TASCO exit exam questions and answers — Set 10 — Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations
Set 10 of the Advanced Training for Oil Tanker Cargo Operations (TASCO) exit exam bank — 35 of 305 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
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Set 10 — 35 TASCO exit exam questions with answers
1. Under ISGOTT, when water washing in an 'undefined' tank atmosphere, the throughput of each tank washing machine nozzle should not exceed
- A. 60 cubic metres per hour
- B. 110 cubic metres per hour
- C. 17.5 cubic metres per hour
- D. 180 cubic metres per hour
2. In the load-on-top procedure, the oily water collected in the slop tank is
- A. Pumped overboard immediately after tank washing
- B. Discharged ashore with the cargo without settling
- C. Transferred to the engine-room bilge tank
- D. Allowed to settle, the water decanted overboard through the ODME and the next cargo loaded on top of the retained oil
3. In crude oil washing, 'bottom washing' is normally carried out
- A. After top washing, near the end of discharge, while the tank is being stripped
- B. Before any cargo is discharged from the tank
- C. Only at sea on the ballast passage
- D. Only with recirculated sea water
4. Under MARPOL Annex I Chapter 8, an oil tanker engaged in ship-to-ship transfer of oil cargo at sea must carry an approved STS operations plan if it is of
- A. 400 gross tonnage and above
- B. 150 gross tonnage and above
- C. 5,000 tonnes deadweight and above
- D. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
5. A tanker planning an STS transfer of oil cargo in the territorial sea or EEZ of a Party must notify that coastal State at least
- A. 24 hours in advance
- B. 72 hours in advance
- C. 48 hours in advance
- D. 12 hours in advance
6. Records of ship-to-ship oil transfer operations under MARPOL Annex I Chapter 8 must be retained on board for
- A. One year
- B. Five years
- C. Until the next renewal survey
- D. Three years
7. When starting to load each grade, the correct practice is to
- A. Begin at a slow rate and check that cargo is entering only the nominated tanks and that there are no leaks
- B. Begin at the full agreed rate to save time
- C. Open all tank valves first and then ask the terminal to start
- D. Keep the manifold valve closed until full shore pressure builds up
8. Why should valves not be closed against the flow of cargo during loading?
- A. It will cause the inert gas pressure to fall
- B. Sudden closure can cause a pressure surge that may rupture hoses, loading arms or pipelines
- C. It will overheat the cargo pumps
- D. It will increase static charge in the tank
9. The usual method to keep two different cargo grades apart in the ship's pipeline system is
- A. A single valve kept closed
- B. Blank flanges fitted only at the manifold
- C. Double-valve segregation between the grades
- D. Keeping the pumps stopped
10. The cargo loading or discharge plan on a tanker is normally prepared by the chief officer and
- A. Approved by the terminal representative only
- B. Approved by the cargo surveyor
- C. Not required to be approved
- D. Approved by the master before operations begin
11. On a modern marine loading arm used at oil terminals, the emergency release coupling (ERC) is designed to
- A. Disconnect the arm quickly with minimal spillage if the ship moves outside the operating envelope
- B. Measure the cargo flow rate
- C. Bond the ship to the shore electrically
- D. Drain the arm to the ship's slop tank
12. The ship/shore pre-transfer conference before oil cargo operations is held mainly to
- A. Calculate the freight
- B. Agree the cargo plan, rates, communications, emergency shutdown procedures and safety checks between ship and terminal
- C. Inspect crew certificates
- D. Plan the next voyage
13. The term 'topping off' a cargo tank refers to
- A. Draining the last cargo from the bottom of the tank
- B. Increasing the loading rate at the start of loading
- C. Completing the filling of a tank to its final ullage at a reduced rate
- D. Inerting the ullage space after loading
14. Under STCW Regulation V/1-1, which of the following must hold a Certificate of Proficiency in advanced training for oil tanker cargo operations?
- A. All ratings on oil tankers
- B. Only the master and chief officer
- C. Only the pumpman
- D. Masters, chief engineers, chief mates, second engineers and any person with immediate responsibility for loading, discharging, care in transit or handling of cargo
15. To qualify for the advanced oil tanker cargo operations certificate, a candidate holding the basic certificate must have
- A. At least three months of approved seagoing service on oil tankers, or one month of approved onboard training in a supernumerary capacity
- B. At least six months of seagoing service on any ship
- C. At least twelve months of service on chemical tankers
- D. Only a shore-based course without any sea service
16. Under STCW Regulation I/11, to revalidate a certificate in advanced training for oil tanker cargo operations, the holder must have approved seagoing service on oil tankers of
- A. At least twelve months in the preceding five years
- B. At least three months in total during the preceding five years
- C. At least one month in the preceding year
- D. Six months continuously before expiry
17. Under SOLAS II-2/4.5.5.1, an inert gas system is required on oil tankers constructed on or after 1 January 2016 of
- A. 20,000 tonnes deadweight and above
- B. 40,000 tonnes deadweight and above
- C. 8,000 tonnes deadweight and above
- D. 500 gross tonnage and above
18. The International Safety Guide for Oil Tankers and Terminals (ISGOTT) is published by
- A. IMO and ILO
- B. IACS and BIMCO
- C. INTERTANKO and IMO
- D. OCIMF, ICS and IAPH
19. The Ship Inspection Report Programme (SIRE) used by charterers and terminals to vet oil tankers is operated by
- A. OCIMF
- B. IMO
- C. IACS
- D. The flag Administration
20. For an oil tanker, the Record of Construction and Equipment attached to the IOPP Certificate is
- A. Form A
- B. Form B
- C. Form C
- D. Form D
21. The enhanced survey programme for oil tankers, under the 2011 ESP Code, is made mandatory by
- A. MARPOL Annex VI
- B. The ISM Code, Part B
- C. SOLAS Chapter XI-1, Regulation 2
- D. STCW Regulation V/1-1
22. For the fixed deck foam system on a tanker, FSS Code Chapter 14 requires the foam solution supply rate to be not less than the greatest of 0.6 l/min per m2 of cargo deck area, 6 l/min per m2 of the horizontal sectional area of the largest tank, and
- A. 1 l/min per m2 of the largest tank, but not less than 500 l/min
- B. 10 l/min per m2 of the manifold area
- C. 2 l/min per m2 of the accommodation front
- D. 3 l/min per m2 of the area protected by the largest monitor, but not less than 1,250 l/min
23. On a tanker fitted with an inert gas system, the deck foam system must carry enough foam concentrate to produce foam for at least
- A. 20 minutes
- B. 10 minutes
- C. 30 minutes
- D. 60 minutes
24. FSS Code Chapter 14 limits the distance from a deck foam monitor to the farthest extremity of the protected area forward of it to not more than
- A. 50% of the monitor throw in still air
- B. 75% of the monitor throw in still air
- C. 100% of the monitor throw in still air
- D. 25 m in all cases
25. If there is a fire or major cargo leak at the manifold during loading at a terminal, the first priority after raising the alarm is to
- A. Disconnect the hoses immediately while cargo is flowing
- B. Start the ballast pumps
- C. Activate the emergency shutdown to stop cargo flow and inform the terminal
- D. Open all tank lids to release pressure
26. During cargo discharge, the inert gas system fails and cannot keep cargo tank pressure positive and oxygen at 8% or less. The correct action is to
- A. Continue discharge at a reduced rate while opening ullage ports
- B. Admit fresh air to the tanks through the mast riser
- C. Increase the pump rate to finish quickly
- D. Stop the cargo discharge and close the deck isolating valve until the system is restored
27. The catalytic filament sensor of a combustible gas indicator can be poisoned and give low readings when exposed to
- A. Silicones, lead compounds and halogenated hydrocarbons
- B. Nitrogen
- C. Water vapour
- D. Carbon dioxide
28. Before using a portable gas detector for a gas-free or entry test, its response should be checked with
- A. The breath of the operator
- B. A span (calibration) gas of known concentration, after zeroing in clean air
- C. Inert gas from the IG main
- D. Steam from the tank cleaning line
29. When a catalytic combustible gas indicator samples an over-rich hydrocarbon atmosphere, the needle typically
- A. Stays at zero throughout
- B. Reads about 50% LFL steadily
- C. Moves briefly to full scale and then falls back towards zero
- D. Reads the exact hydrocarbon percentage by volume
30. ISGOTT advises that, while loading a static-accumulator oil into a tank that is not inerted, the linear velocity in the branch line to each tank should not exceed
- A. 3 m/s until the tank is one-third full
- B. 7 m/s at all stages
- C. 0.1 m/s throughout loading
- D. 1 m/s until the fill pipe outlet is covered
31. In a non-inerted tank containing a static-accumulator cargo, ISGOTT recommends that metallic dipping, ullaging or sampling equipment should not be used until
- A. 30 minutes after completion of loading, unless a sounding pipe is used
- B. 5 minutes after completion of loading
- C. The tank has been gas freed
- D. The cargo temperature has fallen by 5 degrees C
32. Pyrophoric iron sulphide forms in cargo tanks when
- A. Fresh water reacts with aluminium paint
- B. Hydrogen sulphide from sour cargo reacts with rust in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere
- C. Inert gas reacts with tank coatings
- D. Air reacts with dry, clean steel
33. The flammable range of hydrocarbon gas from typical petroleum cargoes is approximately
- A. 10% to 20% by volume in air
- B. 0.1% to 1% by volume in air
- C. 1% to 10% by volume in air
- D. 5% to 50% by volume in air
34. SOLAS II-2/4.5.4 requires the mechanical exhaust ventilation of a cargo pump room to provide not less than
- A. 6 air changes per hour
- B. 10 air changes per hour
- C. 30 air changes per hour based on the net volume
- D. 20 air changes per hour based on the gross volume of the space
35. Under SOLAS II-2/4.5.3, the outlets of high-velocity venting devices for cargo tanks must be at least
- A. 2 m above the cargo tank deck and 10 m horizontally from air intakes and openings to enclosed spaces with ignition sources
- B. 1 m above the deck and 5 m from any opening
- C. 6 m above the deck in all cases
- D. At the same height as the mast riser only
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