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MC exit exam questions and answers — Set 9 — Medical Care Course on Board Ship

Set 9 of the Medical Care Course on Board Ship (MC) exit exam bank — 30 of 296 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 9 — 30 MC exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the typical first sign of primary syphilis?

  • A. A painless ulcer (chancre) at the site of infection
  • B. Yellow discharge only
  • C. Painful clusters of blisters
  • D. Severe itching between the fingers
Answer: A — A painless ulcer (chancre) at the site of infection
Primary syphilis presents as a single, painless, hard-edged ulcer, usually on the genitals, a few weeks after exposure. Because it is painless and heals, it may be ignored, but untreated disease progresses to secondary and late stages.

2. Recurrent painful small blisters on the genitals that break into shallow ulcers are typical of:

  • A. Genital herpes
  • B. Gonorrhoea
  • C. Syphilis chancre
  • D. Fungal infection
Answer: A — Genital herpes
Genital herpes, caused by herpes simplex virus, produces painful vesicles that ulcerate and heal, then recur. Antiviral drugs shorten attacks but do not cure the infection, which remains latent.

3. What do universal (standard) precautions require when giving first aid involving blood or body fluids?

  • A. Wear gloves only if the casualty is known to have HIV
  • B. Gloves are needed only for surgery
  • C. Wash hands only at the end of the voyage
  • D. Treat every casualty's blood as potentially infectious and wear gloves
Answer: D — Treat every casualty's blood as potentially infectious and wear gloves
Infection status is usually unknown, so standard precautions apply to all casualties: disposable gloves, eye protection where splashing is possible, careful sharps handling and hand washing after contact.

4. A first aider gets a needle-stick injury from a used needle. What is the immediate action?

  • A. Apply a tourniquet above the injury
  • B. Ignore it unless symptoms develop
  • C. Suck the wound and continue working
  • D. Encourage bleeding, wash with soap and running water, report it and obtain medical advice promptly
Answer: D — Encourage bleeding, wash with soap and running water, report it and obtain medical advice promptly
Gently encouraging bleeding and washing reduce the inoculum. The incident is reported and radio medical advice obtained urgently, as post-exposure prophylaxis against HIV and hepatitis B is most effective when started within hours.

5. Intense itching worse at night, with tiny burrows between the fingers and on the wrists, suggests:

  • A. Sunburn
  • B. Scabies
  • C. Eczema due to detergent
  • D. Athlete's foot
Answer: B — Scabies
Scabies is caused by a mite burrowing in the skin and spreads by close contact. Treatment with a scabicide such as permethrin is applied to the whole body; close contacts are treated at the same time and bedding and clothing washed hot.

6. Itching, peeling and cracked skin between the toes is usually due to:

  • A. Scabies
  • B. Impetigo
  • C. Syphilis
  • D. Fungal infection (athlete's foot)
Answer: D — Fungal infection (athlete's foot)
Tinea pedis is a fungal infection thriving in warm, moist conditions such as shared showers and wet safety boots. It is treated with antifungal cream and by keeping the feet clean and dry, with frequent sock changes.

7. Golden, honey-coloured crusts on the face that spread easily to others are typical of:

  • A. Shingles
  • B. Fungal infection
  • C. Impetigo
  • D. Acne
Answer: C — Impetigo
Impetigo is a contagious superficial bacterial skin infection, usually staphylococcal or streptococcal. The patient should use separate towels, avoid touching lesions and be treated with antibiotic ointment or tablets on medical advice.

8. AIDS develops because HIV progressively destroys:

  • A. Red blood cells
  • B. Nerve cells of the spinal cord
  • C. CD4 T-lymphocytes of the immune system
  • D. Liver cells
Answer: C — CD4 T-lymphocytes of the immune system
HIV infects and destroys CD4 helper T-cells, so the immune system gradually fails and opportunistic infections and cancers develop. Antiretroviral therapy suppresses the virus and preserves immunity.

9. Which is a definite sign that death has occurred some time ago?

  • A. Post-mortem staining (lividity) in the lowest parts of the body together with rigor mortis
  • B. Weak pulse at the wrist
  • C. Unconsciousness with snoring breathing
  • D. Pale skin and slow breathing
Answer: A — Post-mortem staining (lividity) in the lowest parts of the body together with rigor mortis
Hypostasis, the purple discolouration in dependent parts as blood settles, and rigor mortis, the stiffening of muscles, appear only after death. Pallor, weak pulse or unconsciousness can occur in living patients.

10. A man recovered from cold water has no detectable pulse or breathing. Why should resuscitation continue rather than declaring him dead?

  • A. It is a legal requirement to continue for exactly 12 hours
  • B. Severe hypothermia can mimic death, and the cold protects the brain; nobody is dead until warm and dead
  • C. Hypothermia speeds up the signs of death
  • D. Cold water always causes immediate cardiac arrest
Answer: B — Severe hypothermia can mimic death, and the cold protects the brain; nobody is dead until warm and dead
Profound hypothermia slows metabolism, making pulse and breathing undetectable while protecting the brain. Death should not be assumed until the person has been rewarmed and still shows no signs of life, according to medical advice.

11. Who is required to record a death on board in the Official Log Book?

  • A. The Bosun
  • B. The Chief Cook
  • C. The Master
  • D. The deceased's next of kin
Answer: C — The Master
The Master records the death with date, time, position, cause and circumstances in the Official Log Book and reports it to the company, flag administration and authorities at the next port, who also inform the next of kin.

12. A crew member is found dead in circumstances that may be suspicious. What should be done?

  • A. Clean the body and cabin immediately
  • B. Bury the body at sea at once
  • C. Do not move or wash the body unnecessarily, secure the area, photograph the scene and record statements
  • D. Allow crew to collect the deceased's belongings as souvenirs
Answer: C — Do not move or wash the body unnecessarily, secure the area, photograph the scene and record statements
Evidence must be preserved for the authorities. The scene is secured and photographed, the body left as found as far as possible, personal effects listed and sealed, and witness statements taken and entered in the log.

13. If a body must be kept on board until arrival in port, how should it be stored?

  • A. In an open lifeboat on deck
  • B. In the provision cold room alongside food
  • C. In the deceased's cabin with the porthole open
  • D. In a body bag in a cool space that is not used for food storage
Answer: D — In a body bag in a cool space that is not used for food storage
The body is placed in a body bag and kept as cool as possible in a dedicated space, never with food, to slow decomposition and prevent contamination. The ship's medical guide gives detailed instructions.

14. What is the maximum validity of a Ship Sanitation Control (or Control Exemption) Certificate under the WHO International Health Regulations (2005)?

  • A. 6 months
  • B. 1 month
  • C. 12 months
  • D. 5 years
Answer: A — 6 months
Under IHR 2005, Ship Sanitation Control Exemption and Control Certificates are valid for a maximum of six months, which may be extended by one month if inspection cannot be carried out at the port.

15. At what temperature should hot water be stored on board to control Legionella bacteria?

  • A. At 25 to 45°C
  • B. At 60°C or above
  • C. At 10°C
  • D. At 35°C
Answer: B — At 60°C or above
Legionella multiplies between about 20°C and 45°C. WHO ship sanitation guidance requires hot water to be stored at 60°C or above, with regular flushing of little-used outlets and shower heads.

16. At what temperature should frozen food be kept on board?

  • A. 0°C
  • B. −5°C
  • C. +4°C
  • D. −18°C or below
Answer: D — −18°C or below
Frozen food should be stored at −18°C or colder to stop bacterial growth and maintain quality, while chilled food is kept at about 5°C or below. Thermometers in cold rooms should be checked and recorded daily.

17. How is potable water on board normally made safe for drinking?

  • A. Filtering through cloth only
  • B. Storing it in the sun
  • C. Disinfection by chlorination, maintaining a free chlorine residual
  • D. Adding salt
Answer: C — Disinfection by chlorination, maintaining a free chlorine residual
Water produced or bunkered is disinfected, usually by chlorination, and a free chlorine residual is maintained throughout the distribution system and checked regularly. Tanks are periodically cleaned and disinfected.

18. At what angle is the needle inserted for an intramuscular injection?

  • A. 45 degrees into the vein
  • B. Parallel to the skin
  • C. 90 degrees to the skin
  • D. 15 degrees to the skin
Answer: C — 90 degrees to the skin
An intramuscular injection is given with the needle at a right angle so it passes through the subcutaneous fat into muscle. Subcutaneous injections are given at about 45 degrees and intradermal ones almost parallel to the skin.

19. When measuring blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer and stethoscope, the systolic pressure is the reading at which:

  • A. The cuff is fully inflated
  • B. The first clear tapping sound is heard as the cuff is deflated
  • C. The pulse at the wrist is strongest
  • D. The sounds finally disappear
Answer: B — The first clear tapping sound is heard as the cuff is deflated
As the cuff pressure falls, the first repetitive tapping (Korotkoff) sound marks the systolic pressure. The point at which the sounds disappear is recorded as the diastolic pressure.

20. Which is correct when measuring blood pressure?

  • A. The patient stands immediately after exercise
  • B. The patient's arm is supported at heart level with the cuff above the elbow
  • C. The arm hangs down by the side
  • D. The cuff is placed over thick clothing
Answer: B — The patient's arm is supported at heart level with the cuff above the elbow
The patient should be seated and rested with the arm supported at heart level and the cuff on bare skin just above the elbow crease. Incorrect arm position, tight clothing or recent exertion give inaccurate readings.

21. How are pressure sores (bed sores) prevented in a bed-ridden patient?

  • A. Rubbing the pressure areas with surgical spirit hourly
  • B. Using only one thin sheet on a hard mattress
  • C. Keeping the patient in one position to rest
  • D. Changing the patient's position at least every 2 hours and keeping the skin clean and dry
Answer: D — Changing the patient's position at least every 2 hours and keeping the skin clean and dry
Pressure sores result from sustained pressure on bony areas. Regular turning, a soft mattress, smooth dry linen and inspection of the skin over the hips, heels, sacrum and elbows prevent them.

22. Why is a fluid balance chart kept for a sick patient?

  • A. To record the patient's meals for the cook
  • B. To record medicines given by mouth only
  • C. To measure the patient's weight daily
  • D. To record all fluid intake and output, showing whether the patient is becoming dehydrated or overloaded
Answer: D — To record all fluid intake and output, showing whether the patient is becoming dehydrated or overloaded
A fluid balance chart lists fluids taken in by mouth or drip and lost in urine, vomit or drainage. The difference over 24 hours helps the RMA doctor judge hydration and kidney function.

23. Why should temperature NOT be taken by mouth in an unconscious or confused patient?

  • A. The reading will always be too high
  • B. Oral temperature is only accurate in children
  • C. The mouth is always colder than the room
  • D. The patient may bite or inhale the thermometer; use the armpit or ear instead
Answer: D — The patient may bite or inhale the thermometer; use the armpit or ear instead
An unconscious or confused patient cannot hold the thermometer safely and may bite or aspirate it. Axillary, tympanic or rectal measurement is used instead and the site recorded with the reading.

24. Which is the recommended site in the thigh for an intramuscular injection?

  • A. The outer middle third of the thigh (vastus lateralis)
  • B. The back of the knee
  • C. The inner thigh near the groin
  • D. The front of the shin
Answer: A — The outer middle third of the thigh (vastus lateralis)
The vastus lateralis on the outer middle third of the thigh is free of large vessels and nerves and is a recommended IM site, especially for self-injection. The inner thigh contains the femoral vessels and nerve and must be avoided.

25. Before calling for radio medical advice, who should normally speak to the doctor?

  • A. The radio officer reading from memory
  • B. The officer who has examined the patient, with the patient record and medical guide at hand
  • C. The patient's closest friend on board
  • D. Any available crew member not involved
Answer: B — The officer who has examined the patient, with the patient record and medical guide at hand
The doctor needs first-hand, accurate findings. The officer in charge of medical care, who examined the patient, should make the call with the written examination record, medicine chest list and medical guide beside him to answer questions immediately.

26. Why must the ship's position, course, speed and distance to the nearest port be included in a radio medical advice request?

  • A. They determine the cost of the advice
  • B. They allow the doctor and coordinators to decide on diversion or medical evacuation
  • C. They are required only for cargo purposes
  • D. They are needed only for the ship's log
Answer: B — They allow the doctor and coordinators to decide on diversion or medical evacuation
Treatment decisions depend on how soon the patient can reach hospital. Position and time to port allow TMAS and the rescue coordination centre to plan diversion, helicopter evacuation or rendezvous.

27. After receiving treatment instructions from the RMA doctor, what should the officer do?

  • A. Write them down, read them back to confirm, and record them in the patient's record
  • B. Ask another crew member to remember half of them
  • C. Rely on memory and start treatment
  • D. Ignore any instruction that seems unusual without asking
Answer: A — Write them down, read them back to confirm, and record them in the patient's record
Writing down and reading back drug names, doses and times avoids errors in radio communication. The advice, times and the patient's response are recorded so that progress can be reported at the next contact.

28. What is the charge to a ship for radio medical advice obtained through a TMAS?

  • A. It is provided free of charge
  • B. It is billed to the seafarer's family
  • C. It is charged per minute of the call
  • D. It is charged only if the patient is evacuated
Answer: A — It is provided free of charge
Telemedical Assistance Services and radio medical advice are provided free to ships of all nations, in line with MLC 2006 Regulation 4.1 and IMO guidance, so that cost never delays a request for help.

29. Which STCW Code table specifies the minimum standard of competence in medical first aid?

  • A. Table A-VI/1-1
  • B. Table A-II/2
  • C. Table A-VI/4-1
  • D. Table A-VI/4-2
Answer: C — Table A-VI/4-1
Table A-VI/4-1 sets the standard for seafarers designated to provide medical first aid, while Table A-VI/4-2 covers those designated to take charge of medical care on board, normally the Master or chief mate.

30. Under MLC 2006 (Standard A4.1), a ship must carry a qualified medical doctor when it carries:

  • A. More than 20 crew on coastal voyages
  • B. Any passengers at all
  • C. 100 or more persons and is ordinarily engaged on international voyages of more than three days
  • D. 50 or more persons on any voyage
Answer: C — 100 or more persons and is ordinarily engaged on international voyages of more than three days
MLC 2006 Standard A4.1 requires ships carrying 100 or more persons and ordinarily engaged on international voyages of more than three days' duration to carry a qualified medical doctor. Other ships rely on a trained seafarer in charge of medical care.

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