AFF exit exam questions and answers — Set 7
Set 7 of the Advanced Fire Fighting (AFF) exit exam bank — 30 of 218 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 7 — 30 AFF exit exam questions with answers
1. To safely enter a compartment where CO2 has been released from a fixed extinguishing system, you should:
- A. Run a hand-held exhaust blower for five minutes first
- B. Wear a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
- C. Wear a generic particulate dust filter mask
- D. Wait ten minutes for gas settlement before walking in
2. The international shore connection:
- A. Allows hookup of firefighting water from shore facilities
- B. Links ship navigation logs with port administration grids
- C. Supplies high voltage electrical power to propulsion links
- D. Drains oily bilge slops safely to dockside collection tanks
3. A fire has broken out on the stern of your vessel. You should maneuver your vessel so the wind:
- A. Blows at right angles to cross-vent the hull decks
- B. Comes directly over the stern layout beam
- C. Comes over the bow
- D. Changes into circular thermal swirling patterns
4. An extinguishing agent which effectively cools, dilutes combustible vapors, removes oxygen, and provides a heat and smoke screen is:
- A. Water fog
- B. Halon gas
- C. Dry chemical powder formulation
- D. Aqueous film-forming foam solution
5. The expansion of LFL is:
- A. Light Flame Location
- B. Liquid Fuel Line
- C. Lower Flammable Limit
- D. Low Flashpoint Liquid
6. Which statement describes the primary process by which fires are extinguished by dry chemical?
- A. The active agent drops fuel core parameters past absolute freezing margins
- B. The dry chemical creates a dense visual foam overlay block
- C. It relies on heavy moisture transformation into structural vapor screens
- D. The dry chemical powder attacks the fuel and oxygen chain reaction
7. What is the most important consideration when determining to fight an electrical fire?
- A. Danger of shock to personnel
- B. Shutting down auxiliary lighting networks across accommodation spaces
- C. The replacement costs of burnt circuitry components
- D. The clean-up time required for active extinguishing residue
8. If you see an oil leakage, you clean it immediately. This is an example of:
- A. Good housekeeping
- B. ISO structural standard declaration rules
- C. Deck log monitoring instructions
- D. Preventive machinery tuning parameters
9. When dry chemical extinguishers are used to put out Class B fires, there is a danger of reflash because dry chemical:
- A. Reacts aggressively with marine steel materials
- B. Vaporizes into flammable gas compounds under heat exposure
- C. Does little or no cooling
- D. Displaces air structures for only a few seconds
10. Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
- A. Carbon dioxide gas jet
- B. Dry chemical powder spray
- C. Mechanical foam blanket expansion
- D. Water fog
11. The expansion of IBC code is:
- A. International Bilge Control code
- B. International Bulk Cargo code
- C. International Bulk Chemical code
- D. Intermaritime Boiler Construction code
12. As compared to carbon dioxide, dry chemical has which advantage?
- A. Greater range
- B. It is non-toxic inside confined spaces
- C. It offers significant localized thermal cooling effects
- D. It leaves no visible residue cleanup footprint on components
13. Which of the listed firefighting agents and associated applications provide the largest shielding effect for the firefighter?
- A. Continuous carbon dioxide stream jet
- B. Low velocity water fog
- C. Straight high-velocity water jet
- D. High-expansion chemical foam spray
14. An example of a type of smoke detector is the:
- A. Visual infrared flame scanner screen
- B. Ionization type
- C. Hydrostatic expansion capsule sensor
- D. Thermal differential bimetallic link switch
15. Which firefighting agent is most effective in removing heat?
- A. Carbon dioxide vapor stream
- B. Dry chemical powder blanket throw
- C. Mechanical structural foam solution
- D. Water spray
16. When water fog is used as an extinguishing agent, the fire is extinguished principally by the:
- A. Displacement of active fuel structures safely
- B. Exclusion of atmospheric nitrogen elements
- C. Chemical breakdown of active free radicals
- D. Absorption of heat
17. Fire extinguishers of sizes 3, 4, and 5 are designated as:
- A. Hand portable
- B. Semi-portable
- C. Fixed system bank units
- D. Auxiliary utility modules
18. Dangerous goods are classified into how many groups?
- A. Three groups
- B. Five groups
- C. Twelve groups
- D. Nine groups
19. The discharge from a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher should be directed:
- A. At the top perimeter layout of smoke clouds
- B. Directly into adjacent ventilation return trunks
- C. At the base of the flames
- D. In wide looping circles across structural partition bulkheads
20. Which statement is true concerning the use of dry chemical extinguishers?
- A. You should direct the spray at the base of the fire
- B. They are deployed safely on metal fires like sodium or magnesium
- C. You should direct the spray at the top edges of structural smoke screens
- D. They provide deep cooling to prevent any risk of re-ignition
21. What is the minimum number of portable fire extinguishers that must be carried on ships of 1000 GRT and above?
- A. Eight
- B. Three
- C. Five
- D. Two
22. What is the primary function of the emergency fire pump isolate valve fitted on main deck?
- A. Prevent backflow to sea chest
- B. Divert water to bilges
- C. Isolate engine room fire main from deck fire main
- D. Increase fire water pressure to accommodation
23. Under SOLAS, what is the minimum duration for SCBA cylinder duration calculation margin?
- A. 45 minutes at standard atmosphere
- B. 15 minutes at 20 L/min breathing rate
- C. 60 minutes continuous flow
- D. 30 minutes at 40 L/min breathing rate
24. What type of fixed fire extinguishing system is mandatory for paint lockers exceeding specified floor area?
- A. Fixed CO2 or water-sprinkling system
- B. Dry powder system
- C. High expansion foam only
- D. Inert gas generator
25. What action must be taken regarding mechanical ventilation before releasing CO2 into engine room?
- A. Open skylights for pressure relief
- B. Keep exhaust fans running to remove smoke
- C. Stop all fans and close all dampers tight
- D. Set ventilation to 50% capacity
26. What is the main advantage of High-Expansion Foam in engine room bilges?
- A. Rapidly fills volume and smothers fire without liquid weight accumulation
- B. Cools hot steel faster than water jet
- C. Conducts electricity safely
- D. Absorbs oil completely
27. How often must fixed CO2 cylinder weight/pressure checks be conducted on ships?
- A. Annually by certified technician or competent officer
- B. Monthly by chief officer
- C. Every 2 years
- D. Every 5 years during drydock
28. What is the International Shore Connection used for?
- A. Shore electrical power supply
- B. Connecting shore fire water supply to ship fire main
- C. Bunkering fuel from shore
- D. Discharging bilges to shore
29. What is boundary cooling in shipboard firefighting?
- A. Cooling sea chest strainers
- B. Cooling adjacent bulkheads and decks to prevent heat transfer and fire spread
- C. Cooling the fire hose nozzle
- D. Cooling the SCBA wearer with water spray
30. Which nozzle spray setting is recommended when advancing on an interior cabin fire?
- A. Shut off until inside cabin
- B. Wide fog spray at maximum pressure
- C. Solid jet stream directly at ceiling
- D. Narrow fog spray for protection and heat absorption
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