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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 14 — Medical First Aid

Set 14 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 14 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What is the purpose of extending a splint beyond the joints at each end of a fractured bone?

  • A. Accessibility
  • B. Durability
  • C. Stability
  • D. Ease of use
Answer: C — Stability
A splint should immobilise the joint above and the joint below the fracture. Extending it beyond both joints gives stability, preventing movement of the broken ends, which reduces pain, bleeding and further damage to nerves and blood vessels.

2. If someone has fainted, what should you do to help them recover?

  • A. Splash water on their face
  • B. Lay them down and raise their legs
  • C. Wave smelling salts under their nose
  • D. Shake them vigorously
Answer: B — Lay them down and raise their legs
Fainting is caused by a temporary reduction of blood flow to the brain. Laying the casualty down and raising the legs helps return blood to the brain; shaking, splashing water or smelling salts are not recommended.

3. When performing chest compressions on an adult during two-rescuer CPR, the compression rate and compression-to-ventilation ratio are ____.

  • A. 100-120/min, 30:2
  • B. 100-120/min, 15:2
  • C. 60/min, 15:2
  • D. 60/min, 30:2
Answer: A — 100-120/min, 30:2
Current resuscitation guidelines specify a compression rate of 100 to 120 per minute and a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 breaths for adults, whether one or two rescuers are present. The 15:2 ratio is used for two-rescuer CPR on children and infants.

4. A seaman has had a tooth knocked out and has found the tooth. What is the best action to take?

  • A. Place the tooth under his armpit and take him to the dentist
  • B. Wrap the tooth in dry sterile gauze and take him to the dentist
  • C. Place the tooth in a closed container of cool milk until he reaches the dentist
  • D. Throw the tooth away and apply a cold compress
Answer: C — Place the tooth in a closed container of cool milk until he reaches the dentist
A knocked-out tooth should be handled by the crown and kept moist, ideally in cold milk, which preserves the root cells. Prompt dental treatment, preferably within an hour, gives the best chance of successful re-implantation.

5. An accident has happened on board and urgent radio medical advice is needed. Which message category should be used?

  • A. Distress (MAYDAY)
  • B. Urgency (PAN PAN)
  • C. Safety (SECURITE)
  • D. Routine
Answer: B — Urgency (PAN PAN)
A request for urgent medical advice, where there is no grave and imminent danger to the ship, is an urgency message prefixed PAN PAN (often PAN PAN MEDICO). MAYDAY is reserved for grave and imminent danger requiring immediate assistance.

6. When would you attempt to move a casualty?

  • A. If you are strong enough to lift them
  • B. Never move a casualty
  • C. As soon as you come across the casualty
  • D. Only if it is necessary and safe for yourself and the casualty
Answer: D — Only if it is necessary and safe for yourself and the casualty
A casualty should normally be treated where found, because movement can worsen injuries, especially spinal ones. Move them only when necessary, for example because of fire, gas or other danger, and only when it is safe for both rescuer and casualty.

7. For which fracture is a triangular arm sling applied?

  • A. Maxillary fracture
  • B. Zygomatic fracture
  • C. Collar bone or shoulder blade fracture
  • D. Pelvic fracture
Answer: C — Collar bone or shoulder blade fracture
A triangular bandage used as an arm sling supports the weight of the arm and immobilises the shoulder girdle, so it is the standard first aid for fractures of the collar bone (clavicle) or shoulder blade (scapula).

8. If there is an open (sucking) wound of the chest, it must be sealed immediately, otherwise:

  • A. Air is drawn into the chest cavity and the lungs cannot inflate
  • B. The heart will stop immediately
  • C. Infection will spread to the lungs at once
  • D. There will be excessive loss of blood
Answer: A — Air is drawn into the chest cavity and the lungs cannot inflate
In a sucking chest wound, air is drawn through the wound into the pleural cavity at each breath, so the lung on that side collapses and cannot inflate. Sealing the wound with an occlusive dressing restores effective breathing.

9. When attempting defibrillation, how many shocks with an AED should be delivered before resuming CPR?

  • A. 1
  • B. 2
  • C. 3
  • D. 4
Answer: A — 1
Current guidelines call for a single shock followed immediately by about 2 minutes of CPR before the AED reanalyses the rhythm. The older three-stacked-shock sequence was abandoned because it caused long interruptions in chest compressions.

10. A casualty is not breathing but has facial injuries that prevent you from giving mouth-to-mouth. What do you do?

  • A. Wait for medical help to arrive
  • B. Give 5 abdominal thrusts
  • C. Give 15 chest compressions only and stop
  • D. Continue with compression-only CPR at 100-120 per minute
Answer: D — Continue with compression-only CPR at 100-120 per minute
If rescue breaths cannot be given, compression-only CPR at 100 to 120 compressions per minute should be continued without interruption. It still circulates some oxygenated blood to the brain and heart until help or a defibrillator arrives.

11. How would you check a casualty in shock for paleness if the skin is dark?

  • A. Check the cornea
  • B. Check for a pulse
  • C. Check the mucous membranes and nail beds
  • D. Check the hair and upper eyelid
Answer: C — Check the mucous membranes and nail beds
In dark-skinned casualties, pallor is difficult to see on the skin. The inside of the lips, the inner eyelids (mucous membranes) and the nail beds should be examined; they appear pale or bluish-grey in shock.

12. An AED (Automated External Defibrillator) should be used:

  • A. Only before starting CPR
  • B. Only after 10 minutes of CPR
  • C. As soon as it is available
  • D. None of these
Answer: C — As soon as it is available
Early defibrillation is a key link in the chain of survival. CPR should be started immediately, and the AED attached and used as soon as it arrives; every minute of delay reduces the chance of survival from ventricular fibrillation.

13. How should you position a casualty with a head injury who has a flushed face?

  • A. Head and shoulders lowered
  • B. Head and shoulders raised
  • C. Lying flat with legs raised
  • D. Lying face down
Answer: B — Head and shoulders raised
The traditional first aid rule is: if the face is flushed, raise the head and shoulders; if the face is pale, raise the legs. Raising the head of a head-injured casualty with a flushed face helps reduce pressure in the head.

14. If a casualty is in an enclosed space, you should:

  • A. Enter immediately and rescue the casualty without wasting any time
  • B. Raise the alarm, inform the master, and enter only with breathing apparatus as part of a rescue team acting under instructions
  • C. Lower a line and try to pull the casualty out alone
  • D. Wait until the space has ventilated naturally overnight
Answer: B — Raise the alarm, inform the master, and enter only with breathing apparatus as part of a rescue team acting under instructions
Many enclosed-space deaths are of would-be rescuers. The alarm must be raised and the master informed, and entry made only by a properly equipped rescue team wearing breathing apparatus and acting under instructions, as required by SOLAS enclosed-space entry and rescue procedures.

15. A victim is in cardiac arrest and you notice a nitroglycerin medication patch where an AED pad should be placed. Which statement is NOT true?

  • A. It is acceptable to place the AED pad on top of the medication patch
  • B. The patch may block the transfer of energy delivered
  • C. The patch may cause a burn to the skin
  • D. The patch should be removed and the area wiped clean before attaching the AED pad
Answer: A — It is acceptable to place the AED pad on top of the medication patch
An AED pad must never be placed over a medication patch, because the patch can block energy delivery and cause skin burns. The patch should be removed and the skin wiped clean before the pad is applied.

16. After performing 30 high-quality chest compressions on an adult victim, the next step is to:

  • A. Give 2 rescue breaths
  • B. Continue compressions at 30/min for 5 cycles
  • C. Activate the emergency response system
  • D. Check for a pulse
Answer: A — Give 2 rescue breaths
Adult CPR uses cycles of 30 compressions followed by 2 rescue breaths. After the 30 compressions the airway is opened with head tilt and chin lift and two breaths are given before compressions resume with minimal interruption.

17. You find an adult who is unresponsive and not breathing. The scene is safe. What is your next step?

  • A. Start CPR
  • B. Check for a pulse
  • C. Activate the emergency response system
  • D. None of these
Answer: C — Activate the emergency response system
In the BLS sequence, once the scene is safe and the victim is found unresponsive and not breathing, the rescuer shouts for help and activates the emergency response system, sending for an AED, before beginning CPR.

18. What is the best way to control external bleeding?

  • A. Direct pressure
  • B. Elevation
  • C. Pressure points
  • D. Use of a tourniquet
Answer: A — Direct pressure
Firm direct pressure on the wound, with a pad or dressing, is the most effective first aid method of controlling external bleeding. Elevation helps, while a tourniquet is reserved for life-threatening limb bleeding that direct pressure cannot control.

19. The OPQRST mnemonic is used to assess:

  • A. Pain
  • B. Level of consciousness
  • C. Vision
  • D. Hearing
Answer: A — Pain
OPQRST stands for Onset, Provocation, Quality, Region/Radiation, Severity and Time. It is a structured way of questioning a patient about their pain, which is useful when passing information for radio medical advice.

20. The tiny air sacs in the lungs are known as:

  • A. Bronchioles
  • B. Alveoli
  • C. Trachea
  • D. Bronchi
Answer: B — Alveoli
Alveoli are the microscopic air sacs at the ends of the bronchioles. Their thin walls are surrounded by capillaries, and this is where oxygen passes into the blood and carbon dioxide is removed.

21. If someone is going into shock, you should NOT give them:

  • A. A blanket
  • B. Comfort
  • C. Water to drink
  • D. Reassurance
Answer: C — Water to drink
A casualty in shock should be given nothing by mouth because they may vomit, may need surgery or an anaesthetic, and fluid may be inhaled. Instead keep them lying down, warm and reassured, and only moisten the lips if they are thirsty.

22. Which technique is used to hold the mask for bag-mask ventilation during two-rescuer CPR?

  • A. Thumb-index technique
  • B. E-C clamp technique
  • C. Jaw-thrust technique
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — E-C clamp technique
In the E-C clamp technique, the thumb and index finger form a 'C' to press the mask onto the face while the other three fingers form an 'E' lifting the jaw, giving a good seal and an open airway for bag-mask ventilation.

23. The Heimlich manoeuvre (abdominal thrusts) is carried out standing:

  • A. Behind the casualty
  • B. In front of the casualty
  • C. Above the casualty
  • D. Beside the casualty
Answer: A — Behind the casualty
For a conscious choking adult, the rescuer stands behind the casualty, places a fist just above the navel and pulls sharply inwards and upwards. This raises pressure in the chest to expel the obstruction from the airway.

24. Exhaled air of an adult contains approximately:

  • A. 21% O2 and 0.04% CO2
  • B. 16% O2 and 4% CO2
  • C. 16% O2 and 0.04% CO2
  • D. 21% O2 and 4% CO2
Answer: B — 16% O2 and 4% CO2
Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen and 0.04% carbon dioxide. Exhaled air still contains about 16% oxygen and about 4% carbon dioxide, which is why rescue breaths can oxygenate a casualty during resuscitation.

25. If a crew member receives third-degree burns, which of the following is correct?

  • A. Do not cool with water unless it is a chemical burn
  • B. Do not bandage the burn tightly
  • C. Apply butter or ointment to the burn
  • D. Burst any blisters to relieve pressure
Answer: B — Do not bandage the burn tightly
Burns of every depth should be cooled with clean water and covered loosely with a clean, non-adherent dressing. Tight bandaging is avoided because the burnt area swells and constriction can impair circulation; creams and bursting blisters increase infection risk.

26. A person suffering from heat cramps should be given:

  • A. Energy drinks with caffeine
  • B. Electrolyte or sports drinks
  • C. Tea or coffee
  • D. Alcohol
Answer: B — Electrolyte or sports drinks
Heat cramps result from loss of salt and water through heavy sweating. The casualty should rest in a cool place and drink an electrolyte or sports drink to replace salts; caffeine and alcohol worsen dehydration.

27. Signs of anaphylactic shock, such as from a bee sting or eating peanuts, include:

  • A. A feeling of tightness in the chest and throat
  • B. Rashes, dizziness and confusion
  • C. Swelling of the face, neck and tongue
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction producing chest and throat tightness, wheezing, skin rash, swelling of the face, neck and tongue, dizziness and confusion from falling blood pressure. It is life-threatening and needs adrenaline and urgent medical help.

28. A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone is:

  • A. Broken cleanly in one place
  • B. Shattered into several fragments at the fracture site
  • C. Cracked but not displaced
  • D. Bent but not broken
Answer: B — Shattered into several fragments at the fracture site
In a comminuted fracture the bone is broken into more than two fragments at the site of injury, usually from high-energy impact. Such fractures are unstable and must be well immobilised before the casualty is moved.

29. Sorting accident victims according to the severity of their injuries is called:

  • A. Arbitrage
  • B. Triage
  • C. General average
  • D. Particular average
Answer: B — Triage
Triage is the process of sorting casualties by the urgency of their condition so that limited resources go first to those with life-threatening but treatable injuries. It is essential in multiple-casualty incidents on board.

30. Heatstroke affects all of the following body organs EXCEPT the:

  • A. Heart
  • B. Bones
  • C. Brain
  • D. None of the above
Answer: B — Bones
Heatstroke is a failure of the body's temperature regulation, with core temperature above about 40°C. The very high temperature damages vital organs such as the brain, heart, kidneys and liver, whereas bones are not significantly affected.

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