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MEK exit exam questions and answers — Set 7 — Marine Engineering Knowledge

Set 7 of the Marine Engineering Knowledge (MEK) exit exam bank — 30 of 298 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 7 — 30 MEK exit exam questions with answers

1. In case of an emergency scenario during Marine Engineering Knowledge operations, what is the immediate first step?

  • A. Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
  • B. Log the event in diary
  • C. Evacuate vessel immediately without alert
  • D. Attempt to fix without informing others
Answer: A — Raise the alarm and notify Officer of the Watch / Duty Engineer
Promptly raising the alarm activates emergency response teams and master protocol.

2. What document contains emergency procedures and duties for crew members regarding Marine Engineering Knowledge?

  • A. Cargo Manifest
  • B. Muster List and Emergency Instructions
  • C. Oil Record Book Part I
  • D. Garbage Record Book
Answer: B — Muster List and Emergency Instructions
The Muster List specifies assigned duties and station locations for every crew member.

3. What key responsibility rests with seafarers participating in Marine Engineering Knowledge drills?

  • A. Observing without participating
  • B. Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
  • C. Bypassing safety gear for speed
  • D. Signing attendance without attending
Answer: B — Active participation and compliance with safety protocols
Realistic drill practice ensures effective performance during actual emergencies.

4. What log entry is required following completion of Marine Engineering Knowledge drills on board?

  • A. Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
  • B. No log entry required
  • C. Verbal update to port agent
  • D. Personal diary note
Answer: A — Official Deck / Engine Logbook entry recording date, drill type, and duration
SOLAS and flag state regulations require formal logbook documentation of all drills.

5. What is your first action upon finding a fire?

  • A. Use a portable extinguisher
  • B. Attempt to locate the source of the fire alone
  • C. Raise the alarm
  • D. Switch off the electrical power supply
Answer: C — Raise the alarm
Raising the alarm immediately alerts the bridge and crew so that the fire party can muster and boundary cooling, ventilation shut-down and other measures begin. Attempting to fight the fire alone first delays the response and can leave the person trapped.

6. Which statement about falling objects in the engine room is correct?

  • A. Falling tools and objects are a common cause of injury, so safety helmets must be worn
  • B. Accidents from falling objects cannot happen in the engine room
  • C. Safety helmets are only required on deck
  • D. Tools may be left on gratings above working areas
Answer: A — Falling tools and objects are a common cause of injury, so safety helmets must be worn
Tools, parts and equipment dropped from gratings, ladders or lifting gear are a frequent cause of engine room injuries. Wearing safety helmets, securing tools and keeping gratings clear are basic precautions in the Code of Safe Working Practices.

7. How does the CO2 release alarm differ from the general emergency alarm?

  • A. It is a separate, distinct alarm in the protected space warning personnel to evacuate before CO2 is released
  • B. It is the same as the general alarm
  • C. It is sounded only after the CO2 has been released
  • D. It is a visual signal on the bridge only
Answer: A — It is a separate, distinct alarm in the protected space warning personnel to evacuate before CO2 is released
The FSS Code requires an automatic audible and visual alarm, distinct from all other alarms, warning of the release of fixed CO2 into a space so personnel can evacuate first. The general emergency alarm is seven or more short blasts followed by one long blast.

8. Woollen garments, blankets and quilts are examples of ____ materials.

  • A. Conducting
  • B. Insulating
  • C. Magnetic
  • D. Semiconducting
Answer: B — Insulating
Wool, blankets and quilts trap still air within their fibres, which greatly reduces the transfer of heat, so they act as thermal insulators. This is why woollen clothing and blankets are used to keep casualties and survivors warm.

9. When working with insulating material such as glass wool, you should:

  • A. Wear gloves, goggles, a dust mask and coveralls
  • B. Avoid gloves so as to handle the material better
  • C. Work without goggles as the fibres are harmless
  • D. Shake out the material to remove loose fibres
Answer: A — Wear gloves, goggles, a dust mask and coveralls
Glass wool fibres irritate the skin, eyes and respiratory tract. Personal protective equipment including gloves, goggles, a dust mask and long-sleeved coveralls should be worn, and the material handled gently to minimise airborne fibres.

10. Lagging is insulating material wrapped around pipes, boilers or tanks to:

  • A. Reduce loss of heat
  • B. Increase loss of heat
  • C. Increase the pipe's electrical conductivity
  • D. Allow corrosion inspection without removal
Answer: A — Reduce loss of heat
Lagging insulates hot surfaces such as steam pipes, boilers and tanks, reducing heat loss and improving efficiency. It also protects personnel from burns and keeps hot surfaces below the ignition temperature of oil that may leak onto them.

11. Insulating (lagging) material used in machinery and accommodation spaces should generally be:

  • A. Non-combustible (fire resistant)
  • B. Combustible and oil-absorbent
  • C. Electrically conductive
  • D. Water-soluble
Answer: A — Non-combustible (fire resistant)
SOLAS Chapter II-2 requires insulating materials to be non-combustible, except in certain cargo and refrigerated spaces. Lagging that is oil-soaked or damaged should be replaced, as oil-saturated insulation can ignite on hot surfaces.

12. Which statement about ship thrusters is correct?

  • A. A bow thruster is fitted at the forward end and a stern thruster at the aft end
  • B. A bow thruster is fitted at the aft end
  • C. A stern thruster is fitted at the forward end
  • D. Both thrusters are always fitted amidships
Answer: A — A bow thruster is fitted at the forward end and a stern thruster at the aft end
Transverse thrusters are named after their position: the bow thruster is fitted in a tunnel near the forward end and the stern thruster near the aft end. They push the bow or stern sideways for manoeuvring at low speed, such as when berthing.

13. Why should you not wash your hands with machine coolant (cutting fluid)?

  • A. It can cause skin irritation, dermatitis and infection
  • B. It is too expensive to waste
  • C. It makes the hands too slippery to hold tools
  • D. It removes the protective paint on machines
Answer: A — It can cause skin irritation, dermatitis and infection
Cutting fluids contain oils, additives and bacteria that irritate the skin and can cause dermatitis and infections. Hands should be washed with soap and water, and barrier creams or gloves used when handling coolants on lathes and other machines.

14. The function of an electrode dryer (oven) is to:

  • A. Keep electrodes dry by removing moisture absorbed from a humid atmosphere
  • B. Wet the electrodes before use
  • C. Cool the electrodes after welding
  • D. Sharpen the electrode tips
Answer: A — Keep electrodes dry by removing moisture absorbed from a humid atmosphere
Welding electrodes, especially low-hydrogen types, absorb moisture from humid air, which causes porosity and hydrogen cracking in welds. An electrode drying oven bakes and keeps them dry until use.

15. In welding, spats are worn to protect the:

  • A. Ankles and feet from molten metal and spatter
  • B. Eyes from ultraviolet radiation
  • C. Hands from electric shock
  • D. Lungs from welding fumes
Answer: A — Ankles and feet from molten metal and spatter
Spats are leather covers worn over the boot tops and ankles so that molten metal, sparks and spatter cannot fall into the boots and cause burns. Eyes are protected by filter lenses and lungs by ventilation or respirators.

16. Which type of engine has a piston rod between the piston and the connecting rod?

  • A. Crosshead type engine
  • B. Trunk piston type engine
  • C. Rotary engine
  • D. Gas turbine
Answer: A — Crosshead type engine
In a crosshead engine the piston is connected by a piston rod to the crosshead, which carries the side thrust, and the connecting rod links the crosshead to the crankshaft. Trunk piston engines have no piston rod; the connecting rod is attached directly to the piston by the gudgeon pin.

17. A turbo alternator on board ship is driven by:

  • A. Steam produced in an exhaust gas boiler using waste heat from the main engine exhaust
  • B. The main engine shaft through a gearbox
  • C. A separate auxiliary diesel engine
  • D. The ship's batteries through an inverter
Answer: A — Steam produced in an exhaust gas boiler using waste heat from the main engine exhaust
A turbo alternator (turbo generator) is a generator driven by a steam turbine, with steam raised in an exhaust gas economiser or boiler from main engine exhaust waste heat. A generator driven from the propeller shaft is a shaft generator.

18. A die is used to:

  • A. Cut external threads on a pipe or rod
  • B. Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole
  • C. Enlarge a drilled hole to an accurate size
  • D. Mark centres before drilling
Answer: A — Cut external threads on a pipe or rod
A die, held in a die stock, cuts external threads on round bar, bolts or pipe ends. Internal threads are cut with a tap, holes are finished to size with a reamer, and centres are marked with a centre punch.

19. A tap is used to:

  • A. Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole
  • B. Cut external threads on a pipe or rod
  • C. Remove burrs from the edge of a sheet
  • D. Measure the pitch of a thread
Answer: A — Cut internal threads inside a drilled hole
A tap, turned with a tap wrench, cuts internal threads in a hole drilled to the correct tapping size. Taps are used in sets (taper, intermediate and plug) to form full threads progressively; external threads are cut with a die.

20. The usual watchkeeping system adopted for engine ratings on a seagoing ship is:

  • A. Twelve hours on and twelve hours off
  • B. Six hours on and six hours off
  • C. Four hours on and eight hours off
  • D. Eight hours on and four hours off
Answer: C — Four hours on and eight hours off
The GP Rating syllabus (Appendix 1D, 4.1.6) states that the system of watches normally adopted on board is four hours on and eight hours off, giving three watches in 24 hours, while a 6-hour cycle may be used in port or on offshore vessels.

21. On offshore support vessels, the watch cycle normally adopted at all times is:

  • A. Four-hour watches
  • B. Two-hour watches
  • C. Eight-hour watches
  • D. Six-hour watches
Answer: D — Six-hour watches
According to the GP Rating syllabus on engine room watchkeeping, offshore support vessels normally follow a 6-hour watch cycle at all times, whereas ordinary seagoing ships use the four-on, eight-off system at sea.

22. A rating forming part of an engine-room watch works under the general direction of:

  • A. The officer of the navigational watch
  • B. The engineer officer in charge of the watch
  • C. The chief cook
  • D. The bosun
Answer: B — The engineer officer in charge of the watch
Under STCW A-III/4 and the syllabus, engine room ratings assist in the safe and efficient operation of propulsion and auxiliary machinery under the general direction of the engineer officer in charge of the watch (EOW), to whom they report.

23. At the start of an engine room watch, a rating should report to the engineer officer of the watch any machinery that is:

  • A. Fitted with a nameplate
  • B. Running normally within its parameters
  • C. Not functioning properly or expected to malfunction
  • D. Freshly painted
Answer: C — Not functioning properly or expected to malfunction
The syllabus summary of watchkeeping tasks requires that at the commencement of the watch the current operating parameters and condition of all machinery are checked, and any machinery not functioning properly, expected to malfunction or needing special service is reported to the EOW.

24. The fresh water generator on board produces fresh water by:

  • A. Melting ice from the refrigeration plant
  • B. Evaporating sea water under vacuum and condensing the vapour
  • C. Filtering sea water through sand beds
  • D. Chemically treating bilge water
Answer: B — Evaporating sea water under vacuum and condensing the vapour
A fresh water generator boils sea water at low temperature under vacuum, usually using heat from the main engine jacket cooling water, and the vapour is condensed to produce distilled fresh water for domestic and machinery use.

25. The purpose of a fresh water hydrophore unit is to:

  • A. Cool the main engine jacket water
  • B. Store sewage before discharge
  • C. Supply fresh water under pressure to the accommodation and other users
  • D. Generate fresh water from sea water
Answer: C — Supply fresh water under pressure to the accommodation and other users
A hydrophore unit consists of a pressure tank partly filled with air and pumps controlled by a pressure switch, so that fresh or sanitary water is delivered at a steady pressure to the accommodation and other consumers without the pump running continuously.

26. The shipboard incinerator is used for:

  • A. Heating heavy fuel oil
  • B. Cooling the exhaust gas
  • C. Producing steam for the turbo alternator
  • D. Burning oil sludge and combustible garbage
Answer: D — Burning oil sludge and combustible garbage
The incinerator is an auxiliary item in the engine room used to burn oily sludge from purifiers and permitted combustible garbage, reducing waste retained on board; it must be operated in accordance with MARPOL Annex VI restrictions.

27. Engine ratings must meet a minimum standard of Maritime English to understand orders and communicate on watchkeeping matters. The syllabus refers to which IMO model course for this?

  • A. IMO Model Course 1.13
  • B. IMO Model Course 3.17
  • C. IMO Model Course 7.04
  • D. IMO Model Course 1.20
Answer: B — IMO Model Course 3.17
Appendix 1D (4.1.1) of the GP Rating guidelines requires a minimum standard of Maritime English at the elementary level, with reference to IMO Model Course 3.17, so that a rating can understand orders and be understood in matters relevant to watchkeeping duties.

28. The hot well (cascade tank) in a steam plant is used to:

  • A. Store heavy fuel oil at high temperature
  • B. Collect sludge from the purifiers
  • C. Collect returning condensate and allow oil contamination to be detected before it is used as boiler feed
  • D. Cool the main engine lubricating oil
Answer: C — Collect returning condensate and allow oil contamination to be detected before it is used as boiler feed
Condensate returning from steam consumers drains into the hot well or cascade tank, where it is filtered and inspected through sight glasses for oil contamination before the feed pump returns it to the boiler as feed water.

29. A yellow triangular sign with a black lightning arrow seen on a switchboard panel indicates:

  • A. No smoking
  • B. Eye protection must be worn
  • C. Emergency escape route
  • D. Danger of electric shock
Answer: D — Danger of electric shock
Yellow triangles with black symbols are warning signs; the lightning arrow warns of electrical hazard and risk of electric shock. Ratings must recognise such signs, which the syllabus lists among engine room symbols along with no smoking, emergency escape and no entry signs.

30. When the machinery space is in the periodically unmanned (UMS) condition, the designated duty engineer must be:

  • A. On the bridge keeping a lookout
  • B. Immediately available and on call to attend the machinery space
  • C. Always physically present in the engine room
  • D. Asleep and not to be disturbed
Answer: B — Immediately available and on call to attend the machinery space
The syllabus states that in the periodically unmanned condition the designated duty engineer in charge of the watch shall be immediately available and on call to attend the machinery spaces, responding to alarms relayed to the cabins and public rooms.

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