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MEK exit exam questions and answers — Set 6 — Marine Engineering Knowledge

Set 6 of the Marine Engineering Knowledge (MEK) exit exam bank — 30 of 298 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 6 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. A fire alarm in the engineroom is activated

  • A. due to fire in the engine room
  • B. due to a black out
  • C. from the bridge
  • D. automatically on machinery failure
Answer: A — due to fire in the engine room
A fire alarm in the engine room is specifically triggered by fire detection sensors (heat or smoke) identifying an active fire, requiring immediate emergency response protocols.

2. On hearing a CO2 alarm in the engine room, your first action will be

  • A. use large fire extinguisher on the fire
  • B. raise fire alarm
  • C. report to the duty officer on watch
  • D. use emergency exit to get out
Answer: D — use emergency exit to get out
A CO2 fire extinguishing system releases asphyxiating gas into the engine room space. Therefore, the immediate priority upon hearing the warning alarm is to evacuate via the emergency exit to avoid suffocation.

3. A machinery failure alarm in the engine room is activated

  • A. automatically on machinery failure
  • B. due to collision of the ship
  • C. due to fire in the engine room
  • D. from the bridge
Answer: A — automatically on machinery failure
Machinery failure alarms are designed to alert engineers to faults in running equipment (e.g., low lube oil pressure or high jacket water temperature). These are generated automatically by monitoring systems.

4. A general alarm is activated

  • A. from the bridge
  • B. automatically on machinery failure
  • C. due to black out
  • D. due to high bilge level
Answer: A — from the bridge
The General Alarm (GA) is the highest-level emergency signal on a ship. It is manually activated from the bridge by the master or duty officer to alert all personnel of an emergency situation requiring mustering.

5. UMS stands for

  • A. Under Machinery Space Operation
  • B. Uniform Machinery Space Operation
  • C. Unattended Machinery Space Operation
  • D. Undermanned Machinery Space Operation
Answer: C — Unattended Machinery Space Operation
UMS refers to Unattended Machinery Space operations, where the engine room is not manned by engineers on a watch-keeping basis, relying instead on comprehensive alarm and monitoring systems.

6. Which of the following is NOT an audio visual alram

  • A. Fire Alarm
  • B. Ship security alarm
  • C. Co2 Alarm
  • D. Machinery Alarm
Answer: B — Ship security alarm
The Ship Security Alarm (SSAS) is a covert, silent alarm system used to alert authorities of piracy or security threats, intentionally excluding audible or visual indicators to protect the crew.

7. Emergencies that can occur in the Engine room

  • A. Flooding of the engine room
  • B. All of the above
  • C. Crank case explosion
  • D. Stoppage of Main engine
Answer: B — All of the above
Crankcase explosions, main engine failure, and flooding are all critical operational emergencies requiring immediate intervention to maintain ship safety and environmental compliance.

8. Fixed fire fighting system for engine room

  • A. DCP
  • B. inert gas
  • C. nitrogen
  • D. CO2
Answer: D — CO2
Fixed CO2 systems are the industry standard for engine room fire suppression due to the gas’s ability to reach inaccessible areas and effectively smother Class B and C fires without leaving residues.

9. Not a part of a fire triangle

  • A. air
  • B. electricity
  • C. heat
  • D. fuel
Answer: B — electricity
The fire triangle consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. Electricity is an energy source that may ignite fuel but is not an element of the triangle itself.

10. Main fire pump is located

  • A. at the fire station
  • B. in the steering flat
  • C. in the engine room
  • D. on main deck
Answer: C — in the engine room
Under SOLAS regulations, the main fire pumps must be located within the machinery space to be readily available for engine room firefighting, distinct from the emergency fire pump.

11. To fight an electric fire you would use

  • A. steam jet
  • B. water spray
  • C. dry powder
  • D. special foam
Answer: C — dry powder
Dry powder is an electrical non-conductor and is the preferred medium for Class C electrical fires to suppress flames without damaging equipment or risking electrocution to the operator.

12. Means of forcing water out of a portable extinguisher

  • A. nitrogen cartridge
  • B. CO2 cartridge
  • C. air cartridge
  • D. chemical cartridge
Answer: B — CO2 cartridge
Most portable fire extinguishers on board use a pressurized gas cartridge, such as CO2, to expel the contents from the canister onto the fire source.

13. High expansion foam system is suitable for fighting fires in

  • A. cargo holds
  • B. engine room
  • C. accommodation
  • D. deck of ship
Answer: B — engine room
High expansion foam systems are specifically designed to fill large, confined volumes like engine rooms, effectively displacing oxygen and cooling surfaces to extinguish major fires.

14. Which of the following provided for connecting to shore water supply

  • A. fixed foam system
  • B. international shore connection
  • C. fire hydrant
  • D. foam tank
Answer: B — international shore connection
The International Shore Connection (ISC) is a standardized flange required by MARPOL/SOLAS regulations to allow port authorities to connect their shore water supply to the ship's fire main.

15. The emergency fire pump on a ship is located

  • A. at the boat deck
  • B. at the poop deck
  • C. inside the engine room
  • D. outside the engine room
Answer: D — outside the engine room
The emergency fire pump is specifically located outside the engine room to ensure that, in the event of a total engine room fire, a firefighting water supply remains available.

16. Fire hose on ship are made of

  • A. thick cloth
  • B. flexible teel
  • C. strong canvas
  • D. leather
Answer: C — strong canvas
Fire hoses used on ships must be flexible and durable; they are constructed from high-strength canvas or synthetic fabric to withstand high pressure and environmental wear.

17. What is used in case the fire in the engine room becomes out of control

  • A. portable fire extinguisher
  • B. fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
  • C. fire pumps and hoses
  • D. 45 liters foam fire extinguisher
Answer: B — fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system
Fixed CO2 fire extinguishing systems are designed for total flooding of the engine room when a fire is beyond the capacity of portable equipment or localized firefighting systems.

18. Which one of the following will be used first on a small fire in the engine room

  • A. fire blancket
  • B. fire pumps and hoses
  • C. portable fire extinguisher
  • D. fixed fire extinguishing system
Answer: C — portable fire extinguisher
Portable fire extinguishers are the initial line of defense for small, localized fires, allowing for immediate action before a fire can propagate across the engine room.

19. Full form of PASS....Mark the correct one

  • A. Push, Automatic, Sweep, Squeeze
  • B. Pull, Aim, Smoke,
  • C. Pull, Aim, Sponge, Sweep
  • D. Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
Answer: D — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
PASS is the universal acronym for operating a portable fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

20. Following is not a part of Fire detection system

  • A. Heat Detector
  • B. Body Detector
  • C. Smoke Detector
  • D. Flame Detector
Answer: B — Body Detector
Fire detection systems utilize sensors for heat, smoke, and flame. A 'body detector' is not a component of maritime fire detection equipment.

21. Which Instrument is used for testing Insulation

  • A. Jagger
  • B. Driver
  • C. Megger
  • D. Drager
Answer: C — Megger
A Megger (megohmmeter) is the standard electrical test instrument used to measure the insulation resistance of electrical cables and windings.

22. Before starting maintenance on any equipment, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one

  • A. Remove the safety guards
  • B. Put a warning notice on the Mains switch
  • C. Switch on the main supply
  • D. Switch off the machine
Answer: C — Switch on the main supply
Switching on the main supply during maintenance is dangerous and violates all LOTO (Lock-Out, Tag-Out) safety protocols, which strictly mandate isolation of power to prevent accidental energization.

23. Before re-starting a machine, following precautions to be taken...Mark the incorrect one

  • A. Replace the safety guard after starting the machine
  • B. Check that no tools have been left on or near the machine
  • C. Remove any warning notices
  • D. Restore the power supply
Answer: A — Replace the safety guard after starting the machine
Safety guards must be reinstalled and secured before starting any machine. Running machinery without guards exposes personnel to rotating parts and creates a severe safety hazard.

24. Dry full contact body resistance is about ______ ohms at 250V

  • A. 2000
  • B. 4000
  • C. 3000
  • D. 5000
Answer: A — 2000
The average electrical resistance of the human body when dry is approximately 2000 ohms. This value decreases significantly if the skin is wet, increasing the risk of fatal shock.

25. What is the minimum value of shock current (AC) which can be fatal

  • A. 35 mA
  • B. 20 mA
  • C. 15mA
  • D. 25 mA
Answer: C — 15mA
Current as low as 15mA can cause involuntary muscle contraction and interfere with cardiac function, making it a threshold for potentially fatal electric shock.

26. Under STCW standards for Marine Engineering Knowledge, how often must refresher training or evidence of competence be demonstrated?

  • A. Every 10 years
  • B. Every 2 years
  • C. Every 5 years
  • D. Annually
Answer: C — Every 5 years
STCW 2010 Manila Amendments require seafarers to demonstrate continued competence every 5 years.

27. What primary safety objective is governed by the Marine Engineering Knowledge module on board ship?

  • A. Minimizing port dues
  • B. Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
  • C. Automating engine control
  • D. Optimizing fuel consumption
Answer: B — Enhancing shipboard safety and emergency readiness
The core objective of STCW safety modules is protecting human life and vessel integrity.

28. What documented safety check must be performed before starting operations related to Marine Engineering Knowledge?

  • A. Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
  • B. Verbal request to port authority
  • C. Bridge sign-off without briefing
  • D. Engine logbook entry only
Answer: A — Risk assessment and toolbox meeting
Toolbox briefings and risk assessments ensure all personnel understand operational hazards.

29. What personal protective equipment (PPE) is mandatory during Marine Engineering Knowledge practical tasks?

  • A. Basic cotton coveralls only
  • B. Standard street clothes with safety boots
  • C. High-visibility vest only
  • D. Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Answer: D — Approved PPE meeting IMO/SOLAS standards
Appropriate certified PPE protects personnel against specific task hazards.

30. Which international convention mandates compliance for Marine Engineering Knowledge operational procedures?

  • A. STCW Convention as amended
  • B. Tonnage Convention 1969
  • C. COLREGs 1972
  • D. Load Line Convention 1966
Answer: A — STCW Convention as amended
STCW governs training, certification, and watchkeeping standards worldwide.

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