PSCRB exit exam questions and answers — Proficiency in Survival Craft and Rescue Boats

All 389 questions from the Proficiency in Survival Craft and Rescue Boats (PSCRB) exit exam bank, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 1 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. You are picking up a person who has fallen overboard. A rescue boat should be maneuvered to normally approach the victim with the

A. victim to windward
B. wind on your port side
C. victim to leeward
D. wind on your starboard side

Answer: C — victim to leeward

Approaching a person in the water with the victim to leeward allows the rescue boat to drift down onto the victim, preventing the hull from being blown over the person. This ensures the boat stays maneuverable and the victim remains protected by the boat's windward side.

2. Which will be the worst of emergencies that you would face, if that happens?

A. Collision
B. Grounding
C. Foundering
D. Flooding

Answer: C — Foundering

Foundering occurs when a ship fills with water and sinks, which is the ultimate, irreversible failure of a vessel's buoyancy. It represents the highest risk of total loss of life compared to flooding, collision, or grounding.

3. What is the biggest danger to life when your vessel has collided with another ship?

A. Building of Compartments
B. Oil Pollution
C. Possibility of Capsizing
D. Damage to the ship

Answer: C — Possibility of Capsizing

In a collision, the structural breach typically leads to rapid flooding and loss of stability. The danger of capsizing (turning over) is the most immediate threat to life as it restricts escape routes and prevents the launching of survival craft.

4. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable life raft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperative, it will NOT

A. free the life raft from a sinking vessel
B. release the dye-maker for the life raft
C. set the water lights on immersion
D. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

Answer: A — free the life raft from a sinking vessel

The hydrostatic release unit (HRU) is designed to release the painter line of a liferaft when submerged to a specific depth (usually 1.5–4 meters). If inoperative, it will not free the liferaft from the sinking vessel.

5. If you reach shore in a life raft, the first thing to do is

A. set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it
B. find some wood for a fire
C. drag the raft ashore and lash it down for shelter
D. get the provisions out of the raft

Answer: C — drag the raft ashore and lash it down for shelter

Once ashore, the primary survival goal is to secure the raft to protect it from being blown away or damaged by the tide. This provides a stable shelter from the elements while awaiting rescue.

6. When a person who has fallen overboard is being picked up by a rescue boat, the boat should normally approach with the wind

A. ahead and the victim just off the bow
B. astern and the victim just off the bow
C. just off the bow and the victim to leeward
D. just off the bow and the victim to windward

Answer: C — just off the bow and the victim to leeward

When approaching a person in the water, the rescue boat should be positioned with the wind on the boat's side that keeps the victim on the leeward side of the boat. This keeps the boat from drifting onto the victim.

7. A person has fallen overboard and is being picked up with a rescue boat. If the person appears in danger of drowning, the rescue boat should be maneuvered to make

A. An approach from leeward
B. an approach across the wind
C. the most direct approach
D. an approach from windward

Answer: C — the most direct approach

If a person is in immediate danger of drowning, the rescue boat must execute the most direct approach. Time is the critical factor in preventing aspiration and cardiac arrest, overriding standard drifting-approach protocols.

8. If the hydrostatic release mechanism for an inflatable life raft is not periodically serviced and becomes inoperable, it will fail to

A. set the water lights on immersion
B. release the dye marker from the life raft
C. free the life raft from the vessel
D. break the seal on the carbon dioxide cylinder

Answer: C — free the life raft from the vessel

A hydrostatic release is specifically designed to free the liferaft's painter line from the deck stowage cradle when the vessel sinks. If it fails, the liferaft will remain attached to the sinking ship.

9. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should

A. head for the nearest land
B. remain in the immediate vicinity
C. vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
D. head for the closest sea-lanes

Answer: B — remain in the immediate vicinity

After abandoning ship, survival craft should remain in the immediate vicinity of the last known position. This makes it easier for SAR (Search and Rescue) aircraft and vessels to locate survivors using visual, radar, or EPIRB signals.

10. When making a permanent repair to an inflatable life raft using a repair kit, how long after the repair is made should you hold off 'topping up' the lost air?

A. You do not have to hold off
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 2 hours

Answer: C — 24 hours

When making a permanent repair to an inflatable liferaft, the adhesive requires 24 hours to cure fully. Attempting to top up the air pressure before this time can break the seal of the patch and cause leaks.

11. What prevents an inflated liferaft from being pulled under by a vessel which sinks in water over 100 feet in depth?

A. The hydrostatic release
B. Nothing
C. The weak link in the painter line
D. A Rottmer release

Answer: C — The weak link in the painter line

The weak link in the painter line is designed to break under a specific load if the vessel sinks in deep water. This prevents the sinking ship from dragging the inflated liferaft down with it.

12. What is placed on the underside of an inflatable liferaft to help prevent it from being skidded by the wind or overturned?

A. Strikes
B. Sea anchor
C. Ballast bags
D. A keel

Answer: C — Ballast bags

Ballast bags are water-filled pockets attached to the bottom of the liferaft. These bags act as a counterweight to provide stability, which significantly reduces the risk of the raft capsizing or skidding in strong winds.

13. The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to

A. increase area for radar detection
B. act as a sail in case of a power loss
C. steady the craft in heavy seas
D. right the craft in case of capsizing

Answer: D — right the craft in case of capsizing

The righting strap or bag on top of some liferafts is used by survivors to flip the raft over in the event it inflates upside down. Survivors lean on the bag to gain leverage and right the craft.

14. If your vessel is equipped with inflatable life rafts, how should they be maintained?

A. Have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility annually
B. Have your crew check them annually
C. Have them serviced by the shipyard annually
D. They do not need any maintenance

Answer: A — Have them sent ashore to an approved maintenance facility annually

SOLAS regulations and manufacturer guidelines require inflatable liferafts to be inspected and serviced annually by an approved, specialized maintenance facility to ensure their reliable inflation and structural integrity.

15. On most makes of inflatable life rafts, the batteries to operate the light on the inside of rafts can be made to last longer by

A. taking no action as they shut off automatically in daylight
B. operating the switch for the light
C. unscrewing the bulb during daylight
D. taking no action as there is no way of preserving power

Answer: B — operating the switch for the light

Operating the switch for the light allows the survivors to conserve the battery life. Keeping it off during the day or when visibility is not needed is the standard practice to ensure the light remains functional for nighttime signaling.

16. The No. 1 lifeboat on a ship would be found

A. aft of the forward lifeboat on the port side
B. on the starboard side
C. on the port side
D. aft of the forward lifeboat on the starboard side

Answer: B — on the starboard side

Per maritime convention, lifeboats on the starboard side are assigned odd numbers (1, 3, 5, etc.), while those on the port side are assigned even numbers (2, 4, 6, etc.). Therefore, No. 1 is on the starboard side.

17. The marine evacuation system shall be capable of transfer of persons from ship within

A. 10 min in the case of a passenger ship
B. 5 min in the case of a passenger ship
C. 30 min in the case of a passenger ship
D. 20 min in the case of a passenger ship

Answer: C — 30 min in the case of a passenger ship

Passenger ship safety requirements (SOLAS) mandate that the Marine Evacuation System (MES) must be capable of evacuating all persons on board within 30 minutes for passenger ships.

18. The marine evacuation system shall be capable of deployment

A. by three persons
B. by four persons
C. by two persons
D. by one person

Answer: D — by one person

Modern Marine Evacuation Systems (MES) are specifically engineered to be deployable by a single trained crew member. This ensures rapid emergency egress during a time-critical situation like a collision or fire.

19. If you must abandon a ship in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?

A. Only when waterborne
B. Upon first wave contact
C. One to three feet before first wave contact
D. Immediately upon launching

Answer: C — One to three feet before first wave contact

When launching in very heavy seas, the safety pin should be removed and the hook released just before the craft hits the water (approx. 1-3 feet). This ensures the craft is not lifted back up by a wave before it is properly waterborne.

20. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored quantities of water?

A. Up to 3 days
B. 25 to 30 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 8 to 14 days

Answer: D — 8 to 14 days

Humans can typically survive for 8 to 14 days without water if they minimize water loss through perspiration and conserve energy. This duration assumes the person is in a sheltered, moderate-temperature environment.

21. The "off-load" release system on a survival craft is designed to be activated

A. when there is no load on the cable
B. only when the doors are closed
C. when the engine is started
D. when there is a load on the cable

Answer: A — when there is no load on the cable

An off-load release system is a safety feature that prevents the release of the liferaft or lifeboat from the davit until the full weight of the craft is supported by the water, preventing accidental premature release while suspended.

22. A life line must be connected to the life raft

A. all around
B. at the stern
C. at the bow
D. in the middle

Answer: A — all around

A life line must be fitted around the entire exterior of an inflatable liferaft. This allows survivors who are in the water to hold onto the raft or pull themselves aboard from any direction.

23. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable life raft has bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action should you take?

A. Manually open the container and inflate the life raft with the hand pump.
B. Take no action because the painter will cause the life raft to inflate and open the container.
C. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
D. Cut the painter so it will not pull the life raft container down.

Answer: B — Take no action because the painter will cause the life raft to inflate and open the container.

The painter is permanently secured to the ship via a weak link. As the ship sinks, the tension on the painter triggers the inflation mechanism of the life raft, causing it to inflate and break the container. No manual intervention is required for the initial inflation.

24. The hand brake of a lifeboat winch is

A. manually disengaged when hoisting a boat
B. automatically engaged if lowering speed is excessive
C. applied by dropping the counterweighted lever
D. controlled by the centrifugal brake mechanism

Answer: C — applied by dropping the counterweighted lever

The hand brake of a gravity davit lifeboat winch is normally held in the 'off' position by a counterweighted lever. Releasing or 'dropping' this lever applies the brake, halting the descent of the lifeboat.

25. The sea painter of an inflatable life raft should be

A. stowed near the raft
B. faked out next to the case
C. free running on deck
D. secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link

Answer: D — secured to a permanent object on deck via a weak link

The sea painter must be secured to a permanent, strong structural member of the ship using a weak link. This ensures that the painter remains attached long enough to trigger the inflation system but will break away once the life raft is fully inflated and the ship sinks.

26. To turn over an inflatable life raft that is upside down, you should pull on the

A. sea painter
B. manropes
C. righting strap
D. canopy

Answer: C — righting strap

Inflatable life rafts are designed with a specific righting strap underneath the floor. By standing on the CO2 cylinder side and pulling the strap, the weight of the person assists in flipping the raft over to its correct upright orientation.

27. The purpose of the tripping line on a sea anchor is to

A. aid in its recovery
B. maintain maximum resistance to broaching
C. direct the drift of the vessel
D. aid in casting off

Answer: A — aid in its recovery

The tripping line is a secondary line attached to the crown of the sea anchor. When it is time to recover the anchor, pulling the tripping line collapses the sea anchor, significantly reducing the drag and making it easier to haul aboard.

28. In normal conditions, in exterior spaces the minimum sound pressure levels for broadcasting emergency announcements shall be

A. 100 DB
B. 50 DB
C. 80 DB
D. 75 DB

Answer: C — 80 DB

SOLAS requirements for the Public Address system specify that in exterior spaces, the sound pressure level should be 80 dB to ensure that emergency announcements are audible above the ambient noise of wind, waves, and ship operations.

29. Sea sickness is caused by rolling or rocking motions which affect the fluids in the

A. Inner ear
B. Bladder
C. Stomach
D. Lower intestine

Answer: A — Inner ear

Sea sickness is a form of motion sickness triggered by the vestibular system located in the inner ear. The conflicting sensory input between visual cues and the body's movement causes the sensation of nausea.

30. Luminous intensity of hand flares should not be less than

A. 25000 CD
B. 20000 CD
C. None of the above
D. 15000 CD

Answer: D — 15000 CD

According to the LSA Code, hand flares must be capable of burning for at least one minute with a luminous intensity of not less than 15,000 candela. This ensures high visibility for search and rescue units.

Set 2 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. The maximum length of a rescue boat

A. None of the above
B. 7.3 meter
C. 3.8 meter
D. 8.5 meter

Answer: D — 8.5 meter

According to the LSA Code, a rescue boat must be no less than 3.8 meters and no more than 8.5 meters in length. These dimensions ensure the boat is maneuverable yet large enough to accommodate a rescue team and a stretcher.

2. The duration of life jacket self-igniting light is

A. 6 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 4 hours

Answer: B — 8 hours

The LSA Code stipulates that self-igniting lights on lifejackets must have a source of energy capable of providing a luminous intensity of at least 0.75 candela for a period of at least 8 hours.

3. The luminous intensity of a life jacket light

A. 0.25 CD
B. 0.85 CD
C. 0.50 CD
D. 0.75 CD

Answer: D — 0.75 CD

The LSA Code mandates that a lifejacket light must have a luminous intensity of at least 0.75 candela in all directions of the upper hemisphere. This intensity provides sufficient visibility for night-time search and rescue operations.

4. How many buoyant smoke signals are available in life raft?

A. 8
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Answer: B — 2

Buoyant smoke signals are required to be carried in life rafts for daylight distress signaling. A standard life raft outfit includes two of these buoyant smoke signals.

5. What is the range of SART for detecting aircraft?

A. 20 nm
B. 30 nm
C. None of the above
D. 10 nm

Answer: B — 30 nm

A SART (Search and Rescue Transponder) is designed to be detected by X-band radar. The typical range for a SART when detected by an aircraft is approximately 30 nautical miles, provided the SART is at a sufficient height.

6. SART lithium battery voltage

A. None of the above
B. 4 V
C. 2 V
D. 5 V

Answer: D — 5 V

SART units utilize lithium batteries as their primary power source. Under international maritime regulations, these batteries are typically specified to operate at a 5-volt level to maintain the transponder's electronic requirements.

7. The immersion suit does not allow the body temperature to drop by more than when immersed for a period of when the water temperature is between 0 and 2 degrees

A. 2 degrees, 6 hours
B. 1 degree, 6 hours
C. 1 degree, 4 hours
D. 2 degrees, 4 hours

Answer: A — 2 degrees, 6 hours

LSA Code 2.3.1.3: an insulated immersion suit must keep core temperature fall to not more than 2 C after 6 hours in calm circulating water at 0-2 C.

8. Your small vessel is broken down and rolling in heavy seas. You can reduce the possibility of capsizing by

A. Moving all personnel aft
B. Moving all personnel forward and low
C. Constantly shifting the rudder
D. Rigging a sea anchor

Answer: D — Rigging a sea anchor

A sea anchor, or drogue, is used to keep the bow or stern of a vessel into the wind and waves. This prevents the vessel from turning broadside (broaching) to the waves, which is the primary cause of capsizing in heavy seas.

9. Which statement concerning homing signals in the GMDSS is false?

A. A homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites
B. A homing signal may be transmitted by equipment attached to the survival craft
C. A homing signal cannot be detected by a GPS receiver
D. A homing signal provides a bearing for rescue personnel to follow to the signal's source

Answer: A — A homing signal is detected by the COSPAS-SARSAT satellites

Homing signals are transmitted by equipment like SARTs or EPIRBs to guide rescue forces to the target. However, COSPAS-SARSAT satellites only detect signals from 406 MHz EPIRBs, not the homing signals transmitted by SARTs.

10. Which virtual distress signal is acceptable for daylight use only?

A. Self-contained rocket-propelled parachute red flare
B. Hand-held orange smoke distress flare
C. Red aerial pyrotechnic flare
D. Hand-held red flare

Answer: B — Hand-held orange smoke distress flare

Hand-held orange smoke signals are exclusively for daytime distress signaling. Because they do not emit a bright light, they are ineffective at night, unlike red flares which are visible at any time.

11. How can a SART's effective range be mixed?

A. If possible, the SART should be mounted horizontally so that its signal matches that of the searching radar signal
B. The SART should be placed in water immediately upon activation
C. Switch the SART into the "high" power position
D. The SART should be held as high as possible

Answer: D — The SART should be held as high as possible

A SART's radar cross-section and signal reception are significantly improved by height. Mounting or holding the SART as high as possible increases its line-of-sight range, making it easier for search vessels or aircraft to detect the signal.

12. Your vessel has 3 lifeboats on each side. The after most boat on the star board side is designated as boat number

A. 3
B. 5
C. 3 STARBOARD
D. 6

Answer: B — 5

In accordance with standard safety muster lists, lifeboat numbering follows a specific convention: odd numbers are on the starboard side (1, 3, 5) and even numbers are on the port side (2, 4, 6), increasing from forward to aft.

13. What is the first action in case of man overboard?

A. Throw a life buoy
B. Inform bridge
C. None of the above
D. Raise alarm

Answer: A — Throw a life buoy

In a man overboard situation, the immediate priority is to mark the position and provide buoyancy. Throwing a life buoy, ideally one with a self-igniting light or smoke signal, is the first critical step.

14. All pyrotechnics have a shelf life of

A. None of the above
B. 48 months
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Answer: C — 3 years

SOLAS pyrotechnics typically carry a 3-year (36-month) shelf life from manufacture.

15. VHF EPIRB is designed to be used in which areas?

A. Area A1-A2
B. Area A4
C. Area A1
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Area A1

VHF EPIRBs were historically designed for short-range alerting in GMDSS Sea Area A1, where coverage is provided by VHF coast stations with DSC capabilities. Modern global GMDSS relies primarily on satellite-based 406 MHz EPIRBs.

16. What should you do as soon as you enter a life raft?

A. All of the above
B. Use fishing tackle and fish
C. Drink a gallon of water
D. Take anti sea sickness tablet

Answer: D — Take anti sea sickness tablet

Sea sickness can lead to rapid dehydration through vomiting and renders survivors ineffective. Taking anti-sea sickness medication immediately upon boarding the life raft is a standard priority to ensure the well-being of the survivors.

17. As per the regulation life savings appliances need NOT to have?

A. None of the above
B. Bright color with reflective tape
C. Resistant to sunlight
D. Ready accessible and easy to launch

Answer: A — None of the above

LSA Code 1.2.2 requires LSA to be of highly visible colour with retro-reflective tape, resistant to sunlight, and readily accessible; so none of those can be omitted.

18. Davit of rescue boats due to limit switch how much before the end ?

A. 2 inches
B. 15 inches
C. 1 inch
D. 10 inches

Answer: C — 1 inch

Limit switches on rescue boat davits are safety mechanisms that must cut off power to the motor before the boat reaches the final stowage position. This is typically set to occur at 1 inch (25mm) from the end to avoid mechanical shock.

19. How much is the maximum capacity of the life boat?

A. 20 persons
B. 100 persons
C. 60 persons
D. 150 persons

Answer: D — 150 persons

Under SOLAS regulations, the maximum capacity of a standard lifeboat is capped at 150 persons. This regulation exists to ensure that evacuation procedures, such as launching and manning, can be safely performed within time limits.

20. Frequency at which the SART operates

A. 9 Ghz, 3 cm X band
B. 9 Ghz, 9 cm X band
C. 5 Ghz, 9 cm X band
D. 5 Ghz, 3 cm X band

Answer: A — 9 Ghz, 3 cm X band

A SART operates in the 9 GHz frequency band, which corresponds to the 3 cm X-band radar used on almost all commercial vessels. This allows the SART to be detected by the ship's navigation radar.

21. How much is the duration of the hand flare for the time it works?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 90 seconds
D. 5 seconds

Answer: B — 60 seconds

LSA Code regulations state that hand-held red flares must burn for at least 60 seconds. This duration provides enough time for the signal to be observed and for rescue assets to identify the source.

22. At what maximum list of a vessel, the life boat are designed to be launched

A. Can be launched in calm weather only
B. Up to 20 degrees
C. 10-degree list
D. 5-degree list

Answer: B — Up to 20 degrees

Lifeboats must be designed to be launched successfully even when the vessel is in a damaged condition. This includes being capable of launching against an adverse list of up to 20 degrees.

23. At what maximum trim of a vessel, the lifeboats are designed to be launched

A. 10 degrees
B. 15 degrees
C. Calm weather
D. 30 degrees

Answer: A — 10 degrees

In addition to list requirements, lifeboats must be capable of launching under conditions of up to 10 degrees of trim to ensure functionality if the ship's stability or attitude is compromised during an emergency.

24. Safety training on board to the personnel is provided as per the?

A. MLC
B. STCW
C. SOLAS
D. ISM

Answer: B — STCW

The STCW (Standards of Training, Certification and Watchkeeping) Convention sets the international standards for safety training, including mandatory drills and familiarization, for all personnel serving on board seagoing ships.

25. Hatches on the life boat are designed such that?

A. Self-closing type
B. Bolted type with watertight capabilities
C. Watertight and can be opened and closed from only inside
D. Watertight and can be opened and closed from both sides

Answer: D — Watertight and can be opened and closed from both sides

Hatches on enclosed lifeboats are critical for maintaining buoyancy and protection from elements. Regulations require them to be watertight and designed so they can be operated effectively from both the inside and the outside.

26. Good housekeeping is considered necessary for preventing accidents at sea, what is true regarding same?

A. Engine room should be locked, when no one is inside
B. Securing tools after work is not needed as we need them next day also
C. None of the above
D. Wearing dirty clothes in a galley or mess room should be avoided

Answer: D — Wearing dirty clothes in a galley or mess room should be avoided

Maintaining high standards of housekeeping is vital for safety. Ensuring that personal spaces, especially mess rooms and galleys, remain clean prevents contamination and hazards, while proper conduct keeps the ship safe.

27. How can you indicate that your vessel is distress?

A. Displaying three black balls in a vertical line
B. Displaying a large red flag
C. Sounding five or more short and rapid blasts on the whistle
D. Continuously sounding the fog whistle

Answer: D — Continuously sounding the fog whistle

Distress signals at sea are defined by COLREGs. In addition to visual signals, continuous sounding of the ship's fog whistle is a recognized audible distress signal that indicates the vessel is in urgent need of assistance.

28. An inflatable life raft is hand-launched by

A. Throwing the center container overboard
B. Pulling a cord
C. Removing the rubber packing strip
D. Cutting the wire restraining bands

Answer: A — Throwing the center container overboard

Inflatable life rafts that are not davit-launched are designed to be thrown over the side. Once the container is in the water, a sharp pull on the painter line triggers the gas cylinder to inflate the raft.

29. "Thermal protective aids" are required for what percentage of the persons a survival craft is equipped to carry?

A. 75%
B. 10%
C. 100%
D. 50%

Answer: B — 10%

The LSA Code requires that Thermal Protective Aids (TPAs) be provided for 10% of the number of persons that the survival craft is equipped to carry, or two, whichever is greater, to provide extra protection for those most at risk.

30. Which gas is mostly used in filling the cylinder of inflatable life raft

A. CO2
B. Carbon mono oxide
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

Answer: A — CO2

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is the preferred gas for inflating life rafts because it is non-toxic, non-flammable, and can be stored in a compressed state. Upon activation, the gas expands rapidly to fill the buoyancy chambers.

Set 3 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. Regulations regarding lifeboats on board is best described by?

A. Lifeboats cannot be used as rescue boats
B. Two life boats on each side, with each having a carrying capacity of 125%
C. Engine fitted on lifeboats should be air started
D. Lifeboat color can be any as available

Answer: B — Two life boats on each side, with each having a carrying capacity of 125%

SOLAS regulations require that ships carry sufficient lifeboats on both sides to accommodate 100% of the persons on board; however, to ensure redundancy and safety, many configurations provide 125% capacity.

2. Which item in the life boat is a study material?

A. Heliograph
B. Instruction on how to survive
C. Bailer
D. Sea sickness kit

Answer: B — Instruction on how to survive

Every lifeboat is required to carry a training manual or instructions on how to survive. This resource is essential for educating survivors on the operation of equipment and procedures to maintain life.

3. Which code regulates the training manual

A. COSWP
B. Local regulation
C. SOLAS under chapter II (2) and (3)
D. ISPS code

Answer: C — SOLAS under chapter II (2) and (3)

SOLAS Chapter III, which covers life-saving appliances and arrangements, mandates the provision of training manuals on board. These manuals are essential for crew familiarization with all safety equipment.

4. How long SART operate in standby mode

A. None of the above
B. 8 hrs.
C. 24 hrs.
D. 96 hrs.

Answer: D — 96 hrs.

To conserve battery power while ensuring the SART can be located, it is designed with a long standby life. The current regulations mandate that a SART must be capable of operating for 96 hours in standby mode.

5. Which of the following is consumable

A. Anti-sea sickness tablets
B. All of the above
C. Food ration
D. Drinking water

Answer: B — All of the above

Lifeboat supplies include various survival items. Food rations, drinking water, and anti-sea sickness tablets are all essential consumables that must be regularly inspected for their expiry dates to ensure they remain safe and effective.

6. Life jacket light shall have a source of energy capable of providing luminous intensity of for a period of

A. 75 cd/6 hrs
B. 50 cd/ 6 hrs.
C. 75 cd/8 hrs
D. 50 cd/8 hrs

Answer: C — 75 cd/8 hrs

Lifejacket lights must meet strict LSA standards for performance. A light must provide a luminous intensity of 0.75 candela for a period of at least 8 hours to ensure survivors remain visible throughout the night.

7. Which one of the listed requirements regarding the buoyant smoke signal doesn't respond to present regulation? The buoyant smoke signal shall

A. Emit smoke for at least 3 min when floating in calm water
B. Not be swamped in a seaway
C. Continue to EMIT smoke when submerged in water image
D. Give a bright red during the inter emission time

Answer: D — Give a bright red during the inter emission time

Buoyant smoke signals are designed to emit dense orange smoke for at least 3 minutes. While they must be robust, they are not designed to emit red light, as red is reserved for distress flares meant to be seen at night.

8. The working duration of man overboard smoke signal is

A. 3 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Answer: C — 15 minutes

As per LSA Code, a man overboard smoke signal (buoyant smoke signal) is required to emit smoke of a highly visible color for a minimum period of 15 minutes to aid in locating a person in the water.

9. What is the "Bowsing tackle" as fitted on some lifeboats used for?

A. A stretcher for safe embarkation of injured persons
B. To hold the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck
C. To secure bow of the lifeboat to the main deck bollards
D. To hold the life boat alongside the ship after launching

Answer: B — To hold the lifeboat close to the embarkation deck

Bowsing tackles are temporary arrangements used to pull the lifeboat flush against the ship's side at the embarkation deck, allowing passengers to enter the craft safely before the boat is lowered.

10. Before lifting a life boat from the water, it must be ensured that

A. Bottom plug is shipped tight
B. Sea anchor is steamed
C. Fall wires are clear and hooked securely
D. Engine id going astern

Answer: C — Fall wires are clear and hooked securely

Ensuring the fall wires are clear and hooked securely is the final critical check before applying mechanical tension to lift a boat, preventing potential equipment failure or catastrophic accidents during hoisting.

11. Which of the listed requirements do not correspond to the present regulation regarding weak link? weak link shall

A. Be of sufficient strength to permit inflation of the life raft
B. Not break by force required to full the painter from the life raft container
C. Release the life raft at a depth of not more than 4 meters
D. Break under a strain of approximately 2.2 KN

Answer: C — Release the life raft at a depth of not more than 4 meters

Release at a depth of not more than 4 m is a hydrostatic release unit requirement, not a weak-link requirement (weak link breaks at 2.2 +/-0.4 kN and must permit inflation).

12. Which of the listed requirements do not correspond to present regulations? The life raft shall have

A. Floor preventing the ingress of water
B. Manually controlled lamp fitted inside the life raft
C. A manually controlled lamp visible of at least two miles fitted at the top of the canopy
D. All entrances fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the life raft at sea

Answer: D — All entrances fitted with rigid boarding ramps for boarding the life raft at sea

LSA Code 4.2.4: at least one entrance needs a semi-rigid boarding ramp; 'all entrances with rigid ramps' is not a requirement. Waterproof floor, interior lamp and 2-mile canopy lamp are required.

13. SART is the search and rescue radar transponder. How is this device activated?

A. It has to be switched on by the master when the order to abandon ship is given
B. It is carried into the survival craft and switched on by the occupants
C. It will be activated by the nearest coast station
D. It has to be thrown into the sea where it will self-activate

Answer: B — It is carried into the survival craft and switched on by the occupants

A SART (Search and Rescue Radar Transponder) is designed to be carried to the survival craft by survivors, where it is then switched on manually to start transmitting a signal for radar detection.

14. The minimum length of lifeboat should be

A. 7.3 meters
B. None of the above
C. 3.8 meters
D. 8.5 meters

Answer: A — 7.3 meters

Under the LSA Code, the standard minimum length for a life boat on a cargo ship is 7.3 meters, ensuring sufficient space, stability, and buoyancy to accommodate the required complement.

15. The shelf life of EPIRB battery is

A. 10 years
B. 3 to 5 years
C. 1 year
D. 5 years

Answer: B — 3 to 5 years

The battery used for an EPIRB (Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon) has a mandatory service interval or shelf life typically between 3 to 5 years, depending on the manufacturer and IMO requirements for reliable operation.

16. How long will a parachute flare burn after it has been fired into the air?

A. Minimum of two minutes
B. Minimum of five minutes
C. Minimum of 30 seconds
D. Minimum of 40 seconds

Answer: D — Minimum of 40 seconds

As per LSA Code requirements, a rocket parachute flare must be capable of burning with a bright red light for a duration of not less than 40 seconds when fired.

17. When floating, a life raft must be able to withstand repeated jumps onto it, both with and without the canopy erected, from a height above its floor of at least

A. 20 meters
B. 18 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 10 meters

Answer: C — 4.5 meters

SOLAS regulations require that a life raft must be designed to withstand repeated jumps onto it from a height of at least 4.5 meters above its floor level, ensuring structural integrity during emergency evacuation.

18. Which equipment of the following SOLAS PACK B life raft does not have?

A. Fishing tackle + drinking water + bailer
B. Fishing tackle + sea sick bags + drinking water
C. None of the above
D. Fishing tackle + food + drinking water

Answer: D — Fishing tackle + food + drinking water

SOLAS Pack B life rafts are designed for coastal voyages and carry reduced equipment compared to Pack A; they notably omit the more comprehensive food rations, drinking water, and certain fishing equipment found in the oceanic Pack A.

19. As for regulations, a cargo ship of length less than 100 meters should have life buoys

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 14

Answer: A — 8

For cargo ships of less than 100 meters in length, the SOLAS regulation requires a minimum of 8 lifebuoys to be strategically distributed along the vessel's sides and deck.

20. In cargo vessel what is the requirement of child life jacket?

A. 25%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%

Answer: B — 10%

The regulation requires that for every passenger ship, and typically applied to cargo ships based on safety management assessments, there must be a minimum of 10% child-size lifejackets of the total number of persons on board.

21. Life raft equipment should have

A. 2 buoyant rescue quoits attached not less than 30 m buoyant line
B. 1 buoyant rescue quoits attached not less than 15 m buoyant line
C. 2 buoyant rescue quoits attached not less than 15 m buoyant line
D. 1 buoyant rescue quoits attached not less than 30 m buoyant line

Answer: A — 2 buoyant rescue quoits attached not less than 30 m buoyant line

LSA Code requires that every life raft is equipped with 2 buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30 meters of buoyant line, used to reach and retrieve survivors from the water.

22. How many hand flares should each life raft normally carry?

A. 6
B. 2
C. 10
D. 4

Answer: A — 6

According to SOLAS equipment requirements, a standard life raft must carry 6 hand flares, which provide a high-intensity visual signal for short-range distress alerting.

23. Which of the following regarding immersion suit is true?

A. None of the above
B. It's fireproof
C. It's zip to be greased using manufacture recommended lubricants
D. Both a and b

Answer: C — It's zip to be greased using manufacture recommended lubricants

Immersion suit zips must be maintained with manufacturer-recommended lubricants to ensure they remain watertight and operable in freezing conditions; they are typically thermal-protective, not inherently fireproof.

24. The lamp on the top of a life raft canopy must operate continuously or flash at the specified rate for at least

A. 4 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 2 hours

Answer: B — 12 hours

LSA code requires that the lamp fitted on the top of the life raft canopy must operate for at least 12 hours to ensure visibility to search aircraft or vessels during the night.

25. The liquid in the wet card compass is a mixture of

A. None of the above
B. Distilled water and methyl alcohol
C. Distilled water and isopropyl alcohol
D. Distilled water and pure ethyl alcohol

Answer: D — Distilled water and pure ethyl alcohol

The liquid used in a wet card compass is a specific mixture, usually distilled water and pure ethyl alcohol (or sometimes glycerin), to prevent freezing and dampen oscillations.

26. The number of lifebuoys on a cargo ship of length less than 100 meters is

A. 10
B. 4
C. 8
D. 6

Answer: C — 8

Based on SOLAS requirements for cargo vessels under 100 meters, 8 lifebuoys are standard, though local variations may specify 6 depending on the exact vessel configuration and safety plan.

27. The duration of the buoyant smoke marker is

A. 3 min
B. 10 min
C. 15 min
D. 1 min

Answer: A — 3 min

A buoyant smoke signal, designed for marking the position of a man overboard, must be capable of emitting smoke for at least 3 minutes, as per international safety standards.

28. Which of the following is/are the SOLAS requirements for rocket parachute flare?

A. Having a burning period of not less than 40s
B. The rocket shall, when fired vertically, reach an altitude of not less than 300m
C. Burn uniformly with an average luminous intensity of not less than 30000 cd
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

SOLAS requirements for rocket parachute flares dictate they reach 300m altitude, burn for at least 40s, and emit 30,000cd of light intensity, confirming all options are correct.

29. The breaking strength of line throwing appliances should not be less than

A. 8 KN
B. 4 KN
C. 2 KN
D. 6 KN

Answer: C — 2 KN

The line used with a line-throwing appliance must have a minimum breaking strength of 2 kN to ensure it remains intact while towing the heavier messenger line during an operation.

30. Which of the following statements is true concerning life jackets?

A. Lightly stained or faded life jackets will fall in the water and should not be used
B. Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of water
C. Buoyant vests may be substituted for life jackets
D. Lifejackets must always be worn with the same side facing outwards to float

Answer: B — Life jackets are designed to turn an unconscious person's face clear of water

Life jackets are specifically engineered to provide the necessary buoyancy and head support to automatically turn an unconscious person's face out of the water.

Set 4 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. HELP position stands for

A. None of the above
B. Heat exchange lessening point
C. Heat exchange lessening posture
D. Heat exchange lessening period

Answer: C — Heat exchange lessening posture

HELP stands for Heat Escape Lessening Posture, a technique used by survivors in cold water to reduce body heat loss by tucking the knees and arms to the chest.

2. Passenger vessels 240 meters and over in length should have

A. 20 life buoys
B. 8 life buoys
C. 30 life buoys
D. 12 life buoys

Answer: C — 30 life buoys

For large passenger vessels 240 meters or longer, the SOLAS requirement for the number of lifebuoys is 30, ensuring adequate coverage across the extensive deck areas.

3. What speed must a motor-propelled lifeboat be capable of attaining in calm water when fully loaded with complement and equipment?

A. At least 6 knots (and 2 knots when towing a 25-person life raft)
B. At least 12 knots
C. At least 3 knots
D. At least 15 knots

Answer: A — At least 6 knots (and 2 knots when towing a 25-person life raft)

SOLAS LSA Code section 4.4.6 requires lifeboat diesel engines to maintain at least 6 knots speed in calm water when fully loaded.

4. How much fuel fuel capacity must be carried in a SOLAS motor lifeboat fuel tank?

A. Sufficient fuel to run fully loaded at 6 knots for at least 24 hours
B. Sufficient fuel for 6 hours
C. Sufficient fuel for 72 hours
D. 5 liters total

Answer: A — Sufficient fuel to run fully loaded at 6 knots for at least 24 hours

Lifeboat fuel tanks must hold enough fuel for continuous 24-hour operation at 6 knots under full load.

5. What engine starting capability is required for a SOLAS lifeboat diesel engine in cold weather?

A. Must start readily at ambient temperature of -15 degrees C within 2 minutes
B. Requires external 220V electric heater for 4 hours
C. Must start at 0 degrees C only
D. Ether injection start mandatory

Answer: A — Must start readily at ambient temperature of -15 degrees C within 2 minutes

SOLAS mandates that lifeboat compression-ignition engines start within 2 minutes at -15 deg C ambient temperature using manual or dual battery systems.

6. What is the primary function of a water spray system fitted on a fire-protected life boat?

A. Pumps sea water over outer hull/canopy to protect occupants when navigating through oil fires on sea surface
B. Washes lifeboat deck
C. Cools engine radiator
D. Fills drinking water tanks

Answer: A — Pumps sea water over outer hull/canopy to protect occupants when navigating through oil fires on sea surface

External water spray systems draw sea water via dedicated pump to form a protective cooling film over canopy when passing burning oil slicks.

7. How long must the compressed air breathing system maintain positive pressure inside a totally enclosed fire-protected lifeboat?

A. At least 10 minutes at maximum engine operating speed
B. At least 30 minutes
C. At least 2 minutes
D. At least 60 minutes

Answer: A — At least 10 minutes at maximum engine operating speed

Self-contained air air systems provide breathable air for engine and occupants for at least 10 minutes while isolated from toxic/combustion gases outside.

8. What is the self-righting capability required for a SOLAS totally enclosed lifeboat?

A. Must automatically self-right from 180 degrees flooded condition with all occupants strapped in safety belts
B. Requires crew to stand on keel to right
C. Will remain inverted safely
D. Requires tugboat assistance to flip

Answer: A — Must automatically self-right from 180 degrees flooded condition with all occupants strapped in safety belts

Totally enclosed lifeboats feature high buoyant superstructure and low center of gravity ensuring inherent positive self-righting if capsized.

9. What safety precaution is mandatory for all occupants inside a free-fall lifeboat prior to release?

A. Strap securely into padded backward-facing seats using full multi-point safety harnesses and headrests
B. Stand upright near stern door
C. Sit on floor facing forward
D. Hold onto overhead handrail only

Answer: A — Strap securely into padded backward-facing seats using full multi-point safety harnesses and headrests

Free-fall impact deceleration forces require occupants to be strapped into backward-facing anatomical seats with head, chest, and lap restraints.

10. What type of launching davit uses gravity to swing and lower a lifeboat from stowed position to water level?

A. Gravity luffing or gravity trackway davit
B. Electric crane davit only
C. Manual hydraulic jack davit
D. Pneumatic piston davit

Answer: A — Gravity luffing or gravity trackway davit

Gravity davits release brake locks, allowing outriggers to slide down trackways by gravity alone without needing main ship power.

11. What device prevents a davit-launched lifeboat from releasing hook falls before the boat is fully waterborne?

A. On-load / Off-load release mechanism with hydrostatic interlock protection
B. Manual hacksaw
C. Rope slip knot
D. Magnetic latch

Answer: A — On-load / Off-load release mechanism with hydrostatic interlock protection

SOLAS off-load/on-load release gear includes hydrostatic interlocks to prevent accidental hook release while boat is suspended above water.

12. What is the purpose of the tricing pendant lines on a davit-launched lifeboat?

A. To pull the lifeboat close against the embarkation deck side for safe passenger boarding
B. To start lifeboat engine
C. To lift lifeboat back to stowage
D. To secure sea anchor

Answer: A — To pull the lifeboat close against the embarkation deck side for safe passenger boarding

Tricing pendants swing the suspended lifeboat inward against the ship's embarkation deck so crew can step aboard safely.

13. What is the function of bowsing lines fitted to davit-launched lifeboats during lowering?

A. To take the load off tricing pendants and hold the boat steady against the ship's side while boarding
B. To measure lowering speed
C. To steer lifeboat propeller
D. To anchor davit arms

Answer: A — To take the load off tricing pendants and hold the boat steady against the ship's side while boarding

Bowsing lines attached to falls block shackles hold the lifeboat snug to the embarkation deck side after tricing pendants are released.

14. What is the maximum allowable lowering speed of a fully loaded lifeboat under gravity davits?

A. Calculated by formula S = 0.4 + (0.02 x H), where H is height above waterline
B. 10 meters per second
C. 0.1 meters per second
D. Unlimited speed

Answer: A — Calculated by formula S = 0.4 + (0.02 x H), where H is height above waterline

SOLAS LSA Code specifies safe controlled lowering speeds managed by centrifugal winch brakes to prevent impact damage.

15. What device controls the lowering speed of a davit winch when the manual brake lever is lifted?

A. Centrifugal brake governor inside the winch gearbox
B. Electric solenoid valve
C. Hand crank handle
D. Hydraulic steering pump

Answer: A — Centrifugal brake governor inside the winch gearbox

Internal centrifugal friction shoes expand against drum casing as RPM rises, governing lowering speed to safe SOLAS limits.

16. How is a davit winch brake operated from inside a suspended lifeboat during lowering?

A. By pulling the remote brake control wire passing into the lifeboat canopy
B. By calling bridge via VHF
C. By cutting fall wire
D. By starting diesel engine

Answer: A — By pulling the remote brake control wire passing into the lifeboat canopy

A remote control wire leads from the winch brake counterweight lever inside the lifeboat, allowing occupants to control lowering.

17. What minimum search pattern is recommended for a single rescue boat searching for a casualty in open water with known datum?

A. Expanding Square Search or Sector Search
B. Random zigzag track
C. Circular orbit at 20 knots
D. Straight line away from datum

Answer: A — Expanding Square Search or Sector Search

IAMSAR Manual recommends Expanding Square Search (SS) or Sector Search (VS) for single-unit searches around a concentrated position.

18. What is the primary difference between a standard lifeboat and a dedicated Rescue Boat?

A. Rescue boats are designed for rapid launch under 5 minutes to rescue personnel from water and marshal life rafts
B. Rescue boats carry no motor
C. Rescue boats cannot operate in sea water
D. Rescue boats carry no radio gear

Answer: A — Rescue boats are designed for rapid launch under 5 minutes to rescue personnel from water and marshal life rafts

Rescue boats (rigid or semi-rigid) are fast, highly maneuverable craft capable of launching quickly to recover MOB casualties and tow life rafts.

19. What requirement applies to the engine starting arrangement of a Fast Rescue Boat (FRB)?

A. Must feature dual independent battery starting or automatic hydraulic/manual restart after capsizing
B. Hand crank only
C. Requires external shore power cable while running
D. Solar powered electric motor

Answer: A — Must feature dual independent battery starting or automatic hydraulic/manual restart after capsizing

Fast Rescue Boat engines must start reliably in all weather and incorporate auto shut-off / restart valves if capsized and self-righted.

20. What equipment item is mandatory in a rescue boat for towing life rafts?

A. Buoyant towing line of at least 50 meters length with sufficient breaking strength
B. Steel anchor chain
C. Wire rope hawser
D. Cotton twine

Answer: A — Buoyant towing line of at least 50 meters length with sufficient breaking strength

Rescue boats require a high-strength floating towing line (polypropylene / nylon) to haul loaded life rafts away from hazards.

21. What is the fresh water allocation requirement per person in a SOLAS Lifeboat equipment pack?

A. 3 liters per person (with 1 liter replaceable by a desalting apparatus)
B. 1 liter per person
C. 10 liters per person
D. 0.5 liters per person

Answer: A — 3 liters per person (with 1 liter replaceable by a desalting apparatus)

SOLAS Lifeboat equipment packs require 3 liters of fresh water per person, stowed in watertight containers.

22. What equipment item inside a lifeboat is used to measure magnetic heading for navigation?

A. Luminous or illuminated binnacle magnetic compass
B. Gyrocompass repeater
C. GPS chart plotter
D. Sextant

Answer: A — Luminous or illuminated binnacle magnetic compass

SOLAS lifeboats require an operational magnetic compass in a binnacle with suitable illumination for day and night steering.

23. What color parachute flare signal is used by survival craft to indicate distress at night?

A. Red rocket parachute flare
B. Green star flare
C. White flare
D. Yellow flare

Answer: A — Red rocket parachute flare

Red is internationally reserved for emergency distress signaling; green and white flares indicate test or illumination signals.

24. What is the function of the skates or fenders fitted to the inboard side of a davit-launched lifeboat?

A. To cushion and facilitate smooth sliding down the ship's side plating when listing up to 20 degrees
B. To increase boat speed
C. To hold spare oars
D. To anchor boat

Answer: A — To cushion and facilitate smooth sliding down the ship's side plating when listing up to 20 degrees

Lifeboat skates (wooden/rubber runners) protect the hull from catching on hull rivets, weld seams, or obstacles during adverse list lowering.

25. What safety mechanism prevents the fall wire from unwinding off the davit winch drum when the lifeboat reaches the water?

A. Limit switches or winch drum end-securing stops
B. Rope shear pin
C. Manual ratchet pawl
D. Hydraulic bypass line

Answer: A — Limit switches or winch drum end-securing stops

Electrical limit switches cut winch motor power during hoisting, and wire end clamps ensure minimum 3 dead turns remain on drum during lowering.

26. Under SOLAS regulations, how often must lifeboat fall wires be turned end-for-end and renewed?

A. Inspected periodically, turned end-for-end at intervals not exceeding 30 months, and renewed every 5 years
B. Renewed every 10 years
C. Turned every month
D. Never renewed unless broken

Answer: A — Inspected periodically, turned end-for-end at intervals not exceeding 30 months, and renewed every 5 years

SOLAS III/20.4 requires wire falls to be turned end-for-end within 2.5 years and completely renewed at maximum 5-year intervals (or earlier if deteriorated).

27. What quantity of searchlights is required to be carried in a SOLAS Lifeboat?

A. 1 efficient portable searchlight capable of operating for 6 hours (at least 3 hours continuously)
B. 4 searchlights
C. None required
D. 10 battery flashlights

Answer: A — 1 efficient portable searchlight capable of operating for 6 hours (at least 3 hours continuously)

SOLAS requires 1 portable searchlight (6 hours total operation, 3 hours continuous) capable of illuminating 180m target at night.

28. What item of signaling equipment inside a lifeboat equipment pack provides audible warnings in fog?

A. Buoyant whistle or sound signal device
B. Air horn connected to main diesel compressor
C. Electric siren
D. Brass ship bell

Answer: A — Buoyant whistle or sound signal device

Every survival craft contains a manual sound signal (whistle or fog horn) to sound signals during restricted visibility.

29. What device inside a lifeboat engine compartment prevents battery discharge when the boat is stowed?

A. Battery main isolator switch (battery selector switch)
B. Solenoic fuse link
C. Automatic alternator bypass
D. Rheostat dimmer

Answer: A — Battery main isolator switch (battery selector switch)

Isolator switches disconnect battery banks during stowage to prevent stray current drain, while trickling charges from ship's mains supply.

30. How is a davit-launched lifeboat released from its hooks using the 'Off-Load' release function?

A. Hooks open automatically when weight of lifeboat is fully supported by water and hydrostatic interlock opens
B. Hooks are unbolted with spanners
C. Falls wires are cut with shears
D. Davit arms are dropped

Answer: A — Hooks open automatically when weight of lifeboat is fully supported by water and hydrostatic interlock opens

Off-load release operates when the hull floats on water, relieving load from hooks so the release handle can disengage the falls safely.

Set 5 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. Under what condition is the 'On-Load' emergency release mechanism of a lifeboat used?

A. When lifeboat is still suspended above water or in heavy sea waves where off-load release will not operate
B. During routine monthly dry deck testing
C. When boat is stowed in davit arm locks
D. Only when engine is turned off

Answer: A — When lifeboat is still suspended above water or in heavy sea waves where off-load release will not operate

On-load release permits emergency hook release while weight is on falls (e.g., vessel towing at speed or rough waves preventing zero-load state); requires breaking safety glass/pin.

2. What safety precaution must be taken before resetting on-load release hooks after a drill?

A. Visually verify hook locking cams are fully closed, safety indicator pins/green marks align, and reset lever is locked
B. Oil release wire with heavy grease
C. Paint release handle red
D. Disconnect hydrostatic diaphragm

Answer: A — Visually verify hook locking cams are fully closed, safety indicator pins/green marks align, and reset lever is locked

Incorrect hook reset is the leading cause of fatal lifeboat drop accidents; crew must double-check green alignment indicators and locking pins.

3. What item inside a lifeboat equipment pack provides manual propulsion if the engine fails?

A. Buoyant oars with crutches (rowlocks) attached by lanyards
B. Outboard gasoline motor
C. Pedal propeller drive
D. Canvas sails only

Answer: A — Buoyant oars with crutches (rowlocks) attached by lanyards

SOLAS lifeboats carry sufficient buoyant oars and rowlocks to make headway in calm seas if engine power is lost.

4. What equipment item is carried in a lifeboat to bail out water that enters the bilge?

A. 2 buoyant bailers and 1 manual bilge pump
B. 1 electric submersible pump
C. 10 plastic buckets
D. Compressed air ejector

Answer: A — 2 buoyant bailers and 1 manual bilge pump

SOLAS specifications require 2 buoyant hand bailers and a manual bilge pump for clearing sea water from the hull.

5. What is the function of the canopy water-collector fitted on a rigid lifeboat?

A. Drains rainwater from roof into internal collection tanks for drinking
B. Cools engine exhaust
C. Washes windows
D. Supplies water spray system

Answer: A — Drains rainwater from roof into internal collection tanks for drinking

Roof catchment gutters direct fresh rainwater into interior storage containers to supplement fresh water rations.

6. What type of food rations are packed inside a SOLAS Lifeboat?

A. Airtight vacuum-sealed emergency food rations (min 10,000 kJ per person)
B. Canned fish
C. Dehydrated noodles
D. Bread loaves

Answer: A — Airtight vacuum-sealed emergency food rations (min 10,000 kJ per person)

Standardized high-energy nutrient biscuits providing >=10,000 kJ per person are stowed in sealed watertight containers.

7. What is the function of a lifeboat painter release mechanism (toggle pin or slip hook)?

A. Allows quick release of the painter line from inside the lifeboat once underway
B. Releases fuel tank drain
C. Cuts fall wires
D. Unlocks engine hood

Answer: A — Allows quick release of the painter line from inside the lifeboat once underway

A quick-release slip hook inside the bow allows the coxswain to instantly cast off the painter once the boat is waterborne and running.

8. What is the function of the sea anchor trip line deployed with a lifeboat drogue?

A. Collapses the sea anchor cone to allow easy hauling back into the boat
B. Cuts sea anchor line in emergency
C. Increases sea anchor drag
D. Flares signal light

Answer: A — Collapses the sea anchor cone to allow easy hauling back into the boat

Pulling the small trip line attached to the apex of the cone turns the sea anchor inside out, eliminating resistance so it can be retrieved effortlessly.

9. What requirement applies to the steering system of a motor-propelled lifeboat?

A. Fitted with a helm wheel or tiller providing emergency manual steering control from the coxswain station
B. Remote control steering from ship bridge only
C. Automated autopilot only
D. No rudder required

Answer: A — Fitted with a helm wheel or tiller providing emergency manual steering control from the coxswain station

Lifeboats feature a robust rudder operated by helm wheel or direct manual emergency tiller at the coxswain's station.

10. Under SOLAS regulations, how often must lifeboats be launched into the water and maneuvered by their assigned operating crew during drills?

A. At least once every 3 months
B. Every week
C. Once a year
D. Every 5 years

Answer: A — At least once every 3 months

SOLAS III/19.3.3 mandates that lifeboats be launched into the water and maneuvered in the water by their operating crew at least once every 3 months.

11. What is the requirement for free-fall lifeboat test launching during routine shipboard drills?

A. Launched by free-fall at least once every 6 months, or simulated launching at 3-month intervals
B. Free-fall launched every week
C. Never launched free-fall
D. Free-fall launched only in port drydock

Answer: A — Launched by free-fall at least once every 6 months, or simulated launching at 3-month intervals

Free-fall lifeboats may undergo simulated launching every 3 months, with actual free-fall launch with operating crew at least once every 6 months (or per flag state rules).

12. What lighting equipment is required inside a totally enclosed lifeboat for passenger illumination?

A. Interior electric light powered by engine battery running for at least 12 hours
B. Kerosene storm lanterns
C. Candles
D. Phosphorescent glow sticks only

Answer: A — Interior electric light powered by engine battery running for at least 12 hours

An interior lamp provides illumination for reading instructions and attending casualties for at least 12 hours.

13. What is the purpose of the anti-exposure suit provided for rescue boat crew members?

A. Provides buoyancy and thermal insulation during marine operations in cold climates
B. Protects against toxic radiation
C. Protects against welding sparks
D. Provides scuba diving air supply

Answer: A — Provides buoyancy and thermal insulation during marine operations in cold climates

Anti-exposure suits (AES) safeguard rescue boat crews against cold spray, wind chill, immersion hypothermia, and drowning.

14. What item is used to signal between a rescue boat and a searching SAR aircraft when radio contact fails?

A. IAMSAR Surface-to-Air visual signals, hand flares, or signaling mirror
B. Engine exhaust smoke
C. Ship bell
D. Whistle blasts

Answer: A — IAMSAR Surface-to-Air visual signals, hand flares, or signaling mirror

Standard IAMSAR visual signals (e.g., 'V' for assistance, 'X' for medical aid, red flares) communicate status to search aircraft.

15. What action should a rescue boat coxswain take when approaching a conscious person in the water?

A. Approach from leeward (downwind) at low speed, neutral gear when close, and retrieve over the low gunwale
B. Approach at full speed from windward
C. Reverse propeller into casualty
D. Throw heavy anchor at casualty

Answer: A — Approach from leeward (downwind) at low speed, neutral gear when close, and retrieve over the low gunwale

Approaching from leeward stops the boat drifting over the survivor; shifting engine to neutral prevents propeller strike injuries.

16. How should an unconscious casualty be lifted from the sea into a rescue boat to prevent cardiac arrest from sudden hydrostatic blood pressure drop?

A. Lift horizontally using a rescue net, scoop, or two-person lift maintaining level torso
B. Pull vertically by arms straight up
C. Pull by feet upside down
D. Drag behind boat by line

Answer: A — Lift horizontally using a rescue net, scoop, or two-person lift maintaining level torso

Vertical lifting causes sudden blood pooling in legs ('circum-rescue collapse'), leading to fatal drop in cardiac output; casualties must be lifted horizontally.

17. What search pattern is best suited for searching a large sea area when multiple vessels are operating together under a Search and Rescue Mission Coordinator (SMC)?

A. Parallel Track Search (PS)
B. Single line circular search
C. Random drift
D. Anchor in center

Answer: A — Parallel Track Search (PS)

Parallel Track Search advances parallel search legs across a large rectangular area to ensure uniform sweep coverage.

18. What is the function of the release hook on a single-arm davit for a rescue boat?

A. Off-load / On-load rapid single-point release mechanism for quick launching in waves
B. Secures fuel tank
C. Locks steering wheel
D. Fills ballast tank

Answer: A — Off-load / On-load rapid single-point release mechanism for quick launching in waves

Single-arm rescue boat davits feature a quick-release single hook (e.g. Hamilton or Henriksen hook) enabling instant disconnect when waterborne.

19. What type of engine is mandatory for fast rescue boats requiring speeds of 20+ knots?

A. Inboard diesel engine with waterjet propulsion or approved outboard marine engine
B. Steam turbine
C. Coal-fired engine
D. Kerosene engine

Answer: A — Inboard diesel engine with waterjet propulsion or approved outboard marine engine

Waterjet propulsion eliminates exposed propellers, protecting casualties in the water during high-speed rescue operations.

20. What precaution must be taken when towing an inflatable life raft behind a motor rescue boat?

A. Tow from the life raft towing bridle, increase length of towline in heavy seas, and maintain moderate speed (< 5 knots)
B. Tow at 25 knots full speed
C. Tie towline to life raft canopy arches
D. Tow backward with sea anchor deployed

Answer: A — Tow from the life raft towing bridle, increase length of towline in heavy seas, and maintain moderate speed (< 5 knots)

Towing must use the reinforced lower hull bridle at speeds under 5 knots to prevent tearing raft fabric or causing bow submergence.

21. What item inside a survival craft equipment kit is used to signal distress by flashing reflected sunlight?

A. Signaling mirror (Heliograph) with central sighting hole
B. Magnifying glass
C. Prism binocular
D. Plastic lens cover

Answer: A — Signaling mirror (Heliograph) with central sighting hole

The heliograph incorporates a central sight hole and retro-reflective rear surface allowing precise aiming of sun flashes at target vessels/aircraft.

22. What requirement applies to the painter line of a lifeboat when stowed on davits?

A. Rigged forward of the davits, led outside all falls and rigging, and secured to a strong point on ship hull
B. Coiled inside engine room
C. Tied around davit winch brake handle
D. Left unattached

Answer: A — Rigged forward of the davits, led outside all falls and rigging, and secured to a strong point on ship hull

Rigging the painter forward of the lifeboat ensures that when lowered, the painter shear keeps the boat aligned parallel to the ship while headway is made.

23. What is the function of the hydrostatic release unit (HRU) test pin / indicator?

A. Indicates HRU expiry date and verifies internal spring diaphragm seal integrity
B. Starts lifeboat engine
C. Measures water salinity
D. Fires signal rocket

Answer: A — Indicates HRU expiry date and verifies internal spring diaphragm seal integrity

HRU inspection verifies valid expiration date markings (2-year service life for disposable HRUs) and absence of physical damage.

24. What safety equipment must be worn by all crew members during lifeboat launching drills?

A. Approved lifejacket, hard hat with chin strap, protective footwear, and suitable work clothing
B. Swimwear only
C. Raincoat without lifejacket
D. Cotton gloves only

Answer: A — Approved lifejacket, hard hat with chin strap, protective footwear, and suitable work clothing

Safety rules mandate lifejackets, helmets with chin straps secured, and safety boots during all survival craft launching drills.

25. What is the primary action to stabilize a person rescued from cold water who is suffering from mild hypothermia?

A. Remove wet clothing, wrap in warm dry blankets/TPAs, shelter in warm room, give warm sweet drinks if conscious
B. Give alcohol or hot coffee immediately
C. Place in hot bath at 50 degrees C
D. Rub limbs vigorously with snow

Answer: A — Remove wet clothing, wrap in warm dry blankets/TPAs, shelter in warm room, give warm sweet drinks if conscious

Re-warming must be gradual passive insulation; alcohol causes peripheral vasodilation leading to severe blood pressure drops ('after-drop').

26. What is the function of the drain valve (auto-drain valve) fitted in the bottom of a lifeboat hull?

A. Automatically drains rainwater when boat is stowed on davits, and seals automatically when boat enters sea water
B. Drains fuel oil into sea
C. Admits sea water to sink boat
D. Cools engine sump

Answer: A — Automatically drains rainwater when boat is stowed on davits, and seals automatically when boat enters sea water

Automatic bottom drain valves use a buoyant ball that drops open to drain rainwater when stowed, but seals upward under sea water pressure.

27. What capsize recovery system is fitted to rigid rescue boats?

A. Self-righting frame with inflatable CO2 transom bag activated automatically or manually when inverted
B. Heavy lead keel ballast
C. Dual outboard motors
D. Automatic parachute

Answer: A — Self-righting frame with inflatable CO2 transom bag activated automatically or manually when inverted

Rigid rescue boats incorporate an aft self-righting gantry carrying an inflatable buoyancy bag that rights the boat immediately if capsized.

28. What is the function of the emergency tiller supplied with a lifeboat?

A. Connects directly to top of rudder stock to steer manually if steering wheel linkage breaks
B. Starts engine manually
C. Operates bilge pump
D. Locks davit brake

Answer: A — Connects directly to top of rudder stock to steer manually if steering wheel linkage breaks

If helm cable/hydraulic remote steering fails, the emergency steel tiller drops over the squared rudder head stock for direct mechanical steering.

29. What quantity of thermal protective aids (TPAs) is required in a lifeboat equipped for 100% of its complement?

A. TPAs for 10% of the passenger capacity or 2 TPAs (whichever is greater), unless immersion suits are provided for all
B. None required
C. 1 TPA per person always
D. 50 TPAs fixed

Answer: A — TPAs for 10% of the passenger capacity or 2 TPAs (whichever is greater), unless immersion suits are provided for all

SOLAS III/32 requires TPAs for 10% of capacity (min 2) in lifeboats, or 100% if uninsulated immersion suits are carried.

30. What is the requirement for testing a lifeboat diesel engine during routine weekly inspections?

A. Run engine in ahead and astern gear for at least 3 minutes (or per manufacturer guidance) to verify starting and transmission
B. Run engine for 24 hours continuously
C. Crank engine without fuel
D. Test engine only in drydock

Answer: A — Run engine in ahead and astern gear for at least 3 minutes (or per manufacturer guidance) to verify starting and transmission

Weekly SOLAS checks require starting the engine, checking oil/cooling parameters, and engaging forward and reverse gear clutches.

Set 6 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. What device inside a lifeboat displays engine cooling water temperature, oil pressure, and battery charging voltage?

A. Engine instrument gauge panel at the coxswain station
B. Ship bridge ECR monitor
C. SART display
D. Portable multitester

Answer: A — Engine instrument gauge panel at the coxswain station

Lifeboat engine controls include a waterproof instrument panel monitoring RPM, lube oil pressure, coolant temperature, and battery charge.

2. What is the primary objective of Proficiency in Survival Craft and Rescue Boats (PSCRB) training?

A. To take command of a survival craft or rescue boat during and after launch, operate engines, manage survivors, and use location devices
B. To navigate commercial cargo ships across oceans
C. To overhaul main engine turbochargers
D. To conduct port customs clearance

Answer: A — To take command of a survival craft or rescue boat during and after launch, operate engines, manage survivors, and use location devices

PSCRB training under STCW Code Table A-VI/2-1 ensures seafarers can launch, operate, lead, and survive in survival craft and rescue boats.

3. The safety knife stowed on an inflatable liferaft will always be located ____.

A. In one of the equipment bags
B. In a special pocket near the forward entrance
C. On a cord hanging from the canopy
D. In a pocket on the first aid kit

Answer: B — In a special pocket near the forward entrance

LSA Code 4.1.5.1.2 requires a buoyant safety knife stowed in a pocket on the outside of the canopy near the point where the painter is attached, normally at the entrance. This lets the painter be cut immediately after boarding.

4. After abandoning ship, you should deploy the sea anchor from a liferaft to ____.

A. Keep the liferaft from capsizing
B. Navigate against the current
C. Keep personnel from getting seasick
D. Stay in the general location

Answer: D — Stay in the general location

The sea anchor (drogue) cuts down the raft's drift, keeping it near the position of the casualty where search and rescue will start. It also helps the raft ride head to sea and steadies its motion.

5. Most lifeboats are equipped with ____.

A. Unbalanced rudders
B. Balanced rudders
C. Contra-guide rudders
D. Spade rudders

Answer: A — Unbalanced rudders

Lifeboat rudders are simple unbalanced rudders hung on the sternpost with pintles and gudgeons and worked by a tiller. This simple, robust arrangement is easy to ship and hard to damage.

6. The canopy of an inflatable liferaft should ____.

A. Go into place as the raft is inflated
B. Be put up after everyone is aboard
C. Be put up only in severe weather
D. Be used as a sail if the wind is blowing

Answer: A — Go into place as the raft is inflated

LSA Code 4.2.2 requires the liferaft to have a canopy that sets in place automatically when the raft is launched and inflated. Its inflatable arches give occupants immediate protection from exposure.

7. All inflatable liferafts have ____.

A. Safety straps from the overhead
B. Built-in seats
C. Releasing hooks at each end
D. Water stabilising pockets

Answer: D — Water stabilising pockets

LSA Code 4.2.4 requires water ballast pockets on the underside of every inflatable liferaft. They fill with seawater when the raft inflates and give stability against capsizing by wind and waves.

8. After abandoning ship, which action should be taken IMMEDIATELY upon entering a liferaft?

A. Open the equipment pack
B. Issue anti-seasickness medicine
C. Get clear of the ship
D. Dry the liferaft floor and inflate it

Answer: C — Get clear of the ship

The first action is to cut or release the painter and paddle clear of the sinking ship, away from suction, debris, fire and burning oil. After that, stream the sea anchor, look for survivors and give out anti-seasickness tablets.

9. A feature of an inflatable liferaft which helps keep people stationary in rough weather is ____.

A. Lashings on the floor of the raft for the occupants' feet
B. Straps from the overhead
C. Lifelines on the inside of the raft
D. Ridges in the floor of the raft

Answer: C — Lifelines on the inside of the raft

LSA Code 4.2.2 requires inflatable liferafts to have lifelines fitted around the inside of the raft. Occupants hold on to these so they stay in place and the raft stays trimmed in heavy weather.

10. The maximum speed of lowering for a lifeboat on gravity davits is controlled by the ____.

A. Limit switches
B. Emergency disconnect switch
C. Governor brake
D. Position of the counterweight on the brake handle

Answer: C — Governor brake

The centrifugal governor brake in the davit winch automatically limits the speed at which the boat lowers under gravity. LSA Code 6.1.2 sets limits on lowering speed for survival craft.

11. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to look for ____.

A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. Bad weather

Answer: A — Survivors in the water

One of the first actions after getting clear of the ship is to post lookouts and search for survivors in the water. People in the water are recovered first, while they are still close and before hypothermia sets in.

12. The purpose of the four water pockets, located on the underside at each corner of the raft, is to ____.

A. Stow rainwater so that it will not take up valuable space
B. Act as stabilisers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and upright
C. Hold the fresh water required by regulation to be provided in the raft when packed
D. Store the sea anchor and its line when not in use

Answer: B — Act as stabilisers by filling with sea water as soon as the raft is inflated and upright

Water ballast pockets fill with seawater as the upright raft inflates. The weight of water lowers the centre of gravity and resists capsizing by wind and waves, as required by LSA Code 4.2.4.

13. What is the purpose of the limit switch on gravity davits?

A. To cut off the power when the davits hit the track safety stops
B. To stop the davits from going too fast
C. To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches (30 cm) from the track safety stops
D. To release the boat from the falls automatically

Answer: C — To cut off the power when the davits are about 12 inches (30 cm) from the track safety stops

When hoisting, the limit switch cuts power to the winch motor just before the davit arms reach their stowed stops, about 12 inches away. The arms then finish the travel by hand and do not strike the stops under power, which avoids damage and broken falls.

14. The number of rocket parachute flares carried in a lifeboat is ____.

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: B — 4

LSA Code 4.4.8.11 requires each lifeboat to carry four rocket parachute flares meeting LSA Code 3.1, the same number required for liferafts in 4.1.5.1.11.

15. What is the full form of HRU?

A. Hydrostatic radar unit
B. Hydrostatic radio unit
C. Hydrostatic release unit
D. None of the above

Answer: C — Hydrostatic release unit

HRU stands for hydrostatic release unit. It releases a liferaft or float-free EPIRB automatically when the ship sinks to a depth of about 4 m, as required by LSA Code 4.1.6.3, and is tested and replaced according to the manufacturer's schedule.

16. Which of the following requirements regarding life-saving appliances does NOT correspond to present regulations?

A. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be resistant to deterioration where exposed to sunlight
B. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire-retardant material
C. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be of a highly visible colour on parts where this will assist detection
D. All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be fitted with retro-reflective material where this will assist in detection

Answer: B — All prescribed life-saving appliances shall be made of non-combustible or fire-retardant material

LSA Code 1.2.2 requires appliances to resist deterioration in sunlight, be of highly visible colour and carry retro-reflective material where this helps detection. There is no general requirement for all appliances to be non-combustible; fire tests apply only to certain items.

17. In accordance with the present recommendations, a ship in distress should transmit the appropriate alarm signal followed by the distress call and message on one or all of the international distress frequencies, which are

A. 550 kHz, 2367 kHz and 121.5 MHz
B. 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.8 MHz
C. 550 kHz, 2182 kHz and 121.5 MHz
D. 500 kHz, 2367 kHz and 243 MHz

Answer: B — 500 kHz, 2182 kHz and 156.8 MHz

The traditional international distress frequencies are 500 kHz (MF radiotelegraphy), 2182 kHz (MF radiotelephony) and 156.8 MHz (VHF Channel 16). Frequencies such as 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz are aeronautical emergency frequencies, and 550 kHz and 2367 kHz are not distress frequencies.

18. The donning time for an immersion suit is

A. 2 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 7 minutes
D. 9 minutes

Answer: A — 2 minutes

The LSA Code (2.3.1.1) requires that an immersion suit can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes, taking into account any associated clothing and a lifejacket if the suit has to be worn with one.

19. A radar reflector is provided in

A. Lifeboats only
B. Liferafts only
C. Rescue boats only
D. Lifeboats, liferafts and rescue boats

Answer: D — Lifeboats, liferafts and rescue boats

Under the LSA Code, the equipment of lifeboats, liferafts and rescue boats each includes an efficient radar reflector, unless a survival craft radar transponder (SART) is stowed in the craft, so that the craft can be detected by searching ships' radar.

20. What colour light does a hand flare burn with?

A. Bright red
B. Orange
C. Bright white
D. Green

Answer: A — Bright red

The LSA Code (3.2) requires a hand flare to burn with a bright red colour, uniformly distributed, with a luminous intensity of not less than 15,000 cd for not less than 1 minute. Orange is the colour of smoke signals.

21. Which of the following is an LSA Code requirement for a lifejacket?

A. It can be correctly donned within 1 minute without assistance
B. It can be correctly donned within 2 minutes without assistance
C. It can be correctly donned within 5 minutes without assistance
D. It can be correctly donned within 10 minutes without assistance

Answer: A — It can be correctly donned within 1 minute without assistance

The LSA Code (2.2.1) requires that a person can correctly don a lifejacket within a period of 1 minute without assistance. The 2-minute donning time applies to immersion suits, not lifejackets.

22. Match the term LIFEJACKET with the most suitable answer given below

A. Davit launch
B. Whistle and SI light
C. Protection against cold
D. HRU

Answer: B — Whistle and SI light

Every lifejacket must be fitted with a whistle firmly secured by a lanyard and a lifejacket light, together with retro-reflective tape, as required by the LSA Code. Davit launch relates to boats, protection against cold to TPAs and HRU to liferafts.

23. Which of the following is/are the SOLAS requirements for buoyant smoke signals?

A. Emit smoke for a period of not less than 3 minutes when floating in calm water
B. Not emit any flame during the entire smoke emission time
C. Continue to emit smoke when submerged in water for a period of 10 seconds under 100 mm of water
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

LSA Code 3.3 requires a buoyant smoke signal to emit highly visible smoke at a uniform rate for not less than 3 minutes in calm water, not emit any flame, not be swamped in a seaway, and continue to emit smoke when submerged for 10 seconds under 100 mm of water.

24. The body loses heat about ____ times faster when immersed in cold water than in air at the same temperature.

A. 10
B. 20
C. 25
D. 36

Answer: C — 25

Water conducts heat away from the body roughly 25 times faster than air at the same temperature, which is why survivors in cold water become hypothermic so quickly and should get out of the water or reduce exposed surface area.

25. Which one of the listed statements regarding an immersion suit does NOT correspond to present regulations? The suit

A. is provided with arrangements to minimize or reduce free air in the legs of the suit
B. can be unpacked and donned without assistance within 2 minutes
C. has sufficient built-in buoyancy to avoid the use of a lifejacket
D. will cover the whole body with the exception of the face

Answer: C — has sufficient built-in buoyancy to avoid the use of a lifejacket

The LSA Code requires an immersion suit to cover the whole body except the face, to minimise free air in the legs and to be donned within 2 minutes. It does not require built-in buoyancy to replace a lifejacket; most suits are worn with a lifejacket.

26. Match the term TPA with the most suitable answer given below

A. Davit launch
B. Whistle
C. Protection against cold
D. Abandon ship

Answer: C — Protection against cold

A thermal protective aid (TPA) is a bag or suit of waterproof material with low thermal conductance, carried in survival craft to reduce convective and evaporative heat loss from a survivor and so protect against cold and hypothermia (LSA Code 2.5).

27. The burning duration of a hand flare is

A. 1 minute
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Answer: A — 1 minute

LSA Code 3.2 requires a hand flare to burn with a bright red colour for a period of not less than 1 minute, with a luminous intensity of not less than 15,000 cd, and to continue burning after immersion for 10 seconds under 100 mm of water.

28. Safe lifting signal - arm raised above the horizontal with thumb up means

A. Do not hoist, not ready
B. Hoist, ready
C. Lower the load
D. Emergency stop

Answer: B — Hoist, ready

In the standard helicopter hoisting signals, an arm raised above the horizontal with the thumb up indicates that the person is ready and the winch operator may hoist. Arms extended horizontally with thumbs down means do not hoist.

29. The minimum length of a rescue boat is

A. 3.8 metres
B. 8.5 metres
C. 5 metres
D. 7.3 metres

Answer: A — 3.8 metres

LSA Code 5.1.1.3 requires rescue boats to be not less than 3.8 m and not more than 8.5 m in length, and capable of carrying at least five seated persons and a person lying on a stretcher.

30. The minimum length of a lifeboat is

A. 3.8 metres
B. 8.5 metres
C. 5 metres
D. 7.3 metres

Answer: D — 7.3 metres

Under the LSA Code, a lifeboat shall normally be not less than 7.3 m in length, except where, owing to the size of the ship or for other reasons, the Administration considers carriage of such a lifeboat unreasonable or impracticable.

Set 7 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. Batteries used for EPIRBs have a very long shelf life of

A. 2 years or more
B. 3 years or more
C. 5 years or more
D. 8 years or more

Answer: C — 5 years or more

EPIRBs use lithium batteries with a long shelf life, normally replaced at intervals of about 5 years or after use. The battery expiry date is marked on the EPIRB and checked during monthly tests and annual surveys.

2. A cargo vessel of 200 metres and over in length should carry

A. 8 lifebuoys
B. 12 lifebuoys
C. 10 lifebuoys
D. 14 lifebuoys

Answer: D — 14 lifebuoys

SOLAS III/32 requires cargo ships to carry lifebuoys by length: under 100 m - 8, 100 m to under 150 m - 10, 150 m to under 200 m - 12, and 200 m and over - 14 lifebuoys.

3. The searchlight provided on a survival craft should be capable of working for a total period of

A. 3 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 8 hours
D. 10 hours

Answer: B — 6 hours

The LSA Code requires the lifeboat searchlight to illuminate a light-coloured object at night about 18 m wide at 180 m for a total period of 6 hours, and to work for not less than 3 hours continuously.

4. The No. 2 lifeboat on a tanker would be found

A. On the port side
B. On the starboard side
C. Aft of No. 1 lifeboat on the port side
D. Aft of No. 1 lifeboat on the starboard side

Answer: A — On the port side

By convention, lifeboats are numbered from forward, with odd numbers on the starboard side and even numbers on the port side. On a tanker with one boat each side, No. 1 is starboard and No. 2 is port.

5. Safe lifting signal - arms extended horizontally, fingers clenched and thumbs down means

A. Do not hoist, not ready
B. Hoist, ready
C. Lower the load
D. Emergency stop

Answer: A — Do not hoist, not ready

In the standard helicopter hoisting hand signals, arms extended horizontally with fingers clenched and thumbs down means do not hoist. The ready-for-hoist signal is an arm raised above the horizontal with the thumb up.

6. An emergency sea anchor may be constructed by using

A. A boat bucket
B. An air tank filled with water
C. Oars and canvas weighted down
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

Any object that creates drag in the water can serve as an improvised sea anchor. A bucket, a flooded air tank or oars lashed with canvas and weighted down will all hold the craft's head to the sea and reduce drift.

7. A lifejacket has the following attached to it

A. Whistle and retro-reflective tape
B. SI light and whistle
C. SI light, whistle and retro-reflective tape
D. SI light and retro-reflective tape

Answer: C — SI light, whistle and retro-reflective tape

The LSA Code requires every lifejacket to be fitted with a lifejacket light, a whistle firmly secured by a lanyard, and retro-reflective material, to make the wearer easier to locate in the water by day and night.

8. An anti-exposure suit shall permit the person wearing it to

A. Climb up and down a vertical ladder of at least 5 metres in length
B. Jump from a height of not less than 4.5 metres into the water
C. Swim through the water at least 25 m and board a survival craft
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

LSA Code 2.4.1 requires an anti-exposure suit to allow the wearer to climb up and down a vertical ladder of at least 5 m, jump vertically into the water from not less than 4.5 m, and swim 25 m and board a survival craft.

9. SARTs are designed to work with radar operating in the

A. S band
B. X band
C. Both S band and X band
D. None of the above

Answer: B — X band

A radar SART operates in the 9 GHz (3 cm, X-band) frequency range. It responds only to X-band radar interrogation, displaying a line of 12 dots on the searching vessel's screen; it does not respond to S-band (10 cm) radar.

10. The capacity of the lithium battery of an EPIRB should be enough to last for ____ when activated.

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours

Answer: D — 48 hours

IMO performance standards require a 406 MHz satellite EPIRB battery to have sufficient capacity to operate the beacon for at least 48 hours once activated, giving search and rescue services time to locate the casualty.

11. The number of lifebuoys required on a passenger vessel of 180 metres and over but less than 240 metres in length is

A. 18
B. 24
C. 30
D. 12

Answer: B — 24

SOLAS III/22 requires passenger ships to carry lifebuoys by length: under 60 m - 8, 60 to under 120 m - 12, 120 to under 180 m - 18, 180 to under 240 m - 24, and 240 m and over - 30.

12. You are in a lifeboat in a heavy sea. Your boat is dead in the water and unable to make way. To prevent broaching, you should

A. take no action, broaching is recommended in a heavy sea
B. put out the sea anchor
C. put out the sea painter
D. fill the bottom of the boat with about one foot of water to make it ride better

Answer: B — put out the sea anchor

A sea anchor streamed from the bow keeps the boat's head to the sea when it cannot make way, preventing it from lying beam-on and broaching or capsizing. It also reduces the rate of drift.

13. If you hear the sound of gas escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflated, you should

A. quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. check the sea anchor line for a tear if the seas are rough
C. check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. not panic, as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape

Answer: D — not panic, as the relief valves allow excess pressure to escape

Inflatable liferafts are fitted with pressure relief valves that release excess gas after inflation, particularly in warm conditions, to prevent over-pressurising the buoyancy tubes. Hissing just after inflation is normal and no action is needed.

14. A self-righting survival craft will return to an upright position provided that all personnel

A. are seated with seat belts on and doors shut
B. are seated with seat belts on and doors open
C. shift to one side to right it
D. escape from the craft

Answer: A — are seated with seat belts on and doors shut

A totally enclosed lifeboat is self-righting only when all entrances are closed and occupants are strapped in their seats, keeping the centre of gravity low and preventing water entry. LSA Code 4.6 bases the self-righting test on this condition.

15. Which step should normally be taken FIRST by those who have boarded a liferaft in an emergency?

A. Ration food and water supplies
B. Take anti-seasickness pills, if available
C. Determine position and closest point of land
D. Check pyrotechnic supplies

Answer: B — Take anti-seasickness pills, if available

Seasickness sets in quickly in a liferaft and causes vomiting, dehydration and loss of morale, so anti-seasickness tablets should be taken as early as possible after boarding. Rationing and other tasks follow once the immediate actions are complete.

16. You are involved in an emergency landing of a helicopter on the water. You should inflate your lifejacket

A. upon entering the helicopter
B. prior to reaching the water
C. after reaching the water, but prior to exiting the helicopter
D. after exiting clear of the helicopter

Answer: D — after exiting clear of the helicopter

An inflated lifejacket inside a ditched helicopter can pin the wearer against the roof of a flooding or inverted cabin and prevent escape. It should be inflated only after the wearer is clear of the aircraft.

17. When a helicopter is lifting personnel from an enclosed lifeboat, the other individuals in the boat should

A. remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability
B. enter the water in case the person being lifted slips from the sling
C. stand on the outside of the boat to assist the person being lifted
D. remove their lifejackets to prepare for their transfer to the helicopter

Answer: A — remain seated inside to provide body weight for stability

During a helicopter hoist, the remaining survivors should stay seated inside the boat so their weight keeps it stable against the rotor downwash and swell. Standing outside, entering the water or removing lifejackets would expose them to unnecessary danger.

18. A man aboard a vessel, signalling by raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side, is indicating

A. danger, stay away
B. all is clear, it is safe to pass
C. all is clear, it is safe to approach
D. a distress signal

Answer: D — a distress signal

Slowly and repeatedly raising and lowering arms outstretched to each side is one of the distress signals listed in Annex IV of COLREGs, indicating that the vessel is in distress and requires assistance.

19. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This indicates that

A. a message about the safety of navigation will follow
B. a message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
C. the sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D. you should secure your radiotelephone

Answer: A — a message about the safety of navigation will follow

SECURITE repeated three times is the safety signal, preceding a message about the safety of navigation or important meteorological warnings. PAN-PAN indicates urgency and MAYDAY indicates distress.

20. The Master of a vessel shall make sure the EPIRB is tested

A. daily
B. weekly
C. every two weeks
D. monthly

Answer: D — monthly

SOLAS and IMO guidance require satellite EPIRBs to be tested at least monthly using the built-in self-test facility, without transmitting a live alert, and to have the battery and hydrostatic release expiry dates checked.

21. A line-throwing appliance is used

A. to pick up a survivor in the water
B. to bring a liferaft in the water close to the ship
C. to make a connection between a distressed ship and a safe ship to pass a towing line
D. to connect to a lifeboat in the water

Answer: C — to make a connection between a distressed ship and a safe ship to pass a towing line

A line-throwing appliance (LSA Code 7.1) fires a light line between vessels or between ship and shore. This line is then used to haul across heavier messenger lines and hawsers, for example for towing or rescue.

22. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your situation with

A. Mayday - Mayday - Mayday
B. Pan-Pan (3 times)
C. Securite - Securite - Securite
D. SOS - SOS - SOS

Answer: B — Pan-Pan (3 times)

PAN-PAN repeated three times is the urgency signal, used when there is an urgent message about the safety of a ship or person but no grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. MAYDAY is reserved for distress.

23. What is the life-saving signal by day for "You are seen - assistance will be given as soon as possible"?

A. Green star rocket
B. Red star rocket
C. Orange smoke signal
D. Horizontal motion of a flag

Answer: C — Orange smoke signal

Under the SOLAS life-saving signals table, shore stations and rescue units reply to a distress signal with an orange smoke signal by day, or a white star signal or combined light and sound signal by night, meaning you are seen and assistance will be given.

24. What is the purpose of a sea anchor?

A. To reduce drift
B. To drop anchor
C. To attach to the ship's side
D. None of the above

Answer: A — To reduce drift

A sea anchor is a cone-shaped drogue streamed from the survival craft that creates drag in the water. It reduces the rate of drift, keeping the craft near the casualty position where search will start, and holds its head to the sea.

25. What is the purpose of the hydrostatic interlock in the keel of an enclosed lifeboat?

A. To prevent sea water entering the lifeboat
B. To supply cooling water to the lifeboat engine
C. To prevent release of the hooks until the keel of the boat is under water
D. To indicate the loaded weight of the boat and prevent overloading

Answer: C — To prevent release of the hooks until the keel of the boat is under water

The hydrostatic interlock senses water pressure at the keel and prevents the on-load release hooks being operated until the boat is waterborne, guarding against accidental release while the boat is still suspended (LSA Code 4.4.7.6).

26. The luminous intensity of a rocket parachute flare should not be less than

A. 15,000 cd
B. 500 cd
C. 30,000 cd
D. None of the above

Answer: C — 30,000 cd

LSA Code 3.1 requires a rocket parachute flare to burn with a bright red colour with an average luminous intensity of not less than 30,000 cd for not less than 40 seconds, after reaching an altitude of not less than 300 m.

27. Which of the following requirements for an immersion suit is correct?

A. It can be donned in 2 minutes
B. It allows the wearer to jump from 4.5 metres
C. It allows the wearer to climb down a vertical ladder of 5 metres
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

LSA Code 2.3.1 requires an immersion suit to be unpacked and donned within 2 minutes, to permit the wearer to climb up and down a vertical ladder of at least 5 m, and to jump vertically into the water from not less than 4.5 m.

28. On which satellite system does a 406 MHz EPIRB work?

A. Cospas-Sarsat
B. Intelsat
C. Iridium
D. Thuraya

Answer: A — Cospas-Sarsat

406 MHz EPIRBs transmit distress alerts that are detected and relayed by the international Cospas-Sarsat satellite system (LEOSAR, GEOSAR and MEOSAR), which passes the alert and position through ground stations to the relevant rescue coordination centre.

29. Which EPIRB transmits a distress alert that is received and relayed by an Inmarsat satellite?

A. Class A EPIRB
B. Class B EPIRB
C. L-band EPIRB
D. Category I EPIRB

Answer: C — L-band EPIRB

The L-band (1.6 GHz) EPIRB, also called the Inmarsat-E EPIRB, transmitted its alert via Inmarsat geostationary satellites. Category I and Class A/B EPIRBs refer to 406 MHz and 121.5 MHz beacons used with Cospas-Sarsat.

30. EPIRB stands for

A. Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon
B. Electronic Position Identifying Rescue Buoy
C. Emergency Personal Identification Radio Buoy
D. Electronic Positioning and Rescue Beacon

Answer: A — Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon

EPIRB is the Emergency Position Indicating Radio Beacon, a GMDSS satellite distress beacon carried under SOLAS IV that, when activated manually or by float-free release, transmits a distress alert and identification to search and rescue authorities.

Set 8 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. What would most likely prevent a SART signal from being detected?

A. Signal absorption by the ionosphere
B. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar
C. Heavy sea swells
D. The rescue personnel were monitoring the 3-cm radar

Answer: B — The rescue personnel were monitoring the 10-cm radar

A radar SART responds only to 9 GHz (3-cm, X-band) radar. If the searching vessel is using only its 10-cm (S-band) radar, the SART is not triggered and no dots appear, so the signal would not be detected.

2. How can the SART audible tone monitor be used?

A. It informs survivors when the battery's charge has weakened
B. It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby
C. It informs survivors when the SART switches to the standby mode
D. It informs survivors that a nearby vessel is signalling on DSC

Answer: B — It informs survivors that assistance may be nearby

When a SART is interrogated by an X-band radar it changes from standby to transmit and gives an audible or visual indication. This tells survivors that a ship or aircraft with radar is nearby and assistance may be close.

3. Using spoken communication, what is the code word used to indicate a distress message?

A. Mayday
B. Pan-Pan
C. Securite
D. Seelonce

Answer: A — Mayday

MAYDAY, spoken three times, is the radiotelephone distress signal indicating that a ship, aircraft or person is in grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. PAN-PAN is urgency, SECURITE safety, and SEELONCE imposes silence.

4. Which of the following information is included in a distress message?

A. Ship's identification
B. Name of the ship's charterer
C. Details of the cargo manifest
D. Name of the last port's pilot

Answer: A — Ship's identification

A distress message must include the ship's identification (name, call sign or MMSI), its position, the nature of distress, the assistance required and other useful information such as number of persons on board, so rescuers know who and where the casualty is.

5. The muster list shows who is the designated GMDSS operator. What do the letters GMDSS stand for?

A. Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
B. General Maritime Distress and Signalling System
C. Global Marine Data and Satellite Service
D. Ground-based Maritime Distress Signal System

Answer: A — Global Maritime Distress and Safety System

GMDSS is the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System, introduced under SOLAS Chapter IV, which uses satellite and terrestrial radio systems to provide distress alerting, SAR coordination and maritime safety information to ships.

6. If water is rising in the bilge of a lifeboat, you should FIRST

A. abandon the survival craft
B. check for cracks in the hull
C. shift all personnel to the stern
D. check the bilge drain plug

Answer: D — check the bilge drain plug

The most common cause of water entering a lifeboat after launching is a drain plug that has not been fitted or has come loose. Checking and securing the drain plug is the first and simplest action before looking for other causes.

7. The function of the lifeboat davit limit switch is to

A. Release the boat automatically when it is waterborne
B. Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position
C. Control the lowering speed of the boat
D. Release the gripes automatically

Answer: B — Cut off power to the winch when the lifeboat nears the final stowed position

The limit switch cuts off power to the davit winch motor as the boat or davit arms approach the fully stowed position during hoisting, preventing over-hoisting that could damage the falls, davits or boat.

8. Steering a motor lifeboat broadside to the sea could cause it to

A. capsize
B. gain speed uncontrollably
C. float motionless
D. steer more easily

Answer: A — capsize

A lifeboat lying broadside to a heavy sea is exposed to breaking waves on the beam that can roll it over. The boat should be kept head to sea, or stern to sea with a drogue, to avoid broaching and capsizing.

9. With the sprinkler system and air system on, and all hatches shut, the survival craft will be protected from

A. capsizing in heavy seas
B. a fire and toxic environment
C. a hurricane
D. a drop greater than ten feet

Answer: B — a fire and toxic environment

A fire-protected lifeboat (LSA Code 4.8 and 4.9) has a water spray system to cool the hull and a self-contained air supply that keeps a positive pressure inside, so occupants are protected from surrounding oil fire and toxic gases.

10. Which data is NOT painted on the bow of a lifeboat?

A. Number of persons allowed
B. Name of the vessel
C. Weight of the boat
D. Port of registry

Answer: C — Weight of the boat

LSA Code 4.4.9 requires the lifeboat's dimensions and the number of persons it is permitted to carry to be marked on it, and the name and port of registry of the ship to be marked on each side of the bow. The boat's weight is not required.

11. Every lifeboat is required to be launched into the water and manoeuvred at least once every

A. 12 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 24 months

Answer: B — 3 months

SOLAS III/19.3.3 requires each lifeboat to be launched with its assigned operating crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water at least once every three months during an abandon ship drill.

12. When a rescue vessel approaches a lifeboat in heavy seas, the person in charge of the lifeboat should

A. transfer all personnel immediately
B. tie up close to the rescue vessel
C. wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel
D. transfer only those personnel who are not seasick

Answer: C — wait for calmer weather before transferring personnel

Transferring survivors between a pitching lifeboat and a rescue vessel in heavy seas risks crushing injuries and people falling into the water. If the survivors are not in immediate danger, the transfer should wait until the weather moderates.

13. Inflated rescue boats shall be marked with

A. a serial number, the maker's name or trade mark, and the date of manufacture
B. the ship's name and IMO number only
C. the number of persons and engine power only
D. the date of last service and the servicing station only

Answer: A — a serial number, the maker's name or trade mark, and the date of manufacture

LSA Code 5.1.3 requires inflated rescue boats to be marked with a serial number, the maker's name or trade mark and the date of manufacture, in addition to the markings required for all rescue boats.

14. The outboard engine of a fast rescue boat uses which fuel?

A. Diesel
B. Gasoline (petrol)
C. Kerosene
D. Heavy fuel oil

Answer: B — Gasoline (petrol)

Outboard engines on rescue boats and fast rescue boats are normally petrol (gasoline) engines. The LSA Code permits petrol outboard motors in rescue boats provided the fuel tanks are specially protected against fire and explosion.

15. The function of a hydrostatic release unit is

A. To substitute for the limit switch of gravity davits
B. To automatically release the lashing and free the liferaft when the ship sinks
C. To release the liferaft in bad weather
D. To inflate the liferaft while still in its cradle

Answer: B — To automatically release the lashing and free the liferaft when the ship sinks

A hydrostatic release unit releases the liferaft lashing automatically at a depth of not more than 4 m when the ship sinks, letting the raft float free. The painter, held by a weak link, then triggers inflation (LSA Code 4.1.6).

16. How should the painter of a liferaft which is fitted with a hydrostatic release be secured to the ship?

A. Directly to a secure point on the ship
B. It should not be secured at all
C. To the part of the hydrostatic release that is designed to break free
D. Via a weak link to a secure point on the ship

Answer: D — Via a weak link to a secure point on the ship

The painter is attached through the weak link to a strong point on the ship. When the raft floats free, the painter pulls to inflate the raft and the weak link then breaks, so the inflated raft is not dragged down with the sinking ship.

17. If a liferaft should capsize, you should

A. climb onto the bottom
B. swim away from the raft
C. right the raft using the righting straps
D. inflate the righting bag

Answer: C — right the raft using the righting straps

An inflatable liferaft that inverts is righted by a person climbing onto it, standing on the gas cylinder and pulling on the righting straps on the underside so that the raft turns over. Righting straps are required by the LSA Code.

18. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by

A. filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. pushing up from under one end
D. standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

Answer: D — standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside of the raft

To right an inverted liferaft, approach from the side where the gas cylinder is, stand on the cylinder, grip the righting straps and lean back. The raft rises up and flips over, ideally downwind so the wind helps.

19. One of the first actions to be taken by survivors when they have boarded an inflatable liferaft is to

A. break out food rations
B. prepare to cut the painter
C. open the pressure relief valve
D. drink at least one can of water

Answer: B — prepare to cut the painter

Once everyone is aboard, the painter must be cut so the raft can get clear of the sinking ship and avoid being pulled under. The safety knife is stowed near the painter attachment for this purpose. Food and water are not issued in the first 24 hours.

20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You should FIRST

A. boat the sea anchor
B. paddle away from the fire
C. splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. get out of the raft and swim to safety

Answer: A — boat the sea anchor

The sea anchor holds the raft in place and slows its drift, but the raft must move away from the fire. The sea anchor must first be hauled in (boated) so the raft can be paddled clear upwind or across the wind.

21. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is

A. collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
B. asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
C. starvation
D. hypothermia caused by cold temperature

Answer: D — hypothermia caused by cold temperature

In cold climates, heat loss leading to hypothermia is the biggest threat to survivors. People can survive weeks without food, but exposure to cold air, wind and water can kill within hours, so keeping dry and insulated is the priority.

22. A liferaft shall be capable of withstanding exposure when afloat in all sea conditions for how many days?

A. 15
B. 45
C. 30
D. 35

Answer: C — 30

LSA Code 4.1.1.1 requires every liferaft to be constructed so that it is capable of withstanding exposure for 30 days afloat in all sea conditions.

23. Inflatable liferafts are required to be serviced at an approved servicing station

A. Once a year
B. Twice a year
C. Once in 5 years
D. Based on the condition of the liferaft

Answer: A — Once a year

SOLAS III/20.8 requires every inflatable liferaft, inflatable lifejacket and hydrostatic release unit (other than disposable types) to be serviced at intervals not exceeding 12 months at an approved servicing station; extension to 17 months is possible in special cases.

24. When wearing a lifejacket, what is the maximum safe height above the water that you can jump from?

A. 4.5 metres or 15 feet
B. 4 metres or 13 feet
C. 3 metres or 10 feet
D. 3.6 metres or 12 feet

Answer: A — 4.5 metres or 15 feet

The LSA Code requires a lifejacket to allow the wearer to jump into the water from a height of at least 4.5 m without injury and without dislodging or damaging the lifejacket. Jumping from greater heights risks injury.

25. How is the external flotation bladder of an immersion suit inflated?

A. By a small CO2 bottle that is automatically tripped when the front zipper reaches the top of its track
B. By a small CO2 bottle that is manually tripped
C. By blowing through an inflation tube
D. By sea water seeping into the bladder and reacting with a chemical in it

Answer: C — By blowing through an inflation tube

The supplementary flotation bladder fitted to many immersion suits is orally inflated by the wearer blowing through an inflation tube once in the water, providing additional buoyancy to keep the head clear of the water.

26. Red parachute flares are classed as

A. Flare technics
B. Pyrotechnics
C. Light technics
D. Fire technics

Answer: B — Pyrotechnics

Rocket parachute flares, hand flares and buoyant smoke signals are all pyrotechnic distress signals, which use a chemical composition that burns to produce light or smoke. They are required under SOLAS III and the LSA Code Chapter III.

27. Under the GMDSS, the satellite EPIRB is regarded as ____ of distress alerting from a ship.

A. the secondary means
B. the primary means
C. the only approved means
D. a means used only in port

Answer: A — the secondary means

In the GMDSS, the primary means of ship-to-shore distress alerting are DSC and ship earth stations. The float-free satellite EPIRB is the secondary means, giving an automatic alert if the ship sinks before a primary alert can be sent.

28. After abandoning a vessel, water consumed within the first 24 hours

A. will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the system
B. will help to prevent fatigue
C. will quench thirst for only two hours
D. helps to prevent seasickness

Answer: A — will pass through the body with very little being absorbed by the system

In the first 24 hours the body is still fully hydrated, so any water drunk is largely passed out as urine and wasted. Survival guidance is therefore to issue no water in the first 24 hours except to the injured.

29. A lifebuoy self-activating smoke signal burns for

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes

Answer: A — 15 minutes

LSA Code 2.1.3 requires a lifebuoy self-activating smoke signal to emit smoke of a highly visible colour at a uniform rate for not less than 15 minutes when floating in calm water.

30. Which signal would be used by a shore rescue unit by day to indicate "Landing here highly dangerous"?

A. Firing of a white star signal
B. Horizontal motion of a white flag
C. Vertical motion of a white flag
D. Code letter K by flashing light

Answer: B — Horizontal motion of a white flag

Under the SOLAS life-saving signals, landing here highly dangerous is indicated by day by horizontal motion of a white flag or arms extended horizontally, and by night by horizontal motion of a white light or flare. Vertical motion indicates the best place to land.

Set 9 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. A line-throwing appliance unit contains

A. 2 projectiles
B. 4 projectiles
C. 3 projectiles
D. 5 projectiles

Answer: B — 4 projectiles

LSA Code 7.1 requires every line-throwing appliance to include not less than four projectiles, each capable of carrying the line at least 230 m in calm weather, and not less than four lines with a breaking strength of not less than 2 kN.

2. The primary danger in helicopter fires is

A. burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas
B. heat damage to the helicopter structure
C. loss of stability
D. rotating and flying debris

Answer: A — burning jet fuel running on to quarters or other areas

A helicopter crash on deck releases large quantities of aviation fuel. Burning fuel can spread rapidly over the deck and run into accommodation and other spaces, which is why helidecks have drainage and foam systems to control it.

3. Which one of the listed routine tests and inspections of LSA is NOT required by the present regulations?

A. Lifeboat engine to be run for at least 3 minutes every week
B. Survival craft and rescue boats with launching appliances to be visually inspected weekly
C. Inspection of lifeboat equipment to be carried out monthly
D. General emergency alarm to be tested daily

Answer: D — General emergency alarm to be tested daily

SOLAS III/20.6 and 20.7 require weekly visual inspection of survival craft and launching appliances, weekly running of lifeboat engines for at least 3 minutes, weekly testing of the general emergency alarm, and monthly inspection of lifeboat equipment. A daily alarm test is not required.

4. Which statement is TRUE concerning lifejackets which are severely damaged?

A. They should be replaced
B. They must be tested for buoyancy before being continued in use
C. They can be repaired by a reliable seamstress
D. They can be used for children

Answer: A — They should be replaced

A severely damaged lifejacket can no longer be relied on to provide the buoyancy and face-up turning performance required by the LSA Code, so it must be taken out of service and replaced with an approved lifejacket.

5. Which one of the listed requirements regarding rescue boat equipment does not correspond to present regulations? The normal equipment of every rescue boat shall include:

A. Immersion suits for the number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate
B. A first-aid outfit in a watertight case
C. Two buoyant rescue quoits attached to not less than 30 m of buoyant line
D. An efficient radar reflector

Answer: A — Immersion suits for the number of persons the boat is permitted to accommodate

LSA Code 5.1.2.2 lists a first-aid outfit in a watertight case, two buoyant rescue quoits on at least 30 m of buoyant line and an efficient radar reflector. Thermal protective aids are required for 10% of the persons or two, whichever is greater, not immersion suits for everyone.

6. What should you do with your emergency position-indicating radio beacon (EPIRB) if you are in a liferaft during a storm?

A. Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on
B. Bring it inside the liferaft and turn it off until the storm passes
C. Leave it outside the liferaft and leave it on
D. Leave it outside the liferaft but turn it off

Answer: A — Bring it inside the liferaft and leave it on

In a storm the EPIRB should be secured inside the liferaft so it is not lost or damaged, and it must be kept transmitting continuously so that rescue coordination centres can locate the survivors as early as possible.

7. The drinking water provided in sealed packets in survival craft has a shelf life of:

A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Answer: D — 5 years

Emergency drinking water for lifeboats and liferafts is supplied in sealed, approved packets or cans with a typical shelf life of five years, after which it must be replaced. The expiry date is marked on each packet.

8. Which of the following is/are SOLAS requirements for hand flares?

A. Have a burning period of not less than 1 minute
B. Burn with a luminous intensity of not less than 15,000 cd
C. Continue to burn after having been immersed for 10 seconds under 100 mm of water
D. All of the above

Answer: D — All of the above

LSA Code 3.2 requires a hand flare to burn with a bright red colour at not less than 15,000 cd, for not less than 1 minute, and to continue burning after immersion for 10 seconds under 100 mm of water.

9. On a cargo ship fitted with a free-fall lifeboat, which statement about immersion suits is correct?

A. An immersion suit of an appropriate size must be provided for every person on board
B. Thermal protective aids may replace immersion suits for all persons on board
C. Immersion suits are required only for the rescue boat crew
D. No immersion suits are required because the boat is totally enclosed

Answer: A — An immersion suit of an appropriate size must be provided for every person on board

SOLAS III/32.3 requires an immersion suit of appropriate size for every person on board a cargo ship, regardless of the type of lifeboat fitted. Thermal protective aids are additional equipment carried in survival craft, not a substitute for immersion suits.

10. What is the primary purpose of survival craft on a ship?

A. Comfortable accommodation
B. Storage of supplies
C. Ensuring the safety of the crew when abandoning ship
D. Entertainment facilities

Answer: C — Ensuring the safety of the crew when abandoning ship

Survival craft such as lifeboats and liferafts are life-saving appliances required by SOLAS Chapter III to sustain the lives of persons in distress after they have abandoned the ship, until they are rescued.

11. In a lifeboat, what is the purpose of the painter?

A. To steer the lifeboat
B. To secure the lifeboat to the ship
C. To provide lighting
D. To signal for help

Answer: B — To secure the lifeboat to the ship

The painter is a rope at the bow used to hold the lifeboat alongside the ship during embarkation and after launching, until it is ready to cast off. LSA Code 4.4.8 requires painters to be fitted with a release device.

12. What is the purpose of a rescue boat on a ship?

A. Transporting cargo
B. Assisting in medical emergencies
C. Carrying passengers
D. Conducting search and rescue operations

Answer: D — Conducting search and rescue operations

SOLAS defines a rescue boat as a boat designed to rescue persons in distress and to marshal survival craft. It is used for man-overboard recovery and search and rescue, not for transporting cargo or passengers.

13. In cold-water survival, what is the recommended position for a person alone in the water to minimise heat loss?

A. Vertical position with arms by the sides
B. Lying flat on the back
C. Huddled fetal (HELP) position with knees drawn up to the chest
D. Treading water vigorously

Answer: C — Huddled fetal (HELP) position with knees drawn up to the chest

The Heat Escape Lessening Posture (HELP) protects the high heat-loss areas of the groin, armpits and chest by drawing the knees up and holding the arms close to the body. Vigorous movement increases heat loss and should be avoided.

14. What is the primary function of a hydrostatic release unit on a liferaft?

A. To inflate the liferaft automatically
B. To release the liferaft from the ship at a certain depth
C. To provide buoyancy to the liferaft
D. To transmit distress signals

Answer: B — To release the liferaft from the ship at a certain depth

The hydrostatic release unit frees the liferaft container automatically when the sinking ship reaches a depth of not more than 4 m (LSA Code 4.1.6). The raft then floats up and is inflated by the pull on the painter, not by the HRU itself.

15. What is the purpose of a drogue (sea anchor) in a lifeboat?

A. To stabilise the lifeboat and keep her head to sea in rough weather
B. To provide additional buoyancy
C. To act as a signalling device
D. To assist in steering the lifeboat at speed

Answer: A — To stabilise the lifeboat and keep her head to sea in rough weather

A drogue or sea anchor streamed from the bow creates drag that keeps the boat's head to the sea, reduces the risk of broaching and capsizing, and slows the rate of drift in heavy weather.

16. Which signal indicates distress and the need for immediate assistance?

A. Green flare
B. Orange smoke
C. Red parachute flare
D. White flashing light

Answer: C — Red parachute flare

A rocket parachute flare or hand flare showing a red light is one of the distress signals listed in COLREG Annex IV. Green and white lights have no distress meaning, and orange smoke alone is a daytime signal.

17. What should be checked before launching a lifeboat?

A. Availability of snacks
B. Operation of the engine
C. Temperature of the water
D. Crew members' passports

Answer: B — Operation of the engine

Before launching, the lifeboat engine should be started and checked, along with the plug, gripes, falls and release gear. A working engine allows the boat to clear the ship's side quickly once waterborne.

18. What is the purpose of a sea anchor in a liferaft?

A. To provide shade
B. To slow down the drift of the liferaft
C. To attract marine life for food
D. To inflate automatically in water

Answer: B — To slow down the drift of the liferaft

Survivors should stream the sea anchor soon after boarding to reduce drift and keep the raft close to the casualty position where searching will start. It also steadies the raft and reduces the risk of capsizing.

19. What is the purpose of a grab bag in a lifeboat?

A. It contains snacks for the crew
B. It provides entertainment during emergencies
C. It holds essential survival equipment
D. It acts as a flotation device

Answer: C — It holds essential survival equipment

A grab bag is a waterproof bag of additional essential items, such as signalling devices, a handheld VHF, medication and documents, which is kept ready to take into the survival craft when abandoning ship.

20. In a lifeboat, what is the primary function of a bailer?

A. To provide shelter
B. To remove water from the lifeboat
C. To transmit distress signals
D. To illuminate the surroundings

Answer: B — To remove water from the lifeboat

A buoyant bailer is part of the normal equipment of every lifeboat under LSA Code 4.4.8. It is used together with the manual bilge pump to remove water shipped into the boat.

21. How should a lifejacket be worn for maximum effectiveness?

A. Loosely tied around the waist
B. Worn snugly with all tapes and straps securely fastened
C. Tied to the ankle
D. Carried in the hand until entering the water

Answer: B — Worn snugly with all tapes and straps securely fastened

A lifejacket works only if it is worn correctly and fastened securely, so that it stays in place on entering the water and turns an unconscious wearer face-up. LSA Code 2.2.1 requires that it can be donned correctly within one minute.

22. What does the term 'free-fall lifeboat' refer to?

A. A lifeboat launched without any crew
B. A lifeboat that falls freely into the water from a height
C. A lifeboat with no propulsion system
D. A lifeboat designed for cargo storage

Answer: B — A lifeboat that falls freely into the water from a height

A free-fall lifeboat is released from an inclined ramp with its full complement on board and drops freely into the sea without falls or davits. LSA Code 4.7 sets the requirements for its construction and free-fall certification height.

23. What is the primary role of the ship's Master during a survival craft drill?

A. Observe from a distance
B. Coordinate the drill and ensure it is properly carried out
C. Remain in the cabin for safety
D. Assist in launching the lifeboats manually

Answer: B — Coordinate the drill and ensure it is properly carried out

The Master is in overall command in emergencies and is responsible under the ISM Code and SOLAS III/19 for making sure drills are carried out properly and realistically, and that any shortcomings are identified and corrected.

24. What is SOLAS (Safety of Life at Sea) in the context of survival craft?

A. A type of lifeboat
B. An international maritime safety treaty
C. A distress signal
D. A communication device

Answer: B — An international maritime safety treaty

SOLAS is the IMO International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea, 1974. Chapter III and the LSA Code set the requirements for survival craft, rescue boats and other life-saving appliances.

25. Which signal indicates a man overboard during daylight hours?

A. Red flare
B. Orange smoke
C. Continuous sounding of a whistle
D. Flag 'O'

Answer: D — Flag 'O'

In the International Code of Signals, flag 'O' (Oscar) means 'Man overboard'. A red flare and continuous sounding of a fog-signalling apparatus are distress signals under COLREG Annex IV.

26. In a rescue boat, what is the purpose of a heaving line?

A. To connect the boat to the ship
B. To be thrown to a person in the water for rescue
C. To secure cargo on the boat
D. To provide additional propulsion

Answer: B — To be thrown to a person in the water for rescue

A heaving line, or a buoyant rescue quoit on a line, is thrown to a person in the water so that they can be pulled alongside the rescue boat and recovered safely.

27. What does the term 'muster station' refer to on a ship?

A. A location for crew gatherings during social events
B. A designated location where crew members assemble during an emergency
C. A navigation point on a ship's route
D. A storage area for ship's supplies

Answer: B — A designated location where crew members assemble during an emergency

Muster stations are designated places where crew and passengers assemble when the alarm is sounded, before embarking in survival craft. SOLAS III/11 requires them to be close to the embarkation stations and adequately lit.

28. During a survival craft drill, what does the term 'embarkation' refer to?

A. The process of abandoning ship
B. Boarding the survival craft
C. Signalling for immediate rescue
D. Distributing lifejackets

Answer: B — Boarding the survival craft

Embarkation means boarding the survival craft at the embarkation station. Abandon ship drills under SOLAS III/19 include practising this step before the craft is lowered.

29. What is the primary function of a radar reflector on a liferaft?

A. To enhance communication signals
B. To attract marine life for food
C. To increase visibility on radar
D. To illuminate the surroundings at night

Answer: C — To increase visibility on radar

A radar reflector makes the small survival craft show up much better on a searching ship's radar. Liferaft equipment includes either a radar reflector or a SART for this purpose.

30. In a lifeboat, what is the purpose of the sea anchor and trip-line combination?

A. To allow faster travel on water
B. To secure the lifeboat to the ship
C. To slow down drift, with the trip-line used to recover the sea anchor
D. To attract attention from aircraft

Answer: C — To slow down drift, with the trip-line used to recover the sea anchor

The sea anchor reduces drift and keeps the boat head to sea. The trip-line is attached to its apex, so pulling it collapses the anchor and lets it be hauled back aboard easily when no longer needed.

Set 10 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. What does 'GMDSS' stand for in maritime communication?

A. Global Maritime Disaster Safety System
B. General Maritime Directional Signalling
C. Global Maritime Distress and Safety System
D. General Maritime Data Security System

Answer: C — Global Maritime Distress and Safety System

GMDSS is the Global Maritime Distress and Safety System, implemented through SOLAS Chapter IV. It uses satellite and terrestrial radio systems such as EPIRBs, SARTs, DSC and NAVTEX for alerting and maritime safety information.

2. What does the term 'PFD' stand for in the context of maritime safety?

A. Personal Flotation Device
B. Positive Flotation Device
C. Professional Flotation Device
D. Primary Floating Device

Answer: A — Personal Flotation Device

PFD stands for Personal Flotation Device, a general term for lifejackets and buoyancy aids worn by a person to keep them afloat in the water.

3. What is the primary function of an immersion (survival) suit for crew members in cold water?

A. To provide comfort during emergencies
B. To enhance visibility on the water
C. To minimise heat loss and provide buoyancy
D. To protect the wearer from chemical splashes on deck

Answer: C — To minimise heat loss and provide buoyancy

An immersion suit reduces loss of body heat in cold water. LSA Code 2.3 requires that, after one hour in water at 0 to 2°C, the wearer's body core temperature does not fall more than 2°C. It also provides buoyancy.

4. Before the winch brake is lifted to lower a lifeboat stowed on gravity davits, which of the following must first be done?

A. Open the hydrostatic interlock cover
B. Start the lifeboat engine and engage ahead gear
C. Remove the harbour safety pins and release the gripes
D. Release the painter from the ship

Answer: C — Remove the harbour safety pins and release the gripes

The harbour (davit) safety pins and the gripes hold the boat and davit arms in the stowed position; they must be removed and released before the brake is lifted, otherwise the davits cannot swing out and the gear may be damaged.

5. Where a choice exists, from which side of the ship should survival craft preferably be launched in bad weather?

A. The weather side
B. Whichever side is nearer the bow
C. The side away from the muster station
D. The lee side

Answer: D — The lee side

Launching on the lee side gives the craft shelter from wind and sea while it is lowered and released, reducing the risk of it being thrown against the ship's side. The ship's hull acts as a breakwater.

6. Survival craft and their launching arrangements must be capable of launching when the ship is making headway in calm water of up to

A. 2 knots
B. 5 knots
C. 12 knots
D. 8 knots

Answer: B — 5 knots

SOLAS Chapter III and the LSA Code require davit-launched survival craft and rescue boats to be capable of being launched with the ship making headway of up to 5 knots in calm water, as a ship may be unable to stop before abandonment.

7. On a cargo ship, all survival craft required for the total number of persons on board must be capable of being launched with their full complement within what time of the abandon-ship signal?

A. 45 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 3 minutes

Answer: C — 10 minutes

SOLAS regulation III/31 requires cargo ship survival craft for the total number of persons on board to be capable of being launched with their full complement of persons and equipment within 10 minutes from the time the abandon-ship signal is given.

8. On a passenger ship, survival craft must be capable of being launched with their full complement within what period after the abandon-ship signal?

A. 15 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 60 minutes

Answer: B — 30 minutes

SOLAS regulation III/21 requires all survival craft on a passenger ship to be capable of being launched with their full complement of persons and equipment within a period of 30 minutes from the time the abandon-ship signal is given.

9. Within what time must a cargo ship lifeboat be capable of being boarded by its full complement from the moment the instruction to board is given?

A. 10 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 1 minute

Answer: C — 3 minutes

LSA Code paragraph 4.4.3.1 requires every cargo ship lifeboat to be arranged so that it can be boarded by its full complement in not more than 3 minutes from the time the instruction to board is given.

10. Survival craft must be stowed in a state of continuous readiness so that preparations for embarkation and launching can be completed by two crew members in less than

A. 1 minute
B. 20 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 5 minutes

Answer: D — 5 minutes

SOLAS regulation III/13 requires each survival craft to be stowed in a state of continuous readiness so that two crew members can carry out preparations for embarkation and launching in less than 5 minutes.

11. According to SOLAS, survival craft should as far as practicable be stowed and launched clear of which hazards?

A. The cargo hatch coamings
B. The propeller and steeply overhanging portions of the hull
C. The accommodation ladder and pilot ladder
D. The bridge wings and funnel

Answer: B — The propeller and steeply overhanging portions of the hull

SOLAS Chapter III requires survival craft to be stowed and launched in positions giving safe launching, with particular regard to clearance from the propeller and steeply overhanging parts of the hull, so the craft can be lowered down the straight side.

12. How many embarkation ladders must be provided as a minimum for embarking into survival craft?

A. One on the side of the ship with the largest lifeboat
B. Only one, stowed amidships
C. At least one on each side of the ship
D. One for every survival craft carried

Answer: C — At least one on each side of the ship

SOLAS regulation III/11 requires at least one embarkation ladder, complying with the LSA Code, on each side of the ship, so that persons can reach survival craft or the water from the embarkation deck.

13. How must the muster and embarkation stations, and the area of water into which davit-launched survival craft are launched, be illuminated?

A. By portable torches issued to each crew member
B. By navigation lights only
C. By the lifeboat's own searchlight only
D. Adequately, by lighting supplied from the emergency source of electrical power

Answer: D — Adequately, by lighting supplied from the emergency source of electrical power

SOLAS regulation III/11 requires muster and embarkation stations, alongside areas and the water into which survival craft are launched to be adequately illuminated by lighting supplied from the emergency source of electrical power, so abandonment can proceed after main power failure.

14. Lifeboat falls on davit launching appliances must be made of

A. Stud-link chain
B. Rotation-resistant and corrosion-resistant steel wire rope
C. Polypropylene rope of at least 24 mm
D. Manila rope treated with preservative

Answer: B — Rotation-resistant and corrosion-resistant steel wire rope

The LSA Code requires falls, where used, to be of rotation-resistant and corrosion-resistant steel wire rope, giving the strength and reliability needed to lower a fully loaded craft without twisting the boat on its falls.

15. Where one winch drum serves two lifeboat falls, the falls must

A. Have the after fall slightly longer than the forward fall
B. Be lowered one after the other to keep the boat trimmed by the head
C. Be fitted with separate brakes operated by two persons
D. Pay out at the same rate when lowering and wind on evenly at the same rate when hoisting

Answer: D — Pay out at the same rate when lowering and wind on evenly at the same rate when hoisting

The LSA Code requires that where a winch drum is used for two or more falls, the falls pay out at the same rate when lowering and wind on evenly at the same rate when hoisting, keeping the boat level throughout.

16. Lowering of a davit-launched lifeboat to the water must NOT depend on

A. The release of the brake lever by the operator
B. The centrifugal governor brake
C. Any means other than gravity or stored mechanical power independent of the ship's power supply
D. The weight of the lifeboat itself

Answer: C — Any means other than gravity or stored mechanical power independent of the ship's power supply

The LSA Code requires the lowering of survival craft to be by gravity or stored mechanical power independent of ship's power supplies, so that craft can still be launched when the ship has lost all power.

17. The launching mechanism of a davit-launched survival craft must be arranged so that it can be actuated by

A. Two persons, both stationed at the winch
B. The coxswain only, from inside the craft
C. One person, from the ship's deck and from inside the survival craft
D. The Master only, from the bridge

Answer: C — One person, from the ship's deck and from inside the survival craft

The LSA Code requires the launching mechanism to be arranged so that it may be actuated by one person from a position on the ship's deck and also from a position within the survival craft, keeping the craft in view during lowering.

18. Regarding the hand gear provided for recovering a lifeboat, which requirement applies?

A. The hand gear may be used only when the boat is fully loaded
B. Hand gear is only required on free-fall launching appliances
C. The hand-gear handles must remain fitted to the winch at all times while lowering
D. The hand-gear handles must not be rotated by moving parts of the winch when the boat is lowered or hoisted by power

Answer: D — The hand-gear handles must not be rotated by moving parts of the winch when the boat is lowered or hoisted by power

The LSA Code requires efficient hand gear for recovery, with handles or wheels that are not rotated by moving parts of the winch when the craft is being lowered or hoisted by power, protecting the operator from a spinning handle.

19. During the weekly inspection required by SOLAS, lifeboats other than free-fall lifeboats should, if weather and sea conditions allow,

A. Be moved from their stowed position, without persons on board, to demonstrate satisfactory operation of the launching appliances
B. Be lowered into the water with the full crew and manoeuvred
C. Have their falls renewed
D. Be landed ashore for annual servicing

Answer: A — Be moved from their stowed position, without persons on board, to demonstrate satisfactory operation of the launching appliances

SOLAS regulation III/20 requires weekly that all lifeboats, except free-fall lifeboats, are moved from their stowed positions without any persons on board, to the extent necessary to demonstrate satisfactory operation of the launching appliances, if weather and sea conditions permit.

20. How often must life-saving appliances, including lifeboat equipment, be inspected using the checklist required by SOLAS, with a report entered in the log-book?

A. Monthly
B. Annually
C. Weekly
D. Every three months

Answer: A — Monthly

SOLAS regulation III/20 requires all life-saving appliances, including lifeboat equipment, to be inspected monthly using the checklist required by regulation III/36 to ensure they are complete and in good order, with a report of the inspection entered in the log-book.

21. During each abandon-ship drill, what must be done with the ship's lifeboats as a minimum?

A. Swing out the lifeboats but never lower them
B. Lower at least one lifeboat after any necessary preparation for launching
C. Lower every lifeboat into the water and release it
D. Launch only the rescue boat

Answer: B — Lower at least one lifeboat after any necessary preparation for launching

SOLAS regulation III/19 requires each abandon-ship drill to include, among other items, the lowering of at least one lifeboat after any necessary preparation for launching, and the starting and operating of the lifeboat engine.

22. SOLAS requires that, as far as practicable, the lifeboat lowered at each abandon-ship drill should be

A. Only the lifeboat on the lee side
B. A different lifeboat at successive drills
C. The lifeboat nearest the bridge
D. Always the same lifeboat so the crew become familiar with it

Answer: B — A different lifeboat at successive drills

SOLAS regulation III/19 requires that different lifeboats shall, as far as practicable, be lowered at successive drills, so that every lifeboat and its launching appliance is exercised and any defect is found.

23. To minimise risk to crew, how should a lifeboat normally be hoisted from embarkation deck level into the fully stowed position after a drill?

A. With all hatches open and the engine running
B. With the full crew seated and belted in
C. With only the coxswain at the release handle
D. Without persons on board, the crew having disembarked at the embarkation deck

Answer: D — Without persons on board, the crew having disembarked at the embarkation deck

IMO guidance on safety during lifeboat drills recommends that lifeboats be hoisted to the stowed position without persons on board unless necessary, so that a falls or hook failure during the final hoist does not endanger crew.

24. What is the primary reason for starting the lifeboat engine before the boat becomes waterborne during launching?

A. So the boat can be manoeuvred clear of the ship's side immediately after release
B. To warm the cabin for the occupants
C. To charge the battery before the boat is lowered
D. To test the water spray system

Answer: A — So the boat can be manoeuvred clear of the ship's side immediately after release

Having the engine running and ready before release allows the coxswain to drive the boat clear of the ship's side, swell and any hazards immediately after the falls are released, rather than drifting against the hull.

25. After a lifeboat has been released from its falls alongside a ship making headway, when should the painter be released?

A. Before the boat is lowered from the embarkation deck
B. When the engine is running and the boat is ready to steer away from the ship's side
C. Only after the ship has sunk
D. As soon as the boat starts to be lowered

Answer: B — When the engine is running and the boat is ready to steer away from the ship's side

The painter keeps the boat in position and under control alongside the moving ship after the falls are released; it is let go only when the boat has power and steerage and can sheer away safely from the ship's side.

26. Which precaution reduces the danger of a lifeboat being swamped during lowering and launching?

A. Keeping the drain plug removed during lowering
B. Lowering with all hatches open
C. Lowering with the engine stopped
D. Ensuring that discharges of water from the ship cannot fall onto the craft

Answer: D — Ensuring that discharges of water from the ship cannot fall onto the craft

SOLAS Chapter III requires means to prevent any discharge of water onto survival craft during abandonment; overboard discharges falling into the craft could flood or swamp it while it is being lowered or released.

27. When lowering an enclosed lifeboat with persons on board, the occupants should

A. Gather at the forward end to trim the boat by the head
B. Be seated with seat belts fastened and hands and limbs kept inside the boat
C. Sit on the canopy roof to keep a lookout
D. Stand at the hatches to fend off the ship's side

Answer: B — Be seated with seat belts fastened and hands and limbs kept inside the boat

Occupants of an enclosed lifeboat should be seated and strapped in with limbs inside, because the boat may swing, strike the ship's side or drop on a wave, and unsecured persons are liable to injury.

28. When recovering a lifeboat in a swell, the hooks should be connected

A. Only after the engine has been stopped and the boat allowed to drift
B. When the boat is on the crest of a swell, and the boat hoisted clear promptly to avoid snatch loads
C. When the boat is in the trough, with the falls kept tight
D. At any time, as wave motion does not affect the falls

Answer: B — When the boat is on the crest of a swell, and the boat hoisted clear promptly to avoid snatch loads

Connecting at the crest when the falls are slack, then hoisting the boat clear promptly, avoids the boat dropping into a trough and putting severe shock loads on the falls, hooks and davit structure.

29. Before a lifeboat that has been recovered is hoisted from the water, the coxswain must confirm that

A. The bilge has been filled for stability
B. The engine has been shut down and the fuel drained
C. The painter has been cast off
D. The on-load release hooks are correctly reset and locked, with indicators showing reset

Answer: D — The on-load release hooks are correctly reset and locked, with indicators showing reset

Incorrect resetting of on-load release hooks has caused many fatal accidents; the hooks must be confirmed fully reset and locked, using the manufacturer's indicators, before any load is taken by the falls.

30. When marshalling liferafts after abandonment, a lifeboat or rescue boat should

A. Gather the liferafts and connect them so they can be towed and kept together
B. Leave the liferafts to drift independently to cover a wider area
C. Cut the liferafts' sea anchors free and puncture spare liferafts
D. Tow the liferafts at maximum engine speed away from the position

Answer: A — Gather the liferafts and connect them so they can be towed and kept together

Powered craft should collect and secure liferafts together, towing them where necessary; a group of craft is easier to detect, survivors and equipment can be shared, and the group stays near the distress position.

Set 11 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. In rough weather, when should a lifeboat on gravity davits normally be lowered to the water from the embarkation position?

A. Steadily and continuously, so that it is released on the crest of a wave
B. In short stages, stopping frequently above the waves
C. Slowly at first and then free-fall the last few metres
D. Only when the ship is beam-on to the sea

Answer: A — Steadily and continuously, so that it is released on the crest of a wave

In a seaway, a steady continuous descent with the hooks released as a crest lifts the boat avoids the craft hanging and swinging against the hull, or being dropped into a trough with the falls still attached.

2. For how long must a lifeboat engine be capable of operating out of the water after starting from cold with the lifeboat in the stowed position?

A. Not less than 1 hour
B. Not less than 30 seconds
C. Not less than 24 hours
D. Not less than 5 minutes

Answer: D — Not less than 5 minutes

The LSA Code requires the engine and starting arrangements to be capable of operating for not less than 5 minutes after starting from cold with the lifeboat out of the water, so the engine can be started and tested before launching.

3. Which type of engine must be fitted to a SOLAS lifeboat?

A. A petrol (spark-ignition) outboard engine
B. A compression-ignition (diesel) engine
C. A gas-turbine engine
D. An electric motor run from the ship's mains

Answer: B — A compression-ignition (diesel) engine

LSA Code paragraph 4.4.6.1 requires every lifeboat to be powered by a compression-ignition engine and prohibits the use of any engine whose fuel has a flashpoint of 43 degrees C or less.

4. An engine must NOT be used in any lifeboat if its fuel has a closed-cup flashpoint of

A. 100 degrees C or more
B. 60 degrees C or more
C. 80 degrees C or more
D. 43 degrees C or less

Answer: D — 43 degrees C or less

LSA Code paragraph 4.4.6.1 states that no engine shall be used for any lifeboat if its fuel has a flashpoint of 43 degrees C or less (closed cup test), to reduce the risk of fire in the confined boat.

5. A lifeboat engine fitted with a power starting system must have

A. Two independent rechargeable energy sources
B. A starting system supplied from the ship's main switchboard only
C. One sealed non-rechargeable battery
D. A compressed-air bottle charged from the engine room

Answer: A — Two independent rechargeable energy sources

The LSA Code requires the engine to be provided with either a manual starting system or a power starting system with two independent rechargeable energy sources, so that failure of one source does not prevent starting.

6. The lifeboat engine must remain capable of operating when the lifeboat is flooded up to

A. The underside of the engine bed
B. The level of the engine cylinder heads
C. The centreline of the crankshaft
D. The thwarts

Answer: C — The centreline of the crankshaft

The LSA Code requires the engine and its accessories to be capable of operating with the lifeboat flooded up to the centreline of the crankshaft, so propulsion is maintained even after water has entered the boat.

7. Lifeboat engine-starting, radio and searchlight batteries may be recharged from the ship's power supply at a voltage not exceeding

A. 110 V
B. 440 V
C. 50 V
D. 220 V

Answer: C — 50 V

The LSA Code requires means for recharging lifeboat batteries from the ship's power supply at a supply voltage not exceeding 50 V, disconnectable at the embarkation station, or by a solar battery charger.

8. What type of portable fire-extinguishing equipment must be provided in a motor lifeboat?

A. A water fire bucket only
B. A fire hose connected to the bilge pump
C. Equipment of an approved type suitable for extinguishing oil fires
D. A fixed CO2 flooding system

Answer: C — Equipment of an approved type suitable for extinguishing oil fires

The LSA Code requires every motor lifeboat to carry portable fire-extinguishing equipment of an approved type suitable for extinguishing oil fires, because the main fire risk in the boat is from engine fuel and lubricating oil.

9. In a lifeboat suspended from two falls, the release mechanism must be designed so that

A. The forward hook releases first
B. Each hook is released by a separate person
C. Both hooks are released simultaneously
D. The after hook releases first

Answer: C — Both hooks are released simultaneously

LSA Code paragraph 4.4.7.6 requires the release mechanism to release all hooks simultaneously; releasing one hook before the other would leave the boat hanging by one end and could throw the occupants into the sea.

10. What is the purpose of a fall preventer device (FPD) fitted to a lifeboat's on-load release hooks?

A. To provide an alternative load path that prevents the boat falling if the hooks open accidentally during drills or maintenance
B. To release the hooks automatically when the boat is waterborne
C. To slow the lowering speed of the lifeboat
D. To prevent the falls from unwinding off the winch drum

Answer: A — To provide an alternative load path that prevents the boat falling if the hooks open accidentally during drills or maintenance

IMO guidance (MSC.1/Circ.1327) introduced fall preventer devices as an interim measure to secure the lifeboat independently of the hook if the on-load release opens unintentionally, protecting crew during drills and maintenance.

11. Under SOLAS III/20 and resolution MSC.402(96), what operational test must be carried out on lifeboat on-load release gear at least once every five years?

A. A test with the lifeboat empty and the falls slack
B. A visual inspection only, with the boat in the stowed position
C. An overload test at 2.5 times the safe working load
D. An operational test under a load of 1.1 times the total mass of the lifeboat with full complement and equipment

Answer: D — An operational test under a load of 1.1 times the total mass of the lifeboat with full complement and equipment

SOLAS III/20.11 requires the on-load release gear to be thoroughly examined annually and, at least every five years, operationally tested under a load of 1.1 times the total mass of the lifeboat when loaded with its full complement and equipment.

12. What is the minimum carrying capacity required of a rescue boat under the LSA Code?

A. Five seated persons and a person lying on a stretcher
B. Three seated persons
C. Ten seated persons and two stretchers
D. Six persons standing

Answer: A — Five seated persons and a person lying on a stretcher

LSA Code chapter V requires rescue boats to be capable of carrying at least five seated persons and a person lying on a stretcher, enough to carry its crew and recover a casualty who needs to be kept horizontal.

13. A rescue boat must be capable of manoeuvring at speeds of up to 6 knots and maintaining that speed for at least

A. 4 hours
B. 1 hour
C. 24 hours
D. 30 minutes

Answer: A — 4 hours

The LSA Code requires rescue boats to be capable of manoeuvring at speeds up to 6 knots and maintaining that speed for a period of at least 4 hours, giving enough endurance for search and recovery work.

14. At what minimum speed must a rescue boat be able to tow the largest liferaft carried on the ship, loaded with its full complement and equipment?

A. 2 knots
B. 4 knots
C. 1 knot
D. 6 knots

Answer: A — 2 knots

The LSA Code requires every rescue boat to have sufficient mobility and manoeuvrability to tow the largest liferaft carried on the ship, loaded with its full complement and equipment or the equivalent, at a speed of at least 2 knots.

15. The recovery time of a rescue boat loaded with its full complement and equipment must not exceed

A. 30 minutes in rough seas
B. 2 minutes in any conditions
C. 5 minutes in moderate sea conditions
D. 15 minutes in calm water

Answer: C — 5 minutes in moderate sea conditions

SOLAS regulation III/17 requires the rescue boat recovery time to be not more than 5 minutes in moderate sea conditions when the boat is loaded with its full complement of persons and equipment.

16. Under SOLAS III/19, how often should rescue boats, wherever reasonable and practicable, be launched with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water?

A. Once a year at the safety equipment survey
B. Once every six months
C. Each month, and in any case at least once every three months
D. Once a week

Answer: C — Each month, and in any case at least once every three months

SOLAS regulation III/19 requires rescue boats, other than lifeboats that are also rescue boats, wherever reasonable and practicable to be launched each month with their assigned crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water, and in any case at least once every three months.

17. Under what condition may a petrol-driven outboard engine be fitted to a rescue boat?

A. Only if the boat carries a fixed CO2 system
B. Petrol engines are never permitted in rescue boats
C. The fuel tanks must be specially protected against fire and explosion
D. Only if the boat is never used in drills

Answer: C — The fuel tanks must be specially protected against fire and explosion

The LSA Code allows rescue boats to be fitted with an inboard engine or an outboard motor, and permits petrol-driven outboard engines with an approved fuel system provided the fuel tanks are specially protected against fire and explosion.

18. Inflated rescue boats must be stowed

A. Fully inflated at all times
B. Partly inflated to reduce stress on the fabric
C. Inflated only in tropical waters
D. Deflated in a valise and inflated only before launching

Answer: A — Fully inflated at all times

The LSA Code requires inflated rescue boats to be maintained at all times in a fully inflated condition, so that they are ready to launch immediately without any inflation delay.

19. What is the purpose of the kill-cord (emergency stop lanyard) on a rescue boat outboard engine?

A. To lift the engine when beaching
B. To start the engine in cold weather
C. To connect the fuel tank to the engine
D. To stop the engine automatically if the helmsman is thrown from the steering position

Answer: D — To stop the engine automatically if the helmsman is thrown from the steering position

The kill-cord is attached to the helmsman; if he is thrown overboard or away from the controls, the cord pulls out and stops the engine, preventing a runaway boat and propeller injuries to persons in the water.

20. Before starting a rescue boat outboard engine, the gear lever should be placed in

A. Neutral
B. Full ahead
C. Any position, as the propeller is disconnected
D. Astern

Answer: A — Neutral

Starting in neutral prevents the boat moving off unexpectedly and protects persons near the propeller; most outboards have a start-in-gear protection which prevents starting unless neutral is selected.

21. After starting an outboard engine, a steady stream of water from the tell-tale outlet indicates that

A. The engine is running in astern gear
B. Cooling water is circulating through the engine
C. The bilge is being pumped out
D. The fuel tank is full

Answer: B — Cooling water is circulating through the engine

Outboard engines are cooled by sea water drawn in by an impeller pump; the tell-tale jet shows water is circulating. No jet means the engine must be stopped to prevent overheating and impeller damage.

22. Why should an outboard engine not be run for long out of the water?

A. The water pump impeller and engine will be damaged by lack of cooling water
B. The propeller will over-speed and shear the drive pin
C. The fuel will freeze in the carburettor
D. The battery will discharge completely

Answer: A — The water pump impeller and engine will be damaged by lack of cooling water

The water pump impeller is lubricated and cooled by the water it pumps; running out of water destroys the impeller quickly and the engine then overheats. Tests out of water use a flushing device supplying water.

23. Before starting a rescue boat outboard engine with a separate portable tank, what must be checked on the fuel tank?

A. That the tank air vent is open and the fuel line is primed
B. That the tank contains only lubricating oil
C. That the tank is completely sealed with the vent closed
D. That the tank is disconnected from the engine

Answer: A — That the tank air vent is open and the fuel line is primed

With the vent closed a vacuum forms as fuel is drawn off and the engine stops; the vent must be open and the fuel line primed, usually by squeezing the primer bulb until firm, before starting.

24. When approaching a beach or shallow water in a rescue boat fitted with an outboard engine, the engine should be

A. Removed from the transom before approaching
B. Left fully down with the kill-cord removed
C. Run at full speed to drive the boat onto the beach
D. Tilted up to protect the propeller and lower unit from grounding

Answer: D — Tilted up to protect the propeller and lower unit from grounding

Tilting the outboard as the water shoals protects the propeller, skeg and gearcase from striking the bottom, while keeping enough immersion for the cooling water intake until the boat is clear.

25. When launching a rescue boat from a ship making headway, how should the painter be rigged?

A. Secured to the after end of the boat and led aft
B. Not rigged, as it would capsize the boat
C. Held in the hand of the bowman only
D. Led well forward and secured on the ship so the boat rides alongside under control after release

Answer: D — Led well forward and secured on the ship so the boat rides alongside under control after release

A painter led forward allows the released boat to tow alongside under control on the ship's way; the coxswain can then start, sheer away and release the painter once the boat is running, rather than being swept aft.

26. The Williamson turn as a man-overboard manoeuvre is most useful because it

A. Keeps the person in the water on the weather side throughout
B. Brings the ship back onto its original track on a reciprocal course, even when the person was lost some time earlier
C. Requires no change of rudder
D. Is the fastest manoeuvre to stop the ship

Answer: B — Brings the ship back onto its original track on a reciprocal course, even when the person was lost some time earlier

The Williamson turn returns the ship to its original track on a reciprocal heading, making it suited to night, poor visibility or delayed reports where the person is not in sight, though it is slower than a single turn.

27. In a search and rescue operation, who is designated to coordinate search and rescue operations within a specified area at the scene?

A. The master of the vessel in distress
B. The coxswain of the first rescue boat to arrive
C. The Rescue Coordination Centre's duty radio operator
D. The On-Scene Coordinator (OSC)

Answer: D — The On-Scene Coordinator (OSC)

Under the IAMSAR Manual, the SAR Mission Coordinator designates an On-Scene Coordinator to coordinate the search and rescue facilities at the scene; often this is the master of the first suitable ship to arrive.

28. As a rescue boat comes alongside a person in the water, the coxswain should

A. Keep the engine in gear at full speed
B. Steer the boat directly over the person
C. Approach stern-first with the engine racing
D. Stop or disengage the propeller when close to the person

Answer: D — Stop or disengage the propeller when close to the person

The propeller is a serious hazard to a person in the water; the boat should approach slowly, and the propeller is disengaged or the engine stopped when close enough for the crew to reach and recover the casualty.

29. In a man-overboard situation from a ship, which action should be taken immediately by the person who sees the casualty fall?

A. Go to the bridge to report personally before doing anything else
B. Launch the rescue boat alone
C. Jump in to assist the person
D. Raise the alarm, throw a lifebuoy and keep the person in sight while pointing at them

Answer: D — Raise the alarm, throw a lifebuoy and keep the person in sight while pointing at them

The first observer must raise the alarm, throw a lifebuoy (preferably with light and smoke signal) and continuously watch and point at the casualty; losing sight of a person in the water is a major cause of failed recovery.

30. When a rescue boat is towing a liferaft and slack occurs in the towline in a seaway, the coxswain should

A. Shorten the line to less than 5 m
B. Increase to full speed to keep the line taut
C. Cut the towline and leave the raft
D. Adjust speed and towline length to keep the line from snatching

Answer: D — Adjust speed and towline length to keep the line from snatching

Snatching of the towline in a seaway can damage the raft's towing patch or capsize it; speed and towline length should be adjusted, usually lengthening the line in heavier seas, so both craft ride in step.

Set 12 — 30 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. According to current resuscitation guidelines, at what rate should chest compressions be given to an adult?

A. 100 to 120 compressions per minute
B. 30 compressions per minute
C. 140 to 160 compressions per minute
D. 60 to 80 compressions per minute

Answer: A — 100 to 120 compressions per minute

Current ILCOR, ERC and AHA guidelines recommend chest compressions at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute, pushing hard and fast on the centre of the chest and allowing full recoil between compressions.

2. To what depth should the chest of an adult be compressed during CPR?

A. 5 to 6 cm
B. 1 to 2 cm
C. Just enough to feel resistance
D. 8 to 10 cm

Answer: A — 5 to 6 cm

Current resuscitation guidelines recommend an adult compression depth of at least 5 cm but not more than 6 cm, with full chest recoil after each compression to allow the heart to refill.

3. What is the ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for single-rescuer adult CPR?

A. 15 compressions to 2 breaths
B. 5 compressions to 1 breath
C. 30 compressions to 2 breaths
D. 50 compressions to 5 breaths

Answer: C — 30 compressions to 2 breaths

Current guidelines for adult basic life support use a ratio of 30 chest compressions to 2 rescue breaths, minimising interruptions to compressions; rescuers unable or unwilling to give breaths should give continuous compressions.

4. For an unresponsive drowning casualty who is not breathing normally, how should resuscitation start?

A. With 5 initial rescue breaths, then CPR at 30:2
B. With back blows to clear water from the lungs
C. With 30 compressions only, and no breaths
D. With abdominal thrusts to remove swallowed water

Answer: A — With 5 initial rescue breaths, then CPR at 30:2

Because drowning causes cardiac arrest through lack of oxygen, European Resuscitation Council guidance is to give 5 initial rescue breaths before starting chest compressions at 30:2. Attempts to drain water from the lungs only waste time.

5. When checking whether an unresponsive adult (who is not hypothermic) is breathing normally, the rescuer should look, listen and feel for no more than

A. 3 minutes
B. 10 seconds
C. 1 minute
D. 2 seconds

Answer: B — 10 seconds

Basic life support guidelines limit the breathing check to no more than 10 seconds; if breathing is absent or not normal, assume cardiac arrest, call for help and begin CPR without delay.

6. An unconscious casualty who is breathing normally and has no suspected spinal injury should be placed

A. Flat on the back with the head raised on a pillow
B. Face down with arms by the sides
C. In the recovery position
D. Sitting upright

Answer: C — In the recovery position

The recovery position keeps the airway open and allows fluid or vomit to drain from the mouth, while the casualty is monitored to confirm breathing continues.

7. Which airway-opening technique is used for an unconscious casualty without a suspected neck injury?

A. Placing a pillow under the head
B. Head tilt and chin lift
C. Pulling the tongue forward with the fingers
D. Raising the legs above the head

Answer: B — Head tilt and chin lift

Tilting the head back and lifting the chin lifts the tongue from the back of the throat and opens the airway; this is the standard technique taught for lay rescuers in basic life support.

8. Hypothermia is defined as a fall in body core temperature below

A. 32 degrees C
B. 37 degrees C
C. 28 degrees C
D. 35 degrees C

Answer: D — 35 degrees C

Normal core temperature is about 37 degrees C; hypothermia is a core temperature below 35 degrees C. Below about 32 degrees C it becomes moderate to severe with loss of shivering and reduced consciousness.

9. Why should alcohol never be given to a survivor suffering from cold?

A. It raises the core temperature too quickly
B. It dilates surface blood vessels and increases heat loss from the body core
C. It freezes in cold conditions
D. It causes the survivor to shiver more violently

Answer: B — It dilates surface blood vessels and increases heat loss from the body core

Alcohol causes peripheral vasodilation, sending warm blood to the skin where heat is lost, and impairs judgement; it therefore worsens hypothermia even though the person may feel warmer.

10. What is meant by 'after-drop' in a hypothermic casualty?

A. A drop in body temperature caused by drinking warm fluids
B. A continued fall in core temperature after rescue as cold blood from the limbs returns to the core
C. A fall in blood sugar after eating
D. The sudden fall into the water when abandoning ship

Answer: B — A continued fall in core temperature after rescue as cold blood from the limbs returns to the core

After-drop is a further fall in core temperature after removal from the water, as cold blood from the extremities returns to the core. Gentle handling and keeping the casualty horizontal help reduce its effect.

11. In a casualty with severe hypothermia, which sign usually indicates a dangerous fall in core temperature?

A. Shivering stops while the person is still cold
B. Shivering becomes more violent
C. The pulse becomes fast and strong
D. The skin becomes pink and warm

Answer: A — Shivering stops while the person is still cold

Shivering is the body's main heat-production response and usually ceases in severe hypothermia, around 32 degrees C or below; a cold person who stops shivering is deteriorating, not improving.

12. How should frostbitten fingers or toes be treated in a survival craft?

A. Hold them close to an engine exhaust
B. Warm gently, for example against the body, and never rub them
C. Massage hard with oil
D. Rub vigorously with snow or a cloth

Answer: B — Warm gently, for example against the body, and never rub them

Frostbitten tissue is easily damaged; it should be rewarmed gently, such as by placing hands in the armpits, and must never be rubbed. Rewarming should not be started if there is a risk of re-freezing.

13. How can survivors in a survival craft help prevent immersion foot?

A. Keep the feet permanently in the bilge water to stay cool
B. Keep the feet as dry as possible, exercise the toes and avoid tight footwear
C. Wrap the feet tightly with bandages
D. Remove all footwear and socks and leave the feet exposed

Answer: B — Keep the feet as dry as possible, exercise the toes and avoid tight footwear

Immersion foot results from prolonged cold and wet with reduced circulation; keeping feet dry, loosening tight footwear and regularly moving the toes and feet to maintain circulation reduces the risk.

14. What is the recommended first aid for a burn?

A. Burst any blisters and apply cotton wool
B. Wrap tightly in a dry bandage immediately without cooling
C. Cool the burn under cool running water for about 20 minutes
D. Apply butter or oil to the burn

Answer: C — Cool the burn under cool running water for about 20 minutes

Current first-aid guidance is to cool the burn with cool running water for about 20 minutes as soon as possible, then cover loosely with a clean non-fluffy dressing or cling film; blisters are not burst.

15. What is the first action to control severe external bleeding from a wound?

A. Apply a tourniquet around the neck
B. Wash the wound with sea water
C. Apply firm direct pressure on the wound
D. Give the casualty water to drink

Answer: C — Apply firm direct pressure on the wound

Firm direct pressure on the wound, using a dressing or pad, is the first and most effective method of controlling external bleeding. A tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening limb bleeding that direct pressure cannot control.

16. A survivor shows signs of shock (pale, cold, clammy skin and rapid weak pulse). The first aider should

A. Make the casualty walk about to improve circulation
B. Lay the casualty down, raise the legs if no injury prevents it, and keep them warm
C. Sit the casualty upright and give salt water
D. Give the casualty alcohol to drink

Answer: B — Lay the casualty down, raise the legs if no injury prevents it, and keep them warm

For shock, the casualty is laid down, legs raised where injuries allow, to help blood return to vital organs, kept warm and reassured, and monitored closely while medical advice is sought.

17. What is the recommended first aid for a conscious adult who is choking and cannot cough effectively?

A. Lay the casualty flat and start chest compressions
B. Give the casualty water to drink
C. Give rescue breaths immediately
D. Up to 5 back blows followed by up to 5 abdominal thrusts, repeated

Answer: D — Up to 5 back blows followed by up to 5 abdominal thrusts, repeated

For severe airway obstruction in a conscious adult, current guidelines advise up to five back blows between the shoulder blades, then up to five abdominal thrusts, repeating the cycle; start CPR if the casualty becomes unresponsive.

18. What is the Neil Robertson stretcher especially designed for?

A. Treating hypothermia by warming
B. Carrying a casualty in deep water as a flotation device
C. Lifting or lowering a casualty vertically through narrow spaces and hatches
D. Splinting a single fractured finger

Answer: C — Lifting or lowering a casualty vertically through narrow spaces and hatches

The Neil Robertson stretcher wraps and secures the casualty firmly so that he can be hoisted or lowered vertically through narrow hatches, tanks and engine spaces, and transferred between deck levels.

19. How must the first-aid outfit in a survival craft be packed?

A. In a waterproof case capable of being tightly closed after use
B. In a cardboard box stowed under the thwarts
C. Loose in the equipment locker
D. In a sealed tin that can only be opened once

Answer: A — In a waterproof case capable of being tightly closed after use

The LSA Code requires survival craft first-aid outfits to be in a waterproof case capable of being closed tightly after use, so the remaining contents stay dry and usable throughout the survival period.

20. In a hypothermic casualty who is unresponsive, how long may the rescuer take to look for signs of life before starting CPR?

A. No more than 2 seconds
B. 10 minutes
C. Up to 1 minute
D. At least 5 minutes

Answer: C — Up to 1 minute

Breathing and pulse may be very slow and difficult to detect in severe hypothermia; resuscitation guidelines allow up to one minute to check for signs of life before deciding to start CPR.

21. How should a fracture of the leg be managed in a survival craft before evacuation?

A. Make the casualty walk to keep the joint mobile
B. Straighten the bone forcefully to its normal position
C. Leave the limb free so it can move with the boat
D. Immobilise the limb in a comfortable position using splints or by securing it to the other leg

Answer: D — Immobilise the limb in a comfortable position using splints or by securing it to the other leg

Fractures should be immobilised to prevent further injury and pain, using improvised splints or bandaging the injured leg to the sound leg, checking circulation beyond the bandages regularly.

22. When giving rescue breaths during CPR, each breath should

A. Last at least 5 seconds
B. Be given over about 1 second, making the chest visibly rise
C. Be given only through the nose with the mouth open
D. Be forced in as hard as possible

Answer: B — Be given over about 1 second, making the chest visibly rise

Each rescue breath should take about one second and be just enough to make the chest rise visibly; excessive force inflates the stomach, causing regurgitation, and delays restarting compressions.

23. Where a ship is fitted with davit-launched liferafts, on-board training in their use must take place at intervals not exceeding

A. 1 month
B. 4 months
C. 12 months
D. 5 years

Answer: B — 4 months

SOLAS regulation III/19 requires on-board training in the use of davit-launched liferafts at intervals not exceeding four months, including, whenever practicable, the inflation and lowering of a liferaft, which may be a special training liferaft.

24. A special liferaft used only for davit-launched liferaft training on board must be

A. Clearly marked and not counted as part of the ship's life-saving appliances
B. Stowed with the ship's HRU-fitted liferafts
C. Painted white with no markings
D. Serviced only once every five years

Answer: A — Clearly marked and not counted as part of the ship's life-saving appliances

SOLAS regulation III/19 permits training using a special liferaft intended for training only, which is not part of the ship's life-saving appliances; such a liferaft must be conspicuously marked so it is not mistaken for an operational raft.

25. Within what time must an inflatable liferaft be fully inflated at an ambient temperature of 18 to 20 degrees C?

A. 30 seconds
B. 5 minutes
C. 3 minutes
D. 1 minute

Answer: D — 1 minute

The LSA Code requires the inflatable liferaft to inflate within a period of 1 minute at an ambient temperature between 18 degrees C and 20 degrees C, and within 3 minutes at minus 30 degrees C.

26. In very cold conditions the gas pressure in a liferaft cylinder is reduced. What maximum inflation time does the LSA Code allow for an inflatable liferaft at minus 30 degrees C?

A. 1 minute
B. 3 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Answer: B — 3 minutes

The LSA Code requires inflatable liferafts to inflate within 3 minutes at an ambient temperature of minus 30 degrees C; low temperature reduces the gas pressure, so inflation takes longer than the 1 minute required at 18 to 20 degrees C.

27. A liferaft and its equipment must be capable of operating satisfactorily after being dropped into the water from a height of at least

A. 10 metres
B. 4.5 metres
C. 18 metres
D. 30 metres

Answer: C — 18 metres

The LSA Code requires every liferaft to be constructed to withstand being dropped into the water from a height of 18 m; if stowed higher than 18 m it must be of a type that has been satisfactorily drop-tested from at least that height.

28. The total mass of a throw-overboard liferaft, its container and equipment must not normally exceed

A. 500 kg
B. 85 kg
C. 185 kg
D. 300 kg

Answer: C — 185 kg

The LSA Code limits the total mass of the liferaft, its container and equipment to 185 kg, unless it is launched by an approved launching appliance or is not required to be portable, so that it can be manhandled overboard.

29. What is the minimum length of the painter of a throw-overboard inflatable liferaft?

A. Equal to the ship's freeboard at summer load draught
B. 10 m plus the distance from the stowed position to the waterline in the lightest seagoing condition, or 15 m, whichever is greater
C. 5 m in all cases
D. 30 m in all cases

Answer: B — 10 m plus the distance from the stowed position to the waterline in the lightest seagoing condition, or 15 m, whichever is greater

The LSA Code requires the painter of a throw-overboard liferaft to have a length of not less than 10 m plus the distance from the stowed position to the waterline in the lightest seagoing condition, or 15 m, whichever is greater.

30. Before throwing a liferaft container overboard, the person launching it must first check that

A. The canopy has been erected on deck
B. The container bands have been cut off
C. The painter is secured to a strong point on the ship and the water below is clear
D. The gas cylinder valve has been opened by hand

Answer: C — The painter is secured to a strong point on the ship and the water below is clear

If the painter is not secured the raft will drift away when it inflates; checking the water is clear of persons and obstructions prevents the container striking survivors or debris below.

Set 13 — 29 PSCRB exit exam questions with answers

1. After a throw-overboard liferaft container has landed in the water, how is inflation normally started?

A. Open the CO2 bottle valve by hand from the deck
B. Wait for the hydrostatic release unit to operate
C. Hit the container with a boat hook
D. Pull the painter out to its full length and give it a firm tug

Answer: D — Pull the painter out to its full length and give it a firm tug

The painter also acts as the firing line for the gas cylinder; once all the slack has been pulled out, a sharp tug operates the cylinder valve and the raft inflates and bursts out of its container.

2. How is the automatic release hook of a davit-launched liferaft designed to operate?

A. Once primed during lowering, it releases the liferaft automatically when the raft becomes waterborne
B. It requires a person in the water to open it
C. It releases only when the hydrostatic unit reaches 4 m depth
D. It releases the liferaft as soon as it is lifted off the deck

Answer: A — Once primed during lowering, it releases the liferaft automatically when the raft becomes waterborne

The LSA Code requires davit-launched liferaft launching appliances to have an automatic release hook that, once set or primed during lowering, frees the raft when it is waterborne and the load is removed from the hook.

3. During boarding of a davit-launched liferaft at the embarkation deck, the inflated liferaft is held against the ship's side by

A. The weak link
B. The hydrostatic release unit
C. Bowsing or retaining lines
D. The sea anchor

Answer: C — Bowsing or retaining lines

Bowsing or retaining lines hold the inflated davit-launched raft steady alongside the embarkation deck while persons board; they are released before the loaded raft is lowered to the water.

4. What is the preferred method of boarding a liferaft when abandoning ship?

A. Jumping from the deck into the water and swimming to the raft
B. Jumping onto the canopy from the deck
C. Diving under the raft and entering from below
D. Boarding directly from the ship, dry-shod, using an embarkation ladder, chute or davit

Answer: D — Boarding directly from the ship, dry-shod, using an embarkation ladder, chute or davit

Boarding dry from the ship keeps survivors out of cold water, reducing cold shock and heat loss; jumping into the water or onto the raft is only a last resort and should be from as low a height as possible.

5. Liferaft entrances which are not fitted with a boarding ramp must have a boarding ladder with its lowest step situated not less than

A. 1 m above the buoyancy tube
B. 0.4 m below the light waterline of the liferaft
C. Level with the floor of the liferaft
D. 0.1 m above the light waterline

Answer: B — 0.4 m below the light waterline of the liferaft

The LSA Code requires that entrances not provided with a boarding ramp have a boarding ladder, the lowest step of which is not less than 0.4 m below the liferaft's light waterline, so a person in the water can climb in.

6. What is the purpose of the semi-rigid boarding ramp fitted to at least one entrance of an inflatable liferaft?

A. To act as a paddle in calm water
B. To collect rain water
C. To enable persons to board the liferaft from the sea
D. To hold the sea anchor

Answer: C — To enable persons to board the liferaft from the sea

The LSA Code requires at least one entrance to be fitted with a semi-rigid boarding ramp capable of supporting a person, enabling survivors in the water to climb or be pulled into the liferaft.

7. When helping an exhausted person from the water into a liferaft, the person already aboard should

A. Wait for the person to climb in unaided
B. Grip the person by the shoulders of the lifejacket and lean back to pull them in
C. Pull the person in by the hair
D. Pull the person in by the arms using the wrists only

Answer: B — Grip the person by the shoulders of the lifejacket and lean back to pull them in

Gripping the lifejacket shoulders gives a secure hold, and leaning or falling back uses body weight to drag the person over the buoyancy tube; kneeling at the entrance keeps the helper balanced and inside the raft.

8. When several survivors are in the water near a liferaft, who should normally board first?

A. The strongest and fittest person, who can then help the others in
B. Nobody until the raft has been righted twice
C. The weakest person, who should be left to board alone
D. The person furthest from the raft

Answer: A — The strongest and fittest person, who can then help the others in

A fit person boarding first can assist the weaker and injured survivors over the buoyancy tube and up the ramp; injured or exhausted survivors may be unable to board unaided.

9. An inflatable liferaft that inflates upside down must be capable of being righted by

A. A rescue boat towing it over
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. One person in the water
D. At least three persons standing on the raft

Answer: C — One person in the water

The LSA Code requires the liferaft to be constructed so that, if it inflates in an inverted position, it can readily be righted by one person in the water, using the righting straps on the underside.

10. When righting an inverted liferaft, the person in the water should position himself

A. At the gas cylinder end, so that the wind helps to turn the raft over
B. At the end opposite the gas cylinder, facing into the wind
C. Under the raft, pushing it upwards
D. On the canopy, pulling the boarding ladder

Answer: A — At the gas cylinder end, so that the wind helps to turn the raft over

Righting is done from the side where the gas cylinder is fitted, standing on the cylinder and pulling the righting straps, with the raft positioned so the wind helps it over. The cylinder weight then assists the turn.

11. If the righted liferaft falls on top of the person who righted it, that person should

A. Cut a hole in the floor to escape
B. Stay calm and work his way out from under the raft, keeping a hand on the raft
C. Remove the lifejacket to dive under the buoyancy tube
D. Swim straight down to escape

Answer: B — Stay calm and work his way out from under the raft, keeping a hand on the raft

There is an air space under the raft and the lifejacket keeps the person at the surface; he should move out to the side, keeping contact with the raft, then board through an entrance.

12. Which danger must be avoided when liferafts are launched on a ship with a heavy list?

A. Launching with the painter secured
B. Launching while wearing a lifejacket
C. Launching on the low side, which is always unsafe
D. Launching on the high side, where the raft may hang against or snag on the ship's hull

Answer: D — Launching on the high side, where the raft may hang against or snag on the ship's hull

On the high side the raft or its container may strike, snag or hang against the exposed hull and bilge as it falls, risking damage. Launching from the low side generally gives a clear fall to the water.

13. Before touching the rescue hoist hook or strop lowered from a helicopter, what must be done?

A. Secure it to a fixed point on the deck
B. Hold it tightly as soon as it is within reach
C. Wrap it around a guardrail to steady it
D. Allow it to touch the deck or water first to discharge static electricity

Answer: D — Allow it to touch the deck or water first to discharge static electricity

A helicopter builds up a large static charge which can give a severe shock; the hoist hook, strop or line should be allowed to earth on the deck or water before it is handled.

14. During a helicopter winching operation, the hoist cable or hook must never be

A. Guided by a crew member wearing gloves
B. Secured to any part of the ship or survival craft
C. Handled by the helicopter winchman
D. Earthed on the deck

Answer: B — Secured to any part of the ship or survival craft

If the cable were made fast and the ship or craft moved or the helicopter drifted, the helicopter could be pulled down or the cable broken; the hook must only ever be attached to the person or load being lifted.

15. How should a survivor wear a helicopter rescue strop?

A. Held in the hands only
B. Around the legs in a sitting position
C. Around the waist with arms raised above the head
D. Over the head and shoulders, under the armpits, padded part across the back, with the toggle pulled down and arms kept down

Answer: D — Over the head and shoulders, under the armpits, padded part across the back, with the toggle pulled down and arms kept down

The strop goes over the head and under the armpits with the padded part across the back and the toggle pulled down to the chest; the survivor keeps arms down at the sides because raising them could allow him to slip out.

16. What is the purpose of the 'hi-line' sometimes used in helicopter rescue?

A. A line used to secure the helicopter to the ship
B. A line used to mark the landing area
C. A line used to tow the liferaft away from the helicopter
D. A weighted line lowered first so that crew on deck can guide the hoist cable without securing it

Answer: D — A weighted line lowered first so that crew on deck can guide the hoist cable without securing it

The hi-line is a weak, weighted line lowered ahead of the hoist; deck crew pull it in to guide the hook down to the deck without the helicopter hovering directly overhead. It must never be made fast to the ship.

17. Before a helicopter arrives to winch persons from a survival craft or deck, what preparation should be made?

A. Light flares on the deck
B. Open all hatches to show the helicopter where people are
C. Secure or remove all loose objects that could be blown about by the rotor downwash
D. Raise all radio aerials and masts

Answer: C — Secure or remove all loose objects that could be blown about by the rotor downwash

Rotor downwash is very strong; loose objects, canopy items and gear can be blown into the rotors or injure people. Masts and aerials that could foul the hoist should be lowered where possible.

18. While being hoisted into a helicopter, the survivor should

A. Climb the hoist cable
B. Reach out and grab the helicopter door frame
C. Raise the arms to signal he is ready
D. Keep arms down and let the winchman or helicopter crew bring him on board

Answer: D — Keep arms down and let the winchman or helicopter crew bring him on board

The helicopter crew will turn and pull the survivor into the cabin; grabbing the airframe or raising the arms can cause the survivor to slip out of the strop or upset the helicopter's control.

19. Why should a survival craft be driven clear of the ship's side as soon as possible after launching?

A. To avoid being detected by other survival craft
B. To begin sailing towards the nearest land immediately
C. To save fuel for later use
D. To avoid being struck by the ship, debris, falling objects or drawn down if the ship sinks or capsizes

Answer: D — To avoid being struck by the ship, debris, falling objects or drawn down if the ship sinks or capsizes

Close to the ship the craft can be crushed against the hull, hit by falling debris, endangered by fire or swamped as the ship sinks or rolls; once clear, craft should stay in the vicinity where searchers will look.

20. If there is burning oil on the water when survival craft are cleared from the ship, they should head

A. Downwind, to clear the area quickly
B. Upwind, away from the fire
C. Parallel to the fire on the lee side
D. Into the burning area to reach survivors faster

Answer: B — Upwind, away from the fire

Burning oil drifts and spreads downwind; heading to windward moves the craft away from the fire and smoke. Fire-protected lifeboats with water spray and air supply are designed to pass through a fire only when there is no other choice.

21. Once clear of the ship, why should survival craft be gathered together and secured to each other?

A. A group of craft is easier to detect and allows survivors and equipment to be shared
B. It allows the craft to be abandoned one by one
C. It increases the speed of drift towards land
D. It reduces the need to stream sea anchors

Answer: A — A group of craft is easier to detect and allows survivors and equipment to be shared

Marshalling survival craft together makes a larger target for searching ships and aircraft, keeps survivors in contact, and allows lifeboats or rescue boats to share equipment and redistribute persons between craft.

22. After clearing the ship's side, which task should the person in charge of a survival craft carry out as soon as possible?

A. Search for and recover survivors in the water
B. Switch off all locating devices to save batteries
C. Issue the first water ration
D. Set course for the nearest port

Answer: A — Search for and recover survivors in the water

Persons in the water are in the greatest danger from cold and drowning; once clear, the craft should search for and pick up survivors before settling into survival routines and streaming the sea anchor.

23. When clear of the ship, what should be done to reduce drift and stay near the distress position?

A. Run the engine at full speed downwind
B. Stream the sea anchor
C. Throw the ballast overboard
D. Hoist a sail

Answer: B — Stream the sea anchor

The search will start from the reported distress position, so craft should remain nearby; streaming the sea anchor reduces drift and keeps the craft head to sea, improving stability.

24. Once clear of the ship, the person in charge should check the survival craft for

A. Fuel for an outboard engine in a liferaft
B. The ship's cargo documents
C. Damage, leaks and water in the bilge, and that the drain plug is in place
D. The navigation lights of the ship

Answer: C — Damage, leaks and water in the bilge, and that the drain plug is in place

Early checks for damage, leaks and water ingress, including that the drain plug is fitted and bailers or pumps are used, ensure the craft stays seaworthy and buoyant during the survival period.

25. What is the main danger to a person during the first few minutes of sudden immersion in cold water?

A. Frostbite of the fingers
B. Cold shock, causing gasping and uncontrolled breathing that can lead to drowning
C. Hypothermia, which sets in immediately
D. Dehydration

Answer: B — Cold shock, causing gasping and uncontrolled breathing that can lead to drowning

Cold shock causes an involuntary gasp and hyperventilation in the first minutes of immersion, which can lead to inhaling water and drowning. Hypothermia takes much longer to develop, especially with a lifejacket and clothing.

26. When jumping into the water from a height wearing a lifejacket, a person should

A. Remove the lifejacket and throw it in first
B. Hold the lifejacket down with one hand, cover the nose and mouth with the other, and jump feet first
C. Jump backwards with arms outstretched
D. Dive head first with arms extended

Answer: B — Hold the lifejacket down with one hand, cover the nose and mouth with the other, and jump feet first

Holding the lifejacket down prevents it riding up and injuring the neck or chin; covering nose and mouth avoids inhaling water, and jumping feet first with legs together reduces injury. Look below first to avoid hitting anything.

27. When in the water after abandoning ship, survivors should avoid unnecessary swimming because it

A. Increases the rate of body heat loss
B. Causes the lifejacket light to go out
C. Attracts rescuers to the wrong position
D. Reduces the lifejacket's buoyancy

Answer: A — Increases the rate of body heat loss

Swimming moves cold water past the body and pumps blood to the limbs, greatly increasing heat loss. Survivors should keep still in the HELP or huddle position unless swimming to a nearby craft or clear of danger.

28. Why should survivors keep their clothing on when entering the water?

A. It is required by the muster list
B. Clothing increases the lifejacket's buoyancy
C. Clothing prevents seasickness
D. Clothing traps a layer of water and air that reduces heat loss

Answer: D — Clothing traps a layer of water and air that reduces heat loss

Several layers of clothing, including head covering, trap water and air near the body and slow heat loss considerably. Extra warm clothing should be put on before abandoning ship if time permits.

29. Several survivors are in the water wearing lifejackets. Which position helps reduce heat loss and makes them easier to see?

A. Swimming in a line towards the horizon
B. The huddle, with survivors holding each other closely in a group
C. Treading water with arms raised
D. Floating separately spread out over a large area

Answer: B — The huddle, with survivors holding each other closely in a group

In the huddle, survivors press the sides of their chests together and intertwine legs, reducing heat loss and keeping morale up; a group is also a larger, more visible target for rescuers.

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PSCRB exit exam questions and answers — Proficiency in Survival Craft and Rescue Boats

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