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MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 8 — Medical Care Course on Board Ship

Set 8 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 296 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 8 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the general management on board of a patient with an acute abdominal condition while awaiting medical advice?

  • A. Large meals to maintain strength
  • B. Encourage the patient to walk about to relieve pain
  • C. Bed rest, nothing by mouth except small sips, regular observations and early radio medical advice
  • D. A hot water bottle on the abdomen and a laxative
Answer: C — Bed rest, nothing by mouth except small sips, regular observations and early radio medical advice
An acute abdomen may need surgery, so the stomach is kept empty, the patient rested and pulse, temperature, respiration and pain recorded regularly. These findings are reported for radio medical advice, which guides drugs and possible evacuation.

2. A woman with a missed period develops sudden severe lower abdominal pain, fainting and signs of shock. What should be suspected?

  • A. Urinary infection
  • B. Food poisoning
  • C. Normal labour
  • D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
Answer: D — Ruptured ectopic pregnancy
An ectopic pregnancy implanted in the fallopian tube can rupture at around 6 to 10 weeks, causing internal haemorrhage, abdominal pain and shock. Treat for shock and seek urgent radio medical advice and evacuation.

3. When does the first stage of labour end?

  • A. When the baby is born
  • B. When contractions first begin
  • C. When the neck of the womb (cervix) is fully dilated
  • D. When the placenta is delivered
Answer: C — When the neck of the womb (cervix) is fully dilated
The first stage runs from the onset of regular contractions to full dilatation of the cervix. The second stage ends with birth of the baby and the third stage with delivery of the placenta and membranes.

4. The third stage of labour ends with:

  • A. Rupture of the membranes
  • B. Full dilatation of the cervix
  • C. Delivery of the placenta and membranes
  • D. Birth of the baby's head
Answer: C — Delivery of the placenta and membranes
After the baby is born, the uterus contracts and expels the placenta and membranes; this completes the third stage. The placenta should be kept and checked to ensure it is complete.

5. How is the umbilical cord dealt with after an emergency delivery on board?

  • A. Tied or clamped firmly in two places and cut between the ties with sterile scissors
  • B. Cut immediately close to the baby without tying
  • C. Pulled to help deliver the placenta
  • D. Left uncut until arrival in port
Answer: A — Tied or clamped firmly in two places and cut between the ties with sterile scissors
Two firm ties or clamps prevent bleeding from both the baby's and the placental ends; cutting between them with sterile scissors avoids infection. There is no need to rush, and the cord is never pulled.

6. Why must you NOT pull on the umbilical cord to deliver the placenta?

  • A. It makes the placenta come too slowly
  • B. It may cause heavy bleeding or turn the womb inside out
  • C. It causes the mother to stop breathing
  • D. It may injure the baby's navel only
Answer: B — It may cause heavy bleeding or turn the womb inside out
Traction on the cord before the placenta separates can tear the cord, cause haemorrhage or invert the uterus, a life-threatening complication. The placenta is allowed to separate and be expelled naturally with contractions.

7. After childbirth the mother bleeds heavily from the vagina. What is the first-aid measure?

  • A. Massage the top of the womb firmly through the abdomen and put the baby to the breast
  • B. Pull on the cord to remove the placenta quickly
  • C. Give her a laxative
  • D. Pack the vagina with cotton wool and sit her upright
Answer: A — Massage the top of the womb firmly through the abdomen and put the baby to the breast
Post-partum haemorrhage usually results from a poorly contracted uterus. Rubbing the fundus and putting the baby to the breast (which releases oxytocin) make the uterus contract; treat for shock and obtain urgent radio medical advice.

8. Immediately after birth, what is the first priority for the newborn baby?

  • A. Ensure it breathes: clear mouth and nose, dry and stimulate it, and keep it warm
  • B. Bath it in cold water
  • C. Weigh and measure it
  • D. Feed it with water
Answer: A — Ensure it breathes: clear mouth and nose, dry and stimulate it, and keep it warm
Most babies breathe within a minute of birth; clearing the airway and drying and rubbing the baby stimulate breathing. Newborns lose heat rapidly, so they are wrapped and kept warm, ideally skin-to-skin with the mother.

9. In late pregnancy, raised blood pressure, swelling of the face and hands and severe headache suggest:

  • A. Normal pregnancy changes requiring no action
  • B. Miscarriage
  • C. Pre-eclampsia
  • D. Ectopic pregnancy
Answer: C — Pre-eclampsia
Pre-eclampsia causes hypertension, oedema and protein in the urine and can progress to eclamptic fits. It requires urgent radio medical advice, rest and early evacuation to hospital.

10. A woman in late pregnancy has painless vaginal bleeding. What must you NOT do?

  • A. Lay her down and keep her at rest
  • B. Record pulse and blood pressure
  • C. Carry out an internal vaginal examination
  • D. Obtain radio medical advice
Answer: C — Carry out an internal vaginal examination
Painless bleeding late in pregnancy may be due to a low-lying placenta (placenta praevia); an internal examination could provoke torrential haemorrhage. Keep her at rest, observe for shock and seek urgent radio medical advice.

11. What is the main cause of dental caries (tooth decay)?

  • A. Drinking too much water
  • B. Lack of exercise
  • C. Cold weather
  • D. Acid produced by plaque bacteria from sugars
Answer: D — Acid produced by plaque bacteria from sugars
Bacteria in dental plaque ferment sugars and produce acid that dissolves enamel and dentine. Reducing sugar, brushing with fluoride toothpaste and regular dental check-ups prevent decay.

12. What is oil of cloves (eugenol) in the ship's dental kit used for?

  • A. Cleaning dentures
  • B. Relieving pain from an exposed cavity or lost filling
  • C. Stopping bleeding from a socket
  • D. Treating gum ulcers caused by dentures
Answer: B — Relieving pain from an exposed cavity or lost filling
Eugenol has mild antiseptic and pain-relieving properties; a small pledget of cotton wool soaked in it, or a temporary filling paste containing it, can be placed in a cavity to soothe toothache until a dentist is reached.

13. Why should an aspirin tablet NOT be held against the gum beside an aching tooth?

  • A. It causes a chemical burn of the gum
  • B. It dissolves the tooth enamel instantly
  • C. It works too strongly and numbs the whole face
  • D. It causes immediate allergy in everyone
Answer: A — It causes a chemical burn of the gum
Aspirin is acidic and placed on the gum it causes a painful chemical burn and ulcer. Painkillers for toothache should be swallowed in the normal dose.

14. A permanent tooth has been knocked out cleanly. What is the correct first aid?

  • A. Hold it by the root and scrub it clean with a brush
  • B. Hold it by the crown, rinse briefly without scrubbing, replace it in the socket or keep it in milk
  • C. Discard it, as it cannot be saved
  • D. Wrap it in a dry tissue
Answer: B — Hold it by the crown, rinse briefly without scrubbing, replace it in the socket or keep it in milk
The root surface cells must be preserved, so the tooth is handled by the crown and not scrubbed. Replanting at once or storing it in milk or the patient's saliva gives the best chance of survival until dental care.

15. How is bleeding from a tooth socket after an extraction controlled?

  • A. Lying flat with the head lower than the body
  • B. Rinsing the mouth vigorously with hot water
  • C. Applying a tourniquet to the neck
  • D. The patient bites firmly on a folded gauze pad placed over the socket
Answer: D — The patient bites firmly on a folded gauze pad placed over the socket
Firm, sustained pressure from biting on gauze allows a clot to form in the socket. Vigorous rinsing or hot fluids dislodge the clot; if bleeding persists, seek radio medical advice.

16. A seafarer has throbbing toothache, a swollen gum around the tooth and fever. What is the likely problem?

  • A. Tooth sensitivity to cold
  • B. Simple gingivitis
  • C. Dental abscess
  • D. Lost filling
Answer: C — Dental abscess
A dental abscess is a collection of pus at the root of a tooth causing throbbing pain, swelling and fever. It is treated with analgesics and antibiotics on radio medical advice until dental treatment; spreading facial swelling is serious.

17. Bleeding, swollen gums when brushing are usually caused by:

  • A. Dental caries of the root
  • B. Vitamin overdose
  • C. Gingivitis due to plaque build-up
  • D. Allergy to toothpaste
Answer: C — Gingivitis due to plaque build-up
Gingivitis is inflammation of the gums due to bacterial plaque at the gum line. It is reversed by thorough brushing and flossing; untreated it progresses to periodontitis and tooth loss.

18. How should a conscious casualty with a fractured lower jaw be positioned?

  • A. Standing with the head tilted backwards
  • B. Lying flat on the back
  • C. Lying face up with the head tilted back
  • D. Sitting up and leaning forward, supporting the jaw, so blood and saliva drain out
Answer: D — Sitting up and leaning forward, supporting the jaw, so blood and saliva drain out
Sitting forward allows blood and saliva to drain from the mouth and protects the airway. The jaw is supported with a pad held by the casualty; if unconscious, place in the recovery position.

19. Under the STCW Code (Section A-VIII/1), what is the maximum alcohol limit for persons performing designated safety, security and marine environmental duties?

  • A. Any level, provided the person is not visibly drunk
  • B. 0.05% blood alcohol level or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in breath
  • C. 0.1% blood alcohol level
  • D. 0.08% blood alcohol level or 0.4 mg/l in breath
Answer: B — 0.05% blood alcohol level or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in breath
STCW Section A-VIII/1 requires Administrations to set a limit of not greater than 0.05% blood alcohol level (BAC) or 0.25 mg/l alcohol in the breath, or a quantity leading to such concentration, for watchkeepers and those with designated safety duties.

20. A heavily intoxicated crew member is found unconscious but breathing. How should he be cared for?

  • A. Leave him on his back to sleep it off alone
  • B. Place in the recovery position and keep under constant observation
  • C. Put him in a cold shower
  • D. Give black coffee by mouth
Answer: B — Place in the recovery position and keep under constant observation
An unconscious drunk person may vomit and inhale it or obstruct the airway. The recovery position keeps the airway clear, and he must be watched continuously, as alcohol can also cause hypoglycaemia and hypothermia.

21. An unconscious seafarer smells strongly of alcohol. Why must you not assume alcohol is the only cause?

  • A. The smell of alcohol always indicates poisoning by methanol
  • B. Head injury, low blood sugar or other illness may be hidden by the intoxication
  • C. Drunk persons cannot be examined at all
  • D. Alcohol never causes unconsciousness
Answer: B — Head injury, low blood sugar or other illness may be hidden by the intoxication
Intoxicated people often fall and injure their heads, and alcohol can cause hypoglycaemia; diabetic and other emergencies can mimic drunkenness. A full examination, including blood sugar and pupils, is needed and the findings reported to the RMA doctor.

22. Delirium tremens in an alcohol-dependent seafarer who stops drinking usually begins about:

  • A. 6 months after the last drink
  • B. Within 1 hour of the last drink
  • C. 3 to 4 weeks after the last drink
  • D. 2 to 3 days after the last drink
Answer: D — 2 to 3 days after the last drink
Severe alcohol withdrawal with confusion, hallucinations, tremor, sweating and fits typically appears around 48 to 72 hours after stopping. It is a medical emergency; obtain radio medical advice, which may include sedation and evacuation.

23. Pinpoint pupils, very slow shallow breathing and unconsciousness strongly suggest an overdose of:

  • A. Amphetamines
  • B. Caffeine
  • C. Opioids such as heroin or morphine
  • D. Cannabis
Answer: C — Opioids such as heroin or morphine
Opioids depress the respiratory centre and constrict the pupils. Maintain the airway and breathing, give oxygen or rescue breaths as needed, and seek urgent radio medical advice regarding the antidote naloxone.

24. Which drug reverses the effects of an opioid (morphine) overdose?

  • A. Atropine
  • B. Naloxone
  • C. Adrenaline
  • D. Diazepam
Answer: B — Naloxone
Naloxone is a specific opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses respiratory depression from morphine or heroin. Its effect may be shorter than that of the opioid, so the patient must be watched and doses repeated on medical advice.

25. Agitation, dilated pupils, rapid pulse, sweating and raised temperature suggest misuse of:

  • A. An opioid such as heroin
  • B. Alcohol in small amounts
  • C. A sleeping tablet
  • D. A stimulant such as amphetamine or cocaine
Answer: D — A stimulant such as amphetamine or cocaine
Stimulant drugs increase sympathetic activity, causing dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypertension, hyperthermia and agitation, and can cause fits or heart attack. Keep the person calm and cool and seek radio medical advice.

26. Why must alcohol NOT be given to a cold, rescued survivor?

  • A. It is too slow to be absorbed
  • B. It raises the core temperature too rapidly
  • C. It causes the heart rate to stop
  • D. It widens skin blood vessels and increases heat loss
Answer: D — It widens skin blood vessels and increases heat loss
Alcohol causes vasodilation in the skin, giving a false feeling of warmth while increasing heat loss from the core. It also impairs judgement and shivering; warm sweet non-alcoholic drinks are given to conscious survivors instead.

27. Which organ is most commonly damaged by long-term heavy alcohol use, leading to cirrhosis?

  • A. Lungs
  • B. Spleen
  • C. Kidneys
  • D. Liver
Answer: D — Liver
Chronic alcohol use causes fatty liver, alcoholic hepatitis and finally cirrhosis, with jaundice, fluid in the abdomen and bleeding. It also damages the brain, heart, pancreas and nerves.

28. HIV is NOT transmitted by:

  • A. Sharing eating utensils or shaking hands
  • B. Transfusion of infected blood
  • C. Sharing needles and syringes
  • D. Unprotected sexual intercourse
Answer: A — Sharing eating utensils or shaking hands
HIV spreads through blood, semen, vaginal fluids and from mother to child. It is not spread by casual social contact, sharing food, cutlery, toilets or by insects, so infected crew can work normally.

29. What is the most effective way for a sexually active seafarer to reduce the risk of sexually transmitted infections?

  • A. Correct and consistent use of condoms
  • B. Washing after intercourse
  • C. Using only oral contraceptives
  • D. Taking antibiotics before shore leave
Answer: A — Correct and consistent use of condoms
Apart from abstinence or a mutually faithful uninfected partner, consistent condom use is the most effective protection against HIV, gonorrhoea, syphilis and other STIs. Antibiotics taken in advance do not prevent infection and encourage resistance.

30. A seafarer develops a painful burning sensation when passing urine and a yellow discharge from the penis a few days after shore leave. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • A. Scabies
  • B. Gonorrhoea
  • C. Genital herpes
  • D. Primary syphilis
Answer: B — Gonorrhoea
Gonorrhoea typically causes purulent urethral discharge and dysuria 2 to 7 days after exposure. Treatment is with antibiotics on radio medical advice, abstinence until cured and tracing of contacts.

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