1. Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?
- A. Rapid weak pulse and excessive thirst
- B. Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish
- C. Tender, swollen, bruised or hard areas of the body, such as the abdomen
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Internal bleeding causes signs of shock such as a rapid weak pulse, thirst and cool, pale or bluish moist skin, together with local signs like tender, swollen, bruised or rigid areas, especially the abdomen. All the listed findings point to internal bleeding.
2. When immobilising a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is strapped first?
- A. Chest
- B. Pelvis
- C. Legs
- D. Head
Answer: A — Chest
The torso is secured first, starting at the chest, then the pelvis and legs, and the head is secured last. Strapping the head before the body could cause the neck to move if the body shifts, aggravating a spinal injury.
3. Signals of head and spine injuries include:
- A. Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose
- B. Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spine
- C. Seizures, severe headache or slurred speech
- D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Head and spinal injuries may show as blood or clear fluid from the ears or nose, unusual bumps or depressions on the head or spine, and neurological signs such as seizures, severe headache or slurred speech. Any of these signals calls for spinal precautions.
4. When you are giving mouth-to-nose artificial respiration, you should:
- A. Hold the casualty's mouth closed
- B. Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing air into the casualty
- C. Tilt the head back less than for mouth-to-mouth respiration
- D. Keep the mouth and nose closed between breaths
Answer: A — Hold the casualty's mouth closed
In mouth-to-nose ventilation the rescuer seals the casualty's mouth closed with a hand and blows through the nose, so air goes into the lungs rather than escaping through the mouth. The mouth may be opened between breaths to let air out.
5. What does the 'A' stand for in the acronym DRABC?
- A. Accident
- B. Airway
- C. Ambulance
- D. Alert
Answer: B — Airway
DRABC stands for Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing and Circulation, the primary survey sequence in first aid. After checking for danger and response, the first aider opens the airway with head tilt and chin lift before assessing breathing.
6. Which artery's pressure point is located on the front of the upper leg, just below the middle of the crease of the groin?
- A. Radial artery
- B. Popliteal artery
- C. Brachial artery
- D. Femoral artery
Answer: D — Femoral artery
The femoral artery passes under the inguinal ligament at the midpoint of the groin crease, where it can be pressed against the pelvis to slow severe bleeding from the leg. The radial and brachial are arm arteries and the popliteal lies behind the knee.
7. When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?
- A. Elevate the injury
- B. Apply direct pressure
- C. Apply a loose dressing
- D. Apply a tourniquet
Answer: B — Apply direct pressure
Firm direct pressure over the wound is the first and most effective way to control external bleeding. Elevation may assist, a dressing is then bandaged firmly in place, and a tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening limb bleeding that direct pressure cannot control.
8. The most important step in managing shock is to:
- A. Keep the patient warm
- B. Give CPR as soon as possible
- C. Give first aid for the illness or injury causing it
- D. Elevate the lower extremities
Answer: C — Give first aid for the illness or injury causing it
Shock is a result of an underlying problem such as bleeding, burns or severe illness, so treating that cause is the most important step. Keeping the casualty warm and lying down are supportive measures, and CPR is only needed if breathing stops.
9. Immediately before a seizure, the patient experiences an unpleasant odour. This phase is referred to as the:
- A. Clonic phase
- B. Aura
- C. Tonic phase
- D. Postictal phase
Answer: B — Aura
An aura is a warning sensation, such as a strange smell, taste or visual disturbance, felt just before a seizure begins. The tonic phase is stiffening, the clonic phase is rhythmic jerking, and the postictal phase is the recovery period afterwards.
10. If you find a person who is unresponsive and not breathing, what should you do?
- A. Push hard and fast in the centre of their chest
- B. Wait for the paramedics to arrive
- C. Roll them on their side with their head back
- D. None of these
Answer: A — Push hard and fast in the centre of their chest
An unresponsive person who is not breathing normally is in cardiac arrest and needs immediate chest compressions in the centre of the chest at 100 to 120 per minute. Placing them in the recovery position or waiting wastes the critical minutes when CPR can save life.
11. When performing CPR on an adult, how deep should the chest compressions be?
- A. 1.5 inches (4 cm)
- B. 2 inches (5 cm)
- C. 2.5 inches (6.5 cm)
- D. 3 inches (7.5 cm)
Answer: B — 2 inches (5 cm)
Resuscitation guidelines call for adult chest compressions of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than about 2.4 inches (6 cm), at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute with full recoil. Shallower compressions do not produce adequate blood flow.
12. What do you do for a chemical burn?
- A. Flush with water, dry and cover
- B. Flush with large amounts of water briefly and cover
- C. Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives
- D. Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives
Answer: D — Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives
Chemical burns are treated by continuous flushing with large amounts of cool running water to dilute and remove the chemical, continuing until medical help arrives. Brief flushing leaves chemical on the skin, and warm water can increase absorption and tissue damage.
13. How should you give chest compressions on a small child?
- A. With two fingers
- B. With the heel of one hand
- C. With the elbows slightly bent
- D. Only with two hands as for an adult
Answer: B — With the heel of one hand
For a small child, compressions are given with the heel of one hand (two hands may be used for a larger child) to a depth of about one third of the chest. Two fingers are used for infants, and the arms should be kept straight, not bent.
14. What are the four links in the Chain of Survival?
- A. Effective CPR, effective defibrillation, effective rescue breaths, early advanced care
- B. Early defibrillation, effective CPR, effective advanced care, early transport to hospital
- C. Early access to help, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care
- D. Early defibrillation, effective CPR, effective rescue breaths, early transport to hospital
Answer: C — Early access to help, early CPR, early defibrillation, early advanced care
The classic Chain of Survival consists of early recognition and call for help, early CPR, early defibrillation and early advanced care. Each link must be in place quickly, because survival from cardiac arrest falls sharply with every minute of delay.
15. What is a TIA?
- A. Transient ischaemic attack
- B. Transient idiopathic attack
- C. Temporary ischaemic attack
- D. Trace inside artery
Answer: A — Transient ischaemic attack
A TIA, or transient ischaemic attack, is a temporary interruption of blood supply to part of the brain, causing stroke-like symptoms that resolve fully, usually within 24 hours. It is a warning sign of possible stroke and needs urgent medical advice.
16. The FAST test can be used for a victim suspected of having a stroke. What does it stand for?
- A. Face, Arms, Speech, Time
- B. Face, Arms, Speech, Technique
- C. Face, Alertness, Speech, Temperature
- D. Feet, Arms, Speech, Time
Answer: A — Face, Arms, Speech, Time
FAST stands for Face (drooping), Arms (weakness, cannot raise both), Speech (slurred or confused) and Time (to call for urgent medical help). Rapid recognition matters because stroke treatment is most effective when given early.
17. Fever, nausea, sensitivity to light, stiff neck and severe headache are signs of which serious medical condition?
- A. Epilepsy
- B. Meningitis
- C. Influenza
- D. Glandular fever
Answer: B — Meningitis
Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. The classic combination of fever, severe headache, neck stiffness, photophobia and vomiting, sometimes with a non-blanching rash, requires urgent medical advice and treatment.
18. Which drug can reverse the effects of anaphylaxis?
- A. Epinephrine (adrenaline)
- B. Salbutamol
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Answer: A — Epinephrine (adrenaline)
Adrenaline (epinephrine), given intramuscularly, for example by auto-injector, constricts blood vessels and relaxes airway muscles, reversing the life-threatening airway swelling and low blood pressure of anaphylaxis. Salbutamol helps asthma but does not treat the whole reaction.
19. What is a faint?
- A. A response to fear
- B. An unexpected collapse
- C. A brief loss of consciousness
- D. A sign of flu
Answer: C — A brief loss of consciousness
A faint (syncope) is a brief loss of consciousness caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the brain. Recovery is usually quick once the casualty lies down; raising the legs helps restore blood flow to the brain.
20. What should your first action be when treating an electrical burn?
- A. Ensure that the casualty is still breathing
- B. Wash the burn with cold water
- C. Check for danger and ensure that contact with the electrical source is broken
- D. Check the level of response
Answer: C — Check for danger and ensure that contact with the electrical source is broken
With any electrical injury the first priority is the rescuer's safety: check for danger and make sure the power is switched off or contact is broken before touching the casualty. Only then assess response, breathing and treat the burns.
21. What is the correct ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths for CPR on an adult casualty?
- A. 2 compressions : 30 rescue breaths
- B. 5 compressions : 1 rescue breath
- C. 15 compressions : 2 rescue breaths
- D. 30 compressions : 2 rescue breaths
Answer: D — 30 compressions : 2 rescue breaths
Current adult CPR guidelines specify cycles of 30 chest compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths, whether there is one or two rescuers. The older 15:2 and 5:1 ratios are no longer used because they interrupt compressions too often.
22. How long should you check to see whether an unconscious casualty is breathing normally?
- A. No more than 10 seconds
- B. Approximately 1 minute
- C. Exactly 30 seconds
- D. At least 20 seconds
Answer: A — No more than 10 seconds
Resuscitation guidelines say to look, listen and feel for normal breathing for no more than 10 seconds. If there is any doubt that breathing is normal, assume it is not and start CPR, since longer checks delay life-saving compressions.
23. Abdominal thrusts are used in the first aid treatment of someone suffering from:
- A. Asthma
- B. Strangulation
- C. Diabetic coma
- D. Choking
Answer: D — Choking
Abdominal thrusts (the Heimlich manoeuvre) force air up from the lungs to dislodge an object blocking the airway in a conscious choking casualty. They are of no use in asthma, strangulation or diabetic coma, which have different causes.
24. If blood continues to seep through the bandage, you should:
- A. Apply a further dressing over the original
- B. Remove the bandage and redress the wound
- C. Remove the bandage and apply indirect pressure
- D. Apply a tourniquet
Answer: A — Apply a further dressing over the original
If blood seeps through, place another dressing on top of the original and bandage firmly, keeping pressure on the wound. Removing the first dressing disturbs clots forming in the wound and restarts the bleeding.
25. Which of the following is NOT a sign of an asthma attack?
- A. Panicking
- B. Shouting
- C. Noisy, wheezy breathing
- D. Unconsciousness
Answer: B — Shouting
During an asthma attack the narrowed airways make speaking difficult, so the casualty can often manage only a few words and cannot shout. Anxiety or panic, wheezing and, in a severe attack, exhaustion leading to unconsciousness are recognised signs.
26. Which of the following should you do to treat a sprain?
- A. Keep the injury low
- B. Give a gentle massage
- C. Apply a cold compress
- D. Apply warmth
Answer: C — Apply a cold compress
A sprain is treated with RICE: rest, ice or cold compress, compression and elevation. Cold reduces swelling and pain, whereas warmth and massage increase blood flow and swelling, and the limb should be raised, not kept low.
27. What do you think is wrong with a person who is staring blankly, not responding, making twitching movements and fiddling with his clothes?
- A. Seizure
- B. Heart attack
- C. Stroke
- D. Diabetes
Answer: A — Seizure
Blank staring, unresponsiveness, twitching and automatic movements such as plucking at clothing are typical of a focal (complex partial) seizure. The casualty should be protected from harm, not restrained, and observed until fully alert.
28. What do you think is wrong with a person who is wheezing, having difficulty breathing out, and is weak and distressed?
- A. Heart attack
- B. Asthma
- C. Anaphylactic shock
- D. Stroke
Answer: B — Asthma
Asthma narrows the small airways, causing wheezing and particular difficulty breathing out, with distress and exhaustion. The casualty should sit upright, leaning slightly forward, and use their reliever inhaler.
29. What would you suspect if, soon after applying a dressing to the arm, the fingers turn pale or bluish?
- A. There may be a fracture underneath
- B. There is a foreign object in the wound
- C. Blood circulation has been cut off
- D. The casualty may be suffering from frostbite
Answer: C — Blood circulation has been cut off
Pale or bluish fingers below a bandage show the bandage is too tight and is restricting circulation. Check circulation after bandaging and loosen and reapply the bandage if colour, warmth or capillary refill are poor.
30. You are the only first aider and have an unconscious, non-breathing adult. What should you do first?
- A. Start CPR with chest compressions
- B. Give five initial rescue breaths
- C. Call for help, requesting an AED (defibrillator) and an ambulance
- D. Give two initial rescue breaths
Answer: C — Call for help, requesting an AED (defibrillator) and an ambulance
For an adult in cardiac arrest the lone rescuer first calls for help and an AED, since most adult arrests are cardiac and early defibrillation is critical. CPR with 30 compressions then starts immediately, using a speakerphone if possible.
