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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 12 — Medical First Aid

Set 12 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 12 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which of the following statements about chest compressions is incorrect?

  • A. Allow partial recoil of the chest
  • B. Press down at least 2 inches in adults
  • C. Position yourself at the side of the victim
  • D. Minimise interruptions
Answer: A — Allow partial recoil of the chest
Full chest recoil must be allowed after each compression so the heart can refill with blood. Leaning on the chest and allowing only partial recoil reduces the effectiveness of CPR.

2. If you suspect someone is going into shock, you should not give him ____.

  • A. A blanket
  • B. Comfort
  • C. Water
  • D. Reassurance
Answer: C — Water
A casualty in shock should be given nothing by mouth because he may vomit and aspirate, or may need surgery and anaesthesia. Keep him warm and reassured, moisten the lips if thirsty, and get medical advice.

3. Where are the blood vessels that supply oxygen and nutrients to the skin found?

  • A. Dermis
  • B. Epidermis
  • C. Stratum lucidum
  • D. Stratum corneum
Answer: A — Dermis
The epidermis has no blood vessels and is nourished by diffusion from the dermis below. The dermis contains blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands and hair follicles.

4. Which position is best for stopping a nosebleed?

  • A. Lying on the back with a cold wet towel on the top of the nose
  • B. Sitting, leaning forward, pinching the soft part of the nose with two fingers
  • C. Lying on the back with the head tilted as far back as possible
  • D. Holding the nose over steaming water
Answer: B — Sitting, leaning forward, pinching the soft part of the nose with two fingers
The casualty should sit and lean forward while pinching the soft part of the nose for about 10 minutes. Leaning forward lets blood drain out of the mouth instead of being swallowed or inhaled, which tilting back would cause.

5. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and have a pulse should be placed in the recovery position. Why is this position so important?

  • A. Because it keeps the heart beating
  • B. It makes it easy to control any kind of bleeding
  • C. It ensures that an open airway is maintained
  • D. It prevents the casualty from falling asleep
Answer: C — It ensures that an open airway is maintained
In the recovery position the tongue falls forward and vomit or fluids drain out of the mouth, so the airway stays open and the risk of choking or aspiration is reduced in an unconscious but breathing casualty.

6. What is the purpose of a medico message?

  • A. It is the certificate permitting the Master to act as doctor on board
  • B. Calling the port health authority to request free pratique
  • C. Giving a regular report on the health of the crew
  • D. Calling a hospital or doctor for professional medical advice by radio when needed
Answer: D — Calling a hospital or doctor for professional medical advice by radio when needed
A medico message is a radio request, normally through a coast radio station or TMAS such as CIRM, for medical advice or assistance for a sick or injured person on board. It is sent with the urgency signal PAN PAN when appropriate.

7. Chemical burns of the eyes or skin can cause severe damage, and some chemicals are absorbed through the skin. What is the main first treatment for a chemical burn?

  • A. Break any blisters around the eyes and mouth
  • B. Allow the casualty to rub the eye and affected area
  • C. Apply lotions or ointments to the affected area as soon as possible
  • D. Remove contaminated clothing and flood the area with slowly running water, ensuring the contaminated water drains away safely
Answer: D — Remove contaminated clothing and flood the area with slowly running water, ensuring the contaminated water drains away safely
The priority is to remove the chemical: take off contaminated clothing and irrigate with plenty of running water for at least 20 minutes, letting the water drain away from unaffected skin and the rescuer. Blisters must not be broken.

8. Inflatable splints are made in various sizes for the upper and lower limbs. What is the advantage of an inflatable splint?

  • A. An inflatable splint cannot fail
  • B. It should never be used for leg fractures
  • C. It allows a casualty to walk on a fractured leg almost immediately
  • D. It applies even pressure to the injured area, and swelling and bleeding are easier to observe
Answer: D — It applies even pressure to the injured area, and swelling and bleeding are easier to observe
An inflatable splint gives uniform support and gentle pressure around the injured limb, helping control swelling and bleeding. Being transparent, it allows the wound and circulation to be observed, although it can puncture and must be checked.

9. A large burn usually contains superficial, intermediate and deep areas. What percentage of an adult's body surface may be burned before there is a danger of life-threatening shock?

  • A. 15 percent
  • B. 35 percent
  • C. 9 percent
  • D. 4 percent
Answer: A — 15 percent
Burns covering more than about 15 percent of an adult's body surface (10 percent in a child) cause major fluid loss and carry a serious risk of hypovolaemic shock, requiring fluid replacement and urgent medical advice.

10. Unconscious casualties who are breathing and have a pulse should be placed in the recovery position. What is the recovery position?

  • A. Sitting with the head kept as low as possible
  • B. Lying on a water-bed
  • C. Lying on the side, turned partly face-down, with the arms and legs arranged to stabilise the position
  • D. Sitting upright with the arms and legs arranged to keep the position stable
Answer: C — Lying on the side, turned partly face-down, with the arms and legs arranged to stabilise the position
The recovery position is a stable, three-quarter prone (semi-prone) side position. The upper arm and leg are bent to prop the body and the head is tilted back so the airway stays open and fluids drain from the mouth.

11. What is hypothermia?

  • A. When the body temperature falls below 23°C
  • B. When the body temperature falls below 35°C
  • C. When heavy coughing occurs
  • D. When the body temperature rises to 39°C
Answer: B — When the body temperature falls below 35°C
Hypothermia is a fall of the core body temperature below 35°C, as happens in survivors immersed in cold water. Below about 30°C consciousness is lost and the heart may stop.

12. What first aid should be given to a person with frostbite?

  • A. Heat the affected areas with hot-water bottles
  • B. Rub the affected area with alcohol
  • C. Warm the affected part with hand or body heat, skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in the opposite armpit)
  • D. Rub the affected area vigorously with snow
Answer: C — Warm the affected part with hand or body heat, skin-to-skin (e.g. frozen hand in the opposite armpit)
Frostbitten tissue is fragile, so it should be warmed gently by skin-to-skin contact or warm water at about 40°C. Rubbing, direct dry heat and alcohol cause further tissue damage.

13. You see someone who is about to faint. What are the signs?

  • A. Red face and wide eyes
  • B. The person talks a lot and seems over-active
  • C. The person is very pale, with a pulse that is slow at first and weak
  • D. The pulse is very fast and the person feels hot
Answer: C — The person is very pale, with a pulse that is slow at first and weak
A faint is caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the brain. The casualty becomes pale, sweaty and dizzy, and the pulse is slow and weak at first, picking up as recovery begins.

14. What should NOT be given to a patient suffering from diarrhoea?

  • A. Oatmeal gruel
  • B. Milk
  • C. Grated apple
  • D. Oral rehydration solution
Answer: B — Milk
Milk and dairy products are poorly digested during diarrhoea and can make it worse. The patient should take plenty of fluids such as oral rehydration solution and bland foods such as gruel, rice or grated apple.

15. Which drugs may a crew member take on board without permission?

  • A. Sleeping pills
  • B. Antibiotics
  • C. Over-the-counter drugs, provided instructions are followed
  • D. No drugs (even aspirin) should be taken without permission from the Master or authorised officer
Answer: D — No drugs (even aspirin) should be taken without permission from the Master or authorised officer
On board, the Master or the officer in charge of medical care controls the medicine chest and medical records. Crew should not self-medicate, as drugs can mask symptoms, interact or impair fitness for watchkeeping.

16. Which of these is best when you suspect that a casualty has a fractured bone?

  • A. Raise the affected part above the level of the casualty's head
  • B. Massage the affected area to prevent stiffness
  • C. Rinse the area with cold water
  • D. Immobilise the affected area
Answer: D — Immobilise the affected area
A suspected fracture should be immobilised in the position found, using padding, splints or bandages to the body, to reduce pain, bleeding and further damage to blood vessels and nerves.

17. A faint is a brief loss of consciousness caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the brain. How can you prevent someone from fainting when they feel faint?

  • A. Tell the person to sit upright and breathe normally
  • B. Tell the person to sit down and lean forward with the head between the knees, taking deep breaths
  • C. Try to keep the person standing upright
  • D. Give the person a hot drink while standing
Answer: B — Tell the person to sit down and lean forward with the head between the knees, taking deep breaths
Sitting with the head between the knees, or lying down with the legs raised, helps blood return to the brain and usually prevents a person who feels faint from losing consciousness.

18. What is the first symptom of a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

  • A. Frothing at the mouth
  • B. A strong and painful pulse
  • C. Red skin and loss of movement in the right arm
  • D. Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest
Answer: D — Sudden crushing, vice-like pain in the centre of the chest
A heart attack typically begins with a sudden, crushing, vice-like central chest pain that may spread to the left arm, neck or jaw, often with breathlessness, sweating and an irregular pulse.

19. For adult CPR, chest compressions are delivered at a rate of ____ with a depth of ____.

  • A. At least 100/min, at least 2 inches (5 cm)
  • B. 80/min, 1 1/2 inches
  • C. 60-100/min, 2 inches
  • D. 100/min, 1 1/2 inches
Answer: A — At least 100/min, at least 2 inches (5 cm)
Adult chest compressions are given at 100-120 per minute to a depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) but not more than 2.4 inches (6 cm), allowing full recoil between compressions.

20. In the Silvester method of artificial respiration, how many times per minute is the arm-lift and chest-press cycle repeated?

  • A. 5 times per minute
  • B. 10 times per minute
  • C. 12 times per minute
  • D. 15 times per minute
Answer: C — 12 times per minute
The Silvester method, used when mouth-to-mouth is impossible, ventilates the casualty lying on the back by raising the arms over the head and then pressing them on the chest, repeated about 12 times per minute.

21. You suspect a head and neck injury in a victim who is unresponsive and not breathing. How would you open the airway to give breaths?

  • A. Jaw-thrust technique
  • B. Head tilt-chin lift
  • C. E-C clamp technique
  • D. Thumb and index lift
Answer: A — Jaw-thrust technique
With a suspected spinal injury the jaw-thrust manoeuvre opens the airway by lifting the angle of the jaw forward without tilting the head, minimising movement of the cervical spine.

22. Shock is a condition in which the circulation fails because blood pressure or volume has fallen to a dangerous level. What is the skin colour of a patient in shock?

  • A. Dark blue
  • B. Light blue
  • C. Pale or grey
  • D. Green or purple
Answer: C — Pale or grey
In shock the body diverts blood from the skin to the vital organs, so the skin becomes pale or grey, cold and clammy. Bluish lips may appear later as oxygen levels fall.

23. If a crew member is bleeding heavily, you should ____.

  • A. Apply pressure on the wound and wrap it with a bandage
  • B. Elevate the wound if possible
  • C. Both apply pressure with a bandage and elevate the wound
  • D. Do nothing
Answer: C — Both apply pressure with a bandage and elevate the wound
Severe external bleeding is controlled by firm direct pressure on the wound, secured with a bandage, and by raising the injured part above heart level where possible, then treating for shock.

24. You should move an injured crew member only when ____.

  • A. He is panicking
  • B. The scene becomes unsafe
  • C. He asks to be moved
  • D. He is cold or hot
Answer: B — The scene becomes unsafe
A casualty should normally be treated where found, because moving him can worsen injuries, especially of the spine. Moving is justified when there is immediate danger such as fire, toxic gas or risk of collapse.

25. How many cycles of CPR should be performed for an adult in 2 minutes?

  • A. 2
  • B. 5
  • C. 4
  • D. 8
Answer: B — 5
At 30 compressions to 2 breaths and a compression rate of 100-120 per minute, about five cycles are completed in 2 minutes, after which rescuers reassess or change over to avoid fatigue.

26. What should you do for a diabetic crew member who is confused and irritable?

  • A. Call the doctor and wait
  • B. Give him sugar to eat or a sugary drink
  • C. Give him a shot of insulin
  • D. Wait to see whether he improves
Answer: B — Give him sugar to eat or a sugary drink
Confusion and irritability in a diabetic suggest hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar). If he is conscious and can swallow, give sugar, glucose or a sweet drink; insulin would make the condition worse.

27. If you are alone and come upon a crew member who may need CPR, the first thing you should do is ____.

  • A. Activate the emergency response system
  • B. Begin CPR
  • C. Go for an AED
  • D. Make sure the scene is safe
Answer: D — Make sure the scene is safe
The first step of any rescue is to check for danger to yourself, bystanders and the casualty. Only once the scene is safe do you check responsiveness, call for help, fetch an AED and begin CPR.

28. The approximate percentages of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the air we breathe out are ____.

  • A. 21% O2, 0.04% CO2
  • B. 18% O2, 0.04% CO2
  • C. 20% O2, 0.4% CO2
  • D. 16% O2, 4% CO2
Answer: D — 16% O2, 4% CO2
Inhaled air contains about 21% oxygen and 0.04% carbon dioxide. The body uses some oxygen, so exhaled air contains about 16% oxygen and 4% carbon dioxide, which is still enough to make rescue breathing effective.

29. An injury to a tendon or muscle is known as a ____.

  • A. Sprain
  • B. Strain
  • C. Fracture
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Strain
A strain is an overstretching or tearing of a muscle or its tendon. A sprain is an injury to a ligament at a joint, and a fracture is a break in a bone.

30. After activating the emergency response system, what is the next step for a trained rescuer?

  • A. Check for a pulse for 10 to 15 seconds
  • B. Start chest compressions at a ratio of 30:2
  • C. Check for a pulse for 5 to 10 seconds
  • D. Start chest compressions at a ratio of 15:2
Answer: C — Check for a pulse for 5 to 10 seconds
A trained rescuer checks the carotid pulse, together with breathing, for at least 5 but no more than 10 seconds. If no definite pulse is felt, compressions are started at once to avoid delay.

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