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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 4 — Medical Care Course on Board Ship

Set 4 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 296 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 4 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. Signs of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are:

  • A. A feeling of tightness in the chest and throat
  • B. Swelling of the face, neck and tongue
  • C. Rash, dizziness or confusion
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) can cause chest and throat tightness, swelling of the face, neck and tongue, rash or hives, dizziness and confusion. It can quickly block the airway and cause shock, so adrenaline and urgent medical help are needed.

2. Crepitus is:

  • A. Poor distal circulation
  • B. A grating sound or feeling caused by broken bone ends rubbing together
  • C. A type of splint
  • D. A type of fracture
Answer: B — A grating sound or feeling caused by broken bone ends rubbing together
Crepitus is the grating sound or feeling produced when fractured bone ends rub together, and it is a sign of fracture. First aiders should not try to cause it deliberately, because moving the bone ends causes pain and further damage.

3. What should you do if you think a casualty has serious internal bleeding?

  • A. Apply heat to the injured area
  • B. Call for emergency medical help
  • C. Place the casualty in a sitting position
  • D. Give fluids to replace blood loss
Answer: B — Call for emergency medical help
Internal bleeding cannot be controlled by first aid and needs urgent hospital care. Call for help at once or obtain radio medical advice at sea, treat for shock by lying the casualty down, and give nothing by mouth in case surgery is needed.

4. A patient who is deeply unconscious, with no spontaneous breathing and fixed dilated pupils for 15-30 minutes, indicates:

  • A. Cerebral palsy
  • B. Cerebral (brain) death
  • C. Myocardial infarction
  • D. Angina pectoris
Answer: B — Cerebral (brain) death
Lack of spontaneous breathing, deep unconsciousness and fixed dilated pupils that do not react to light over a long period are signs that the brain has stopped working. These are among the criteria used to recognise brain death.

5. Inflatable splints are made in various sizes, shaped for the upper and lower limbs. What is the advantage of an inflatable splint?

  • A. It should never be used for a leg fracture
  • B. It is easier to apply even pressure to the injured area, and swelling and bleeding are easier to observe
  • C. It allows a man to walk on a fractured leg almost immediately
  • D. An inflatable splint cannot fail
Answer: B — It is easier to apply even pressure to the injured area, and swelling and bleeding are easier to observe
An inflatable splint gives even support and gentle pressure around the limb, which helps control bleeding and swelling. Clear splints also let the first aider see the wound. Circulation below the splint must still be checked regularly.

6. A crew member begins to choke on food at the mess table. He cannot speak, breathe or cough. How can you help?

  • A. Take him to the nearest hospital
  • B. Call a doctor
  • C. Give up to five blows between his shoulder blades
  • D. Get him to lie down flat
Answer: C — Give up to five blows between his shoulder blades
For a conscious adult with severe choking, give up to five sharp back blows between the shoulder blades while he leans forward. If this fails, give up to five abdominal thrusts and continue alternating. Delay to fetch help could be fatal.

7. You attempt to give a rescue breath to an unconscious adult, but the breath does not go in. What is the next step?

  • A. Perform abdominal thrusts
  • B. Begin CPR
  • C. Leave the casualty
  • D. Repeat the head tilt/chin lift and attempt the breath again
Answer: D — Repeat the head tilt/chin lift and attempt the breath again
The most common reason a breath does not go in is poor airway positioning. Re-tilt the head and lift the chin, then try again. If the second breath also fails, treat for an obstructed airway and continue CPR, checking the mouth for objects.

8. In general, a splint should be:

  • A. Loose, so that the casualty can still move the injured limb
  • B. Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation
  • C. Tied with cravats over the injured area
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation
A splint must immobilise the fracture and the joints above and below it, so it should be firm. It must not be so tight that it cuts off circulation, and knots and ties should not be placed directly over the injury. Circulation is checked after applying it.

9. What would you do if a casualty had a body part torn or cut off?

  • A. Wrap the severed part in sterile gauze
  • B. Place it in a plastic bag
  • C. Put the plastic bag on ice and send it to hospital with the casualty
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
An amputated part should be wrapped in moist sterile gauze, sealed in a plastic bag, and the bag kept cool on ice, never with the part in direct contact with ice. It goes with the casualty to give the best chance of reattachment, while bleeding from the stump is controlled.

10. Severe chest pain occurs when the coronary arteries become too narrow for enough oxygenated blood to reach the heart muscle. Attacks normally last a few minutes and stop if the casualty rests. Which medicine should be taken during an angina pectoris attack?

  • A. Pethidine
  • B. Chloroquine phosphate
  • C. Paracetamol tablets
  • D. Glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerine) tablets
Answer: D — Glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerine) tablets
Glyceryl trinitrate (nitroglycerine), placed under the tongue, dilates the blood vessels and reduces the work of the heart, relieving angina within minutes. It is carried in ships' medicine chests under the WHO International Medical Guide for Ships.

11. How should you react to an emergency?

  • A. Assess the scene for safety
  • B. Estimate the number of casualties and call for help
  • C. Get the first aid kit and put on PPE before helping
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
A first aider first makes sure the scene is safe, then works out how many casualties there are and summons help. They put on PPE such as gloves and bring the first aid kit before starting treatment. All these steps protect both the rescuer and the casualty.

12. The mammalian diving reflex refers to:

  • A. An increase in heart rate and breathing
  • B. A decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood vessels
  • C. An increase in heart rate and constriction of the pupils
  • D. A decrease in heart rate and constriction of blood vessels
Answer: D — A decrease in heart rate and constriction of blood vessels
When the face is immersed in cold water the diving reflex slows the heart (bradycardia) and constricts peripheral blood vessels, keeping blood for the brain and heart. This partly explains why cold-water drowning victims sometimes survive long immersion.

13. If a casualty is not breathing normally, what is the first thing you should do?

  • A. Give two rescue breaths
  • B. Check for a pulse in the neck
  • C. Call for emergency medical help and a defibrillator
  • D. Give thirty chest compressions
Answer: C — Call for emergency medical help and a defibrillator
Current resuscitation guidelines say that once a casualty is unresponsive and not breathing normally, the rescuer must call for help and an AED immediately. CPR then starts with 30 chest compressions followed by 2 breaths.

14. When caring for a choking infant, in what position is the infant held?

  • A. Upside down by the ankles and shoulders
  • B. Face up on a flat surface
  • C. Face down along your forearm with the head lower than the body
  • D. Face down on your knee with the head lower than the body
Answer: C — Face down along your forearm with the head lower than the body
A choking infant is laid face down along the rescuer's forearm, supported at the jaw, with the head lower than the chest. Up to five back blows are given, then the infant is turned for chest thrusts. Infants must never be held upside down by the ankles.

15. You find a person at the bottom of a stairway who appears to have fallen and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you should:

  • A. Roll the casualty onto his stomach, keeping the head and back in line
  • B. Roll the casualty onto one side
  • C. Sit the casualty up to help him breathe
  • D. Try to keep the casualty from moving
Answer: D — Try to keep the casualty from moving
A fall from height may cause a spinal injury, so the casualty should be kept still with the head supported in line, unless the airway or danger makes moving unavoidable. Unnecessary movement could cause permanent paralysis.

16. Which signs and symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion?

  • A. Cool, moist, pale or flushed skin
  • B. Rapid, weak pulse
  • C. Rapid, shallow breathing
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Heat exhaustion results from loss of fluid and salt through heavy sweating. Typical signs are cool, moist, pale or flushed skin, a rapid weak pulse, rapid shallow breathing, headache, nausea and weakness. If untreated it can progress to heatstroke.

17. Chest compressions should be started within ____ of recognising cardiac arrest.

  • A. 10 seconds
  • B. 20 seconds
  • C. 2 seconds
  • D. 15 seconds
Answer: A — 10 seconds
BLS guidelines stress minimal delay: the check for breathing and pulse should take no more than 10 seconds, and compressions should begin within 10 seconds of recognising cardiac arrest. Every minute without CPR greatly lowers the chance of survival.

18. What is the best way to control external bleeding?

  • A. Direct pressure
  • B. Elevation
  • C. Pressure points
  • D. Use of a tourniquet
Answer: A — Direct pressure
Firm direct pressure on the wound with a dressing or pad is the most effective first aid for most external bleeding. Elevation may help, and a tourniquet is kept for life-threatening limb bleeding that direct pressure cannot control.

19. When performing adult CPR, you give:

  • A. 30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
  • B. 10 chest compressions and 1 rescue breath
  • C. 10 chest compressions and 5 rescue breaths
  • D. 15 chest compressions and 3 rescue breaths
Answer: A — 30 chest compressions and 2 rescue breaths
Current adult CPR guidelines use a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths for both single and two rescuers. Compressions are given at 100-120 per minute and 5-6 cm deep, with minimal interruptions.

20. An example of an irregular bone is:

  • A. Carpal bones
  • B. Cranial bone
  • C. Vertebra
  • D. Femur
Answer: C — Vertebra
Irregular bones have complex shapes that do not fit the long, short or flat categories. Vertebrae are the classic example. The femur is a long bone, the carpals are short bones and the cranial bones are flat bones.

21. When giving chest compressions, approximately how many compressions per minute is correct?

  • A. About 40 compressions per minute
  • B. About 10 compressions per minute
  • C. About 100 compressions per minute
  • D. About 60 compressions per minute
Answer: C — About 100 compressions per minute
Resuscitation guidelines call for chest compressions at 100-120 per minute, about 5-6 cm deep in adults, allowing full chest recoil. Slower rates produce too little blood flow to keep the brain and heart alive.

22. Which is the top, or uppermost, layer of the epidermis?

  • A. Dermis
  • B. Stratum corneum
  • C. Stratum mucosum
  • D. Stratum granulosum
Answer: B — Stratum corneum
The stratum corneum is the outermost layer of the epidermis, made of flattened dead keratinised cells that form a protective barrier. The stratum granulosum and the deeper living layers lie beneath it, while the dermis is a separate layer below the epidermis.

23. Which of the following behaviours reduces your risk of injury?

  • A. Always wearing a safety harness when working at heights
  • B. Limiting intake of alcohol
  • C. Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol
  • D. Both wearing a safety harness at heights and limiting alcohol intake
Answer: D — Both wearing a safety harness at heights and limiting alcohol intake
Wearing a safety harness when working aloft prevents falls, and limiting alcohol keeps judgement and coordination intact, so both reduce injury risk. Limiting cholesterol is good for long-term heart health but does not directly reduce the risk of injury.

24. What does the American Heart Association (AHA) recommend untrained bystanders do if they witness a cardiac emergency?

  • A. Call for help but do not perform CPR
  • B. Do nothing
  • C. Call for help and perform conventional CPR with rescue breaths
  • D. Call for help and perform hands-only CPR
Answer: D — Call for help and perform hands-only CPR
The AHA advises untrained bystanders who see an adult suddenly collapse to call for help and give hands-only CPR, pushing hard and fast in the centre of the chest. Compression-only CPR is easy to learn and keeps blood flowing until an AED or trained help arrives.

25. Which of the following statements about performing chest compressions is incorrect?

  • A. Minimise interruptions
  • B. Position yourself at the side of the patient
  • C. Allow only partial recoil of the chest
  • D. Press down at least 2 inches (5 cm) in adults
Answer: C — Allow only partial recoil of the chest
Resuscitation guidelines require full chest recoil after each compression so the heart can refill with blood. Allowing only partial recoil reduces blood flow, whereas minimising interruptions, kneeling at the patient's side and compressing at least 5 cm in adults are all correct practice.

26. You may suspect that someone has been poisoned if they:

  • A. Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhoea
  • B. Have chest or abdominal pain or breathing difficulty
  • C. Have burns around the lips, tongue or on the skin
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Poisoning by swallowing, inhalation or contact can produce gastrointestinal upset, chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty and chemical burns around the mouth or on the skin. Any of these signs, especially with a suspicious container or substance nearby, should raise suspicion of poisoning.

27. In the absence of a doctor, how long should artificial respiration and chest compressions be continued?

  • A. Until the casualty turns pale and starts to go cold
  • B. Until the casualty has had fixed and dilated pupils for 15 minutes
  • C. Until 20 minutes have passed without any response
  • D. Until the heart starts beating or the rescuer is unable to continue because of exhaustion
Answer: D — Until the heart starts beating or the rescuer is unable to continue because of exhaustion
First aid CPR should be continued until there are signs of life, qualified help takes over, or the rescuer is too exhausted to continue. Pale cold skin, dilated pupils or a fixed time limit are not reliable reasons for a first aider to stop resuscitation.

28. On an infant, where would you check the pulse?

  • A. Inside the wrist just above the hand
  • B. On the neck to the right or left side of the windpipe
  • C. Behind the kneecap
  • D. Inside the upper arm between the elbow and shoulder
Answer: D — Inside the upper arm between the elbow and shoulder
In infants the brachial pulse on the inside of the upper arm, between elbow and shoulder, is used because the short neck makes the carotid pulse hard to locate and the radial pulse is weak. The carotid is used for adults and children.

29. Treatment of burns and scalds depends on the severity of the injury. What is the correct thing to do for minor burns and scalds?

  • A. Apply lotions, ointments or fat to the injury
  • B. Break blisters and remove any loose skin or foreign objects from the injured area
  • C. Remove all clothing stuck to the burn
  • D. Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, preferably until the pain is gone; if no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid
Answer: D — Place the injured part under slowly running cold water for at least 10 minutes, preferably until the pain is gone; if no water is available, use any cold, harmless liquid
Cooling the burn with cool running water for at least 10 minutes reduces tissue damage, pain and swelling. Ointments trap heat, breaking blisters invites infection, and clothing stuck to a burn must never be pulled off.

30. You find a child who is unresponsive. After shouting for help, you check and find the child is not breathing. What is the next step?

  • A. Leave the child and search for an AED
  • B. Deliver rescue breaths first, as most cardiac arrests in children are due to breathing problems
  • C. Begin back blows and chest thrusts
  • D. Deliver 30 chest compressions
Answer: D — Deliver 30 chest compressions
Current AHA guidelines use the C-A-B sequence: for an unresponsive child who is not breathing, start CPR with 30 chest compressions followed by 2 breaths. A lone rescuer should give about two minutes of CPR before leaving to fetch an AED.

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