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MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 7 — Medical Care Course on Board Ship

Set 7 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 296 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 7 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. Where may the pain of a heart attack be felt?

  • A. Only in the centre of the chest
  • B. In the centre of the chest, often spreading to the arms, neck, jaw, back or upper abdomen
  • C. Only in the left arm
  • D. Only in the lower back
Answer: B — In the centre of the chest, often spreading to the arms, neck, jaw, back or upper abdomen
Heart attack pain is usually a crushing pain in the centre of the chest, but it often spreads to one or both arms, the neck, jaw, back or upper abdomen. Some casualties, especially women, diabetics and the elderly, have little chest pain at all.

2. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a heart attack and a cardiac arrest?

  • A. A heart attack is a blockage of blood supply to the heart muscle, while cardiac arrest is when the heart stops pumping effectively
  • B. They are the same thing
  • C. A cardiac arrest is a blockage of a coronary artery, while a heart attack is when the heart stops beating
  • D. A heart attack affects the brain, while a cardiac arrest affects the lungs
Answer: A — A heart attack is a blockage of blood supply to the heart muscle, while cardiac arrest is when the heart stops pumping effectively
A heart attack occurs when a coronary artery is blocked and part of the heart muscle is starved of blood; the casualty is usually conscious and breathing. Cardiac arrest is when the heart stops pumping, and the casualty is unresponsive and needs CPR and defibrillation.

3. What is the name of the tiny air sacs in the lungs?

  • A. Bronchi
  • B. Alveoli
  • C. Trachea
  • D. Pleura
Answer: B — Alveoli
The alveoli are millions of tiny air sacs at the ends of the bronchioles, surrounded by capillaries. Their thin walls allow oxygen to pass into the blood and carbon dioxide to pass out. The bronchi and trachea are airways, and the pleura is the lung's lining.

4. What is the cause of angina?

  • A. Insufficient blood reaching the brain
  • B. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle
  • C. Infection of the lungs
  • D. Inflammation of the stomach lining
Answer: B — Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle
Angina is chest pain caused by narrowed coronary arteries that cannot supply enough blood and oxygen to the heart muscle, usually during exertion or stress. It is relieved by rest and glyceryl trinitrate, unlike a heart attack.

5. When giving mouth-to-mouth respiration, the rescuer should:

  • A. Make a tight seal over the casualty's mouth while pinching the nose closed
  • B. Leave a small gap at the lips so air can escape
  • C. Keep the nose open to allow air to enter
  • D. Blow as hard and fast as possible without a seal
Answer: A — Make a tight seal over the casualty's mouth while pinching the nose closed
A tight seal around the casualty's mouth, with the nose pinched closed, ensures each breath enters the lungs. Each breath is given over about one second, just enough to make the chest rise visibly, avoiding excessive force.

6. What is the difference between sterilization and disinfection?

  • A. Both terms mean exactly the same process
  • B. Disinfection destroys spores; sterilization destroys only bacteria
  • C. Sterilization is used only on skin; disinfection only on instruments
  • D. Sterilization destroys all micro-organisms including spores; disinfection only reduces their number
Answer: D — Sterilization destroys all micro-organisms including spores; disinfection only reduces their number
Sterilization is the complete destruction of all living micro-organisms, including resistant bacterial spores. Disinfection reduces micro-organisms to a safe level but does not reliably kill spores, so it cannot replace sterilization for instruments entering tissue.

7. What is the standard steam autoclave cycle for sterilizing surgical instruments?

  • A. 60°C for 1 hour
  • B. 80°C for 30 minutes
  • C. 121°C for 15 minutes under pressure
  • D. 100°C for 5 minutes at atmospheric pressure
Answer: C — 121°C for 15 minutes under pressure
Steam under pressure at 121°C held for at least 15 minutes is the standard autoclave cycle and kills all organisms including spores. Lower temperatures without pressure only disinfect.

8. Why is boiling instruments in water on board regarded as disinfection rather than true sterilization?

  • A. It makes metal instruments brittle
  • B. Boiling kills only viruses
  • C. Water cannot reach the inside of instruments
  • D. It does not reliably destroy bacterial spores such as those of tetanus
Answer: D — It does not reliably destroy bacterial spores such as those of tetanus
Water boils at about 100°C at sea level, which kills most bacteria and viruses but not reliably resistant spores such as those of Clostridium tetani. Boiling is therefore an emergency disinfection method when an autoclave or pre-sterilized items are not available.

9. What is the usual hot-air oven (dry heat) sterilization cycle?

  • A. 121°C for 15 minutes
  • B. 100°C for 10 minutes
  • C. 160°C for 2 hours
  • D. 200°C for 1 minute
Answer: C — 160°C for 2 hours
Dry heat penetrates less efficiently than steam, so higher temperatures and longer times are needed; the standard cycle is 160°C for 2 hours. It is suitable for glassware and metal instruments that steam might damage.

10. Which strength of ethyl or isopropyl alcohol is most effective for skin disinfection?

  • A. 100% (absolute)
  • B. About 20%
  • C. About 5%
  • D. About 70%
Answer: D — About 70%
Alcohol of about 70% is more effective than absolute alcohol because the water present helps it penetrate and denature microbial proteins; absolute alcohol evaporates quickly and coagulates surface proteins, protecting the organisms.

11. What is an antiseptic?

  • A. A chemical used only on floors and surfaces
  • B. A drug taken by mouth to treat infection
  • C. A heat process that destroys spores
  • D. A chemical safe to apply to living tissue to inhibit or kill micro-organisms
Answer: D — A chemical safe to apply to living tissue to inhibit or kill micro-organisms
Antiseptics such as chlorhexidine or povidone-iodine are mild enough to be applied to skin and wounds. Disinfectants are stronger chemicals used on inanimate objects and surfaces and may damage tissue.

12. During a sterile dressing, a sterile swab accidentally touches the patient's bedclothes. What should you do?

  • A. Wipe it with alcohol and continue
  • B. Use it, since the bedclothes are clean
  • C. Discard it and use a fresh sterile swab
  • D. Turn it over and use the other side
Answer: C — Discard it and use a fresh sterile swab
Aseptic technique requires that any sterile item touching a non-sterile surface is treated as contaminated and discarded. Using it would carry organisms into the wound and risk infection.

13. How should a used disposable hypodermic needle be dealt with on board?

  • A. Recapped with both hands and put in the general waste bin
  • B. Thrown overboard after use
  • C. Placed immediately, without recapping, into a puncture-proof sharps container
  • D. Boiled and reused for the next injection
Answer: C — Placed immediately, without recapping, into a puncture-proof sharps container
Recapping causes needle-stick injuries, so used needles go straight into a rigid sharps container, which is landed ashore as clinical waste. Disposable needles and syringes must never be resterilized or reused.

14. Which type of wound should generally NOT be closed with sutures on board?

  • A. Animal or human bite wound
  • B. Straight incised cut on the scalp
  • C. Clean, recent cut on the forearm
  • D. Clean cut on the palm made by a knife
Answer: A — Animal or human bite wound
Bite wounds are heavily contaminated with mouth bacteria; closing them traps the organisms and leads to serious infection. They are cleaned thoroughly, left open and dressed, with antibiotics on radio medical advice.

15. Which drug is normally injected around a wound to provide local anaesthesia before suturing?

  • A. Adrenaline alone
  • B. Diazepam
  • C. Lidocaine (lignocaine)
  • D. Morphine
Answer: C — Lidocaine (lignocaine)
Lidocaine (lignocaine) is the local anaesthetic infiltrated into the wound edges before suturing, numbing the area within a few minutes. Morphine and diazepam act systemically and adrenaline alone has no anaesthetic effect.

16. Why must local anaesthetic containing adrenaline (epinephrine) NOT be used on fingers or toes?

  • A. It makes the wound bleed more heavily
  • B. It causes the anaesthetic to wear off immediately
  • C. It is too painful to inject
  • D. The vasoconstriction can cut off blood supply and cause tissue death
Answer: D — The vasoconstriction can cut off blood supply and cause tissue death
Adrenaline constricts blood vessels; in end-organs such as fingers, toes, ears, nose and penis this may stop blood supply and cause gangrene. Plain lidocaine is used in these sites.

17. When placing interrupted skin sutures, where should each knot be positioned?

  • A. At the centre of the wound so it is easy to find
  • B. Underneath the skin inside the wound
  • C. Directly over the wound line
  • D. To one side of the wound, not over the cut
Answer: D — To one side of the wound, not over the cut
Knots lying on the wound line irritate it and trap discharge. Placing them to one side keeps the wound edges clean and makes removal easier.

18. What instrument is used to clamp a small bleeding vessel during a minor surgical procedure?

  • A. Scalpel
  • B. Dissecting forceps
  • C. Artery forceps (haemostat)
  • D. Scissors
Answer: C — Artery forceps (haemostat)
Artery forceps have locking ratchet handles that hold a bleeding vessel closed until it can be tied or stops bleeding. Dissecting forceps do not lock and are used only to hold tissue.

19. How long after insertion are sutures on the face normally removed?

  • A. About 21 days
  • B. After 1 day
  • C. About 14 days
  • D. About 5 days
Answer: D — About 5 days
The face has a rich blood supply and heals quickly, so sutures are removed after about 5 days to minimise scarring. Sutures on limbs, back and over joints are left longer, typically 10 to 14 days.

20. Which wound may be closed with adhesive skin closure strips instead of sutures?

  • A. A small, clean, straight, superficial cut with edges that come together easily
  • B. A deep gaping wound over a joint
  • C. A wound that is still bleeding heavily
  • D. A dirty wound with embedded debris
Answer: A — A small, clean, straight, superficial cut with edges that come together easily
Adhesive strips are suitable for small, clean, straight superficial cuts where the edges meet without tension. Deep, contaminated or actively bleeding wounds need cleaning, haemostasis and possibly sutures on medical advice.

21. When is incision and drainage of an abscess appropriate?

  • A. Never; abscesses must always be left alone
  • B. When it has become soft and fluctuant, showing pus has collected
  • C. Only when the patient has no pain
  • D. As soon as redness first appears
Answer: B — When it has become soft and fluctuant, showing pus has collected
Incision is effective only once pus has localised, indicated by a soft fluctuant centre or a pointing head. Before that, warm compresses and antibiotics on radio medical advice are used.

22. What instrument is used to hold a curved suture needle while stitching?

  • A. Fingers
  • B. Probe
  • C. Artery forceps with a scalpel
  • D. Needle holder
Answer: D — Needle holder
A needle holder grips the curved needle firmly so it can be driven through tissue along its curve. Holding needles with the fingers risks needle-stick injury and contaminates the field.

23. In acute appendicitis, where does the pain typically begin before it settles in the right lower abdomen?

  • A. In the left shoulder
  • B. In the groin on the left side
  • C. Around the navel (umbilicus)
  • D. In the lower back on the left side
Answer: C — Around the navel (umbilicus)
Appendicitis pain classically starts as a vague central ache around the umbilicus and over some hours moves to the right iliac fossa, where tenderness becomes localised as the peritoneum overlying the appendix is inflamed.

24. Which should NOT be given to a patient with suspected acute appendicitis?

  • A. Regular recording of pulse and temperature
  • B. Rest in bed in a comfortable position
  • C. Sips of water on medical advice
  • D. A laxative or enema
Answer: D — A laxative or enema
Laxatives and enemas increase bowel movement and may cause an inflamed appendix to perforate, leading to peritonitis. The patient is rested, given nothing or only sips by mouth, observed, and radio medical advice obtained.

25. A patient lies very still with a rigid, board-like abdomen that is painful when touched anywhere. This suggests:

  • A. Peritonitis
  • B. Simple indigestion
  • C. Constipation
  • D. Muscle strain from lifting
Answer: A — Peritonitis
Generalised peritonitis, for example after perforation of an ulcer or appendix, causes widespread tenderness and involuntary rigidity of the abdominal wall. The patient avoids movement because it worsens the pain; urgent medical advice and evacuation are needed.

26. Sudden severe upper abdominal pain in a patient with a history of indigestion, followed quickly by a rigid abdomen and shock, most likely indicates:

  • A. Perforated peptic ulcer
  • B. Gastroenteritis
  • C. Hiccups
  • D. Renal colic
Answer: A — Perforated peptic ulcer
When a peptic ulcer perforates, acid stomach contents escape into the abdominal cavity causing sudden severe pain, board-like rigidity and shock. It is a surgical emergency requiring radio medical advice and early evacuation.

27. Colicky abdominal pain, repeated vomiting, a swollen abdomen and failure to pass faeces or wind suggest:

  • A. Intestinal obstruction
  • B. Kidney infection
  • C. Food allergy
  • D. Appendicitis in its early stage
Answer: A — Intestinal obstruction
Blockage of the bowel causes waves of colicky pain, vomiting, distension and absolute constipation. Nothing is given by mouth and urgent medical advice is required, as surgery is usually needed.

28. Severe colicky pain in the loin spreading to the groin, with the patient restless and unable to keep still, is typical of:

  • A. Peritonitis
  • B. Hernia
  • C. Appendicitis
  • D. Renal (kidney stone) colic
Answer: D — Renal (kidney stone) colic
A stone passing down the ureter causes intense colicky loin-to-groin pain; patients typically writhe and cannot settle, unlike peritonitis where they lie still. Blood may be found in the urine.

29. Pain in the right upper abdomen, often after a fatty meal and sometimes felt in the right shoulder tip, suggests:

  • A. Appendicitis
  • B. Angina
  • C. Gallbladder (biliary) disease
  • D. Left kidney stone
Answer: C — Gallbladder (biliary) disease
Gallstones and cholecystitis cause right upper quadrant pain that may be referred to the right shoulder via the diaphragm and often follows fatty meals. Fever and jaundice suggest infection or blockage of the bile duct.

30. A seafarer has a tender, hard lump in the groin that cannot be pushed back, with vomiting and colicky pain. What is the likely problem?

  • A. Enlarged lymph node from a cut on the foot
  • B. Strangulated inguinal hernia
  • C. Simple muscle strain
  • D. Normal reducible hernia
Answer: B — Strangulated inguinal hernia
An irreducible, tender hernia with signs of obstruction indicates strangulation, where the blood supply to the trapped bowel is cut off. It is a surgical emergency requiring urgent radio medical advice and evacuation.

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