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AFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 4

Set 4 of the Advanced Fire Fighting (AFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 218 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 4 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers

1. Which fire detection system is actuated by sensing a heat rise in a compartment?

  • A. Flame detection system
  • B. Automatic fire detection system
  • C. Manual pull stations
  • D. Smoke obstruction system
Answer: B — Automatic fire detection system
An automatic fire detection system can be actuated by sensing a heat rise, which triggers an alarm or the activation of a fire suppression system. Other systems listed detect flame, require manual activation, or sense smoke particles.

2. Water fog is an effective firefighting agent because it:

  • A. Has a great cooling ability
  • B. Breaks the molecular chain reaction chemically
  • C. Smothers the fire using dense foam
  • D. Displaces oxygen completely
Answer: A — Has a great cooling ability
Water fog is effective because its fine spray creates a large surface area, maximizing heat absorption and thus providing significant cooling. This cooling effect is crucial in suppressing fires of Class A and B types.

3. A fire of escaping liquefied flammable gas is best extinguished by:

  • A. Cooling the surrounding storage cylinders
  • B. Applying large amounts of dry chemical powder
  • C. Flooding with low-velocity fog
  • D. Stopping the flow of gas
Answer: D — Stopping the flow of gas
The best way to extinguish a fire involving escaping liquefied flammable gas is to stop the flow of the gas itself. Applying extinguishing agents can be dangerous and may not effectively stop the fuel source.

4. When combating a Class C fire, which of the following dangers may be present?

  • A. Exploding fuel-air vapor mixtures
  • B. Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
  • C. High expansion foam flashover
  • D. Spontaneous combustion of scrap metal
Answer: B — Toxic fumes from burning insulation or electric shock
Class C fires, involving energized electrical equipment, pose the risk of toxic fumes from burning insulation materials and the immediate danger of electric shock to personnel.

5. The lowest temperature at which the vapors of a flammable liquid will ignite and cause self-sustained combustion in the presence of a spark or flame is the:

  • A. Flash Point
  • B. Critical Point
  • C. Ignition Point
  • D. Fire Point
Answer: D — Fire Point
The Fire Point is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off vapors that can sustain combustion after ignition. This is distinct from the Flash Point, which is the temperature at which vapors ignite momentarily.

6. The fire protection provided for the propulsion motor and generator of a diesel-electric drive vessel is usually a:

  • A. Dry powder station
  • B. Fixed CO2 system
  • C. Water sprinkler system
  • D. Fixed foam system
Answer: B — Fixed CO2 system
Diesel-electric drive vessels commonly use fixed CO2 systems to protect propulsion motors and generators. CO2 is suitable for electrical equipment as it is non-conductive and leaves no residue.

7. Metal fires should be fought using which extinguisher type?

  • A. Halon gas
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF)
  • D. Dry powder
Answer: D — Dry powder
Metal fires (Class D) require specialized extinguishing agents like dry powder. Agents such as CO2, AFFF, or Halon can react violently with burning metals, intensifying the fire or causing explosions.

8. Which type of portable fire extinguisher is best suited for putting out a Class D fire?

  • A. Carbon dioxide
  • B. Dry powder
  • C. Dry chemical
  • D. Water spray
Answer: B — Dry powder
Class D fires, involving combustible metals, require specific dry powder extinguishers designed to smother and cool the metal. CO2 and dry chemical are generally unsuitable and can be hazardous for metal fires.

9. Class 1 watertight doors are:

  • A. Rolling type
  • B. Hinged type
  • C. Vertical sliding type
  • D. Horizontal sliding type
Answer: B — Hinged type
Class 1 watertight doors are hinged types, typically found in passenger ships, designed to be quickly closed. Class 2 doors are usually sliding types and are often operated remotely.

10. A fire in a fuel oil settling tank is a:

  • A. Class A fire
  • B. Class C fire
  • C. Class B fire
  • D. Class D fire
Answer: C — Class B fire
A fire in a fuel oil settling tank involves flammable liquids, classifying it as a Class B fire. Class A involves ordinary combustibles, Class C electrical, and Class D metals.

11. The symbols for Fire Control plans are approved by which organization?

  • A. International Labor Organization (ILO)
  • B. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
  • C. International Standards Organization (ISO)
  • D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B — International Maritime Organization (IMO)
The International Maritime Organization (IMO) is responsible for approving the symbols used on Fire Control plans, ensuring standardized representation of fire safety equipment and arrangements across vessels.

12. Which dangerous condition should be kept in mind after using a 6.8 kg CO2 fire extinguisher on a small oil fire on the engine room floor plates?

  • A. Suffocation inside the main casing
  • B. Rupture of downstream valves
  • C. Rekindling of the fire
  • D. Freezing of mechanical controls
Answer: C — Rekindling of the fire
After using a CO2 extinguisher on an oil fire, rekindling is a potential danger as the CO2 dissipates and the hot oil may reach its ignition temperature again if not properly cooled or smothered.

13. What emergency equipment is NOT found in the crew mess in the view of a Fire Control plan?

  • A. Portable fire extinguisher
  • B. Heat sensor
  • C. Emergency escape breathing device (EEBD)
  • D. Fire axe
Answer: B — Heat sensor
Heat sensors are part of an automatic fire detection system and are typically located in the protected spaces themselves, not in general areas like the crew mess. Other listed items are emergency equipment often found in such locations.

14. Dry powder fire extinguishers which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as firefighting agents are generally used to fight which type of fire?

  • A. Class C electrical fire
  • B. Class B fuel oil fire
  • C. Class D metal fire
  • D. Class A wood fire
Answer: C — Class D metal fire
Dry powder extinguishers containing graphite and sodium chloride are specifically designed for Class D fires, which involve combustible metals. These agents form a crust, smothering the fire and preventing re-ignition.

15. On international voyages, tank ships of 500 gross tons or more are required to have facilities to enable connection on each side of the ship for this fire control equipment:

  • A. Emergency bilge pump suction manifold
  • B. Fixed sprinkler bypass valve
  • C. High expansion foam generator
  • D. International Shore connection
Answer: D — International Shore connection
On oil tankers of 500 gross tons or more, an International Shore Connection is required on each side of the ship. This allows shore-based fire fighting equipment to connect to the vessel's fire main system.

16. Mechanical foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating:

  • A. Dry chemical powder with water stream
  • B. Foam chemical with nitrogen gas
  • C. Liquid CO2 with water solution
  • D. Foam chemical with air and water
Answer: D — Foam chemical with air and water
Mechanical foam used in firefighting is generated by mixing a foam concentrate with water and then agitating this mixture with air. This process creates a foam blanket that cools and smothers the fire.

17. What must be mounted at a small passenger vessel's operating station for use by the master and crew?

  • A. SOLAS training booklet
  • B. International code of signals chart
  • C. Vessel maintenance record
  • D. Emergency instructions
Answer: D — Emergency instructions
Emergency instructions detailing actions to be taken during emergencies must be prominently displayed at the vessel's operating station for immediate access by the master and crew.

18. The muster list shows each rig hand's muster station, his duties during abandonment, basic instructions, and:

  • A. Engine room operating instructions
  • B. All emergency signals
  • C. Next port of call logistics
  • D. Navigation course parameters
Answer: B — All emergency signals
A muster list, as required by SOLAS, details not only muster stations and duties but also all relevant emergency signals to ensure all crew are aware of the different alarm sounds and their meanings.

19. If a fire ignites in the engine room as a result of a high-pressure fuel oil leak, you should first:

  • A. Direct a stream of water at the flames
  • B. Shut off the fuel oil supply
  • C. Evacuate all personnel immediately
  • D. Release the fixed CO2 system
Answer: B — Shut off the fuel oil supply
The immediate priority in a fuel oil leak fire is to stop the source of fuel. Shutting off the fuel supply removes the fuel element of the fire triangle, thus allowing the fire to extinguish. Releasing CO2 or using water are secondary actions, and evacuation is appropriate if the fire cannot be controlled.

20. If there has been a fire in a closed, unventilated compartment, it may be unsafe to enter because of:

  • A. High accumulations of nitrogen gas
  • B. Excess relative humidity
  • C. lack of oxygen
  • D. Built-up electrostatic charges
Answer: C — lack of oxygen
Fires consume oxygen for combustion. In a closed compartment, the oxygen level will significantly decrease, creating an atmosphere with insufficient oxygen to support human life. Therefore, entering such a compartment without self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is extremely hazardous due to potential asphyxiation.

21. Which of the listed classes of fires can best be extinguished with a water fog?

  • A. Class B and C
  • B. Class A and B
  • C. Class A and D
  • D. Class C and D
Answer: B — Class A and B
Water fog is particularly effective for Class A fires (ordinary combustibles like wood, paper, cloth) by cooling and penetrating the material, and for Class B fires (flammable liquids) by cooling the liquid surface to below its flashpoint and forming a barrier. It is not suitable for Class C (electrical) or Class D (combustible metals) fires.

22. The fixed CO2 fire extinguishing system has been activated to extinguish a large engine room bilge fire. When is the best time to vent the combustible products from the engine room?

  • A. Right before entering the space with an SCBA
  • B. One hour after initial discharge regardless of temperature
  • C. After the metal surfaces have cooled down
  • D. Immediately after the fire goes out
Answer: C — After the metal surfaces have cooled down
After a CO2 discharge, hot surfaces can re-ignite vapours. Venting the compartment after the metal surfaces have cooled down reduces the risk of re-ignition and allows hazardous gases to dissipate safely before entry, ideally while wearing SCBA.

23. A definite advantage of using water as a firefighting agent is its characteristic of:

  • A. Leaving clean residue that acts as a fire barrier
  • B. Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
  • C. Breaking down chemical bonding chains safely
  • D. Non-conductivity near live machinery
Answer: B — Rapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
Water's high latent heat of vaporization means it absorbs a significant amount of heat as it turns to steam. This rapid expansion helps to cool the burning material and can also help to push flames away from the surface.

24. What is NOT a characteristic of a carbon dioxide fire extinguishing agent?

  • A. It leaves no messy residue after use
  • B. It displaces air to smother a fire
  • C. It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down
  • D. It can cause frostbite upon contact with skin
Answer: C — It is effective even if ventilation is not shut down
Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers displace oxygen to smother a fire, and as they discharge, the rapid expansion of gas causes extreme cooling, potentially leading to frostbite. However, CO2 is electrically conductive and must not be used on live electrical equipment if safer alternatives exist, and ventilation is crucial after use to clear the oxygen-deficient atmosphere.

25. It is necessary to secure the forced ventilation to a compartment where there is a fire to:

  • A. Retain toxic gases to help smother flames
  • B. Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
  • C. Limit the expansion of cooling steam lines
  • D. Protect the ventilation fan motor from overspeeding
Answer: B — Prevent additional oxygen from reaching the fire
Forcing ventilation into a compartment with a fire provides an additional supply of oxygen, which fuels the combustion process. Securing the ventilation removes this oxygen source, aiding in fire suppression, consistent with removing an element of the fire triangle.

26. The four basic components of a fire are a chain reaction, heat, fuel, and:

  • A. Nitrogen
  • B. Carbon dioxide
  • C. Oxygen
  • D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: C — Oxygen
The fire triangle, representing the essential components for combustion, consists of fuel, heat, and oxygen. The chain reaction is often considered the fourth element in the fire tetrahedron, but oxygen is the fundamental component that sustains the combustion process.

27. The flammable limits of an atmosphere are the:

  • A. Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
  • B. Maximum temperatures at which an oil source produces vapors
  • C. Minimum moisture concentrations needed to halt spontaneous ignition
  • D. Safe ambient operating thresholds for storage facilities
Answer: A — Upper and lower percentage of vapor concentrations in an atmosphere which will burn if an ignition source is present
Flammable limits define the range of concentrations of a flammable gas or vapor in air that will burn or explode when an ignition source is present. The lower flammable limit (LFL) is the minimum concentration, and the upper flammable limit (UFL) is the maximum concentration.

28. A fire must be ventilated:

  • A. To cool down fuel reservoirs below their flashpoints
  • B. To supply additional oxygen to speed up burning
  • C. To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
  • D. Immediately after triggering a fixed gas smothering system
Answer: C — To prevent the gases of combustion from surrounding the firefighters
Ventilation is crucial in firefighting to remove smoke and toxic gases produced by combustion, ensuring a safer environment for firefighters to operate and preventing the spread of toxic fumes to other areas of the vessel. Supplying extra oxygen would worsen the fire.

29. A fire in a radio transmitter would be of what class under NFPA?

  • A. Class B
  • B. Class D
  • C. Class C
  • D. Class A
Answer: C — Class C
Fires involving electrical equipment are classified as Class C fires. A radio transmitter is an electrical device, making any fire within it a Class C fire, requiring extinguishing agents that are non-conductive.

30. Containers are manufactured as per standards set by:

  • A. SOLAS
  • B. ISO
  • C. MARPOL
  • D. IMO
Answer: B — ISO
The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) sets standards for various products, including containers. These standards ensure uniformity, safety, and interoperability in the manufacturing and use of containers globally.

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