MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 6 — Medical Care Course on Board Ship
Set 6 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 296 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 6 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers
1. There has been an accident on board and urgent medical advice is needed. Your radio call should be preceded by the:
- A. Emergency call
- B. Distress call
- C. Urgency call
- D. Man overboard signal
Answer: C — Urgency call
A call for urgent medical advice (radio medical) is prefixed by the urgency signal PAN PAN, used when the safety of a person is at risk but there is no grave and imminent danger requiring the distress signal MAYDAY.
2. What are inflatable air splints made of?
- A. Stainless steel
- B. Copper
- C. Aluminium
- D. Plastic
Answer: D — Plastic
Inflatable air splints are made of clear, flexible plastic that is inflated around the limb to immobilise it. The transparent material lets the first aider watch the injury and circulation, though pressure must be checked so the splint does not become too tight.
3. You have a casualty who is not breathing and has facial injuries that prevent you from performing mouth-to-mouth. What should you do?
- A. Wait for the ambulance
- B. Perform abdominal thrusts
- C. Give 50 chest compressions and stop
- D. Continue with compression-only CPR at 100 to 120 per minute until help arrives
Answer: D — Continue with compression-only CPR at 100 to 120 per minute until help arrives
If rescue breaths cannot be given, compression-only CPR should be performed continuously at 100 to 120 compressions per minute until qualified help or a defibrillator arrives. Chest compressions alone still circulate some oxygenated blood and are far better than doing nothing.
4. A crew member is coughing up blood, is tender in the abdomen and has a weak, rapid pulse. The crew member is showing signs of:
- A. Minor muscle strain
- B. Internal bleeding
- C. Drug overdose
- D. Food poisoning
Answer: B — Internal bleeding
Coughing up blood, abdominal tenderness and a rapid weak pulse indicate blood loss inside the body with developing shock, i.e. internal bleeding. The casualty needs to be kept at rest, treated for shock and urgent radio medical advice obtained.
5. The normal rate of breathing for an adult at rest is:
- A. 12-20 breaths per minute
- B. 30-40 breaths per minute
- C. 20-30 breaths per minute
- D. 1-2 breaths per minute
Answer: A — 12-20 breaths per minute
A healthy adult at rest breathes about 12 to 20 times per minute. Rates persistently above or below this range in a casualty may indicate shock, respiratory distress, head injury or poisoning and should be recorded and monitored.
6. Always suspect shock if a crew member:
- A. Is mean, slurs his words and smells of alcohol
- B. Is bleeding heavily
- C. Stops exercising because of a leg cramp
- D. Has stepped on a nail
Answer: B — Is bleeding heavily
Heavy bleeding reduces circulating blood volume, which leads to hypovolaemic shock. Any casualty with significant blood loss should be treated for shock by controlling the bleeding, laying them down, keeping them warm and monitoring breathing and pulse.
7. Hypovolaemic shock results from:
- A. The body's reaction to a foreign protein
- B. An overdose of insulin
- C. Toxins produced by a severe infection
- D. Decreased volume of blood
Answer: D — Decreased volume of blood
Hypovolaemic shock is caused by a loss of circulating volume from bleeding, burns, vomiting or diarrhoea, so the heart cannot maintain blood pressure. Reaction to foreign protein causes anaphylactic shock, and severe infection causes septic shock.
8. To treat a nosebleed:
- A. Pinch the nose and ask the crew member to lean slightly back
- B. Pinch the nose and ask the crew member to lean slightly forward
- C. Apply a heat pack to the nose
- D. Make the crew member lie flat on the floor
Answer: B — Pinch the nose and ask the crew member to lean slightly forward
The casualty should sit and lean forward while pinching the soft part of the nose for about 10 minutes. Leaning forward lets blood drain out of the nose instead of being swallowed, which can cause vomiting or obstruct the airway.
9. If a casualty is in an enclosed space, you should:
- A. Enter the enclosed space and rescue the casualty without wasting any time
- B. Raise the alarm, ask for help and inform the Master
- C. Enter the enclosed space with breathing apparatus only as part of the rescue team acting under instructions
- D. Both raise the alarm and inform the Master, and enter only with breathing apparatus as part of the rescue team
Answer: D — Both raise the alarm and inform the Master, and enter only with breathing apparatus as part of the rescue team
Many deaths occur when would-be rescuers enter an enclosed space unprotected. SOLAS Reg III/19 requires enclosed space rescue drills; the correct action is to raise the alarm, inform the Master and enter only as part of an organised rescue team wearing breathing apparatus.
10. What should you do if you feel a rib break while performing chest compressions?
- A. Stop CPR immediately
- B. Perform rescue breaths only
- C. Slow down the chest compressions
- D. Check your hand position and continue chest compressions
Answer: D — Check your hand position and continue chest compressions
Rib fractures are a common consequence of effective CPR and are far less serious than stopping resuscitation. The rescuer should check that the hands are on the lower half of the breastbone and continue compressions at the correct rate and depth.
11. You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by:
- A. Tight bandages and a heating pad
- B. Rest, immobilisation, application of cold and elevation
- C. Rigid splints and bandages only
- D. Compression, elevation and application of heat
Answer: B — Rest, immobilisation, application of cold and elevation
Rest, immobilisation, cold and elevation reduce bleeding and fluid build-up in the injured tissues, controlling both swelling and pain. Heat increases blood flow and swelling, and tight bandages can cut off circulation.
12. When should you attempt to move a casualty?
- A. When you are strong enough
- B. Never move a casualty
- C. As soon as you arrive
- D. Only if it is necessary and safe for you and the casualty
Answer: D — Only if it is necessary and safe for you and the casualty
A casualty should be treated where found unless there is immediate danger, such as fire, toxic gas or risk of falling, or the move is essential for treatment. Unnecessary movement can worsen injuries, especially spinal ones, and the rescuer's own safety comes first.
13. The accepted treatment for a femur (thigh) fracture is:
- A. Place a short padded splint on each side of the leg
- B. This type of fracture is best handled by those with special training
- C. Move the victim before properly applying a leg splint
- D. Walk the victim to a bunk and then splint the leg
Answer: B — This type of fracture is best handled by those with special training
A fractured femur can cause severe internal bleeding and shock and needs traction splinting, which is best done by those with special training. The first aider should keep the casualty still, support the limb, treat for shock and obtain medical help.
14. Before giving CPR, you must first make sure that the casualty is:
- A. Not bleeding
- B. Unresponsive (unconscious)
- C. Not vomiting
- D. Not dead
Answer: B — Unresponsive (unconscious)
After ensuring the scene is safe, the rescuer checks responsiveness by speaking to and gently shaking the casualty. CPR is only given to someone who is unresponsive and not breathing normally, so responsiveness must be established first.
15. A greenstick fracture is:
- A. A fracture where the bone is broken into several fragments
- B. A fracture that is hardly noticed
- C. An incomplete fracture, commonly seen in children
- D. An irreparable fracture
Answer: C — An incomplete fracture, commonly seen in children
In a greenstick fracture the bone bends and cracks on one side without breaking completely, like a green twig. It occurs mainly in children, whose bones are softer and more flexible, and it usually heals well.
16. The accepted treatment for a sprained ankle is:
- A. Remove the shoe and check swelling using the capillary refill method
- B. Keep the shoe on, apply a bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
- C. Keep the shoe on, apply a splint and apply heat if possible
- D. Have the victim walk or move as soon as possible to prevent stiffness
Answer: B — Keep the shoe on, apply a bandage for support, elevate and apply cold towels
Leaving the shoe on gives support and limits swelling, while a supporting bandage, elevation and cold applications reduce pain and swelling. Heat and early walking on the injured ankle increase swelling and may worsen the damage.
17. By approximately what percentage can survival time in cold water be increased by adopting the huddle position?
- A. 20%
- B. 50%
- C. 60%
- D. 75%
Answer: B — 50%
Adopting the HELP or huddle position reduces heat loss from the high-loss areas of the body such as the chest, groin and armpits. Survival training material states this can increase survival time in cold water by about 50%.
18. At what stage of immersion does falling body temperature (hypothermia) become the primary threat?
- A. Initial immersion (cold shock)
- B. Short-term immersion (swim failure)
- C. Long-term immersion
- D. Post-rescue collapse
Answer: C — Long-term immersion
Cold water immersion has four stages: cold shock in the first minutes, swim failure within about 30 minutes, hypothermia during long-term immersion beyond about 30 minutes, and post-rescue collapse. Falling core temperature is the main danger in the long-term stage.
19. Which precaution should be taken when treating burns caused by contact with dry lime?
- A. Water should be applied in a fine spray
- B. The burned area should be immersed in water
- C. The entire burn area should be covered with ointment
- D. Before washing with water, the lime should be gently brushed off the skin
Answer: D — Before washing with water, the lime should be gently brushed off the skin
Dry lime reacts with water to produce heat and a strong alkali, so as much powder as possible must be brushed away first. The area is then flushed with large amounts of running water to remove the remaining chemical.
20. What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space?
- A. Second degree burns
- B. Suffocation
- C. Electric shock
- D. Burst eardrums
Answer: B — Suffocation
CO2 extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen, so discharging it in a small enclosed space can reduce the oxygen level enough to suffocate personnel. The space should be ventilated after use and not entered without breathing apparatus.
21. Doctors recommend the RICE method for treating sprains: Rest, Ice, ____ and Elevation.
- A. Cover
- B. Clean
- C. Compression
- D. Comfort
Answer: C — Compression
RICE stands for Rest, Ice, Compression and Elevation. Compression with an elastic bandage limits swelling, while rest, cold and raising the limb reduce bleeding into tissues and relieve pain after a sprain or strain.
22. When first aid is correctly given to a person with possible broken bones and internal injuries:
- A. The person should be examined on the scene and then walked to a bunk to await medical assistance
- B. The person should be moved from the scene but not allowed to walk without assistance
- C. The person should not lie where injured but should be moved to a chair or bunk
- D. The person should not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
Answer: D — The person should not be moved, but made comfortable until medical assistance arrives
Moving a casualty with fractures or internal injuries can worsen bleeding and damage. Unless there is immediate danger, the casualty should be kept still where found, made comfortable, kept warm and monitored until medical help or proper transport is available.
23. What is the proper treatment for heat stroke?
- A. Rapid cooling of the body
- B. Covering with a blanket
- C. Exercise
- D. Drinking alcohol
Answer: A — Rapid cooling of the body
Heat stroke is a life-threatening failure of the body's temperature control, with core temperature often above 40°C. The casualty must be moved to a cool place and cooled rapidly with wet sheets, fanning or cold packs while urgent medical advice is obtained.
24. Which first aid record must be kept by law on board ship?
- A. The day book
- B. The individual medical records
- C. The medical log book
- D. The oil record book
Answer: C — The medical log book
Treatment given on board, including drugs administered and the casualty's condition, must be entered in the ship's medical log, with significant illness or injury also recorded in the official log. The oil record book is a MARPOL record unrelated to medical care.
25. Which of the following is a non-absorbable suture material?
- A. Dexon
- B. Nylon
- C. Vicryl
- D. Catgut
Answer: B — Nylon
Nylon is a non-absorbable synthetic suture used for skin closure and must be removed after healing, typically in 7 to 10 days. Dexon, Vicryl and catgut are absorbable materials broken down by the body.
26. What action should be taken for a patient suffering from heat exhaustion?
- A. Move them to a cool room and tell them to lie down
- B. Keep them standing and encourage them to walk slowly and continuously
- C. Give a glass of water and tell them to return to work after 15 minutes of rest
- D. Wrap them in warm blankets and give hot drinks
Answer: A — Move them to a cool room and tell them to lie down
Heat exhaustion is caused by loss of water and salt through sweating. The casualty should rest lying down in a cool place with legs raised and be given cool water or oral rehydration fluids, and should not return to hot work until fully recovered.
27. First aid treatment for battery acid or alkali burns consists of:
- A. Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical advice ashore or by radio
- B. Wiping the affected area with a clean dry cloth and resting quietly for several hours
- C. Drying the acid or alkali with a rag and then applying a light cream
- D. Neutralising the chemical immediately with a strong acid or alkali
Answer: A — Flushing with large amounts of fresh water and seeking medical advice ashore or by radio
Acid and alkali burns are treated by flushing with large amounts of fresh water for at least 20 minutes to dilute and remove the chemical, then seeking medical advice. Neutralising agents produce heat and can worsen the burn.
28. Which statement about the blood vessels is correct?
- A. Arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins carry blood towards the heart, and thin-walled capillaries allow exchange with tissue cells
- B. Veins carry blood away from the heart and arteries carry blood towards the heart
- C. Capillaries have thick muscular walls that prevent exchange with tissue cells
- D. Arteries and veins both carry blood away from the heart
Answer: A — Arteries carry blood away from the heart, veins carry blood towards the heart, and thin-walled capillaries allow exchange with tissue cells
Arteries carry blood away from the heart chambers under high pressure, veins return blood towards the heart, and capillaries have walls only one cell thick so that oxygen, nutrients and wastes can be exchanged between the blood and tissue cells.
29. The skeletal protection for the brain and the spinal cord is provided respectively by the:
- A. Cranium and the vertebral column
- B. Sternum and the rib cage
- C. Mandible and the pelvis
- D. Scapula and the clavicle
Answer: A — Cranium and the vertebral column
The bones of the cranium form a rigid case around the brain, while the spinal cord runs through the canal formed by the vertebrae of the vertebral column. Injury to either structure can damage the central nervous system.
30. The two main pairs of arteries supplying oxygenated blood to the brain are the:
- A. Internal carotid and vertebral arteries
- B. Femoral and popliteal arteries
- C. Radial and brachial arteries
- D. Pulmonary and coronary arteries
Answer: A — Internal carotid and vertebral arteries
The brain is supplied by the two internal carotid arteries in the front of the neck and the two vertebral arteries running through the cervical vertebrae, which join at the base of the brain. The other arteries listed supply the limbs, lungs or heart.
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