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OCTCO/OCTF exit exam questions and answers — Set 4

Set 4 of the Oil and Chemical Tanker Cargo Operations (OCTCO/OCTF) exit exam bank — 30 of 252 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 4 — 30 OCTCO/OCTF exit exam questions with answers

1. Lung inflammation will cause:

  • A. Breathlessness and drowsiness
  • B. Breathlessness and confusion
  • C. Breathlessness and a dry cough
  • D. Breathlessness and slurred speech
Answer: C — Breathlessness and a dry cough
Lung inflammation, chemical inhalation, or toxic vapour irritation in the respiratory tract typically presents with breathlessness and a dry, persistent cough.

2. The portable air operated salvage pumps used for spillage cleanup operation on tanker shall be deployed at?

  • A. The aft end of each side of poop deck
  • B. The forward end of each side of main deck
  • C. The midship on each side of main deck
  • D. The aft end of each side of main deck
Answer: D — The aft end of each side of main deck
Portable air-operated salvage/wilden pumps used for spillage clean-up on oil tankers are deployed at the aft end of each side of the main deck near the aft saveall/scupper containment area.

3. Aquatic toxicity of chemicals is categorized as?

  • A. D1 and D2
  • B. Cl and C2
  • C. Bl and B2
  • D. Al and A2
Answer: C — Bl and B2
Aquatic toxicity of chemicals under GESAMP/MARPOL categorization is evaluated under columns B1 (acute aquatic toxicity) and B2 (chronic aquatic toxicity).

4. With reference to Marpol Annex I, the southern south African area Is?

  • A. Protected area
  • B. Special control area
  • C. Special area
  • D. Restricted area
Answer: C — Special area
Under MARPOL Annex I, the Southern South African waters area is designated as a Special Area for the prevention of oil pollution.

5. The area where emissions of SOx, Nox and PM from ships are controlled is called as?

  • A. Emission control area (ECA)
  • B. Special area (SA)
  • C. Special emission control area (SECA)
  • D. Pollution control area (PCA)
Answer: A — Emission control area (ECA)
Areas where airborne emissions of SOx, NOx, and Particulate Matter (PM) from ships are strictly limited under MARPOL Annex VI are known as Emission Control Areas (ECAs).

6. Containment and Damage Control: which step Is of highest importance for damage control?

  • A. All personnel entering a contaminated space shall enter with another individual
  • B. For each pair entering a space, a trained person with appropriate equipment will be on standby.
  • C. Actions toward controlling the immediate spread of the spill
  • D. Action steps minimizing the Impact to the ship and crew.
Answer: C — Actions toward controlling the immediate spread of the spill
In emergency spill response and damage control, taking immediate action to stop the leak and control the rapid spread of the spill is of highest operational priority.

7. After use of portable foam extinguisher, the equipment is well flushed with water to keep?

  • A. The system is clean.
  • B. Ready for re use.
  • C. The nozzles clear and prevent clogging.
  • D. None of the above
Answer: C — The nozzles clear and prevent clogging.
After use, portable foam extinguishers and branchpipes must be thoroughly flushed with clean fresh water to remove residual foam compound and prevent nozzle clogging.

8. Water extinguishes a fire by?

  • A. Heat removal or cooling
  • B. Smothering or oxygen exclusion
  • C. Flame inhibition
  • D. Fuel limitation
Answer: A — Heat removal or cooling
Water extinguishes fire primarily by cooling—absorbing vast amounts of heat energy as it converts into steam, bringing the fuel temperature below its ignition point.

9. Which part is included to the Fire Triangle to extend it to the Fire Tetrahedon:

  • A. Heat
  • B. Chain reaction
  • C. Fuel
  • D. Oxygen
Answer: B — Chain reaction
The fire tetrahedron expands the fire triangle by adding the fourth essential element: the uninhibited chemical chain reaction.

10. Foam extinguishes a fire by?

  • A. Heat removal or cooling
  • B. Smothering or oxygen exclusion
  • C. Flame inhibition
  • D. Chain reaction
Answer: B — Smothering or oxygen exclusion
Foam extinguishes flammable liquid fires primarily by blanketing the surface, thereby smothering the fire and excluding oxygen from the fuel vapours.

11. What is very important to be carried out after use of deck foam system?

  • A. Stop all pumps for deck foam system.
  • B. Close all valves in the system.
  • C. Flush the system complete with sea water.
  • D. Clean the foam tank.
Answer: C — Flush the system complete with sea water.
After operating a deck foam firefighting system, the entire piping network must be thoroughly flushed with seawater/freshwater to prevent corrosive foam concentrate from hardening and clogging the pipes and monitors.

12. Fixed dry chemical powder extinguishers are mostly used in:

  • A. Oil tankers.
  • B. Passenger vessels.
  • C. Chemical tankers.
  • D. Bulk carriers.
Answer: C — Chemical tankers.
Fixed dry chemical powder (DCP) extinguishing systems are commonly installed on chemical tankers and gas carriers for rapid flame inhibition and three-dimensional gas/chemical fire knockdown.

13. During transit of a vessel if chemical fire occurs, the vessel should:

  • A. Stop and allow other ships to proceed.
  • B. Reduce vessel speed to minimum possible.
  • C. Steer clear of other vessels.
  • D. Anchor immediately.
Answer: C — Steer clear of other vessels.
If a chemical fire occurs on board a vessel during transit, the vessel should immediately alter heading to keep clear of other ships and position the wind to blow smoke away from the accommodation.

14. The electrostatic field strength which is sufficient to cause breakdown of air or petroleum gases is about?

  • A. 5000 Kilovolts/meter
  • B. 3000 Kilovolts/meter
  • C. 3000 Volts/ meter
  • D. 5000 Volts/meter
Answer: B — 3000 Kilovolts/meter
An electrostatic field strength of approximately 3,000 kilovolts per meter (3 kV/mm) is required to break down the dielectric strength of air or petroleum gas and cause an incendiary spark discharge.

15. A crew member is unconscious and the face is flushed. You should ___?

  • A. Lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
  • B. Administer a liquid stimulant
  • C. Lay the crew member down with the head lower than the feet
  • D. Attempt to stand the crew member upright to restore consciousness
Answer: A — Lay the crew member down with the head and shoulders slightly raised
For an unconscious casualty with a flushed (red) face, position them lying down with the head and shoulders slightly elevated to reduce cranial blood pressure.

16. What is the range of expansion ratio for high expansion foams?

  • A. 1000: 1
  • B. 5: 1 to 15: 1
  • C. 1250 liters/ min
  • D. 1000 liters/ min
Answer: A — 1000: 1
High-expansion foam systems produce foam with an expansion ratio typically up to 1000:1, allowing large enclosed spaces like engine rooms or pump rooms to be flooded quickly.

17. What is the least a person should do before entering machinery spaces?

  • A. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
  • B. Inform the bridge
  • C. Inform his superiors
  • D. Check oxygen level
Answer: A — Wear appropriate personal protective equipment
Before entering machinery spaces, seafarers must always wear required personal protective equipment (PPE) including safety shoes, boiler suit, helmet, and ear defenders.

18. What is the least you must do before entering a cofferdam in the engine room?

  • A. Open up the manhole and enter the cofferdam
  • B. Complete an enclosed space checklist
  • C. Enter the cofferdam and simultaneously start ventilation
  • D. Check lighting only
Answer: B — Complete an enclosed space checklist
Before entering any cofferdam or enclosed compartment, a full enclosed space entry risk assessment and checklist (including multi-gas atmosphere testing) must be completed and signed by authorized officers.

19. TLV-STEL is the spot exposure of a chemical substance for a duration of:

  • A. S minutes
  • B. 15 minutes
  • C. 30 minutes
  • D. 60 minutes
Answer: B — 15 minutes
TLV-STEL (Threshold Limit Value - Short Term Exposure Limit) is the maximum concentration to which workers can be exposed continuously for a short period of 15 minutes without suffering adverse health effects.

20. What is pour point ?

  • A. The temperature at which oil gets frozen
  • B. The lowest temperature at which petroleum oil will remain fluid
  • C. The temperature at which oil cannot be discharged
  • D. The temperature at which oil needs to be heated
Answer: B — The lowest temperature at which petroleum oil will remain fluid
Pour point is defined as the lowest temperature at which a petroleum oil or liquid remains fluid and will pour or flow under standardized test conditions.

21. What is non-volatile petroleum?

  • A. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
  • B. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or below
  • C. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or above
  • D. Petroleum having a flashpoint of 100 Degrees C or below
Answer: A — Petroleum having a flashpoint of 60 Degrees C or above
Non-volatile petroleum is defined in ISGOTT as petroleum having a flashpoint of 60°C (140°F) or above.

22. What is the lower flammable limit?

  • A. The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
  • B. The limit where there is insufficient oxygen to support combustion
  • C. The limit where there is too much oxygen to support combustion
  • D. The limit for man entry of personnel into tanks
Answer: A — The concentration of a hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient hydrocarbon to support combustion
The Lower Flammable Limit (LFL) is the minimum concentration of hydrocarbon gas in air below which there is insufficient fuel to support combustion (the mixture is too lean).

23. What is cold work?

  • A. Carrying out work in a cold atmosphere
  • B. Work that cannot create a source of ignition
  • C. Carrying out work on reefer containers
  • D. Work that can be done only in cold temperatures
Answer: B — Work that cannot create a source of ignition
Cold work refers to maintenance, inspection, or repairs that do not involve heat, flames, or the potential generation of an ignition source or spark.

24. The most common measure taken on tankers to avoid static discharge is:

  • A. Closed ullaging
  • B. Use of only approved PPE on deck
  • C. Bonding and grounding
  • D. Having continuous pipe lengths.
Answer: C — Bonding and grounding
Static electrical accumulation and dangerous potential differences on tankers are avoided by bonding and grounding all pipes, hoses, and metal structures to the ship hull.

25. The permit towork should not last for more than?

  • A. 12 hours
  • B. 24 hours
  • C. 36 hours
  • D. 48 hours
Answer: B — 24 hours
A standard permit to work (PTW) for hot work or enclosed space entry is issued for a specific task and is valid for a maximum duration of 24 hours (or one work shift).

26. What is a hot work permit?

  • A. Document used for carrying out repairs under super vision
  • B. A document issued by the person responsible permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
  • C. Document used for work in a dry-dock
  • D. Document valid for 7 days for carrying out tank cleaning
Answer: B — A document issued by the person responsible permitting specific hot work to be done during a particular time interval in a defined space
A hot work permit is a written safety document issued by an authorized responsible person permitting specific hot work within a designated space and timeframe following rigorous safety checks.

27. H2S gas is:

  • A. Less toxic
  • B. Inflammable
  • C. Toxic, corrosive and flammable
  • D. Non-toxic
Answer: C — Toxic, corrosive and flammable
Hydrogen sulphide (H2S) is a highly toxic, corrosive, and flammable gas with a characteristic rotten-egg odor at low concentrations.

28. Electrons have:

  • A. No charge
  • B. Positive charge
  • C. Negative charge
  • D. Neutral charge
Answer: C — Negative charge
Electrons are subatomic particles carrying a negative electric charge.

29. How to reduce Hydrogen Sulphide Hazard in Residual Fuel Oils?

  • A. Ventilation to lower the concentration of vapor in the ullage space and in specific areas where vapors may accumulate should be carried out as soon as practicable.
  • B. Transfer the oil to some other tank using fuel transfer pump,
  • C. Keep heating the oil to maintain a higher temperature
  • D. Circulate the oil in the same tank using the cargo pump
Answer: A — Ventilation to lower the concentration of vapor in the ullage space and in specific areas where vapors may accumulate should be carried out as soon as practicable.
H2S hazards in residual fuel tanks are mitigated by ventilating ullage spaces to disperse accumulated toxic vapours as soon as practicable prior to sampling, gauging, or tank work.

30. Inert gas is introduced to cargo tank to:

  • A. Lower the LEL of cargo vapor.
  • B. To make the cargo vapors a lean mixture of hydro carbons
  • C. To exclude oxygen and thus prevent fire or explosion.
  • D. Cool down the cargo
Answer: C — To exclude oxygen and thus prevent fire or explosion.
Inert gas (with low oxygen content <5% from the generator and <8% in the tank) is supplied to cargo tanks to displace oxygen and render the atmosphere non-flammable.

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