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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

OCTCO/OCTF exit exam questions and answers — Set 23 — Oil and Chemical Tanker Cargo Operations

Set 23 of the Oil and Chemical Tanker Cargo Operations (OCTCO/OCTF) exit exam bank — 30 of 802 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 23 — 30 OCTCO/OCTF exit exam questions with answers

1. Oil or grease must never be used on the valves and fittings of an oxygen resuscitator because:

  • A. Oil contaminates the casualty's lungs
  • B. Oxygen freezes the grease
  • C. Grease makes the mask too slippery
  • D. Oil and grease can ignite violently in contact with high-pressure oxygen
Answer: D — Oil and grease can ignite violently in contact with high-pressure oxygen
Oil and grease in contact with high-pressure oxygen can ignite spontaneously and burn violently. Oxygen cylinders and resuscitator fittings must be kept clean and free of oil, and handled with clean hands.

2. For lifting an injured person vertically out of a pump room or tank, the most suitable stretcher is:

  • A. A folding chair
  • B. An inflatable mattress
  • C. A rigid stretcher that secures the casualty, such as a Neil Robertson type
  • D. A canvas sheet held by four people
Answer: C — A rigid stretcher that secures the casualty, such as a Neil Robertson type
Rescue from pump rooms and tanks usually involves a vertical lift through narrow openings. A stretcher such as the Neil Robertson type wraps around and secures the casualty so that he can be hoisted upright safely using a rescue line and tripod or davit.

3. SOLAS requires that cargo pump rooms on tankers be provided with a system for:

  • A. Continuous monitoring of noise levels
  • B. Monitoring the cargo tank ullages
  • C. Automatic sprinkling with fresh water
  • D. Continuous monitoring of the concentration of hydrocarbon gases
Answer: D — Continuous monitoring of the concentration of hydrocarbon gases
SOLAS regulation II-2/4.5.10 requires cargo pump rooms to be fitted with a system for continuous monitoring of hydrocarbon gas concentration, with sampling points at suitable locations and an alarm set at not higher than 10% of the lower flammable limit.

4. Before entering a hazardous atmosphere wearing SCBA, the wearer should check that:

  • A. The mask is worn over a beard to improve the seal
  • B. The face mask fits and seals properly and the cylinder is adequately charged
  • C. The low-pressure whistle has been disconnected
  • D. The cylinder valve is only half open
Answer: B — The face mask fits and seals properly and the cylinder is adequately charged
Pre-use checks include cylinder pressure, a positive face-seal test, function of the demand valve and the low-pressure warning. Facial hair or spectacle arms can break the seal and allow contaminated air in, so a proper fit is essential.

5. An infrared gas analyser is preferred over a catalytic instrument for measuring hydrocarbon content in an inerted tank because it:

  • A. Does not need oxygen to measure the gas
  • B. Measures oxygen and hydrocarbon together on one sensor
  • C. Reads only in ppm
  • D. Requires no calibration ever
Answer: A — Does not need oxygen to measure the gas
Infrared analysers detect hydrocarbon gas by its absorption of infrared light and do not rely on combustion, so they read accurately in inert atmospheres. They are used to measure hydrocarbon content in % volume during inerting, purging and gas freeing.

6. Escape routes from the pump room and the tank evacuation equipment should be:

  • A. Locked to prevent unauthorised use
  • B. Kept clear and ready for immediate use
  • C. Stored in the bosun's store away from the work area
  • D. Used for storing spare equipment
Answer: B — Kept clear and ready for immediate use
In an emergency there may be very little time to escape or rescue a casualty. Escape routes, ladders, rescue harnesses, lines and lifting equipment must be kept clear, readily accessible and in good order, and crews must practise their use in drills.

7. SOLAS regulation XI-1/7 requires ships to carry an appropriate portable atmosphere testing instrument capable of measuring at least:

  • A. Oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide
  • B. Nitrogen, argon and helium
  • C. Oxygen and carbon dioxide only
  • D. Benzene only
Answer: A — Oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide
Since 1 July 2016 SOLAS regulation XI-1/7 has required every ship to carry a portable atmosphere testing instrument, or instruments, able to measure oxygen, flammable gases or vapours, hydrogen sulphide and carbon monoxide before entry into enclosed spaces.

8. Under SOLAS chapter III, enclosed space entry and rescue drills must be carried out at least:

  • A. Every week
  • B. Every five years
  • C. Every two months
  • D. Every year
Answer: C — Every two months
SOLAS regulation III/19.3.6 requires enclosed space entry and rescue drills to be held at least once every two months, planned and conducted safely using the relevant equipment, including atmosphere testing, rescue gear and breathing apparatus.

9. According to ISGOTT, before entry into an enclosed space without breathing apparatus, toxic gas concentrations must be less than:

  • A. 50% of their occupational exposure limit (OEL)
  • B. 10 ppm for every gas
  • C. 100% of their OEL
  • D. The lower flammable limit
Answer: A — 50% of their occupational exposure limit (OEL)
ISGOTT entry criteria require oxygen of 21% by volume, hydrocarbon content below 1% LFL and toxic gas concentrations below 50% of their occupational exposure limits, with continuous monitoring and ventilation throughout the entry.

10. During entry into an enclosed space, the attendant stationed at the entrance should:

  • A. Maintain communication with those inside and raise the alarm without entering if there is a problem
  • B. Switch off the ventilation to save power
  • C. Enter immediately to help if a person collapses
  • D. Leave the entrance once the entrants are inside
Answer: A — Maintain communication with those inside and raise the alarm without entering if there is a problem
The attendant keeps watch, maintains communication and monitors conditions. If an entrant is in difficulty, the attendant raises the alarm and initiates the rescue plan but must not enter without proper breathing apparatus and back-up, to avoid becoming a second casualty.

11. While personnel are working inside a cargo tank, the atmosphere should be:

  • A. Ventilated continuously and re-tested at regular intervals
  • B. Inerted to keep it safe
  • C. Left without ventilation to avoid stirring residues
  • D. Tested only once before entry
Answer: A — Ventilated continuously and re-tested at regular intervals
Conditions can change during work as residues evaporate or sludge is disturbed. Continuous ventilation and periodic or continuous monitoring with personal gas detectors are required, and the space must be evacuated if readings change.

12. Before repair or maintenance work on a cargo pump in the pump room, the pump and its system should be:

  • A. Drained, isolated (locked and tagged out) and gas freed
  • B. Pressurised with inert gas
  • C. Run at low speed during the work
  • D. Left connected to the cargo tank so it can be tested
Answer: A — Drained, isolated (locked and tagged out) and gas freed
Before opening equipment that has contained cargo, it must be drained, flushed, positively isolated from cargo tanks, lines and power sources by lock-out/tag-out and gas freed, so that no cargo, vapour or unexpected movement can endanger the workers.

13. The purpose of lock-out/tag-out before maintenance in a gas-dangerous area is to:

  • A. Record the time spent on the work
  • B. Lock the pump room door against visitors
  • C. Allow the work to be done without a permit
  • D. Prevent equipment being started or valves being opened while work is in progress
Answer: D — Prevent equipment being started or valves being opened while work is in progress
Lock-out/tag-out physically secures isolating devices such as breakers and valves in the safe position and labels them, so that pumps cannot be started and cargo or power cannot be admitted to the equipment until the work is complete and the locks removed.

14. According to ISGOTT, hot work in the cargo area of a tanker should only be permitted when the combustible gas concentration in the work area is:

  • A. Less than 1% of the LFL
  • B. Less than 50% of the LFL
  • C. Less than 10% of the LFL in the tank bottom only
  • D. Below the UFL
Answer: A — Less than 1% of the LFL
ISGOTT requires the hot work area and adjacent spaces to be gas free, with combustible gas below 1% LFL, cleaned of sludge and residues, and the atmosphere monitored throughout the hot work under a controlled permit.

15. After completion of hot work on a tanker, the fire watch should:

  • A. Leave immediately the welding stops
  • B. Open all adjacent tank lids
  • C. Remove the fire extinguishers at once
  • D. Remain at the site for a period to check that no smouldering or fire has developed
Answer: D — Remain at the site for a period to check that no smouldering or fire has developed
Heat can travel through steel and smouldering residues may ignite after work ends. The fire watch, with fire-fighting equipment ready, remains for a period after completion to ensure that the area and adjacent spaces are cool and free of fire.

16. In hazardous area classification, a Zone 0 area is one in which:

  • A. An explosive atmosphere is not likely and only for short periods
  • B. No explosive atmosphere can ever occur
  • C. An explosive atmosphere is likely only occasionally in normal operation
  • D. An explosive gas atmosphere is present continuously or for long periods
Answer: D — An explosive gas atmosphere is present continuously or for long periods
Under IEC 60092-502, Zone 0 includes the interior of cargo tanks and cargo piping where a flammable atmosphere exists continuously or for long periods. Only certified intrinsically safe equipment of the highest category is allowed there.

17. In hazardous area classification, an area where an explosive gas atmosphere is likely to occur occasionally in normal operation is classed as:

  • A. Zone 1
  • B. A safe area
  • C. Zone 2
  • D. Zone 0
Answer: A — Zone 1
Zone 1 areas, such as cargo pump rooms and areas close to cargo tank openings and vent outlets, may have a flammable atmosphere in normal operation. Zone 2 covers areas where it is not likely to occur and only for short periods.

18. Electrical equipment of protection type 'Ex p' (pressurised) prevents ignition by:

  • A. Maintaining a protective gas or air inside the enclosure at a pressure above the surrounding atmosphere
  • B. Containing any internal explosion within a strong enclosure
  • C. Limiting circuit energy so no spark can ignite the gas
  • D. Immersing the parts in oil
Answer: A — Maintaining a protective gas or air inside the enclosure at a pressure above the surrounding atmosphere
In pressurised equipment, clean air or inert gas is kept inside the enclosure at a pressure above the outside atmosphere, so flammable gas cannot enter. Loss of pressurisation must trigger an alarm or disconnection of power.

19. Before opening or repairing electrical equipment located in a gas-dangerous area, it must be:

  • A. Isolated from the power supply and the area confirmed gas free under a permit
  • B. Tested live to locate the fault
  • C. Earthed through the cargo pipeline
  • D. Covered with a wet cloth
Answer: A — Isolated from the power supply and the area confirmed gas free under a permit
Opening an enclosure removes its explosion protection, so electrical equipment in a hazardous area must be disconnected and isolated, and the surrounding atmosphere tested and confirmed gas free, under an approved work permit before work begins.

20. Equipment made of aluminium or aluminium paint should not be dragged or struck against rusty steel in the cargo area because:

  • A. It generates toxic gas
  • B. Rust damages the aluminium paint only
  • C. Aluminium becomes magnetised
  • D. The impact can produce an incendive (thermite) spark
Answer: D — The impact can produce an incendive (thermite) spark
A glancing blow between aluminium and rusty steel can produce a thermite reaction with a hot, incendive spark capable of igniting flammable vapour. ISGOTT advises care in handling aluminium equipment in gas-hazardous areas.

21. If hot work or enclosed space work is interrupted, for example for a meal break, before work resumes:

  • A. The space must be inerted
  • B. Only the Master's verbal permission is needed
  • C. The permit automatically remains valid for 24 hours without checks
  • D. The atmosphere must be re-tested and the permit conditions re-confirmed
Answer: D — The atmosphere must be re-tested and the permit conditions re-confirmed
Conditions may change during a stoppage as vapour is released or ventilation stops. Permits require the atmosphere to be tested again and all precautions re-verified by the responsible officer before work restarts.

22. Persons entering an enclosed space on a tanker should never:

  • A. Keep in communication with the attendant
  • B. Wear a personal gas monitor
  • C. Enter alone without an attendant and an approved permit
  • D. Carry an approved intrinsically safe torch
Answer: C — Enter alone without an attendant and an approved permit
Enclosed space entry requires a permit, atmosphere testing, an attendant at the entrance, communication and rescue arrangements. Entering alone or without authorisation removes the safeguards that allow a person in difficulty to be rescued.

23. Under SOLAS II-2/10.8, on tankers fitted with an inert gas system, the deck foam system must have sufficient foam concentrate to produce foam for at least:

  • A. 20 minutes
  • B. 60 minutes
  • C. 5 minutes
  • D. 10 minutes
Answer: A — 20 minutes
SOLAS regulation II-2/10.8 and FSS Code chapter 14 require enough foam concentrate for at least 20 minutes of foam generation on tankers fitted with an inert gas installation, and at least 30 minutes on tankers without one.

24. One of the criteria for the rate of foam solution supply of a deck foam system is not less than:

  • A. 0.1 litres per minute per square metre of cargo deck area
  • B. 60 litres per minute per square metre of cargo deck area
  • C. 0.6 litres per minute per square metre of cargo deck area
  • D. 6 litres per minute per square metre of cargo deck area
Answer: C — 0.6 litres per minute per square metre of cargo deck area
FSS Code chapter 14 sets the supply rate as the greatest of 0.6 l/min per m2 of cargo deck area, 6 l/min per m2 of the horizontal sectional area of the single largest tank, or 3 l/min per m2 of the area protected by the largest monitor (minimum 1,250 l/min).

25. Under the FSS Code, the distance from a deck foam monitor to the farthest extremity of the area it protects must not exceed:

  • A. 50 metres in all cases
  • B. 75% of the monitor throw in still air
  • C. 25% of the monitor throw
  • D. 100% of the monitor throw
Answer: B — 75% of the monitor throw in still air
FSS Code chapter 14 limits the area protected by each monitor so that the distance to its farthest extremity is not more than 75% of the monitor throw in still air conditions, allowing for wind and loss of range.

26. Under the FSS Code, each portable foam applicator on a tanker deck foam system must have a capacity of at least:

  • A. 50 litres per minute
  • B. 1,250 litres per minute
  • C. 100 litres per minute
  • D. 400 litres per minute of foam solution
Answer: D — 400 litres per minute of foam solution
FSS Code chapter 14 requires foam applicators to have a capacity of at least 400 l/min and a throw of at least 15 m in still air. At least four applicators are required, used to supplement the monitors and reach areas they cannot cover.

27. For fires involving water-soluble polar solvents such as alcohols and ketones, the correct foam is:

  • A. Ordinary protein foam
  • B. Alcohol-resistant foam
  • C. Any foam, since all foams are equally effective
  • D. High-expansion foam made with sea water only
Answer: B — Alcohol-resistant foam
Polar solvents dissolve and break down ordinary foam blankets. Alcohol-resistant foam concentrates form a protective polymer membrane between the foam and the fuel, and are required for chemical tankers carrying such products.

28. Dry chemical powder is very effective at knocking down a flash fire, but the main disadvantage is that:

  • A. It reacts violently with oil
  • B. It cannot be used on deck
  • C. It has little cooling effect, so the fire may re-ignite from hot surfaces
  • D. It conducts electricity
Answer: C — It has little cooling effect, so the fire may re-ignite from hot surfaces
Dry powder extinguishes flames by interrupting the chemical chain reaction, but provides almost no cooling or lasting blanket. Hot metal or residual vapour can re-ignite the fuel, so powder attacks should be backed up with water cooling or foam.

29. If a fire breaks out on deck during cargo operations alongside a terminal, the ship's immediate actions should include:

  • A. Continue cargo operations to empty the tanks quickly
  • B. Wait for the terminal fire brigade before taking action
  • C. Raise the alarm, stop cargo operations, close valves and inform the terminal
  • D. Disconnect hoses before raising the alarm
Answer: C — Raise the alarm, stop cargo operations, close valves and inform the terminal
ISGOTT and the ship's emergency plan require the alarm to be raised immediately, all cargo, ballast and bunker operations stopped, valves closed and the terminal informed, before fighting the fire with the ship's equipment and preparing to unberth if necessary.

30. Foam should not be used on live electrical equipment because:

  • A. Foam is too light to cover the equipment
  • B. Foam contains water and conducts electricity
  • C. Foam reacts chemically with copper
  • D. Foam has no smothering effect
Answer: B — Foam contains water and conducts electricity
Foam is a water-based agent and conducts electricity, so it endangers the operator and damages equipment. Electrical fires should be tackled with CO2 or dry powder after isolating the power, where possible.

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