____.

A. Spraying directly on the base of the fire
B. Flowing the foam down a vertical surface
C. Sweeping the fire with the foam
D. Spraying directly on the surface of the fire

Answer: B — Flowing the foam down a vertical surface

Foam should be applied gently so it spreads over the burning liquid without plunging into it. Bouncing it off a bulkhead or other vertical surface lets it flow down and across the surface, forming an unbroken blanket without agitating the fuel.

Set 9 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. When compared to a high-expansion foam, a low-expansion foam will ____.

A. Be drier
B. Be more heat resistant
C. Cling to vertical surfaces
D. Be lighter

Answer: B — Be more heat resistant

Low-expansion foam has a high water content and dense bubbles, so it resists heat and wind better and is less easily broken down by flame. High-expansion foam is light and dry, suitable for filling enclosed spaces but easily destroyed by heat.

2. Which extinguishing agent is best for use on a magnesium fire?

A. Water
B. Sand
C. CO2
D. Dry chemical

Answer: B — Sand

Burning magnesium is a class D metal fire. Water reacts violently and releases hydrogen, CO2 is decomposed by the hot metal, and ordinary dry chemical is ineffective. Dry sand (or special class D powder) smothers the metal and is the best choice of those listed.

3. Which extinguishing agent will absorb the most heat?

A. Water
B. CO2
C. Dry chemical
D. Foam

Answer: A — Water

Water has a very high specific heat and latent heat of vaporisation, so it absorbs more heat per kilogram than any other common agent. This is why water is the principal cooling agent, especially for class A fires and boundary cooling.

4. What is the most vulnerable part of the fire main system?

A. The fire pump
B. Exposed hard piping
C. The hydrant valve
D. The fire hose

Answer: D — The fire hose

Fire hoses are flexible, made of fabric and rubber, and are exposed to abrasion, heat, chafing, cuts and deterioration in storage. They are the component most likely to fail, which is why SOLAS requires regular inspection and spare hoses.

5. As per SOLAS, what is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers to be carried in accommodation, service spaces and control stations of a cargo ship of 1,000 GT and upwards?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3

Answer: C — 5

SOLAS II-2/10.3.2.1 requires ships of 1,000 gross tonnage and upwards to carry at least five portable fire extinguishers in accommodation spaces, service spaces and control stations. Additional extinguishers are required in machinery spaces.

6. When fighting a fire in an enclosed space, the hose team should crouch as low as possible to ____.

A. Protect themselves from smoke
B. Obtain the best available air
C. Allow the heat and steam to pass overhead
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Heat, smoke and steam rise, so the coolest and cleanest air is near the deck. Crouching low protects the team from smoke, gives the best available air and lets heat and steam generated by water application pass over their heads.

7. The most likely location for a liquid cargo fire to occur on a tanker would be ____.

A. In the midships house
B. At the main deck manifold
C. At the vent header
D. In the pump room

Answer: D — In the pump room

The cargo pump room contains pumps, seals, glands and pipework handling cargo inside an enclosed space below deck, where leaks can create flammable atmospheres. ISGOTT highlights it as the highest-risk area, requiring gas detection, ventilation and fixed fire protection.

8. To get low-velocity fog from an all-purpose nozzle, you would ____.

A. Attach an applicator to the solid stream outlet on the nozzle
B. Attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the high-velocity nozzle tip
C. Attach the high-velocity nozzle tip to the fog outlet of the nozzle
D. Simply move the handle to the vertical position on the nozzle

Answer: B — Attach an applicator to the nozzle in place of the high-velocity nozzle tip

The all-purpose nozzle normally gives high-velocity fog through its fog tip. For low-velocity fog, the tip is removed and a low-velocity applicator (a curved pipe with a spray head) is fitted in its place with the handle in the fog position.

9. To prevent the spread of fire by conduction you should ____.

A. Cool the bulkheads around the fire
B. Remove combustibles from direct exposure
C. Close all openings to the area
D. Shut off all electric power

Answer: A — Cool the bulkheads around the fire

Conduction transfers heat through solid materials such as steel bulkheads and decks, which can ignite materials in adjacent spaces. Boundary cooling with water spray on the surrounding bulkheads removes this heat and stops the fire spreading by conduction.

10. The spread of fire is prevented by ____.

A. Heating surfaces adjacent to the fire
B. Removing combustibles from the endangered area
C. Increasing the oxygen supply
D. All of the above

Answer: B — Removing combustibles from the endangered area

Removing combustible material from areas exposed to the fire starves it of fuel, which is one of the basic principles of fire containment. Heating adjacent surfaces or increasing oxygen supply would encourage fire spread.

11. What is an advantage of water fog or water spray over a straight stream of water in fighting an oil fire?

A. It has a smothering effect on the fire
B. It requires less water to remove the same amount of heat
C. It gives more protection to firefighting personnel
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Fine droplets have a large surface area, absorbing heat quickly so less water is needed. The steam generated helps smother the fire, and a fog pattern forms a water curtain that shields firefighters from radiant heat. A straight stream would also splash and spread the oil.

12. The difference in water spray pattern between the high-velocity tip and low-velocity applicator used with the all-purpose nozzle is due to ____.

A. A difference in water pressure
B. The method of breaking up the water stream
C. The length of the applicator
D. All of the above

Answer: B — The method of breaking up the water stream

Both devices are supplied at the same hose pressure. The high-velocity tip breaks the water up by impinging jets, while the low-velocity applicator uses a perforated spray head, so the different break-up method produces different droplet size, range and pattern.

13. One advantage of the all-purpose nozzle is that it ____.

A. Can fit any size hose
B. Converts a stream of water into a fog
C. Increases the amount of water reaching the fire
D. Can spray two streams of water at the same time

Answer: B — Converts a stream of water into a fog

The all-purpose (combination) nozzle can deliver a solid stream or, with the handle moved, break the water into fog. SOLAS II-2/10.2.3.3 requires dual-purpose (spray/jet) nozzles with a shut-off on ship fire hoses for this flexibility.

14. You are tending the lifeline of a person who has entered a compartment wearing a breathing apparatus. How many tugs of the lifeline mean "Are you all right?"

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: A — One

The standard OATH line signals are one pull for OK or "Are you all right?", two for advance or give slack, three for take up slack or coming out, and four for help or emergency. One tug from the tender asks the wearer to confirm he is all right.

15. A serious fire has been isolated in the engine room. You would ____.

A. Wait for it to burn itself out
B. Open the vents to let the smoke out
C. Spray cooling water on bulkheads of the adjacent compartments
D. Enter to extinguish the fire with a water extinguisher

Answer: C — Spray cooling water on bulkheads of the adjacent compartments

Once the engine room is isolated, boundary cooling of the adjacent bulkheads and decks prevents spread by conduction. Opening vents would feed the fire with oxygen, and entering with a portable extinguisher is ineffective and dangerous for a serious fire.

16. You are in a tank wearing a self-contained breathing apparatus and you desire to return topside. How many tugs of the lifeline mean to take up the slack?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: C — Three

Under the standard OATH line signals, three pulls mean take up slack or I am coming out. One pull is OK, two pulls means advance or give slack, and four pulls is the emergency signal for help.

17. When the bypass valve of a self-contained breathing apparatus is opened, the mainline valve should be ____.

A. Completely open
B. Completely closed
C. Pinched to check the air flow
D. Immediately disconnected

Answer: B — Completely closed

The bypass valve supplies air directly to the facepiece if the regulator fails. The mainline valve is then closed so the bypass controls the flow, preventing uncontrolled air loss through a faulty regulator and conserving the limited cylinder supply.

18. The spray of water in low-velocity fog will have ____.

A. Greater range than high-velocity fog
B. Lesser range than high-velocity fog
C. About the same range as high-velocity fog
D. Greater range than a solid stream

Answer: B — Lesser range than high-velocity fog

Low-velocity fog from an applicator consists of fine droplets discharged at low speed, so it travels only a short distance and is used for cooling and protection close in. High-velocity fog reaches further, and a solid stream has the greatest reach of all.

19. When an oil fire has been extinguished, the surface of the oil should be kept covered with foam to prevent ____.

A. Air from contacting the oil vapours, permitting re-ignition
B. Boiling of the heated oil
C. Spontaneous combustion below the surface
D. Toxic fumes from escaping to the surface

Answer: A — Air from contacting the oil vapours, permitting re-ignition

After extinguishment the oil and surrounding steel remain hot and continue to give off flammable vapour. Maintaining the foam blanket keeps air away from the vapour so that any hot surface or spark cannot re-ignite the fire.

20. The ship is divided into main vertical and horizontal zones by thermal and structural boundaries in order ____.

A. To improve stability
B. To improve and contain fire safety
C. To reduce the cost of construction
D. None of the above

Answer: B — To improve and contain fire safety

SOLAS II-2/9 requires ships to be subdivided into main vertical and horizontal zones by A-class thermal and structural boundaries. This containment limits the spread of fire and smoke, protects escape routes and gives time for firefighting.

21. Violent flames and heavy black smoke are typical of which sort of fire?

A. Wood fire
B. Paper fire
C. Fuel oil fire
D. Electrical fire

Answer: C — Fuel oil fire

Hydrocarbon fuels burn fiercely with intense flames, and incomplete combustion of their carbon-rich vapour produces dense black smoke. Class A materials such as wood and paper usually give lighter grey or white smoke.

22. In pump rooms and pipe tunnels, flameproof electric light fittings are generally fitted. This means that ____.

A. The fitting is completely gas-tight and no gas can come into contact with the bulb and electrical connections
B. Gas may enter, but if an explosion takes place inside, the fitting is strong enough to contain it without igniting the surrounding atmosphere
C. The electrical supply will disconnect automatically in case of fire
D. Even if a fire occurs, it will not consume the fitting

Answer: B — Gas may enter, but if an explosion takes place inside, the fitting is strong enough to contain it without igniting the surrounding atmosphere

A flameproof Ex-d enclosure is not gas-tight. It is built to withstand an internal explosion of any gas that enters and its flame paths cool escaping gases so the surrounding flammable atmosphere is not ignited, as described in ISGOTT and IEC 60079.

23. A portable cartridge-type dry chemical fire extinguisher discharges by ____.

A. Gravity when the extinguisher is turned upside down
B. Pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher
C. Air pressure from a hand pump attached to the extinguisher
D. Pressure from the reaction when water is mixed with the chemical

Answer: B — Pressure from a small CO2 cartridge on the extinguisher

In a cartridge-operated dry chemical extinguisher, piercing the CO2 gas cartridge pressurises the body and expels the powder through the hose. Stored-pressure types use nitrogen already in the body; neither relies on gravity, pumps or chemical reaction.

24. What is fuel's role in making a fire?

A. It is the combustible material that burns
B. It is the food that gives your body energy
C. It is one thing you do not need to make a fire
D. None of these

Answer: A — It is the combustible material that burns

Fuel is one side of the fire triangle, together with heat and oxygen. It is the combustible material, solid, liquid or gas, that combines with oxygen and burns. Removing the fuel (starvation) is one of the methods of extinguishing a fire.

25. An aluminium powder fire is classified as class ____.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

Answer: D — D

Class D fires involve combustible metals such as magnesium, aluminium powder, sodium and titanium. They burn at very high temperatures and react with water, so special dry powders or dry sand are used.

26. In case of fire on an electrical motor, the first thing to do is ____.

A. Call the electrician
B. Extinguish the fire by water spray
C. Sound the alarm, stop the motor and extinguish using CO2
D. Extinguish using a foam extinguisher

Answer: C — Sound the alarm, stop the motor and extinguish using CO2

Raising the alarm brings help, and stopping and isolating the motor removes the electrical hazard and the heat source. CO2 is non-conductive and leaves no residue, making it the preferred agent for electrical equipment, whereas water and foam conduct electricity.

27. A fire hose has a ____.

A. Female coupling at the nozzle end and a male coupling at the hydrant end
B. Female coupling at both ends
C. Male coupling at both ends
D. Male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end

Answer: D — Male coupling at the nozzle end and a female coupling at the hydrant end

Water flows from the female end to the male end. The female coupling connects to the male outlet of the hydrant, and the male coupling at the other end receives the nozzle or the female end of the next length of hose.

28. All of the following are part of the fire triangle EXCEPT ____.

A. Fuel
B. Electricity
C. Oxygen
D. Heat

Answer: B — Electricity

The fire triangle consists of fuel, oxygen and heat; removing any one extinguishes the fire. Electricity is not an element of the triangle, although it can be the ignition source that provides heat.

29. One of the limitations of foam as an extinguishing agent is that foam ____.

A. Cannot be made with salt water
B. Is heavier than oil and sinks below its surface
C. Is corrosive and a hazard to fire fighters
D. Conducts electricity

Answer: D — Conducts electricity

Foam is mostly water and therefore conducts electricity, so it must not be used on live electrical equipment. Modern foam concentrates work with sea water, foam floats on oil, and it is not significantly corrosive or hazardous to firefighters.

30. A fire hose with a nozzle attached must be connected to each hydrant except when exposed to heavy weather or when the ____.

A. Fire pumps are used for purposes other than supplying water to the fire main
B. Fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations
C. Fire main system is not charged
D. Vessel is in port

Answer: B — Fire hose might be damaged by cargo operations

Hoses must normally be kept connected to hydrants with nozzles attached for immediate use. The only exceptions are open-deck positions where the hose could be damaged by heavy weather or by cargo handling, in which case the hose is stowed nearby, readily available.

Set 10 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. A fire in the galley ALWAYS poses the additional threat of ____.

A. A grease fire in the ventilation system
B. Causing loss of stability
C. Contaminating food with extinguishing agent
D. Spreading through the engineering space

Answer: A — A grease fire in the ventilation system

Cooking deposits grease in galley exhaust ducts, which can ignite and carry fire rapidly to other parts of the ship. SOLAS II-2/9.7.5 therefore requires galley exhaust ducts with grease traps, fire dampers and fixed means of extinguishing a fire within the duct.

2. A concentration of only ____ of CO2 in air will induce rapid unconsciousness.

A. 1%
B. 10%
C. 70%
D. 0.33%

Answer: B — 10%

CO2 is both an asphyxiant and toxic. Around 3-5% causes breathing difficulty and headache, while about 10% causes unconsciousness within a minute or two. Total flooding systems produce far higher concentrations, so the space must be evacuated before release.

3. What is the best method for extinguishing a fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas?

A. Cooling the gas below its ignition point
B. Stopping the flow of gas
C. Interrupting the chain reaction
D. Cutting off the supply of oxygen

Answer: B — Stopping the flow of gas

A gas fire should be extinguished by isolating the source. If the flame is put out while gas keeps escaping, a flammable vapour cloud forms that may explode on re-ignition. Meanwhile the surroundings are cooled with water spray, as per IGC guidance and ICS tanker guides.

4. For fighting fire on the cargo deck of a tanker, the system used is ____.

A. Low-expansion foam
B. High-expansion foam
C. DCP
D. CO2

Answer: A — Low-expansion foam

SOLAS II-2/10.8 and FSS Code ch.14 require oil and chemical tankers to have a fixed deck foam system using low-expansion foam delivered by monitors and applicators, as it can be projected over long distances and resists wind and heat on open deck.

5. A spanner is a ____.

A. Special tool for fighting pirates
B. Special tool for removing the cylinder head
C. Special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line
D. None of these

Answer: C — Special wrench for the couplings in a fire hose line

A spanner (hose spanner) is a special wrench used to tighten or loosen fire hose couplings and connect hoses to hydrants and nozzles. SOLAS-equipped ships keep spanners at fire stations alongside hoses and nozzles.

6. If you are the first person to discover a fire, what should you do?

A. Leave the area immediately
B. Head to your locker and get your personal items
C. Pick up a fire extinguisher and tackle the fire
D. Activate the fire alarm

Answer: D — Activate the fire alarm

The first action on discovering a fire is to raise the alarm so that the bridge is informed and the fire party mustered without delay. Only then should the person attempt to fight a small fire with a portable extinguisher if safe to do so.

7. Fire can be caused on board a vessel by ____.

A. A high DC power supply
B. Low batteries
C. A low AC power supply
D. Faulty electrical leads

Answer: D — Faulty electrical leads

Damaged or deteriorated electrical leads cause short circuits, arcing and overheating, which are among the most common sources of ignition on board. Regular inspection of portable equipment and wiring is therefore an important fire prevention measure.

8. What is the requirement for an escape route door opening?

A. It must be capable of being opened from the direction in which escape is required
B. It must be capable of opening in both directions
C. It must be capable of opening only from outside to inside
D. It must not be opened without permission

Answer: A — It must be capable of being opened from the direction in which escape is required

SOLAS II-2/13 requires doors in escape routes to be openable from the side from which escape is made, without keys or tools, so persons escaping are never trapped. Doors may be locked against entry from outside but must always open from the escape side.

9. After using a CO2 portable extinguisher, it should be ____.

A. Put back in service if some CO2 remains
B. Hydrostatically tested
C. Retagged
D. Recharged

Answer: D — Recharged

Any extinguisher that has been used, even partially, must be recharged before being returned to service, because the remaining charge is unknown and may be insufficient for the next fire. Partially used CO2 extinguishers are labelled empty and sent for recharging.

10. What quantity of reserve fuel is to be available for a diesel-driven emergency fire pump outside the main machinery space?

A. 20 litres
B. 40 litres
C. Sufficient for 6 hours' operation at full capacity
D. Sufficient for 15 hours' operation at full capacity

Answer: D — Sufficient for 15 hours' operation at full capacity

FSS Code ch.12 requires the emergency fire pump's diesel service tank to hold enough fuel for at least 3 hours at full load, with sufficient reserves outside the main machinery space to run the pump at full load for an additional 15 hours.

11. Structural fire protection refers to the passive measures taken to ____.

A. Provide a vessel with a sprinkler system
B. Provide a vessel with firefighting equipment
C. Limit the risk and spread of fire
D. Limit the size of the engine room

Answer: C — Limit the risk and spread of fire

Structural fire protection, covered in SOLAS II-2 Parts B and C, uses fire-rated A, B and C class divisions, insulation and restricted combustible materials to contain fire and smoke within the space of origin. It works without operation, unlike active systems such as sprinklers.

12. What fixed fire-fighting medium is normally used in the engine room, pump room and other such spaces?

A. CO2 flooding system
B. Portable foam fire extinguisher
C. Portable CO2 fire extinguisher
D. None of these

Answer: A — CO2 flooding system

Fixed CO2 total flooding systems are the most common fixed system for machinery spaces and cargo pump rooms, permitted by SOLAS II-2/10.4 and FSS Code ch.5. Portable extinguishers are not fixed systems.

13. What type of permit is needed in order to carry out work that could potentially result in a fire breaking out on the work site?

A. A fire permit
B. A hot work permit
C. A cold work permit
D. No permit is needed

Answer: B — A hot work permit

Welding, burning, grinding and other spark-producing work requires a hot work permit under the ship's SMS and ISGOTT. The permit ensures gas testing, removal of combustibles, a fire watch and ready firefighting equipment before work starts.

14. Fire blankets are used for ____.

A. Smothering a fire
B. Cooling a fire
C. Inhibiting a fire
D. Starving a fire

Answer: A — Smothering a fire

A fire blanket is placed over a small fire, such as a pan of burning oil or burning clothing, to exclude air. This smothering action cuts off oxygen from the fire triangle and extinguishes the flames.

15. A fire of carbonaceous substances is known as a ____.

A. Class A fire
B. Class B fire
C. Class C fire
D. Class D fire

Answer: A — Class A fire

Class A fires involve ordinary carbonaceous solids such as wood, paper, cloth and rope, which leave embers and ash. They are best extinguished by cooling with water.

16. The principle of operation of a fire detector could be based on ____.

A. A bimetallic strip
B. Fusible links
C. A quartzoid bulb
D. All the above

Answer: D — All the above

Heat detectors use elements that react to temperature: bimetallic strips that bend to close a contact, fusible links that melt at a set temperature, and liquid-filled quartzoid bulbs that burst. All of these are used in fire detection and sprinkler heads.

17. Which ships shall be provided with an international shore connection for the supply of water as an extinguishing medium?

A. Tankers only
B. All ships of 500 GT and upwards
C. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
D. Passenger ships of 100 GT and upwards

Answer: B — All ships of 500 GT and upwards

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 requires ships of 500 gross tonnage and upwards to carry at least one international shore connection. It allows shore or another ship to supply water to the fire main, with dimensions standardised in FSS Code ch.2.

18. Why is it important that you take care with the nozzle when you have finished using a fire extinguisher containing carbon dioxide?

A. Because the nozzle gets extremely hot, making it impossible to hold
B. This is not a requirement
C. Because the nozzle gets warm, making it impossible to hold
D. Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to hold

Answer: D — Because the nozzle gets extremely cold, making it impossible to hold

When liquid CO2 expands to gas through the horn, it cools sharply to around -78°C, forming dry ice. The horn and nozzle become extremely cold and can cause cold burns, so the extinguisher must be held by its insulated handle.

19. Which of the following is correct regarding the types of fire extinguisher you should avoid while fighting a fire in a confined space?

A. Carbon dioxide and dry powder fire extinguishers should not be used
B. Carbon dioxide and water fire extinguishers should not be used
C. Water and dry powder fire extinguishers should not be used
D. Only a dry powder fire extinguisher should not be used

Answer: A — Carbon dioxide and dry powder fire extinguishers should not be used

In a small confined space, CO2 displaces oxygen and can asphyxiate the operator, while dry powder forms a dense cloud that impairs visibility and breathing. Both are therefore avoided where the operator cannot quickly withdraw.

20. Who has the authority to activate the fire alarm after discovering a fire on the worksite?

A. Only the master can activate the fire alarm
B. Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm
C. Only the fire safety officer can activate the fire alarm
D. Only the crew can activate the fire alarm

Answer: B — Anyone who has seen a fire can activate the fire alarm

Any person who discovers a fire must raise the alarm immediately, using the nearest manual call point or by informing the bridge. Delaying to seek permission allows the fire to grow, and early warning is the key to successful firefighting.

21. Where should you go if you hear the fire alarm going off?

A. To the supervisor's office to inform him what is happening
B. To the assembly point (muster station)
C. To the break room to make sure everyone got out
D. Home, as the work day is over

Answer: B — To the assembly point (muster station)

On hearing the fire alarm everyone must proceed to their assigned muster or assembly station as shown on the muster list. A headcount is taken there, missing persons are identified and fire parties are dispatched.

22. During a fire, which means of communication may be used?

A. Messengers
B. Telephones
C. Walkie-talkies
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Firefighting depends on reliable communication between the bridge, the fire control station and the fire teams. Portable radios are the primary means, but sound-powered or ship's telephones and messengers are valid back-ups when radios fail or are unsuitable.

23. The fire assembly point can be best described as:

A. The place where the fire extinguishers are stored
B. An area that has a high risk of fire
C. An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire
D. An area you are required to avoid in the event of a fire

Answer: C — An area where you are required to assemble in the event of a fire

The fire assembly point (muster station) is the designated place where personnel gather when the fire alarm sounds, so that a head count can be taken and fire parties organised as per the muster list.

24. When must portable carbon dioxide fire extinguishers be recharged?

A. At least once each year
B. Each time the vessel dry-docks
C. When the charged weight has decreased by 50%
D. Whenever used, including for demonstration or fire fighting on board

Answer: D — Whenever used, including for demonstration or fire fighting on board

Any extinguisher that has been discharged, even partially for a demonstration, must be recharged before being returned to service. CO2 units are also recharged when weighing shows a loss of more than about 10% of the charge, far less than 50%.

25. In a mixture of flammable vapour and air, if there is too much vapour and not enough air to support combustion, the mixture is said to be:

A. Too rich
B. Over-concentrated
C. Too lean
D. Saturated

Answer: A — Too rich

A mixture above the upper flammable limit (UFL) contains too much fuel vapour and too little oxygen to burn and is described as too rich. Below the lower flammable limit the mixture is too lean.

26. Automatic sprinklers in accommodation spaces shall come into operation within the temperature range of:

A. 80 - 90 °C
B. 68 - 79 °C
C. 56 - 67 °C
D. 48 - 55 °C

Answer: B — 68 - 79 °C

The FSS Code, Chapter 8, requires sprinkler heads to operate within 68 °C to 79 °C, except in spaces such as drying rooms where high ambient temperatures are expected, where the operating temperature may be raised by up to 30 °C above the maximum deckhead temperature.

27. Class A materials do not include which of the following?

A. Wood
B. Propane
C. Plastics
D. Paper

Answer: B — Propane

Class A fires involve ordinary solid combustibles such as wood, paper, textiles and plastics that leave ash or embers. Propane is a flammable gas and does not belong to Class A.

28. What does the term 'spontaneous combustion' mean?

A. The substance is very difficult to set alight, even when very hot
B. When the substance burns it burns completely and leaves no residue or ash
C. When the substance burns it becomes very hot
D. The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition

Answer: D — The substance can catch fire by itself without an external source of heat or ignition

Spontaneous combustion occurs when slow oxidation within a material, such as oily rags or certain bulk cargoes like coal, generates heat faster than it is lost until the material reaches its ignition temperature without any external ignition source.

29. Continuous burning of a fire is represented in the fire tetrahedron by the addition of:

A. Chain supply
B. Chain reaction
C. Chain inhibition
D. Chain prevention

Answer: B — Chain reaction

The fire tetrahedron adds the uninhibited chemical chain reaction to the fuel, heat and oxygen of the fire triangle. Free radicals sustain continuous burning, and agents such as dry powder extinguish fire by interrupting this chain reaction.

30. When you are using a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher, what happens to the nozzle (horn)?

A. It becomes extremely hot
B. It becomes warm
C. It becomes slightly cold
D. It becomes extremely cold

Answer: D — It becomes extremely cold

Liquid CO2 expanding rapidly to gas at the horn absorbs heat and can cool to about -78 °C, forming dry ice. The horn becomes extremely cold and should not be held with bare hands because it can cause cold burns.

Set 11 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Titanium and aluminium can be classified under which class of fire?

A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class D
D. Class B

Answer: C — Class D

Fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium, titanium, aluminium powder and sodium are Class D. They require special dry powder agents, since water may react violently with the burning metal.

2. If there is a black coloured band on a fire extinguisher, what does the colour of the band tell you?

A. That this is a wet chemical fire extinguisher
B. That this is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher
C. That this extinguisher is broken and should not be used
D. That this is a dry powder fire extinguisher

Answer: B — That this is a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher

Under the common colour coding (BS EN 3), extinguisher bodies are red with a coloured band identifying the agent: black for CO2, cream for foam, blue for dry powder, yellow for wet chemical and red for water.

3. ____ fire extinguishers are specifically designed to tackle a Class F fire.

A. Dry chemical
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet chemical

Answer: D — Wet chemical

Class F fires involve cooking oils and fats. Wet chemical extinguishers discharge a potassium-salt solution that cools the oil and reacts with it to form a soapy crust (saponification) which seals the surface and prevents re-ignition.

4. If a cream coloured band is located on a fire extinguisher, it indicates that the extinguisher is of which type?

A. CO2
B. Water
C. Foam
D. None of these

Answer: C — Foam

In the BS EN 3 colour coding a cream band identifies a foam extinguisher. Black indicates CO2, blue dry powder, yellow wet chemical and plain red water.

5. Wood, plastic and paper are classified as:

A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class A
D. Class D

Answer: C — Class A

Class A fires involve ordinary carbonaceous solids such as wood, paper, plastics and textiles, which burn with glowing embers and are best extinguished by the cooling action of water.

6. A portable foam (stored-pressure type) fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in:

A. Oil drums
B. Cargo tanks
C. A large fire
D. None of these

Answer: A — Oil drums

A portable foam extinguisher is designed for small Class B fires such as burning oil in drums or small spills, where the foam blanket smothers the liquid surface. Cargo tank and large fires require fixed deck foam or other fixed systems.

7. A stored-pressure water extinguisher is most effective against fires of class:

A. C
B. A
C. D
D. B

Answer: B — A

Water extinguishes mainly by cooling and is most effective on Class A fires of ordinary solids. It is unsuitable for flammable liquids, which it can spread, for electrical fires and for metal fires.

8. Any extinguishing agent used on a Class C (electrical) fire must have which important property?

A. Conductivity
B. Expansion
C. Temperature
D. Non-conductivity

Answer: D — Non-conductivity

On live electrical equipment the agent must be electrically non-conductive, such as CO2 or dry powder, so that the operator is not exposed to electric shock through the discharge stream.

9. A fire in trash and paper waste is classified as class:

A. A
B. C
C. D
D. B

Answer: A — A

Trash and paper waste are ordinary combustible solids, so a fire in them is Class A. Cooling with water is the most effective extinguishing method, and the material should be overhauled to prevent re-ignition.

10. A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class:

A. B
B. D
C. C
D. A

Answer: D — A

Dunnage is timber used to protect and secure cargo. As an ordinary solid combustible, a fire in dunnage is Class A and is best fought by cooling with water.

11. A fire in a pile of canvas is classified as class:

A. D
B. C
C. A
D. B

Answer: C — A

Canvas is a textile, an ordinary solid combustible material. Fires in textiles are Class A and can smoulder deep within the material, so thorough cooling and overhaul are needed.

12. The best way to fight an electrical fire from the options given is with:

A. Water
B. Foam
C. Dry chemical powder (DCP)
D. None of these

Answer: C — Dry chemical powder (DCP)

Electrical fires require a non-conductive agent. Dry chemical powder (or CO2) can be used safely, whereas water and foam conduct electricity and expose the operator to shock. Power should be isolated as early as possible.

13. A foam-type portable fire extinguisher would be most useful in combating a fire in:

A. Combustible metallic solids
B. A piece of electrical equipment
C. Solid materials such as wood or bales of fibre
D. Flammable liquids

Answer: D — Flammable liquids

Foam forms a blanket on the surface of burning flammable liquids, smothering the fire and suppressing vapour release. It is the preferred agent for Class B fires but is conductive and unsuitable for electrical or metal fires.

14. What type of fire extinguisher should you use to extinguish a fire in solid materials such as wood, paper or textiles?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Water
C. Foam
D. Wet chemical

Answer: B — Water

Fires in solid materials are Class A. Water penetrates and cools the burning material below its ignition temperature, which makes it the most effective agent for this class of fire.

15. A portable fire extinguisher is designed to put out ____ effectively.

A. A big fire
B. A small fire
C. An uncontrollable fire
D. None of these

Answer: B — A small fire

Portable extinguishers carry a limited charge and discharge for only a few seconds, so they are intended for fighting small fires in their early stage. Larger fires require hoses and fixed fire-extinguishing systems.

16. Water fire extinguishers have a ____ located on them.

A. Red coloured band
B. Red and cream band
C. Red and yellow band
D. Yellow coloured band

Answer: A — Red coloured band

Under the BS EN 3 colour coding all extinguisher bodies are red, and water extinguishers carry no other colour (a red band or label). Cream identifies foam, blue dry powder, black CO2 and yellow wet chemical.

17. A dry powder fire extinguisher can be identified by a ____ band on it.

A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Black

Answer: C — Blue

In the BS EN 3 colour coding a blue band identifies a dry powder extinguisher. Black is used for CO2, cream for foam, yellow for wet chemical and red for water.

18. An initial attempt to extinguish a galley grease fire may be made by using:

A. Water
B. A mechanical foam system
C. The range hood extinguishing system
D. Fire dampers only

Answer: C — The range hood extinguishing system

Galley range exhaust ducts and hoods are fitted with a fixed extinguishing system, required by SOLAS II-2/9 for ducts from galley ranges, which can be operated locally for an initial attack. Water must never be used on burning cooking oil.

19. When using a foam fire extinguisher on a fire in the engine room, the best way is to:

A. Direct the foam on the bulkhead behind the fire and let it slowly spread over the fire
B. Spread the foam from the side of the fire towards the inside
C. Aim directly at the fire with a sweeping action
D. Spray the high flames first

Answer: A — Direct the foam on the bulkhead behind the fire and let it slowly spread over the fire

Foam should be applied gently so that it flows over the burning liquid surface as a blanket. Directing it against a bulkhead or vertical surface behind the fire prevents plunging into the liquid, which would splash burning fuel and spread the fire.

20. A self-contained breathing apparatus should have a minimum air duration of:

A. 10 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 30 minutes
D. 40 minutes

Answer: C — 30 minutes

The FSS Code, Chapter 3, requires the SCBA air cylinders to have a total capacity of at least 1200 litres of free air, or other apparatus capable of functioning for at least 30 minutes.

21. A sliding watertight door below the waterline should be able to be closed manually (by hand gear) within how many seconds with the ship upright?

A. 10 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 90 seconds

Answer: D — 90 seconds

SOLAS II-1/13 requires the time for complete closure of a power-operated sliding watertight door using the hand-operated gear not to exceed 90 seconds with the ship upright. Under power the closing time is 20 to 40 seconds.

22. In addition to the fixed fire-fighting systems, what else is a special requirement for tankers?

A. Lifeboats provided with a water spray (sprinkler) system
B. Sprinkler system in the accommodation
C. An extra rescue boat
D. Automatic release of CO2

Answer: A — Lifeboats provided with a water spray (sprinkler) system

SOLAS III/31 and the LSA Code require tankers carrying cargoes with a flashpoint not exceeding 60 °C to carry fire-protected lifeboats with a self-contained water spray system that protects the boat while passing through burning oil.

23. The inert gas system shall be capable of maintaining the oxygen content in the cargo tanks at not more than:

A. 5% by volume
B. 7% by volume
C. 8% by volume
D. 10% by volume

Answer: C — 8% by volume

The FSS Code, Chapter 15, requires the inert gas system to deliver gas with an oxygen content not exceeding 5% and to maintain the atmosphere in any part of a cargo tank at an oxygen content not exceeding 8% by volume.

24. Why is carbon dioxide better than dry chemical for fighting a Class C (electrical) fire?

A. Dry chemical is a conductor
B. Dry chemical leaves a residue
C. CO2 will not dissipate in the air
D. A smaller amount of CO2 covers the same area

Answer: B — Dry chemical leaves a residue

Both agents are non-conductive, but dry chemical powder leaves a corrosive, insulating residue that can damage sensitive electrical and electronic equipment. CO2 evaporates completely and leaves no residue, so it is preferred on switchboards and electronics.

25. The proper method of using a fire extinguisher is remembered as:

A. Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep
B. Pass, aim, shut, sit
C. Push, aim, spray, step
D. Pull, alert, squeeze, stop

Answer: A — Pull, aim, squeeze, sweep

The PASS method is: pull the safety pin, aim the nozzle at the base of the fire, squeeze the operating lever and sweep from side to side across the base of the fire until it is out.

26. What is a door release unit (DRU)?

A. An electromagnetic device that holds a fire door open and releases it to close when the fire alarm operates
B. An automatic release unit for the rescue boat
C. An automatic release unit for the lifeboat
D. None of the above

Answer: A — An electromagnetic device that holds a fire door open and releases it to close when the fire alarm operates

A DRU is an electromagnetic hold-back device fitted to fire doors. SOLAS II-2/9 permits fire doors to be held open only by such remotely releasable arrangements, which release automatically on fire alarm or power failure so the door self-closes.

27. What is the correct way to use a CO2 fire extinguisher?

A. Direct it on a bulkhead behind the fire and let it flow down
B. Aim low, pointing the horn at the base of the fire, and sweep from side to side
C. Hold it by the horn while discharging
D. Direct it at the high flames first and then the low flames

Answer: B — Aim low, pointing the horn at the base of the fire, and sweep from side to side

CO2 works by smothering, so it should be directed at the base of the fire and swept across it to displace the oxygen. The horn must be held only by its insulated handle because it becomes extremely cold during discharge.

28. To fight a Class C (electrical) fire you should use carbon dioxide or:

A. Chemical foam
B. Mechanical foam
C. Dry chemical
D. Chemically treated sawdust

Answer: C — Dry chemical

Electrical fires require non-conductive agents. Carbon dioxide and dry chemical powder do not conduct electricity, whereas foams are water-based and conductive and would expose the operator to electric shock.

29. A fire on board is extinguished by:

A. Cooling
B. Smothering (cutting off oxygen)
C. Starvation (removing the burning material or fuel)
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Fire is extinguished by removing one side of the fire triangle: cooling removes heat, smothering excludes oxygen and starvation removes the fuel. All three principles are used on board depending on the type of fire.

30. On fire patrol at night you see smoke coming from under a closed cabin door. What action should you take?

A. Activate the nearest fire alarm call point and advise the bridge of the location of the fire
B. As most people are sleeping, call a friend to assist in putting out the fire
C. Get the nearest fire extinguisher and then open the door to see the situation
D. Look inside the cabin to see what the situation is

Answer: A — Activate the nearest fire alarm call point and advise the bridge of the location of the fire

The first action on discovering a fire is to raise the alarm and inform the bridge of its location so the whole crew is mustered and the fire is fought in an organised way. Opening the door may let in air and cause a flashover.

Set 12 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Why should a CO2 extinguisher be used with caution in confined areas?

A. It will increase the oxygen in the confined area to a dangerous level
B. It may explode when exposed to heat
C. It will displace the air and reduce the oxygen available
D. It will not operate effectively in confined areas

Answer: C — It will displace the air and reduce the oxygen available

CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing air and lowering the oxygen concentration. In a small enclosed space the same effect can asphyxiate the operator, so it must be used with care and the space ventilated before re-entry.

2. You are carrying out a search in a smoke-filled compartment wearing a BA set. At what stage should you start to make your way out of the compartment?

A. When the BA set low-pressure warning whistle sounds
B. 15 minutes after starting to use the set, as this leaves five minutes of air
C. Regularly check the pressure gauge and note the air used to reach the work area; start to return when this amount plus a reasonable reserve is left
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Regularly check the pressure gauge and note the air used to reach the work area; start to return when this amount plus a reasonable reserve is left

Air consumption varies with workload, so the wearer must monitor the gauge and begin withdrawal with enough air to retrace the route plus a safety reserve. The low-pressure whistle is a last warning, not the planned exit signal.

3. For fire to occur, the three elements of the fire triangle must be present. These are heat, air (oxygen) and ____.

A. Electricity
B. Spark
C. Flame
D. Fuel

Answer: D — Fuel

The fire triangle consists of fuel, heat and oxygen. Removing any one of them extinguishes the fire, which is the basis of starvation, cooling and smothering.

4. If you were in charge of a fire team, what is the minimum number of persons wearing BA sets that you would allow to enter a smoke-filled compartment?

A. 2 persons
B. 1 person
C. 3 persons
D. 4 persons

Answer: A — 2 persons

BA wearers must never enter alone. They work at least in pairs so that each can assist the other, under the control of a BA control officer at the entry point, with lifeline and communication arrangements in place.

5. What class of fire is a smouldering fire of wood, textiles, paper and other carbonaceous materials?

A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Answer: A — Class A

Carbonaceous solids such as wood, textiles and paper are Class A materials. Such fires often smoulder deep inside the material and need cooling with water and careful overhaul to prevent re-ignition.

6. What is the primary hazard, other than fire damage, associated with a Class C fire?

A. Flashover
B. Possibility of re-flash
C. Electrocution or shock
D. Explosion

Answer: C — Electrocution or shock

Class C fires involve energised electrical equipment, so the main additional hazard is electric shock or electrocution. Power should be isolated and only non-conductive agents such as CO2 or dry powder used.

7. A document which identifies a chemical and lists its physical properties, health hazards, required controls, fire-fighting procedures, clean-up methods, waste disposal and safe handling is commonly called a ____.

A. Hazardous chemical information sheet
B. Material safety data sheet
C. Hazardous chemical loading document
D. Physical or chemical characteristics document

Answer: B — Material safety data sheet

A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS, now SDS) gives the hazards, handling, fire-fighting and first-aid information for a substance. SOLAS VI/5-1 requires MSDS to be provided for MARPOL Annex I cargoes and marine fuel oils before loading.

8. Which of the following is not required to be shown on a vessel's fire control plan?

A. Ventilation fan locations
B. Ventilation fan capacity
C. Ventilation fan controls
D. Ventilation dampers

Answer: B — Ventilation fan capacity

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 requires the fire control plan to show particulars of the ventilation system, including the position of fan controls and dampers and the identification numbers of the fans serving each section. Fan capacity is not a required particular.

9. The longer an oil fire is permitted to burn, the ____.

A. Harder it is to extinguish
B. Easier it is to extinguish
C. Less chance there is of re-ignition
D. Easier it is to control

Answer: A — Harder it is to extinguish

As an oil fire continues, surrounding structures and the fuel itself heat up, vapour production increases and the fire spreads, so it becomes harder to extinguish and the risk of re-ignition grows. Early, rapid attack is therefore essential.

10. Which of the following is specially dedicated to receiving water supplied from shore?

A. Isolating valve
B. International shore connection
C. Fire main line
D. None of the above

Answer: B — International shore connection

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.7 and FSS Code Chapter 2 require ships of 500 GT and above to carry an international shore connection with standard flange dimensions, so that water from shore or another ship can be supplied to the fire main from either side.

11. Spontaneous combustion is caused by ____.

A. An outside heat source heating a substance until it ignites
B. Conduction of heat through a wall of material to the substance
C. Chemical action within the substance
D. All of the above

Answer: C — Chemical action within the substance

Spontaneous combustion results from chemical action, usually slow oxidation, within the substance itself. The heat generated accumulates until the ignition temperature is reached, without any external source of heat.

12. In cargo ships the diameter of the fire main need only be sufficient for the discharge of ____ with two fire pumps simultaneously delivering through nozzles.

A. 135 m³/h
B. 145 m³/h
C. 14 m³/h
D. 140 m³/h

Answer: D — 140 m³/h

SOLAS II-2/10.2.1.3 requires fire main diameter to suit the maximum discharge of the required main fire pumps operating simultaneously, but for cargo ships the diameter need only be sufficient for a discharge of 140 m³/h.

13. A hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher is effective on burning oil only ____.

A. If applied promptly
B. If applied together with foam
C. To prevent rekindling
D. If an attempt with low-velocity fog has failed

Answer: A — If applied promptly

A portable CO2 extinguisher has a small charge and no lasting cooling or blanketing effect, so it can only knock down a small oil fire if applied promptly in its early stage, before surrounding surfaces become hot enough to cause re-ignition.

14. Which toxic gas is a product of incomplete combustion and is often present when a fire burns in a closed compartment?

A. Hydrogen sulphide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Nitric oxide

Answer: B — Carbon monoxide

When a fire burns with limited oxygen, as in a closed compartment, combustion is incomplete and carbon monoxide is produced. CO is colourless, odourless, flammable and highly toxic because it combines with haemoglobin in preference to oxygen.

15. Before releasing the engine room fixed CO2 system to extinguish a major uncontrolled fire, what is the first step?

A. Stop the main engine
B. Evacuate all engine room personnel
C. Start the emergency diesel generator
D. Turn off electrical power

Answer: B — Evacuate all engine room personnel

A total-flooding CO2 concentration is lethal, so the space must be evacuated and all personnel accounted for before release. The FSS Code requires an audible and visual pre-discharge alarm to warn personnel to leave the space.

16. Which type of fire extinguisher is hard to recharge on board?

A. DCP
B. Foam
C. CO2
D. Water

Answer: C — CO2

CO2 extinguishers hold liquefied gas at high pressure and need special filling equipment, so they are normally recharged ashore by an approved service station. Water, foam and many powder units can be refilled on board with spare charges.

17. A fire in an engine compartment is best extinguished with carbon dioxide gas and by ____.

A. Completely closing the compartment
B. Closing the compartment except for the ventilators
C. Leaving the compartment open to the air
D. Increasing the air flow to the compartment with blowers

Answer: A — Completely closing the compartment

CO2 extinguishes by reducing the oxygen concentration, so the compartment must be completely closed, with ventilation stopped, dampers and openings shut, before release so that the required concentration is achieved and maintained.

18. Fire fighting with foam is only effective when the foam ____.

A. Penetrates to the bottom of the fire
B. Mixes with the burning fuel oil
C. Is kept saturated with low-velocity water fog
D. Completely covers the top of the burning liquid

Answer: D — Completely covers the top of the burning liquid

Foam works by forming a continuous blanket over the burning liquid, which smothers the fire, suppresses vapour release and cools the surface. Any break in the blanket allows vapour to escape and the fire to re-ignite.

19. As per regulations, the minimum length of a fireman's lifeline should be ____.

A. 30 metres
B. 20 metres
C. 15 metres
D. None of the above

Answer: A — 30 metres

The FSS Code, Chapter 3, requires each breathing apparatus to have a fireproof lifeline of at least 30 m in length, capable of being attached to the harness by a snap hook, so that the wearer can be guided and recovered.

20. The main advantage of a solid (straight) stream of water on a Class A fire is that it ____.

A. Removes the oxygen
B. Washes the fire away
C. Protects the fire-fighting crew
D. Breaks up and cools the burning material

Answer: D — Breaks up and cools the burning material

A solid stream has reach and penetrating force, allowing it to break apart burning solid material and deliver water deep into the seat of a Class A fire, where it cools the fuel below its ignition temperature.

21. What is the best fire-fighting medium for a cargo fire on a gas tanker?

A. Water
B. Foam
C. DCP
D. Carbon dioxide

Answer: C — DCP

The IGC Code, Chapter 11, requires gas carriers to have a fixed dry chemical powder system for the cargo area, as dry powder is most effective at extinguishing liquefied gas fires. Water spray is used for cooling and protection, not extinguishing.

22. If a portable carbon dioxide fire extinguisher has been partially discharged, it should be immediately:

A. Tagged and restowed properly in its rack
B. Weighed and the charge loss recorded before returning it to its rack
C. Given to the chief engineer for charging
D. Tagged 'empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers

Answer: D — Tagged 'empty' and stowed separately from charged extinguishers

A partially used extinguisher cannot be relied upon, so it must be marked as empty and stowed separately so that it is not picked up in an emergency, and sent for recharging at the earliest opportunity.

23. The outlet of a fire hydrant may be positioned anywhere from horizontal to pointing ____.

A. Vertically downward
B. Vertically upward
C. 45 degrees upward
D. All of the above

Answer: A — Vertically downward

Hydrant outlets are arranged between horizontal and pointing vertically downward so that the hose hangs naturally, avoids kinking at the coupling, and the hose can be readily coupled and laid out in an emergency.

24. The maximum mass of a portable fire extinguisher is:

A. 11 kg
B. 23 kg
C. 19 kg
D. 9 kg

Answer: B — 23 kg

The FSS Code, Chapter 4, requires the mass of each portable fire extinguisher, including its charge, not to exceed 23 kg so that it can be carried and operated by one person.

25. CO2 fire extinguishers are preferred over other types because they:

A. Are cheaper per unit
B. Do less damage than others
C. Are better at cooling
D. None of the above

Answer: B — Do less damage than others

CO2 evaporates completely and leaves no residue, so it causes little secondary damage to electrical, electronic and other sensitive equipment, unlike powder, foam or water. It has very little cooling effect.

26. During an investigation of a fire, which points will be considered?

A. How the fire was discovered
B. When the fire was reported and the alarm sounded
C. Communication between the teams
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

A fire investigation reconstructs the full sequence of events, including discovery, time of alarm, the response, communication and effectiveness of teams and equipment, to identify the cause and lessons learnt to prevent recurrence under the ISM Code.

27. Fire fighting on board comprises which sequence of actions?

A. Find, alarm, isolate and extinguish
B. Find, fight and report
C. Report and fight
D. Find and report to the company

Answer: A — Find, alarm, isolate and extinguish

The basic fire response is to locate the fire, raise the alarm, contain it by isolating the space (closing doors, ventilation and fuel supplies) and then extinguish it. Containment before attack prevents spread of fire and smoke.

28. A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for fighting which classes of fire?

A. A and C
B. B and C
C. A and B
D. C, D and E

Answer: B — B and C

CO2 is effective on Class B flammable liquid fires and Class C electrical fires as it smothers and is non-conductive. It has little cooling effect, so it is unsuitable for deep-seated Class A fires and must not be used on metal fires.

29. There are two disadvantages of CO2 when used as a total flooding fire-fighting agent. One is that extinguishing concentrations will not support human life; the other is ____.

A. The lack of cooling effect on heated materials
B. It breaks down under extreme heat to form poisonous gases
C. It cannot be used in a dead-ship situation without power for the CO2 pump
D. It has no effect on a Class A fire even in an enclosed space

Answer: A — The lack of cooling effect on heated materials

CO2 extinguishes by smothering and provides little cooling, so hot surfaces can re-ignite the fuel when air is re-admitted. The space must therefore be kept closed long enough to cool before it is opened.

30. Which flammable materials kept in a store can cause a fire?

A. Paints and varnishes
B. Cleaning fluids and thinners
C. Steel wire ropes
D. Both paints/varnishes and cleaning fluids/thinners

Answer: D — Both paints/varnishes and cleaning fluids/thinners

Paints, varnishes, thinners and cleaning solvents give off flammable vapours, which is why paint and flammable liquid lockers are required by SOLAS II-2/10.6.3 to have fixed fire protection and good ventilation.

Set 13 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. The operating temperature of a green-coloured glass bulb in a sprinkler head is ____.

A. 63 °C
B. 93 °C
C. 85 °C
D. 78 °C

Answer: B — 93 °C

Sprinkler glass bulbs are colour-coded by operating temperature: orange 57 °C, red 68 °C, yellow 79 °C, green 93 °C and blue 141 °C. A green bulb therefore bursts at about 93 °C.

2. The fire detection and alarm system normally works on ____.

A. 12 V DC
B. 24 V DC
C. 24 V AC
D. 220 V DC

Answer: B — 24 V DC

Fire detection and alarm panels on board normally operate on 24 V DC, supplied from the main and emergency sources with battery back-up, as the FSS Code, Chapter 9, requires two independent power supplies with automatic changeover.

3. What is the first thing you should do in case of a fire if you cannot reach a fire extinguisher?

A. Open the portholes to clear the smoke
B. Evacuate the room immediately
C. Keep searching for an extinguisher
D. Fight the fire with whatever is at hand

Answer: B — Evacuate the room immediately

If you cannot reach an extinguisher, leave the space immediately, closing the door behind you to contain the fire, and raise the alarm. Opening portholes supplies oxygen and spreads the fire.

4. What is the temperature at which a material produces enough flammable vapour to flash if exposed to an ignition source?

A. Melting point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Auto-ignition temperature
D. Flash point

Answer: D — Flash point

The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to form a flammable mixture with air that flashes momentarily when an ignition source is applied. Sustained burning occurs at the slightly higher fire point.

5. In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by:

A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Ventilation

Answer: C — Convection

Stairways act as chimneys: hot gases and smoke rise rapidly through them by convection and spread fire to upper decks. SOLAS II-2/9 requires stairways to be enclosed with self-closing fire doors to prevent this.

6. Low-expansion foam has an expansion ratio of:

A. Up to 20:1
B. 20:1 to 200:1
C. 200:1 to 1000:1
D. Above 1000:1

Answer: A — Up to 20:1

Foam is classed by expansion ratio: low expansion up to about 20:1, medium 20:1 to 200:1 and high above 200:1. The FSS Code limits fixed low-expansion deck and machinery systems to an expansion ratio not exceeding 12:1.

7. In the list below, which gas has the widest flammable range?

A. Ethylene
B. Propane
C. Butane
D. Methane

Answer: A — Ethylene

Ethylene has a flammable range of roughly 2.7% to 36% by volume in air, far wider than methane (about 5-15%), propane (about 2.1-9.5%) and butane (about 1.8-8.4%).

8. The abbreviation AFFF stands for:

A. Aqueous Film Forming Foam
B. Alcohol Fire Fighting Foam
C. Aerated Fluid Fire Foam
D. Automatic Fixed Fire Fighting

Answer: A — Aqueous Film Forming Foam

AFFF is Aqueous Film Forming Foam, a fluorinated foam concentrate that spreads a thin aqueous film over the surface of hydrocarbon fuels, rapidly sealing vapours and knocking down Class B fires.

9. Under the NFPA (US) classification, a Class K fire involves:

A. Combustible metals
B. Cooking oils and fats
C. Energised electrical equipment
D. Flammable gases

Answer: B — Cooking oils and fats

In the NFPA classification Class K covers fires in cooking oils and fats in commercial kitchens, equivalent to Class F in the European system. They are fought with wet chemical agents.

10. 'B' class divisions (bulkheads) are classified as:

A. B-15 and B-0
B. A-60, A-30, A-15 and A-0
C. C-15 and C-0
D. H-120 and H-60

Answer: A — B-15 and B-0

SOLAS II-2/3 defines B class divisions as non-combustible divisions that prevent passage of flame for the first half hour of the standard fire test, with insulation values giving the ratings B-15 (15 minutes) and B-0.

11. A fire patrol should use which senses to identify a fire?

A. Sight only
B. Hearing and taste
C. Sight, smell and touch
D. Smell only

Answer: C — Sight, smell and touch

A fire patrol detects fire by seeing smoke or flames, smelling burning or smoke, and feeling for heat on doors, bulkheads and decks. Using all these senses allows early detection before automatic detectors operate.

12. Which types of portable fire extinguishers are carried on board ships?

A. CO2 and foam only
B. Foam only
C. CO2 only
D. Water, foam, dry powder and CO2

Answer: D — Water, foam, dry powder and CO2

Ships carry portable extinguishers suited to the fire risk of each space, including water, foam, dry powder and CO2, as required by SOLAS II-2/10.3 and the FSS Code, Chapter 4. Wet chemical units may also be provided in galleys.

13. Power-operated sliding watertight doors below the waterline must close, with the ship upright, in a time of:

A. Not less than 20 s and not more than 40 s
B. Not more than 45 s
C. Not more than 90 s
D. Not more than 10 s

Answer: A — Not less than 20 s and not more than 40 s

SOLAS II-1/13 requires power-operated sliding watertight doors to close at a uniform rate in not less than 20 seconds and not more than 40 seconds with the ship upright. Closure by hand gear must not exceed 90 seconds.

14. Before opening a closed door during a fire, you should always:

A. Open it quickly to assess the situation
B. Check the door for heat with the back of your hand
C. Kick the door open
D. Spray water under the door first

Answer: B — Check the door for heat with the back of your hand

Feeling the door and handle with the back of the hand indicates whether there is fire or intense heat behind it. Opening a hot door can admit air and cause a flashover or backdraught, endangering the fire fighters.

15. When should a fire watch be maintained for hot work activities?

A. Only before the hot work starts
B. Only during the hot work
C. During the hot work and for a period after it is completed
D. Only after the hot work is completed

Answer: C — During the hot work and for a period after it is completed

Sparks and heat from welding or cutting can ignite materials that smoulder unnoticed, including on the far side of bulkheads. A fire watch is therefore kept during the work and for a period afterwards, as required by the hot work permit.

16. Quick-closing valves on fuel oil tanks are designed to be operated from:

A. Only locally at the valve
B. A remote position outside the space concerned
C. Only from the bridge
D. Only from inside the tank

Answer: B — A remote position outside the space concerned

SOLAS II-2/4.2.2.3.4 requires suction valves on fuel oil tanks above the double bottom to be capable of being closed from a safe position outside the space, so the fuel supply can be shut off during an engine room fire.

17. In a cargo ship, the total required capacity of the fire pumps (other than the emergency fire pump) need not exceed ____.

A. 80 m³/h
B. 120 m³/h
C. 180 m³/h
D. 250 m³/h

Answer: C — 180 m³/h

SOLAS II-2/10.2.2.4 states that in cargo ships the total required capacity of the main fire pumps need not exceed 180 m³/h, although each pump must still deliver at least 25 m³/h.

18. In an automatic sprinkler system, sprinkler heads are spaced not more than ____ apart and not more than 2 m from any bulkhead or ship's side forming a boundary of the protected space.

A. 2 m
B. 4 m
C. 6 m
D. 8 m

Answer: B — 4 m

Sprinkler heads are fitted overhead in a regular pattern not more than 4 m apart and not more than 2 m from the boundaries, so that every part of the protected space receives the required water application rate.

19. How is the automatic sprinkler system connected to the ship's fire main?

A. It is not connected; it has only its own pressure tank
B. Through a lockable screw-down non-return valve
C. Through a direct open connection with no valve
D. Through the CO2 manifold

Answer: B — Through a lockable screw-down non-return valve

The FSS Code requires the sprinkler system to be connected to the ship's fire main through a lockable screw-down non-return valve, preventing back-flow from the sprinkler system into the fire main while allowing the fire main to back up the sprinkler supply.

20. The maximum distance between the centres of heat detectors is ____.

A. 5 m
B. 9 m
C. 11 m
D. 15 m

Answer: B — 9 m

FSS Code Chapter 9 limits heat detectors to a maximum floor area of 37 m² each, a maximum distance of 9 m between centres and 4.5 m from bulkheads; smoke detectors may be 11 m apart.

21. Which of the following cargoes is liable to spontaneous combustion?

A. Coal
B. Iron ore
C. Granite chips
D. Cement clinker

Answer: A — Coal

Coal absorbs oxygen and oxidises slowly, generating heat; if the heat cannot escape the temperature rises until the cargo self-ignites. The IMSBC Code therefore requires temperature and gas monitoring and controlled ventilation for coal cargoes.

22. For a 'B' class division, the average temperature on the unexposed side must not rise more than ____ above the original temperature within the first 30 minutes of the standard fire test (B-15).

A. 100°C
B. 140°C
C. 180°C
D. 225°C

Answer: B — 140°C

Under SOLAS II-2/3 and the FTP Code, a B-class division must keep the average unexposed-side temperature rise within 140°C and any single point within 225°C for the rated period, 15 minutes for B-15 or 0 for B-0.

23. When the human body is exposed to carbon monoxide, what happens to the oxygen supply to the tissues?

A. It increases because CO stimulates breathing
B. It decreases because CO combines with haemoglobin in preference to oxygen
C. It is unaffected because CO is an inert gas
D. It increases because CO dilates blood vessels

Answer: B — It decreases because CO combines with haemoglobin in preference to oxygen

Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin about 200 to 250 times more readily than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin. Less oxygen is carried to the tissues, causing headache, confusion, unconsciousness and death.

24. Charcoal is a product of the ____ of wood.

A. Dry distillation
B. Complete combustion
C. Hydrolysis
D. Fermentation

Answer: A — Dry distillation

Charcoal is produced by heating wood in the absence of air (dry distillation or pyrolysis), driving off volatile matter and leaving mainly carbon, which later burns as a glowing solid with little flame.

25. An injury caused by wet heat such as hot water or steam is called a ____.

A. Burn
B. Scald
C. Frostbite
D. Blister

Answer: B — Scald

A scald is caused by wet heat such as boiling water, steam or hot oil, whereas a burn results from dry heat such as flame, hot metal, friction or electricity. First aid for both is prolonged cooling with water.

26. Each section of an automatic sprinkler system must maintain an average water application rate of not less than ____ over the protected area.

A. 2 l/m²/min
B. 5 l/m²/min
C. 8 l/m²/min
D. 10 l/m²/min

Answer: B — 5 l/m²/min

The FSS Code Chapter 8 requires sprinklers to be arranged so as to maintain an average application rate of not less than 5 litres per square metre per minute over the nominal area covered.

27. A non-combustible material is one which neither burns nor gives off flammable vapours in sufficient quantity for self-ignition when heated to approximately ____.

A. 450°C
B. 600°C
C. 750°C
D. 900°C

Answer: C — 750°C

SOLAS II-2/3 defines a non-combustible material as one that neither burns nor gives off flammable vapours in sufficient quantity for self-ignition when heated to approximately 750°C, as determined by the FTP Code.

28. What is the minimum number of fireman's outfits required on a cargo ship?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B — 2

SOLAS II-2/10.10.2 requires cargo ships to carry at least two fireman's outfits, each with breathing apparatus, protective clothing, boots, gloves, helmet, safety lamp, axe and lifeline. Tankers need two additional outfits.

29. Which of the following is NOT a component of the fire tetrahedron?

A. Heat
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

Answer: D — Nitrogen

The fire tetrahedron has four elements: fuel, heat, oxygen and the uninhibited chemical chain reaction. Nitrogen is inert and does not support combustion, which is why it is used for inerting.

30. What is the generally accepted minimum CO2 design concentration needed to extinguish a fire in a machinery space?

A. 20%
B. 34%
C. 45%
D. 50%

Answer: B — 34%

A design concentration of about 34% CO2 is accepted as the minimum to extinguish most hydrocarbon fires. SOLAS and the FSS Code size machinery-space systems at 40% of the gross volume or 35% including the casing, which gives this concentration with a margin.

Set 14 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Which type of foam is most effective against fires in water-miscible (polar) flammable liquids such as alcohol?

A. Protein foam
B. AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
C. AR-AFFF (Alcohol-Resistant AFFF)
D. Synthetic foam

Answer: C — AR-AFFF (Alcohol-Resistant AFFF)

Polar solvents such as alcohols dissolve and destroy ordinary foam blankets. AR-AFFF contains a polymer that forms a protective membrane between the fuel and the foam, so the blanket survives and smothers the fire.

2. Which SOLAS chapter mainly deals with fire protection, fire detection and fire extinction on ships?

A. Chapter II-1
B. Chapter II-2
C. Chapter III
D. Chapter IV

Answer: B — Chapter II-2

SOLAS Chapter II-2 covers construction for fire protection, fire detection and fire extinction. Chapter II-1 deals with structure, subdivision and machinery, Chapter III with life-saving appliances and Chapter IV with radiocommunications.

3. What is the main hazard of a backdraft during a shipboard fire?

A. Excessive water damage
B. Sudden explosive ignition when oxygen is reintroduced
C. Rapid cooling of the compartment
D. Increased smoke density

Answer: B — Sudden explosive ignition when oxygen is reintroduced

In a closed, oxygen-starved compartment, hot unburnt gases build up. Opening a door or hatch lets air in and these gases can ignite explosively, injuring firefighters at the opening. Doors should therefore be checked and opened with care.

4. When entering a smoke-filled compartment, what is the correct buddy-system rule for firefighters?

A. One firefighter enters alone with radio contact
B. A minimum of two firefighters always enter together
C. Three firefighters enter while one monitors outside
D. Entry is not permitted under any circumstances

Answer: B — A minimum of two firefighters always enter together

Firefighters wearing breathing apparatus always work in pairs, at least two together, so that each can help the other. An entry controller outside monitors air time and communications.

5. What does 'flash point' mean in fire fighting?

A. The temperature at which a substance auto-ignites
B. The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to ignite momentarily when an external ignition source is applied
C. The temperature at which continuous burning begins
D. The highest temperature a fuel can reach

Answer: B — The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to ignite momentarily when an external ignition source is applied

Flash point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapour to form a flammable mixture that flashes momentarily when exposed to a flame. Sustained burning happens at the higher fire point, and auto-ignition needs no external source.

6. Which portable fire-fighting medium should NOT be used on a Class B fire (flammable liquids)?

A. Dry powder
B. CO2
C. Foam
D. Water jet

Answer: D — Water jet

A water jet sinks below the burning oil, can turn to steam explosively and spreads the burning liquid. Foam, dry powder and CO2 smother or interrupt combustion and are suitable for flammable liquid fires.

7. What is the main purpose of the emergency fire pump on a ship?

A. To supply foam concentrate to monitors
B. To provide an independent water supply if the main fire pumps fail
C. To pressurise the inert gas system
D. To supply water to the CO2 room

Answer: B — To provide an independent water supply if the main fire pumps fail

SOLAS II-2/10.2 requires an emergency fire pump with its own power source and sea suction outside the main machinery space, so the fire main can still be supplied if a fire there disables the main fire pumps.

8. In which situation should the fixed CO2 system NOT be released immediately into a machinery space?

A. When a major fuel oil fire is confirmed
B. When all personnel have not yet been evacuated from the space
C. When the fire has spread to the bilges
D. When the main engine is running

Answer: B — When all personnel have not yet been evacuated from the space

CO2 at extinguishing concentration is lethal. Before release, everyone must be evacuated and accounted for, the space sealed and ventilation and fuel stopped. Release alarms and time delays are provided for this reason.

9. What is the correct action when a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) low-pressure warning alarm activates?

A. Continue the operation and finish the task
B. Immediately withdraw from the compartment
C. Switch to a secondary air supply inside the space
D. Remove the mask and breathe ambient air

Answer: B — Immediately withdraw from the compartment

The low-pressure whistle sounds when only a reserve of air is left, enough to reach fresh air safely. The wearer and buddy must stop work and withdraw at once, telling the entry controller.

10. What is the main purpose of a thermal imaging camera (TIC) during fire fighting?

A. To measure smoke concentration levels
B. To detect heat sources through smoke and darkness
C. To communicate with shore-based fire brigades
D. To identify the type of fuel burning

Answer: B — To detect heat sources through smoke and darkness

A thermal imaging camera detects infrared radiation, so firefighters can locate the seat of the fire, hot spots, hot boundaries and casualties even in thick smoke or darkness.

11. What does 'foam expansion ratio' mean?

A. The rate at which foam concentrate is mixed with water
B. The volume of finished foam produced from a unit volume of foam solution
C. The thickness of the foam blanket applied on a fire
D. The pressure at which foam is discharged

Answer: B — The volume of finished foam produced from a unit volume of foam solution

Expansion ratio is the volume of finished foam divided by the volume of foam solution used to make it. The FSS Code classes low expansion up to 12:1, medium 50:1 to 150:1 and high 200:1 to 1000:1.

12. Which part of the fireman's outfit protects the hands from heat and flame?

A. Safety boots
B. Fire-resistant gloves
C. Lifeline
D. Safety lamp

Answer: B — Fire-resistant gloves

The FSS Code fireman's outfit includes protective clothing, boots and gloves of rubber or other electrically non-conducting material, and a rigid helmet. The gloves protect the hands from radiant heat, burns and electric shock.

13. What is the main cause of most deaths in shipboard fires?

A. Burns from direct flame contact
B. Explosion injuries
C. Smoke inhalation and toxic gases
D. Structural collapse

Answer: C — Smoke inhalation and toxic gases

Most fire deaths come from breathing smoke and toxic combustion products such as carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide, which disable victims before flames reach them. This is why smoke control and breathing apparatus are critical.

14. How should a hose team position itself when attacking a cargo hold fire through a hatch?

A. Directly above the open hatch
B. At the side of and slightly upwind of the hatch opening
C. Below the hatch on the cargo deck
D. Inside the hold at the base of the fire

Answer: B — At the side of and slightly upwind of the hatch opening

Hot gases, smoke and flames rise straight out of an open hatch. Standing to one side and upwind protects the team from heat and smoke while letting them direct water into the hold.

15. Which is a correct technique for a Class A fire in an enclosed space?

A. Apply dry powder and close the space
B. Apply water in a fog pattern to cool and suppress the fire
C. Introduce CO2 without any water
D. Ventilate the space fully before applying foam

Answer: B — Apply water in a fog pattern to cool and suppress the fire

Class A fires in ordinary combustibles are best extinguished by cooling. Water fog absorbs a lot of heat, cools the hot gas layer and protects the firefighters. Full ventilation first would feed the fire with oxygen.

16. What is the function of a 'deadman' (distress signal) alarm on an SCBA set?

A. It signals when the oxygen level drops below 21%
B. It activates when the wearer remains motionless for a set period, indicating incapacitation
C. It measures ambient temperature inside a fire compartment
D. It triggers automatic foam release

Answer: B — It activates when the wearer remains motionless for a set period, indicating incapacitation

A deadman or personal distress alarm sounds automatically if the wearer stays motionless for a preset time, usually about 30 seconds. This alerts the team that the firefighter may be unconscious and helps rescuers locate them.

17. Which type of fire detector senses products of combustion by their effect on ionised air in a chamber?

A. Heat detector
B. Optical smoke detector
C. Ionisation detector
D. Flame detector

Answer: C — Ionisation detector

An ionisation detector has a small radioactive source that ionises the air in a chamber so that a small current flows. Combustion particles entering the chamber reduce this current and trigger the alarm. Optical detectors use light scattering instead.

18. What is the correct procedure before opening a door or hatch to a space affected by fire?

A. Open it quickly to provide ventilation to firefighters
B. Feel the door for heat and keep to the hinged side, shielded by the door, when opening
C. Immediately break the door down using an axe
D. Spray water through the door gap and open it fully at once

Answer: B — Feel the door for heat and keep to the hinged side, shielded by the door, when opening

Feeling the door with the back of the hand shows whether there is intense heat behind it. Opening slowly while crouched on the hinge side keeps the door between the firefighter and any flame or backdraft, and a charged hose should be ready.

19. Which IMO instrument requires a fire safety training manual to be provided on board ships?

A. ISM Code
B. SOLAS Regulation II-2/15
C. MARPOL Annex I
D. STCW Code Section A-VI/3

Answer: B — SOLAS Regulation II-2/15

SOLAS II-2/15.2.3 requires a training manual in each crew mess room and recreation room or in each cabin, explaining fire safety practices, equipment and procedures. STCW A-VI/3 sets the competence standard for advanced fire fighting, not the manual.

20. What is the main advantage of a high-expansion foam system in an enclosed space?

A. It provides oxygen to personnel inside
B. It rapidly fills the space, smothering the fire and displacing oxygen
C. It cools the fire by high-pressure water discharge
D. It prevents re-ignition through a chemical reaction

Answer: B — It rapidly fills the space, smothering the fire and displacing oxygen

High-expansion foam, 200:1 to 1000:1, quickly fills large enclosed spaces such as engine rooms and holds. It smothers the fire, displaces the air and gives some cooling, while using little water.

21. When carrying out search and rescue in a smoke-filled compartment, what is the correct search technique?

A. Random search without any guideline
B. Systematic search following a wall on one side, using a lifeline
C. Search the centre of the compartment first
D. Rely only on the thermal imaging camera without physical contact

Answer: B — Systematic search following a wall on one side, using a lifeline

A systematic search that keeps contact with one wall and uses a lifeline or guideline makes sure the whole space is covered. It also gives the BA team a sure route back out in zero visibility.

22. What does 'fire load' refer to on a ship?

A. The weight of fire-fighting equipment carried
B. The total amount of combustible material present in a compartment
C. The number of fire crew assigned to an emergency
D. The pressure rating of the fire main

Answer: B — The total amount of combustible material present in a compartment

Fire load is the amount of combustible material in a space, usually expressed as heat energy per unit area. It decides how intense and how long a fire could be, and so influences structural fire protection and the choice of fire-fighting system.

23. What precaution must be taken before recharging an SCBA cylinder on board?

A. Check that the regulator is functioning
B. Ensure the cylinder is completely empty before refilling
C. Verify the cylinder is within its hydrostatic test date and inspect it for damage
D. Remove the pressure gauge before connecting to the charging panel

Answer: C — Verify the cylinder is within its hydrostatic test date and inspect it for damage

A cylinder that is out of test date, dented, corroded or heat-damaged may rupture when charged to high pressure. It must be inspected and its test date confirmed before connecting it to the breathing air compressor.

24. What is meant by 'fire point', as distinct from 'flash point'?

A. The temperature at which spontaneous ignition occurs
B. The temperature at which a liquid gives off vapour fast enough to sustain continuous burning after ignition
C. The lowest temperature at which a substance can catch fire momentarily
D. The temperature recorded at the centre of a fire

Answer: B — The temperature at which a liquid gives off vapour fast enough to sustain continuous burning after ignition

Fire point is a few degrees above the flash point. At this temperature vapour is produced quickly enough to keep burning after the ignition source is removed, while at the flash point the vapour only flashes momentarily.

25. Large quantities of firefighting water accumulating on an upper deck mainly endanger the ship's stability because they:

A. Reduce the displacement of the ship
B. Lower the centre of gravity and make the ship stiff
C. Raise the ship's centre of gravity and create free surface, reducing the effective GM
D. Increase the reserve buoyancy of the ship

Answer: C — Raise the ship's centre of gravity and create free surface, reducing the effective GM

Water added high in the ship raises G, and slack water lying on decks creates a free surface effect; both reduce the effective metacentric height, which can lead to a dangerous list or capsize during prolonged firefighting.

26. The free surface effect of firefighting water trapped in a compartment depends chiefly on the:

A. Depth of water in the compartment
B. Height of the compartment above the keel
C. Temperature of the water
D. Breadth of the free surface in the compartment

Answer: D — Breadth of the free surface in the compartment

The free surface moment is proportional to the moment of inertia of the liquid surface, which varies with the cube of its breadth. Depth of water has little effect, so wide undivided decks give the largest loss of GM.

27. During a prolonged accommodation fire the ship develops an increasing list. What is the most appropriate corrective action?

A. Increase the number of hoses to cool the fire faster
B. Report to the command team, reduce water application where possible and remove the accumulated water by drains, scuppers or portable pumps
C. Open all watertight doors to spread the water
D. Fill the high-side upper deck with water to counter the list

Answer: B — Report to the command team, reduce water application where possible and remove the accumulated water by drains, scuppers or portable pumps

Correcting a list caused by firefighting water starts with removing the free water and limiting further application. Adding weight high on the other side or spreading water further worsens the loss of stability.

28. Which firefighting technique helps limit the amount of water accumulating inside the ship?

A. Running hoses continuously even after the fire is out
B. Flooding the burning compartment completely
C. Using water fog or spray in short controlled bursts instead of continuous solid jets
D. Using solid jets at maximum pump pressure

Answer: C — Using water fog or spray in short controlled bursts instead of continuous solid jets

Fog and spray absorb heat far more efficiently per litre than a solid jet, so much less water is needed. Applying water only where and when required keeps the added weight and free surface to a minimum.

29. Approximately how much weight of water is added to a ship in one hour by a single fire pump delivering 25 m³/h of seawater, if none drains away?

A. About 250 tonnes
B. About 25.6 tonnes
C. About 2.5 tonnes
D. About 0.25 tonnes

Answer: B — About 25.6 tonnes

Seawater has a density of about 1.025 t/m³, so 25 m³ of water weighs roughly 25.6 tonnes. Officers must keep track of the volume pumped into the ship, because several hoses can add hundreds of tonnes within a few hours.

30. Why must the officer in charge of firefighting be particularly careful about stability when fighting a fire with the ship alongside a berth in port?

A. Port fire brigades only use foam
B. The mooring lines will prevent any list
C. Many ships have capsized alongside after large volumes of firefighting water were applied by shore fire brigades
D. Ships alongside do not experience any free surface effect

Answer: C — Many ships have capsized alongside after large volumes of firefighting water were applied by shore fire brigades

Shore fire services can deliver very large volumes of water. Without monitoring of stability and drainage, the water can cause a large list or capsize at the berth, so the ship's officers must advise them on stability throughout the operation.

Set 15 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Which item should be kept monitored and reported regularly to the command team throughout a firefighting operation using water?

A. The barometric pressure
B. The wind speed on the bridge wing only
C. The fuel consumption of the main engine
D. The ship's list, trim and draughts

Answer: D — The ship's list, trim and draughts

Changes in list, trim and draught are the earliest signs that firefighting water is accumulating. Regular reports allow the command team to adjust water application and start dewatering before stability becomes critical.

2. Before using large quantities of water on a fire in a cargo hold, which information should the officer in charge obtain?

A. The crew overtime records
B. The stability condition and the ability to drain or pump out the hold
C. The last port of call
D. The voyage charter party terms

Answer: B — The stability condition and the ability to drain or pump out the hold

Hold fires may need large volumes of water. Knowing the existing stability margin and whether the hold bilges can be pumped allows the master to decide how much water can be used safely without endangering the ship.

3. When the ship develops a list during firefighting and the GM is suspected to be negative (angle of loll), which action is dangerous?

A. Removing free water from upper decks
B. Reducing the amount of water applied
C. Pumping ballast into high-side tanks to bring the ship upright
D. Lowering the centre of gravity by removing high weights

Answer: C — Pumping ballast into high-side tanks to bring the ship upright

A list due to negative GM cannot be corrected by transferring weight to the high side; the ship may flop over to a larger angle on the other side. The cause, a high centre of gravity and free surface, must be removed instead.

4. Why should scuppers and deck drains be kept clear during firefighting operations?

A. To allow fresh air into the accommodation
B. To allow shore fire brigades to connect their hoses
C. To make the deck easier to clean afterwards
D. To allow firefighting water to drain overboard and limit free surface and added weight

Answer: D — To allow firefighting water to drain overboard and limit free surface and added weight

Blocked scuppers and drains cause water to collect on decks, adding weight high in the ship and creating free surface. Keeping them clear is a simple precaution that preserves stability during the operation.

5. Water spray and fog are preferred for stability reasons because, compared with a solid jet, they:

A. Convert entirely into steam and leave no water behind
B. Absorb more heat per unit volume, so much less water is required
C. Weigh less per cubic metre
D. Do not enter the ship's compartments

Answer: B — Absorb more heat per unit volume, so much less water is required

Fine droplets present a large surface area and absorb heat rapidly, turning partly into steam. The same cooling effect is achieved with far less water, so less weight and free surface accumulate inside the ship.

6. A ship fitted with a fixed water-based fire-extinguishing system in a ro-ro space must have arrangements to:

A. Transfer the water to the double-bottom tanks only
B. Retain all discharged water on the vehicle deck
C. Close all scuppers automatically when the system operates
D. Drain and pump the water discharged so as to prevent a build-up of free surface

Answer: D — Drain and pump the water discharged so as to prevent a build-up of free surface

SOLAS II-2/20 requires drainage and pumping arrangements in ro-ro and vehicle spaces protected by water systems so that the discharged water does not accumulate and seriously reduce stability through free surface effect.

7. Under STCW Table A-VI/3, what is the purpose of investigating an incident involving fire on board?

A. To decide the ship's next port
B. To calculate the insurance claim
C. To assess the cause of the fire and prevent its recurrence
D. To find a crew member to blame

Answer: C — To assess the cause of the fire and prevent its recurrence

STCW Table A-VI/3 includes the competence of investigating and compiling reports on incidents involving fire, with emphasis on assessing the cause. The aim is to identify root causes and corrective actions so that similar fires do not recur.

8. When examining a fire scene, the point of origin of the fire is usually indicated by:

A. The area furthest from the deepest charring
B. The position of the nearest fire extinguisher
C. The area of deepest charring and the apex of V-shaped burn patterns
D. The location where the fire was finally extinguished

Answer: C — The area of deepest charring and the apex of V-shaped burn patterns

Fire burns longest at its origin, producing the deepest charring, and spreads upwards and outwards to form V-shaped patterns on bulkheads. The base or apex of the V points back towards where the fire started.

9. Immediately after a fire has been extinguished, what should be done to support the subsequent investigation?

A. Clean the area and repaint it as quickly as possible
B. Restart the ventilation and leave the area open to all
C. Throw away all burnt debris overboard
D. Preserve the scene, restrict access and photograph it before anything is moved

Answer: D — Preserve the scene, restrict access and photograph it before anything is moved

Evidence such as burn patterns, failed components and debris is easily lost. Restricting access and photographing the scene before clearing it, consistent with safety, allows the cause to be established reliably.

10. Why should witnesses of a shipboard fire be interviewed as soon as practicable?

A. Their recollection is most accurate and least influenced by others soon after the event
B. Interviews are only valid within one hour
C. It replaces the need for physical evidence
D. It allows the master to avoid making a report

Answer: A — Their recollection is most accurate and least influenced by others soon after the event

Memory fades and becomes influenced by discussion with others. Early, separate interviews with the persons who discovered and fought the fire give the most reliable account of how and where the fire began and developed.

11. Following a serious fire, which electronic record should be saved without delay to preserve information for the investigation?

A. The voyage data recorder (VDR) data
B. The weather fax archive
C. The ship's entertainment system log
D. The crew's personal mobile phone records

Answer: A — The voyage data recorder (VDR) data

The VDR records bridge audio, alarms and other data. Unless saved promptly it may be overwritten, so after a serious incident the data should be preserved for the marine safety investigation.

12. Under the ISM Code, a fire on board must be reported and analysed as part of which requirement?

A. Documentation control
B. Reports and analysis of non-conformities, accidents and hazardous occurrences
C. Resources and personnel
D. Company responsibilities and authority

Answer: B — Reports and analysis of non-conformities, accidents and hazardous occurrences

ISM Code element 9 requires that accidents and hazardous occurrences be reported to the Company, investigated and analysed, and that corrective action be implemented to improve safety and prevent recurrence.

13. A fire report compiled by the ship's officers should include:

A. Only the weather conditions
B. Time and location of discovery, actions taken, systems used, injuries, damage and the probable cause
C. Only the cost of damaged equipment
D. Only the name of the person who discovered the fire

Answer: B — Time and location of discovery, actions taken, systems used, injuries, damage and the probable cause

A useful fire report gives a factual chronology covering discovery, alarm, actions, equipment and extinguishing systems used, casualties, damage and probable cause, so that the Company and authorities can learn from the incident.

14. When analysing the cause of a fire, the investigator seeks to identify the ignition source and the:

A. Number of crew on board
B. Colour of the paint on the bulkheads
C. Brand of the extinguishers used
D. Fuel first ignited and the circumstances that brought them together

Answer: D — Fuel first ignited and the circumstances that brought them together

Every fire requires a fuel, an ignition source and oxygen. Establishing which material was first ignited, by what source and why they came together reveals the root cause and the preventive measures needed.

15. Which IMO instrument sets out the international standards for the marine safety investigation of a very serious marine casualty, such as a fire causing loss of life?

A. The Casualty Investigation Code
B. The Fire Safety Systems Code
C. The International Safety Management Code
D. The International Ship and Port Facility Security Code

Answer: A — The Casualty Investigation Code

The Code of International Standards and Recommended Practices for a Safety Investigation into a Marine Casualty or Marine Incident (Casualty Investigation Code), made mandatory through SOLAS Chapter XI-1, requires flag States to investigate very serious marine casualties.

16. During a fire investigation, the main purpose of examining melted or failed electrical components is to determine whether:

A. The equipment was under warranty
B. The electrical fault caused the fire or was damaged by it
C. The crew had read the manufacturer's manual
D. The equipment was correctly painted

Answer: B — The electrical fault caused the fire or was damaged by it

Electrical damage can be either the cause or a result of a fire. Examining arcing marks and their location relative to the origin helps the investigator decide whether an electrical fault was the ignition source.

17. Which entry is required in the ship's log book following a fire on board?

A. No entry is required if the fire was extinguished quickly
B. Only the time the fire alarm was reset
C. Only the names of injured persons
D. A factual record of the fire, actions taken and its outcome

Answer: D — A factual record of the fire, actions taken and its outcome

Fires, emergencies and the measures taken must be recorded in the official log. The entries form part of the evidence for the investigation and for reporting the incident to the Company and the flag Administration.

18. The main aim of a lessons-learned review after a shipboard fire is to:

A. Replace the master
B. Share findings and corrective actions across the fleet so similar fires are prevented
C. Close the investigation as quickly as possible
D. Discipline all members of the fire party

Answer: B — Share findings and corrective actions across the fleet so similar fires are prevented

Lessons learned turn the findings of an investigation into changes to procedures, maintenance and training. Sharing them across the Company's fleet is how the ISM system prevents the same type of fire occurring elsewhere.

19. What is the recommended first aid for a thermal burn on a crew member's arm?

A. Burst any blisters to release the fluid
B. Cool the burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes
C. Apply butter or oil to the burn
D. Apply ice directly to the skin for an hour

Answer: B — Cool the burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes

Current first aid guidance is to cool a thermal burn with cool running water for at least 20 minutes, which reduces tissue damage and pain. Ice, fats and bursting blisters damage tissue and increase the risk of infection.

20. When giving first aid to a burns casualty, clothing that is stuck to the burnt skin should be:

A. Removed together with the skin
B. Pulled off quickly
C. Soaked in fuel and removed
D. Left in place and cut around

Answer: D — Left in place and cut around

Removing clothing that adheres to a burn tears the damaged skin and increases pain and infection risk. Loose clothing and jewellery are removed, but adhered material is left in place and cut around.

21. Using the 'rule of nines', what percentage of the body surface area is represented by the front of the trunk of an adult?

A. 18%
B. 9%
C. 36%
D. 27%

Answer: A — 18%

In the rule of nines each arm and the head are 9%, each leg, the front of the trunk and the back of the trunk are 18% each, and the perineum 1%. It is used to estimate the extent of burns.

22. A small or scattered burn area can be estimated by using the casualty's own palm and fingers, which represents about:

A. 1% of the body surface area
B. 5% of the body surface area
C. 10% of the body surface area
D. 0.1% of the body surface area

Answer: A — 1% of the body surface area

The casualty's palm including the fingers is approximately 1% of their body surface area. This is a quick way to estimate irregular burns when the rule of nines is difficult to apply.

23. After cooling, which is a suitable dressing for a burn while awaiting further medical advice?

A. Adhesive plaster stuck on the burn
B. Cotton wool pressed onto the burn
C. A tight bandage soaked in antiseptic
D. Cling film laid loosely over the burn

Answer: D — Cling film laid loosely over the burn

Cling film laid lengthwise and loosely over a cooled burn protects it from infection without sticking to the wound. Fluffy materials and adhesive dressings stick to the burn and cause further damage when removed.

24. A firefighter rescued from a smoke-filled space has soot around the nose and mouth and a hoarse voice. This most likely indicates:

A. A minor skin irritation only
B. Possible burns to the airway from inhaling hot gases
C. Dehydration only
D. A fractured jaw

Answer: B — Possible burns to the airway from inhaling hot gases

Soot around the mouth and nose, singed nasal hair and a hoarse voice suggest inhalation injury. The airway can swell quickly, so the casualty needs close monitoring, oxygen if available and urgent medical advice.

25. What is the most important treatment for a casualty suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning after a fire?

A. Lay the casualty in the space until the smoke clears
B. Give hot drinks and keep in the smoky area
C. Give the casualty alcohol to warm up
D. Remove to fresh air and give high-concentration oxygen

Answer: D — Remove to fresh air and give high-concentration oxygen

Carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and blocks oxygen transport. Removing the casualty to fresh air and administering high-flow oxygen speeds the elimination of CO; resuscitation is started if the casualty stops breathing.

26. A crew member has collapsed in a space where CO2 has been released. What must the rescuers do before entering?

A. Put on self-contained breathing apparatus and follow the rescue plan
B. Wear a dust mask
C. Hold their breath and run in quickly
D. Enter immediately without protection to save time

Answer: A — Put on self-contained breathing apparatus and follow the rescue plan

A CO2-flooded space cannot support life and unprotected rescuers will collapse in seconds. Rescuers must wear SCBA and work under the organised rescue procedure before removing the casualty to fresh air.

27. What first aid is appropriate for a chemical burn to the skin caused by a corrosive cargo during a fire?

A. Cover immediately with an airtight dressing without washing
B. Neutralise the chemical with another chemical
C. Flush the affected area with copious amounts of water for a prolonged period
D. Wipe the area with a dry cloth only

Answer: C — Flush the affected area with copious amounts of water for a prolonged period

Copious and prolonged irrigation with water dilutes and removes the chemical. Attempting neutralisation can cause a heat-producing reaction; the cargo's Safety Data Sheet and the MFAG give further specific treatment.

28. Before touching a casualty who has collapsed beside burning electrical equipment, the rescuer must:

A. Throw water over the casualty
B. Check the casualty's pulse first
C. Ensure the electrical supply is isolated
D. Apply a CO2 extinguisher to the casualty

Answer: C — Ensure the electrical supply is isolated

An electrical casualty may still be in contact with live equipment. Isolating the supply first prevents the rescuer from also receiving an electric shock; only then are the casualty's breathing and circulation assessed.

29. A casualty with extensive burns is at particular risk of:

A. Hypothermia only from the burns
B. Fractures
C. Shock due to fluid loss
D. Snow blindness

Answer: C — Shock due to fluid loss

Large burns allow considerable fluid to leak from damaged tissue, leading to hypovolaemic shock. The casualty is kept lying down, monitored and given urgent medical advice; cooling of large burns must avoid causing hypothermia.

30. During a prolonged firefighting operation, firefighters showing signs of heat exhaustion should be:

A. Sent back in after a short drink
B. Left in the attack team until the fire is out
C. Relieved, moved to a cool area, rested and given fluids
D. Given additional protective clothing

Answer: C — Relieved, moved to a cool area, rested and given fluids

Heavy work in protective clothing near a fire causes heat stress. Rotating teams and treating affected firefighters with rest, cooling and fluids prevents progression to heat stroke and keeps the fire party effective.

Set 16 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Why should a casualty collection point be designated during a major shipboard fire?

A. So injured persons can be assessed, treated and accounted for away from the danger area
B. So the shore authorities can collect evidence
C. So casualties can rejoin the attack team
D. So the fire party can store its equipment

Answer: A — So injured persons can be assessed, treated and accounted for away from the danger area

A designated safe area allows the first aid party to triage and treat casualties systematically and report numbers to the command team, while keeping them clear of smoke, heat and firefighting operations.

2. What is the standard outside diameter of the flange of an international shore connection as specified in the FSS Code?

A. 150 mm
B. 132 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 178 mm

Answer: D — 178 mm

FSS Code Chapter 2 specifies the international shore connection flange with an outside diameter of 178 mm, a bolt circle diameter of 132 mm and four slots of 19 mm, so that any shore or ship hose can be connected.

3. How many bolts and nuts are to be kept with the international shore connection according to the FSS Code?

A. Four bolts of 16 mm diameter, 50 mm long, with nuts and eight washers
B. Two bolts of 12 mm diameter
C. Six bolts of 20 mm diameter
D. Eight bolts of 16 mm diameter

Answer: A — Four bolts of 16 mm diameter, 50 mm long, with nuts and eight washers

The FSS Code requires the international shore connection to be kept with a gasket, four 16 mm bolts 50 mm in length, four nuts and eight washers, so that it can be fitted immediately when shore water is needed.

4. When the local fire brigade arrives at a ship on fire alongside, which ship's officer arrangement is most helpful?

A. A designated liaison officer meets them at the gangway with the fire control plan, crew list and cargo information
B. All officers leave the ship to meet the brigade ashore
C. The brigade is asked to wait until the master finishes his report
D. The brigade is left to find its own way to the fire

Answer: A — A designated liaison officer meets them at the gangway with the fire control plan, crew list and cargo information

Shore firefighters do not know the ship. A liaison officer who knows the ship, carrying the fire control plan, crew muster status and dangerous cargo details, enables a fast and safe joint operation.

5. Which information is most important to give to shore-based firefighters on their arrival?

A. Location and extent of the fire, missing persons, actions taken, fixed systems released and dangerous goods on board
B. The crew wage scales
C. The ship's next port of call
D. The charterer's details

Answer: A — Location and extent of the fire, missing persons, actions taken, fixed systems released and dangerous goods on board

Shore firefighters must immediately know where the fire is, whether anyone is missing, what the crew has done, whether CO2 or another fixed system has been released and what hazardous cargo is present, before committing their teams.

6. Why is a duplicate set of fire control plans kept in a weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse?

A. To replace the plans on the bridge if they are lost
B. For inspection by customs officers
C. To assist shore-side firefighting personnel
D. For use by the pilot during berthing

Answer: C — To assist shore-side firefighting personnel

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 requires a duplicate set of fire control plans or a booklet to be permanently stored in a prominently marked weathertight enclosure outside the deckhouse for the assistance of shore-side firefighting personnel.

7. When shore firefighters are fighting a fire on board, who remains responsible for advising on the ship's stability?

A. The ship's agent
B. The port state control officer
C. The master and ship's officers
D. The shore fire chief alone

Answer: C — The master and ship's officers

Shore firefighters are not familiar with the ship's stability. The master and officers must monitor list and trim and advise the shore fire chief on water quantities and drainage so that the ship is not endangered.

8. In a port, a fire on board should be reported to shore authorities:

A. Only if cargo is damaged
B. Only at the end of the cargo operation
C. As soon as possible, by raising the alarm with the terminal and port and calling the local fire brigade
D. Only after the crew has failed to extinguish it

Answer: C — As soon as possible, by raising the alarm with the terminal and port and calling the local fire brigade

Early notification gives shore services time to respond and allows the terminal to stop cargo operations and take its own precautions. Delaying until the crew's efforts fail can allow a fire to grow beyond control.

9. Before shore firefighters begin applying water through the international shore connection, the ship's crew should:

A. Ensure the correct isolating valves are set so that water reaches the required part of the fire main
B. Disconnect all ship's hoses
C. Stop all communication with the shore
D. Close all valves on the fire main

Answer: A — Ensure the correct isolating valves are set so that water reaches the required part of the fire main

The ship's crew knows the fire main layout. Setting the isolating and section valves correctly ensures shore water is delivered to the hydrants in use and is not lost through damaged or open sections.

10. Where can the crew find the recommended firefighting action for a specific dangerous goods cargo listed in the IMDG Code?

A. In the GMDSS radio log
B. In the ship's oil record book
C. In the cargo ship safety construction certificate
D. In the EmS Guide fire schedule referred to for that substance

Answer: D — In the EmS Guide fire schedule referred to for that substance

The Dangerous Goods List of the IMDG Code gives an EmS number for each substance. The EmS Guide contains fire schedules (F-) and spillage schedules (S-) describing emergency response, including firefighting actions.

11. In an EmS code such as F-E, S-D, the letter F refers to:

A. The fire schedule
B. The flash point
C. The freeboard
D. The first aid procedure

Answer: A — The fire schedule

Each EmS number consists of a fire schedule beginning with F and a spillage schedule beginning with S. The fire schedule describes how to fight a fire involving the substance and the precautions to observe.

12. Why should water not be used on a fire involving IMDG Class 4.3 substances?

A. They are radioactive
B. They emit flammable gases when in contact with water
C. Water reacts to form CO2
D. They are always explosive

Answer: B — They emit flammable gases when in contact with water

Class 4.3 covers substances which, in contact with water, emit flammable gases. Applying water can produce flammable or toxic gas and intensify the fire, so the EmS schedule and cargo information must be followed.

13. Smothering methods are of limited use against fires involving IMDG Class 5.1 oxidizing substances because:

A. The substance releases oxygen which supports combustion
B. They cannot burn
C. They are always water-reactive
D. They extinguish themselves

Answer: A — The substance releases oxygen which supports combustion

Oxidizing substances yield oxygen and can sustain combustion even when air is excluded. Copious water for cooling, as advised in the EmS fire schedule, is generally more effective than smothering agents.

14. Which document on board identifies the dangerous goods carried and their stowage location, and is needed by firefighters?

A. The dangerous goods manifest or detailed stowage plan
B. The garbage record book
C. The crew list
D. The deck log abstract

Answer: A — The dangerous goods manifest or detailed stowage plan

SOLAS Chapter VII requires a special list, manifest or detailed stowage plan showing the dangerous goods and their location. Firefighters need it to identify hazards near the fire and choose the correct actions.

15. A fire threatens a container stowage position close to IMDG Class 1 explosives. What is the main priority?

A. Ignoring the explosives as they are packed
B. Applying a small CO2 extinguisher to the explosives
C. Opening the containers to inspect the explosives
D. Intensive cooling of the containers and boundaries to keep the explosives cool, and preparing to evacuate if it cannot be controlled

Answer: D — Intensive cooling of the containers and boundaries to keep the explosives cool, and preparing to evacuate if it cannot be controlled

Explosives exposed to heat may detonate. Keeping them cool with large amounts of water and preventing fire spread is essential, and if the fire reaches them and cannot be controlled, personnel should be withdrawn to a safe distance.

16. Which guide is used to give medical first aid for casualties exposed to dangerous goods?

A. The EmS spillage schedule only
B. The IAMSAR Manual Volume II
C. The Code of Safe Working Practices only
D. The Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)

Answer: D — The Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)

The IMO Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods (MFAG) gives treatment advice for poisoning and injuries caused by dangerous goods, and is used together with the EmS Guide.

17. Lithium-ion batteries involved in a fire are dangerous mainly because:

A. They do not produce toxic gases
B. They can go into thermal runaway and reignite after apparent extinguishment
C. They cannot burn without external oxygen
D. They are extinguished permanently by a small CO2 discharge

Answer: B — They can go into thermal runaway and reignite after apparent extinguishment

Damaged or overheated lithium-ion cells can enter thermal runaway, releasing flammable and toxic gases and heat. Fires may reignite long after flames are knocked down, so prolonged cooling and monitoring are needed.

18. When fighting a fire near leaking dangerous goods on deck, firefighters should approach from:

A. Directly above, from the bridge wing
B. Any direction, as the direction does not matter
C. Downwind, to cool the vapour cloud
D. Upwind, keeping clear of vapours and run-off

Answer: D — Upwind, keeping clear of vapours and run-off

Approaching from upwind keeps firefighters out of toxic or flammable vapours and smoke. They should also avoid contact with spilled cargo and run-off, and wear suitable protective clothing as advised in the EmS schedule.

19. Fire involving ammonium nitrate based fertilizer in a hold should normally be fought with:

A. Steam smothering
B. The fixed CO2 system alone
C. Dry sand
D. Copious quantities of water

Answer: D — Copious quantities of water

Ammonium nitrate decomposes and supplies its own oxygen, so smothering with CO2 or steam is ineffective. The IMSBC Code advises the use of copious water to control decomposition, warning that the fixed gas system will be ineffective.

20. What is meant by 'dry distillation' in firefighting?

A. Drying wet cargo before stowage
B. Removing water from foam concentrate
C. Distilling seawater for fire mains
D. Decomposition of combustible material by heat without flame contact, releasing flammable gases

Answer: D — Decomposition of combustible material by heat without flame contact, releasing flammable gases

When combustible materials such as wood or linings are heated, for example through a hot steel bulkhead, they decompose and give off flammable gases. These gases may ignite and spread the fire into adjacent spaces.

21. How can fire spread by dry distillation to an adjacent cabin best be prevented?

A. By switching on the cabin ventilation
B. By opening the adjacent cabin door
C. By closing the scuppers
D. By boundary cooling the bulkheads and removing combustibles from the adjacent space

Answer: D — By boundary cooling the bulkheads and removing combustibles from the adjacent space

Heat conducted through steel bulkheads can cause linings and furniture in the next space to give off flammable gas. Cooling the boundaries and removing combustible materials stops the process before ignition occurs.

22. What is a 'flashover'?

A. Sudden involvement of all combustible surfaces in a compartment when radiant heat raises them to their ignition temperature
B. An explosion caused by opening a door into a smoke-filled space
C. The ignition of a liquid at its flash point only
D. A small spark from an electrical switch

Answer: A — Sudden involvement of all combustible surfaces in a compartment when radiant heat raises them to their ignition temperature

As a compartment fire grows, hot gases at the deckhead radiate heat downwards until all exposed combustibles reach ignition temperature and ignite almost simultaneously. Survival in the space is then impossible.

23. Which signs warn of a possible backdraft before opening a door to a fire compartment?

A. Smoke puffing in and out of gaps, little visible flame and very hot door surfaces
B. Clear air and no smoke
C. Bright open flames visible through the door
D. Low temperature of the door and white steam

Answer: A — Smoke puffing in and out of gaps, little visible flame and very hot door surfaces

A backdraft follows ventilation of an oxygen-starved compartment full of hot flammable gases. Pulsing smoke, sucking of air at openings, hot surfaces and little visible flame indicate the danger; the space should be cooled before entry.

24. Fires in exhaust gas boilers and economisers (uptake fires) are usually caused by:

A. Lightning strikes on the funnel
B. Seawater leaking into the boiler
C. Ignition of accumulated soot and unburnt oil deposits
D. Overloading of the electrical generator

Answer: C — Ignition of accumulated soot and unburnt oil deposits

Poor combustion and inadequate soot blowing allow deposits of soot and oil to build up on the boiler tubes. These deposits can ignite from hot exhaust gas, particularly at low engine load.

25. Why is a small quantity of water dangerous on a very high-temperature exhaust gas boiler fire?

A. Water may dissociate into hydrogen and oxygen, causing a hydrogen fire or explosion
B. Water makes the soot non-flammable permanently
C. Water instantly freezes on the tubes
D. Water reacts with the steel to form CO2

Answer: A — Water may dissociate into hydrogen and oxygen, causing a hydrogen fire or explosion

At very high temperatures a limited amount of water can dissociate, creating hydrogen and intensifying the fire. If water is used it must be in large quantities, after stopping the engine and following the maker's instructions.

26. Why is water fog in a small, closed compartment hazardous to firefighters?

A. Fog conducts electricity at all voltages
B. Conversion of water to steam causes a large volume expansion that can scald firefighters
C. Fog cannot absorb any heat
D. Fog increases the oxygen content of the space

Answer: B — Conversion of water to steam causes a large volume expansion that can scald firefighters

Water expands about 1700 times when converted to steam. In a confined space the steam can scald firefighters and push hot gases towards them, so fog must be applied in controlled bursts with protective clothing.

27. What dangerous gas is produced when water is applied to burning magnesium?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Argon
C. Hydrogen
D. Nitrogen

Answer: C — Hydrogen

Burning magnesium reacts with water, releasing hydrogen and causing violent flaring or explosion. Class D metal fires require dry powder or dry sand designed for metal fires rather than water.

28. When the oxygen content in a closed compartment fire falls, the fire produces more:

A. Pure carbon dioxide only
B. Carbon monoxide and unburnt flammable gases
C. Water vapour only
D. Nitrogen

Answer: B — Carbon monoxide and unburnt flammable gases

Incomplete combustion in an oxygen-deficient space generates carbon monoxide and other flammable products. These gases are toxic and can ignite violently if air is suddenly admitted, which is why controlled ventilation is critical.

29. Which condition increases the likelihood of a fire in the scavenge air space of a two-stroke diesel engine?

A. Using fresh water cooling
B. Running the engine at constant full load with clean scavenge spaces
C. Low ambient air temperature only
D. Accumulation of cylinder oil and carbon deposits with blow-by of hot gases past the piston rings

Answer: D — Accumulation of cylinder oil and carbon deposits with blow-by of hot gases past the piston rings

Excess cylinder lubrication, poor combustion and leaking piston rings allow oily deposits to accumulate in the scavenge space. Hot gases blowing past the rings can ignite them, causing a scavenge fire.

30. Under SOLAS II-2/10.10.4, how many two-way portable radiotelephone apparatus must be carried for each fire party?

A. Four
B. A minimum of two
C. Three
D. One

Answer: B — A minimum of two

SOLAS II-2/10.10.4 requires a minimum of two two-way portable radiotelephone apparatus for each fire party, for fire-fighters' communication, carried on board. They must be of an explosion-proof or intrinsically safe type.

Set 17 — 37 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Portable radios used by fire parties must be of which type?

A. Any domestic VHF type
B. Explosion-proof or intrinsically safe
C. Satellite phones
D. Mobile phones

Answer: B — Explosion-proof or intrinsically safe

SOLAS requires the two-way portable radiotelephone apparatus for fire-fighters to be explosion-proof or intrinsically safe, so that they can be used in spaces where flammable gas or vapour may be present.

2. What is the purpose of a BA entry control board used during firefighting?

A. To record who has entered, their time of entry and cylinder pressure, and when they are due out
B. To list the cargo carried
C. To record the ventilation fan numbers
D. To show the fire control plan symbols

Answer: A — To record who has entered, their time of entry and cylinder pressure, and when they are due out

Entry control records each BA wearer's name, entry time and cylinder pressure and calculates the expected time of withdrawal. The controller can then raise the alarm and send a rescue team if a wearer is overdue.

3. Which report from the on-scene leader to the command team is most useful?

A. Only a request for more coffee
B. A short, clear report of the fire's location, extent, actions taken and resources needed
C. Silence until the fire is out
D. A detailed description of each crew member's personal feelings

Answer: B — A short, clear report of the fire's location, extent, actions taken and resources needed

The command team relies on regular, concise situation reports to make decisions on boundaries, ventilation, fixed systems and mustering. Clear, structured information prevents misunderstandings during the emergency.

4. Why should a closed-loop confirmation be used when giving orders such as 'stop ventilation fans' during a fire?

A. It prevents anyone else using the radio
B. The receiver repeats the order and reports back when completed, confirming it was understood and done
C. It reduces the number of reports needed
D. It is required only for cargo operations

Answer: B — The receiver repeats the order and reports back when completed, confirming it was understood and done

In closed-loop communication the receiver repeats back the instruction and later reports when it is carried out. This confirms understanding and completion of critical actions such as stopping fans or closing fuel valves.

5. If radio communication between the BA team and the entry control point fails, the team should:

A. Remove their face masks to shout
B. Split up to search for a better signal
C. Withdraw from the space following the agreed procedure
D. Continue indefinitely until radio returns

Answer: C — Withdraw from the space following the agreed procedure

Loss of communication means the controller cannot monitor or support the team. Agreed procedures normally require the team to withdraw together to the entry point, using the guide line or lifeline where fitted.

6. Under SOLAS III/19, how often must each crew member of a cargo ship take part in a fire drill?

A. Once a year
B. Only when joining the ship
C. At least once every month
D. Once every three months

Answer: C — At least once every month

SOLAS III/19.3 requires every crew member to participate in at least one abandon ship drill and one fire drill every month. Drills are held within 24 hours of leaving port if more than 25% of the crew have not taken part in drills on that ship in the previous month.

7. According to SOLAS III/19, onboard training in the use of the ship's fire-extinguishing appliances must be given to new crew members:

A. Within six months of joining
B. As soon as possible but not later than two weeks after they join the ship
C. Before their first shore leave
D. Only during the annual survey

Answer: B — As soon as possible but not later than two weeks after they join the ship

SOLAS III/19.4 requires onboard training in the use of the ship's life-saving and fire-extinguishing appliances to be given as soon as possible, but not later than two weeks after a crew member joins the ship.

8. A SOLAS fire drill should include starting a fire pump and using at least how many jets of water to show the system is in proper working order?

A. Six
B. Four
C. One
D. Two

Answer: D — Two

SOLAS III/19.3.4 states that each fire drill shall include starting a fire pump, using at least the two required jets of water to show the system is in proper working order, and checking fire-fighter's outfits and communication equipment.

9. Under the ISM Code, shipboard contingency plans for fire are required by the element dealing with:

A. Company verification, review and evaluation
B. Maintenance of the ship and equipment
C. Emergency preparedness
D. Master's responsibility and authority

Answer: C — Emergency preparedness

ISM Code element 8, Emergency preparedness, requires the Company to identify potential emergency situations, establish procedures to respond to them and run drills and exercises to prepare for emergency actions, including fires.

10. In a typical shipboard emergency organisation, the overall command of a fire is exercised by the master from:

A. The bridge or designated command centre
B. The scene of the fire inside the compartment
C. The engine control room only
D. The lifeboat embarkation deck

Answer: A — The bridge or designated command centre

The master normally exercises overall command from the bridge, which holds communications, alarms, fire detection panels and remote controls. The emergency party leader directs the attack at the scene and reports to the bridge.

11. When allocating personnel to fire parties, which is a key principle?

A. The youngest crew member always leads
B. Officers are never included in fire parties
C. Each team has a leader and members trained and physically fit for their assigned duties, including BA wearers
D. All crew are put in one large team

Answer: C — Each team has a leader and members trained and physically fit for their assigned duties, including BA wearers

Fire parties must be organised with clear leaders and members whose training, medical fitness and familiarity with equipment match their tasks. Back-up teams are provided to relieve or rescue the attack team.

12. Where must the fire safety training manual be provided on board?

A. Only in the engine control room
B. Only in the master's office
C. Only in the ship's office ashore
D. In each crew mess room and recreation room, or in each crew cabin

Answer: D — In each crew mess room and recreation room, or in each crew cabin

SOLAS II-2/15.2.3 requires a training manual to be provided in each crew mess room and recreation room or in each crew cabin, explaining the ship's fire safety systems, equipment and the best methods of firefighting.

13. Which SOLAS document contains the ship-specific information on fire safety operation, such as cargo handling precautions and fire safety maintenance?

A. The garbage management plan
B. The fire safety operational booklet
C. The ship security plan
D. The cargo securing manual

Answer: B — The fire safety operational booklet

SOLAS II-2/16 requires a fire safety operational booklet containing information and instructions for proper ship and cargo handling operations in relation to fire safety, kept in each crew mess and recreation room or crew cabin.

14. Which IMO resolution sets out the graphical symbols for shipboard fire control plans?

A. Resolution A.1116(30)
B. Resolution A.952(23)
C. Resolution MSC.48(66)
D. Resolution A.741(18)

Answer: B — Resolution A.952(23)

IMO Resolution A.952(23) provides the graphical symbols to be used on fire control plans, so that crew and shore firefighters of any nationality can read the plan. A.1116(30) covers escape route signs and equipment location markings.

15. Which of the following must be shown on the fire control plan?

A. Particulars of the ventilation system, including fan control positions, dampers and identification numbers of the fans serving each section
B. The crew's working hours
C. The ship's charter party
D. The location of each crew member's cabin number only

Answer: A — Particulars of the ventilation system, including fan control positions, dampers and identification numbers of the fans serving each section

SOLAS II-2/15.2.4 requires the fire control plan to show control stations, fire divisions, detection and extinguishing systems, means of access and the ventilation system including fan controls, dampers and fan identification numbers.

16. When alterations are made to the ship's fire protection arrangements, the fire control plan must be:

A. Changed only at the next dry-docking
B. Updated only by the flag State
C. Left unchanged until the ship is sold
D. Kept up to date, with the alterations recorded as soon as practicable

Answer: D — Kept up to date, with the alterations recorded as soon as practicable

SOLAS requires fire control plans to be kept up to date and any alterations recorded on them as soon as practicable, so that the plans used in an emergency always reflect the actual arrangements on board.

17. SOLAS Chapter II-2 is divided into Parts. Which Part deals with suppression of fire, including detection, containment and fighting of fire?

A. Part A
B. Part C
C. Part F
D. Part G

Answer: B — Part C

SOLAS II-2 Part A is general, Part B prevention of fire and explosion, Part C suppression of fire (detection, smoke control, containment, firefighting), Part D escape, Part E operational requirements, Part F alternative design and Part G special requirements.

18. Which SOLAS regulation requires a maintenance plan for the ship's fire protection systems and appliances?

A. SOLAS III/20
B. SOLAS II-2/4
C. SOLAS II-2/14
D. SOLAS V/19

Answer: C — SOLAS II-2/14

SOLAS II-2/14 requires that fire protection systems and appliances be maintained ready for use and that a maintenance plan be kept on board. MSC.1/Circ.1432 gives the revised guidelines for the inspection and maintenance intervals.

19. According to IMO guidelines for portable fire extinguishers (Res. A.951(23)), how often should extinguishers be inspected by a competent person?

A. Only after use
B. Every five years only
C. Annually
D. Every ten years only

Answer: C — Annually

Resolution A.951(23) recommends that portable fire extinguishers be periodically inspected and serviced at intervals not exceeding one year by a competent person, with records kept, in addition to test discharges and hydrostatic tests at longer intervals.

20. Under IMO guidelines, at least one portable extinguisher of each type manufactured in the same year should be test discharged at intervals of:

A. Two years
B. Five years
C. One year
D. Fifteen years

Answer: B — Five years

Resolution A.951(23) recommends that at least one extinguisher of each type manufactured in the same year be test discharged at five-yearly intervals, for example as part of a fire drill, to verify reliable operation.

21. Portable fire extinguishers and propellant cartridges should be hydrostatically tested at intervals not exceeding:

A. Thirty years
B. Twenty years
C. Ten years
D. Two years

Answer: C — Ten years

IMO guidelines in Resolution A.951(23) recommend that extinguisher shells and propellant cartridges be hydrostatically tested at intervals not exceeding ten years, unless the manufacturer or Administration specifies otherwise.

22. For a cargo ship, which statutory certificate covers the fire-extinguishing appliances and fire control plans?

A. International Load Line Certificate
B. Cargo Ship Safety Radio Certificate
C. International Tonnage Certificate
D. Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate

Answer: D — Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate

Fire-extinguishing appliances, fire detection and fire control plans on cargo ships are surveyed under the Cargo Ship Safety Equipment Certificate, which is valid for up to five years and is subject to annual and periodical surveys.

23. Under MSC.1/Circ.1432, which check of the fire detection and alarm system is carried out weekly?

A. Verify that all fire detection and fire alarm control panel indicators are functional by operating the lamp or indicator test switch
B. Blow-through test of all CO2 pipes
C. Replacement of all detector heads
D. Hydrostatic test of the fire main

Answer: A — Verify that all fire detection and fire alarm control panel indicators are functional by operating the lamp or indicator test switch

MSC.1/Circ.1432 lists weekly checks including operating the lamp and indicator test switches on fire detection and alarm control panels, so that faults are found before the system is needed in an emergency.

24. According to the FSS Code, heat detectors must operate before the temperature exceeds 78°C but not at temperatures below:

A. 40°C
B. 93°C
C. 54°C
D. 68°C

Answer: C — 54°C

FSS Code Chapter 9 requires heat detectors to operate before the temperature exceeds 78°C but not below 54°C, when the temperature rises at a rate of less than 1°C per minute, avoiding false alarms in normal conditions.

25. According to the FSS Code, what is the maximum floor area per smoke detector in a fixed fire detection system?

A. 37 m²
B. 100 m²
C. 150 m²
D. 74 m²

Answer: D — 74 m²

FSS Code Chapter 9 sets the maximum floor area per smoke detector at 74 m², with a maximum distance of 11 m between centres and 5.5 m from bulkheads. The corresponding figures for heat detectors are 37 m², 9 m and 4.5 m.

26. If a fire detection alarm has not received attention within a specified time, the FSS Code requires an audible alarm to be automatically sounded throughout crew accommodation, service spaces, control stations and machinery spaces. This time is:

A. 5 minutes
B. 2 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 30 seconds

Answer: B — 2 minutes

FSS Code Chapter 9 requires that if a detection alarm is not acknowledged at the control panel within 2 minutes, an audible alarm is automatically sounded throughout crew accommodation, service spaces, control stations and category A machinery spaces.

27. How many sources of power are required for the electrical equipment of a fixed fire detection and fire alarm system?

A. A dedicated battery only
B. Three main generators
C. Not less than two, one of which shall be the emergency source
D. One main source only

Answer: C — Not less than two, one of which shall be the emergency source

The FSS Code requires at least two sources of power for fire detection and alarm systems, one being an emergency source, with automatic changeover so the system keeps working if the main supply fails.

28. What does an 'A-60' class division mean?

A. A combustible division lasting 60 seconds
B. A steel division which also limits the average temperature rise on the unexposed side to 140°C for 60 minutes in the standard fire test
C. A division tested at 60°C
D. A division that prevents only the passage of flame for 60 minutes

Answer: B — A steel division which also limits the average temperature rise on the unexposed side to 140°C for 60 minutes in the standard fire test

A class divisions are steel or equivalent and prevent the passage of smoke and flame to the end of the one-hour standard fire test. The figure indicates the time, here 60 minutes, for which the unexposed side stays within 140°C average and 180°C at any point above the original temperature.

29. 'C' class divisions are those which:

A. Are constructed of approved non-combustible materials with no requirement for smoke or flame passage or temperature rise
B. Are made of combustible wood
C. Prevent the passage of smoke and flame for one hour
D. Are insulated to A-60 standard

Answer: A — Are constructed of approved non-combustible materials with no requirement for smoke or flame passage or temperature rise

SOLAS II-2/3 defines C class divisions as constructed of approved non-combustible materials. They need not meet requirements for the passage of smoke and flame or temperature rise; combustible veneers are permitted within limits.

30. In passenger ships, the mean length of a main vertical zone on any deck should not normally exceed:

A. 60 m
B. 100 m
C. 40 m
D. 24 m

Answer: C — 40 m

SOLAS II-2/9 requires the hull, superstructure and deckhouses of passenger ships to be subdivided into main vertical zones by A-60 divisions; the mean length of a zone on any deck should generally not exceed 40 m.

31. Fire doors in main vertical zone bulkheads and stairway enclosures must be capable of closing against an inclination of:

A. 3.5° opposing closure
B. 10° opposing closure
C. 1° opposing closure
D. 25° opposing closure

Answer: A — 3.5° opposing closure

SOLAS II-2/9 requires such fire doors to be self-closing and able to close against an inclination of 3.5 degrees opposing closure, so they will still close when the ship is listing.

32. From 1 January 2026, SOLAS II-2/10 as amended prohibits the use of fire-fighting foams containing which substance?

A. Fluoroprotein without PFOS
B. Perfluorooctane sulfonic acid (PFOS)
C. Detergent surfactants
D. Protein hydrolysate

Answer: B — Perfluorooctane sulfonic acid (PFOS)

MSC.456(101) amendment to SOLAS II-2/10 prohibits fire-fighting foams containing PFOS on new installations from 1 Jan 2026 (existing ships by the first survey after that date).

33. Why has IMO prohibited fire-fighting foams containing PFOS?

A. PFOS foams freeze at room temperature
B. PFOS foams are too expensive
C. PFOS foams do not extinguish oil fires
D. PFOS is persistent, bioaccumulative and toxic to the environment and human health

Answer: D — PFOS is persistent, bioaccumulative and toxic to the environment and human health

PFOS is a persistent organic pollutant listed under the Stockholm Convention. It does not break down, accumulates in living organisms and is toxic, so IMO amended SOLAS II-2/10 to ban foams containing it from 1 January 2026.

34. For an existing ship carrying foam concentrate containing PFOS, the SOLAS amendment requires the foam to be replaced:

A. Only at the ship's next special survey after 2030
B. Only when the foam has expired
C. It may be kept indefinitely on existing ships
D. Not later than the first survey on or after 1 January 2026

Answer: D — Not later than the first survey on or after 1 January 2026

The SOLAS II-2/10 amendment applies to existing ships as well as new ships; foams containing PFOS must be removed not later than the first survey on or after 1 January 2026, and disposed of at suitable shore facilities.

35. In a low-pressure CO2 system, the liquid CO2 is stored in a refrigerated tank at a pressure of about:

A. 1 bar at 0°C
B. 2 N/mm² (20 bar) at around -18°C
C. 60 bar at 40°C
D. 200 bar at ambient temperature

Answer: B — 2 N/mm² (20 bar) at around -18°C

Low-pressure CO2 systems store the agent in an insulated tank kept at about -18°C by refrigerating units, at a working pressure of about 2 N/mm². FSS Code Chapter 5 requires alarms for high and low pressure in the tank.

36. Why must ventilation to a fire compartment be stopped and dampers closed early in the firefighting operation?

A. To dry the space for later inspection
B. To increase visibility for firefighters inside
C. To cool the space
D. To limit the oxygen supply and prevent smoke and fire spreading through the ducting

Answer: D — To limit the oxygen supply and prevent smoke and fire spreading through the ducting

Mechanical ventilation feeds oxygen to the fire and carries heat and smoke to other spaces through ducts. Stopping fans and closing dampers restricts fire growth and spread while the attack is prepared.

37. When is controlled ventilation of a fire compartment appropriate during the attack?

A. As soon as the fire is discovered, before any team is ready
B. Only after leaving the space unattended overnight
C. Never, under any circumstances
D. When coordinated with the attack team to remove heat and smoke, with charged hoses in position

Answer: D — When coordinated with the attack team to remove heat and smoke, with charged hoses in position

Ventilating releases heat and smoke and improves visibility but also admits air. It must be coordinated with an attack team ready with charged hoses, otherwise the fire may intensify or a backdraft may occur.

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Practise these AFF questions as a timed paper AFF exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

AFF exit exam questions and answers — Advanced Fire Fighting

Set 1 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 2 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 3 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 4 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 5 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 6 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 7 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 8 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 9 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 10 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 11 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 12 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 13 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 14 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 15 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 16 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

Set 17 — 37 AFF exit exam questions with answers · as grouped in the bank

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Set 1 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 2 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 3 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 4 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 5 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 6 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

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Set 8 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 9 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 10 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 11 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 12 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 13 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

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Set 15 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 16 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

Set 17 — 37 AFF exit exam questions with answers