Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home GSK sets
Answer Key

GSK exit exam questions and answers — Set 19 — General Ship Knowledge

Set 19 of the General Ship Knowledge (GSK) exit exam bank — 30 of 585 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these GSK questions GSK mock exit exam, 30 marks GSK exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 19

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 19 — 30 GSK exit exam questions with answers

1. IMDG Class 3 covers

  • A. Corrosive substances
  • B. Radioactive material
  • C. Flammable liquids
  • D. Explosives
Answer: C — Flammable liquids
Class 3 of the IMDG Code is flammable liquids, for example paints, thinners and many solvents. Its label is a red diamond with a black or white flame symbol and the figure 3.

2. IMDG Class 8 covers

  • A. Oxidizing substances
  • B. Corrosive substances
  • C. Miscellaneous dangerous substances
  • D. Toxic substances
Answer: B — Corrosive substances
Class 8 is corrosive substances such as acids and alkalis, which damage skin and metals. The label shows liquid dripping from two test tubes onto a hand and a metal bar, with the lower half black.

3. IMDG Division 4.3 covers substances which

  • A. In contact with water emit flammable gases
  • B. Are organic peroxides
  • C. Are liable to spontaneous combustion
  • D. Are flammable solids
Answer: A — In contact with water emit flammable gases
Division 4.3 is substances that are dangerous when wet: in contact with water they give off flammable gases. Water must therefore not be used on spillage of these goods. Division 4.2 is spontaneous combustion; 4.1 is flammable solids.

4. Organic peroxides are classified in the IMDG Code under

  • A. Class 6.1
  • B. Class 9
  • C. Division 5.2
  • D. Division 5.1
Answer: C — Division 5.2
Class 5 has two divisions: 5.1 oxidizing substances and 5.2 organic peroxides. Organic peroxides are thermally unstable and may decompose violently, so many need temperature control during carriage.

5. IMDG Division 6.2 covers

  • A. Infectious substances
  • B. Toxic substances
  • C. Radioactive material
  • D. Corrosive substances
Answer: A — Infectious substances
Class 6 is divided into 6.1 toxic substances and 6.2 infectious substances, which contain pathogens able to cause disease in humans or animals, such as some medical and clinical wastes.

6. The minimum size of an IMDG Code hazard label on a package is

  • A. 150 mm x 150 mm
  • B. 100 mm x 100 mm
  • C. 250 mm x 250 mm
  • D. 50 mm x 50 mm
Answer: B — 100 mm x 100 mm
IMDG labels on packages are diamond-shaped with minimum dimensions of 100 mm x 100 mm. Larger placards of at least 250 mm x 250 mm are fixed to cargo transport units such as containers.

7. The minimum size of an IMDG placard displayed on a container carrying dangerous goods is

  • A. 400 mm x 400 mm
  • B. 150 mm x 150 mm
  • C. 100 mm x 100 mm
  • D. 250 mm x 250 mm
Answer: D — 250 mm x 250 mm
Under the IMDG Code, placards on cargo transport units are enlarged labels of at least 250 mm x 250 mm, displayed on the sides and ends of the unit so the hazard can be seen from a distance.

8. The IMDG marine pollutant mark shows

  • A. A skull and crossbones
  • B. A flame on a red background
  • C. A black and white striped diamond
  • D. A dead fish and a dead tree in a triangle
Answer: D — A dead fish and a dead tree in a triangle
Dangerous goods that are also marine pollutants must carry the marine pollutant mark, a triangle showing a dead fish and a dead tree, in addition to their class labels. The striped diamond is the Class 9 label.

9. In the event of a fire or spillage involving dangerous goods, the emergency response procedures are found in the

  • A. Cargo Securing Manual
  • B. EmS Guide (Emergency Response Procedures for Ships Carrying Dangerous Goods)
  • C. Garbage Management Plan
  • D. International Code of Signals
Answer: B — EmS Guide (Emergency Response Procedures for Ships Carrying Dangerous Goods)
The EmS Guide, published as a supplement to the IMDG Code, gives fire and spillage schedules for each dangerous good. The Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG) gives medical advice for people exposed to dangerous goods.

10. Medical treatment of a person affected by a dangerous chemical carried on board is guided by the

  • A. International Code of Signals
  • B. Ship's Garbage Record Book
  • C. EmS Guide fire schedules
  • D. Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
Answer: D — Medical First Aid Guide (MFAG)
The MFAG, a supplement to the IMDG Code, gives first aid and medical treatment advice for chemical poisoning and injury from dangerous goods, and is used with the ship's medical guide and radio medical advice.

11. While stores are being lifted on board by crane, a rating must

  • A. Stand under the load to guide it down
  • B. Ride on the load to land it quickly
  • C. Hold the load with his hands while it is being hoisted
  • D. Never stand or pass under the suspended load
Answer: D — Never stand or pass under the suspended load
No person should stand, pass or work under a suspended load, because slings or gear can fail. Tag lines are used to control the load from a safe position, as stressed in syllabus 3.2.1.

12. The knot traditionally used to shorten a rope sling without cutting it is the

  • A. Clove hitch
  • B. Timber hitch
  • C. Sheepshank
  • D. Reef knot
Answer: C — Sheepshank
A sheepshank takes up slack in a rope temporarily without cutting it. The syllabus requires trainees to know the method of shortening a rope sling for handling stores.

13. In the standard crane hand signal for 'Emergency stop', the signaller

  • A. Points the forefinger downward and moves the hand in small circles
  • B. Points the forefinger upward and moves the hand in small circles
  • C. Clenches the fist and holds it at chest level
  • D. Extends both arms horizontally, palms down, and moves them back and forth
Answer: D — Extends both arms horizontally, palms down, and moves them back and forth
Emergency stop is signalled with both arms held out horizontally, palms down, moving them back and forth. Upward-pointing forefinger with small circles means hoist; downward-pointing means lower.

14. Paints, thinners and other flammable stores on board should be kept in

  • A. The engine room near the boiler
  • B. The cabin of the bosun
  • C. An open area on the poop deck without lashing
  • D. A well-ventilated paint store with fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from accommodation
Answer: D — A well-ventilated paint store with fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from accommodation
Paints and thinners are flammable liquids giving off flammable vapour. They are stowed in a dedicated paint locker that is ventilated, protected by fire-extinguishing arrangements, away from heat sources, with containers secured against movement.

15. While loading a container of dangerous goods, a rating finds the container seal broken. He should

  • A. Fit a new seal himself
  • B. Report it immediately to the OOW
  • C. Open the container to check the contents
  • D. Ignore it as the container is already on board
Answer: B — Report it immediately to the OOW
A broken or tampered seal may indicate theft, a security threat or damaged dangerous goods. Under the syllabus and ISPS requirements, the rating reports such findings immediately to the OOW and does not interfere with the container.

16. The bend used to join two ropes of different sizes is the

  • A. Sheet bend
  • B. Bowline
  • C. Reef knot
  • D. Clove hitch
Answer: A — Sheet bend
A sheet bend securely joins two ropes of unequal size, or a rope to an eye. A reef knot should only join ropes of the same size and may slip if the ropes differ in size.

17. A reef knot is mainly used to

  • A. Join two ropes of the same size, for example when tying bandages
  • B. Secure a rope to a spar to take a lengthwise pull
  • C. Make a permanent eye in a rope
  • D. Join two ropes of very different sizes
Answer: A — Join two ropes of the same size, for example when tying bandages
The reef knot lies flat and is easy to untie, so it is used for joining two ropes of equal size under light load and for tying bandages in first aid. It is not reliable for joining unequal ropes.

18. The hitch used to make a rope fast quickly to a spar or rail is the

  • A. Monkey's fist
  • B. Clove hitch
  • C. Figure of eight knot
  • D. Sheepshank
Answer: B — Clove hitch
A clove hitch consists of two half hitches made round a spar, rail or post and is quick to tie and adjust. It may slip under varying load, so it is often finished with extra half hitches.

19. A rolling hitch is used to

  • A. Make a temporary eye at the end of a rope
  • B. Join two ropes of equal size
  • C. Secure a rope to a spar or another rope so that it can take a pull along its length
  • D. Prevent a rope's end from unlaying
Answer: C — Secure a rope to a spar or another rope so that it can take a pull along its length
A rolling hitch grips a spar or rope and resists slipping when the pull is along the length of the spar or rope, making it useful for taking the strain off another rope temporarily.

20. A round turn and two half hitches is commonly used to

  • A. Shorten a rope sling
  • B. Make a rope fast to a ring, post or bollard so that it holds under load
  • C. Join two ropes of different sizes
  • D. Make a stopper knot at the end of a rope
Answer: B — Make a rope fast to a ring, post or bollard so that it holds under load
The round turn takes the strain while the two half hitches secure the end, so the rope can be made fast to a ring or bollard even when under load and still be released easily.

21. Where a spliced rope has to pass through a block, the splice that should be used is the

  • A. Eye splice
  • B. Long splice
  • C. Back splice
  • D. Short splice
Answer: B — Long splice
A short splice increases the diameter of the rope and may jam in a block sheave. A long splice joins two ropes with little increase in diameter, so it can pass through a block.

22. Which synthetic fibre rope floats on water?

  • A. Polypropylene
  • B. Manila
  • C. Polyester
  • D. Nylon
Answer: A — Polypropylene
Polypropylene is lighter than water and floats, which makes it useful for lifebuoy lines and towing lines. Nylon and polyester are heavier than water and sink.

23. Synthetic fibre ropes should be protected from long exposure to strong sunlight because

  • A. They absorb water
  • B. They become heavier
  • C. They become stiff and impossible to coil
  • D. Ultraviolet rays weaken the fibres
Answer: D — Ultraviolet rays weaken the fibres
Ultraviolet radiation degrades synthetic fibres, reducing their strength. Synthetic ropes should therefore be covered or stowed under cover when not in use, in a dry, ventilated place.

24. A right-hand laid fibre rope should be coiled down

  • A. Either way, it does not matter
  • B. Clockwise
  • C. In a figure of eight only
  • D. Anticlockwise
Answer: B — Clockwise
A right-hand laid rope is coiled clockwise, with the lay, to prevent kinks and twists. Coiling it against the lay puts turns into the rope and causes kinking when it runs out.

25. The fibre core of a steel wire rope is mainly provided to

  • A. Increase the breaking strength of the rope
  • B. Make the rope float
  • C. Give flexibility and hold lubricant inside the rope
  • D. Prevent the rope from stretching
Answer: C — Give flexibility and hold lubricant inside the rope
The fibre heart supports the strands, makes the rope more flexible and holds lubricant that reduces internal wear and corrosion. An independent wire rope core gives greater strength and crush resistance but less flexibility.

26. When bulldog grips are used to make an eye in a wire rope, the U-bolt should be placed on the

  • A. Dead end with the saddle also on the dead end
  • B. Dead (short) end and the saddle on the live (standing) part
  • C. Live part and the saddle on the dead end
  • D. Eye of the wire only
Answer: B — Dead (short) end and the saddle on the live (standing) part
The saddle grips without damaging the wire, so it goes on the live, load-bearing part, and the U-bolt goes on the dead end. Seamen remember this as 'never saddle a dead horse'.

27. Under SOLAS, a pilot ladder alone may be used only when the climb to the point of access is not less than 1.5 m and not more than

  • A. 12 m
  • B. 15 m
  • C. 9 m
  • D. 6 m
Answer: C — 9 m
SOLAS regulation V/23 limits the use of a pilot ladder alone to a climb of 1.5 m to 9 m above the water. Where the climb exceeds 9 m, an accommodation ladder used with the pilot ladder (combination arrangement) is required.

28. While rigging a pilot ladder, which equipment must be kept ready at the point of access?

  • A. A lifebuoy with a self-igniting light and a heaving line
  • B. A breathing apparatus
  • C. A fire hose with water running
  • D. A stretcher and splints
Answer: A — A lifebuoy with a self-igniting light and a heaving line
SOLAS V/23 requires a lifebuoy with a self-igniting light, and a heaving line, kept ready at hand at the pilot boarding position, together with adequate lighting at night so the ladder and pilot can be seen.

29. The side ropes of a pilot ladder must be secured to

  • A. Strong points on the ship, not to the handrails
  • B. The lowest spreader of the ladder
  • C. The accommodation ladder platform
  • D. The ship's rails using shackles
Answer: A — Strong points on the ship, not to the handrails
The pilot ladder must be secured to strong points, which are strong enough to take the load. Securing it to handrails or other weak fittings has led to fatal accidents when the fittings gave way.

30. A gun tackle consists of two single blocks. When rove to advantage, ignoring friction, its mechanical advantage is

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 4
  • D. 3
Answer: D — 3
Mechanical advantage equals the number of parts of rope at the moving block. Rove to advantage, a gun tackle has three parts at the moving block giving 3; rove to disadvantage it has two parts giving 2.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these GSK questions as a timed paper All 585 GSK questions and answers GSK exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

Send this GSK answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers

Mariners DigestBrief for seafarers, Tue–SatSIRE PRO: Ship InspectionTanker inspection prepRightShip ProRISQ 3.2 dry-cargo inspection prepCOLREGS ReaderRules of the road, read aloud