Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Home MFA sets
Answer Key

MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 16 — Medical First Aid

Set 16 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

Practise these MFA questions MFA mock exit exam, 30 marks MFA exit exam sets and syllabus

30 of 30 shown · Set 16

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 16 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. First-degree burns are treated by:

  • A. Cleaning with hot soapy water
  • B. Applying burn cream or ointment immediately
  • C. Applying a constricting band between the burn and the heart
  • D. Applying cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain
Answer: D — Applying cool running water until there is little or no remaining pain
A first-degree burn should be cooled under cool running water, usually for at least 10 to 20 minutes, until pain subsides. This stops tissue damage and relieves pain; hot water, ointments and constricting bands are harmful.

2. What is the meaning of first aid?

  • A. Completing a primary survey
  • B. The first help given to any accident victim
  • C. Treating a victim for shock
  • D. Assessing a victim's vital signs
Answer: B — The first help given to any accident victim
First aid is the immediate help given to an injured or ill person before qualified medical assistance is available. Its aims are to preserve life, prevent the condition worsening and promote recovery.

3. What is the best definition of 'hurry cases'?

  • A. Breathing, bleeding and broken bones
  • B. Any accident requiring an arm sling
  • C. Any illness in which the victim vomits
  • D. Any condition that threatens the victim's life
Answer: D — Any condition that threatens the victim's life
Hurry cases are conditions that threaten life within minutes, such as stopped breathing, no circulation, severe bleeding and poisoning. They must be dealt with before any other injury. Broken bones are usually not immediately life-threatening.

4. The steps taken to control a nosebleed are:

  • A. Sit the casualty down, lean them forward and pinch the soft part of the nose
  • B. Sit the casualty down, lean them backward and pinch the soft part of the nose
  • C. Lie the casualty down and pinch the top of the nose
  • D. Lie the casualty down and pinch the soft part of the nose
Answer: A — Sit the casualty down, lean them forward and pinch the soft part of the nose
For a nosebleed the casualty sits with the head tilted forward and pinches the soft part of the nose for about 10 minutes. Leaning forward lets blood drain from the nostrils instead of being swallowed, which could cause vomiting.

5. If you think a casualty has serious internal bleeding, you should:

  • A. Give fluids to replace blood loss
  • B. Apply heat to the injured area
  • C. Call for medical assistance as soon as possible
  • D. Place the victim in a sitting position
Answer: C — Call for medical assistance as soon as possible
Internal bleeding cannot be controlled by first aid and needs surgical treatment. The casualty should be treated for shock, kept lying down and warm, given nothing by mouth, and urgent medical assistance or radio medical advice obtained.

6. Fluids should not be given by ____ when internal injury is suspected.

  • A. Nose
  • B. Ears
  • C. Mouth
  • D. Intravenous injection
Answer: C — Mouth
A casualty with suspected internal injury may need surgery under anaesthetic and may vomit, so nothing should be given by mouth. Intravenous fluids, given by trained personnel on medical advice, are in fact a treatment for blood loss.

7. The symptoms of shock include:

  • A. Low blood pressure
  • B. Rapid, weak pulse
  • C. Rapid, shallow breathing
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Shock is a failure of the circulation to supply enough oxygenated blood to the tissues. Typical signs are falling blood pressure, a rapid weak pulse, rapid shallow breathing, pale cold clammy skin, thirst and anxiety.

8. What does 'A' stand for in the acronym DRABC?

  • A. Ambulance
  • B. Airway
  • C. Alert
  • D. Accident
Answer: B — Airway
DRABC stands for Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation. After checking for danger and response, the first aider opens and clears the airway, usually by head tilt and chin lift, before checking breathing.

9. You approach a crew member who is unconscious and wearing a medical alert tag indicating diabetes. You would first:

  • A. Elevate the person's legs
  • B. Administer insulin
  • C. Remove the medical alert tag
  • D. Check for breathing and pulse
Answer: D — Check for breathing and pulse
Whatever the underlying condition, an unconscious casualty is first assessed for airway, breathing and circulation. Giving insulin could be fatal if the cause is low blood sugar, and the medical alert tag should be left for medical staff.

10. Which of the following are considered personal protective equipment for a first aider?

  • A. Gloves, mask, eye shield, etc.
  • B. Hats, scarves and sunglasses
  • C. Belts and shoes
  • D. Watches and jewellery
Answer: A — Gloves, mask, eye shield, etc.
Personal protective equipment for first aid includes disposable gloves, face masks or resuscitation shields and eye protection. They act as barriers against blood and body fluids, protecting both the first aider and the casualty from infection.

11. Toxic substances can affect the body in which of the following ways?

  • A. Through the lungs by inhalation of toxic gases
  • B. Through skin contact
  • C. Through eye contact
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
Toxic substances enter the body by inhalation, by absorption through the skin and eyes, by ingestion and by injection. Inhalation is the most common route on tankers, but skin and eye contact can also cause serious poisoning.

12. Loss of body heat resulting in a low body temperature is called:

  • A. Hypothermia
  • B. Hyperthermia
  • C. Dehydration
  • D. Frostbite
Answer: A — Hypothermia
Hypothermia occurs when the body's core temperature falls below 35°C because heat is lost faster than it is produced. Hyperthermia is excessive body temperature, while frostbite is local freezing of tissues.

13. What is the immediate step to be followed when a tourniquet is applied?

  • A. Obtain radio medical advice
  • B. Keep tightening the tourniquet periodically
  • C. Loosen the tourniquet periodically to allow blood flow
  • D. Write down the time when the tourniquet was applied
Answer: D — Write down the time when the tourniquet was applied
The time a tourniquet is applied must be recorded immediately, on the casualty's forehead or a label, because prolonged application damages tissue. Medical staff need this information to decide on safe removal.

14. A crew member is coughing up blood, is bleeding from the mouth and is tender in the abdomen. The pulse is weak and rapid. The crew member is showing signs of:

  • A. A heart attack
  • B. Broken bones
  • C. Internal bleeding
  • D. A minor injury
Answer: C — Internal bleeding
Coughing or vomiting blood, abdominal tenderness and a rapid weak pulse are signs of internal bleeding with developing shock. The casualty needs treatment for shock, nothing by mouth and urgent medical assistance.

15. A fracture of which region may cause missing teeth, deformity, bleeding from the mouth and difficulty in swallowing?

  • A. Jaw
  • B. Arm
  • C. Leg
  • D. Rib
Answer: A — Jaw
A fractured jaw typically produces pain, deformity, loose or missing teeth, bleeding from the mouth, misaligned bite and difficulty speaking or swallowing. The airway must be protected, with the casualty leaning forward to let blood drain.

16. What is the correct depth of chest compressions on an adult?

  • A. 1-2 cm
  • B. 5-6 cm
  • C. 4-9 cm
  • D. 6-7 cm
Answer: B — 5-6 cm
For adults, chest compressions should depress the sternum by about 5 to 6 cm (2 to 2.4 inches) at a rate of 100 to 120 per minute, allowing full chest recoil between compressions. Shallower compressions do not circulate enough blood.

17. If someone is unresponsive but breathing, how do you help keep their airway open?

  • A. Place them in the recovery position on their side with the head tilted back
  • B. Perform chest compressions
  • C. Give rescue breaths
  • D. Raise their legs
Answer: A — Place them in the recovery position on their side with the head tilted back
An unresponsive casualty who is breathing normally should be placed in the recovery position. Lying on the side with the head tilted back keeps the tongue from blocking the airway and lets vomit or fluids drain from the mouth.

18. A crew member should be treated for shock if:

  • A. The person is alert and responsive
  • B. The pulse is strong and the skin is warm and dry
  • C. The pulse is weak and rapid, the skin is pale, cold and possibly moist, and breathing is rapid, shallow and irregular
  • D. The person has a minor cut
Answer: C — The pulse is weak and rapid, the skin is pale, cold and possibly moist, and breathing is rapid, shallow and irregular
A rapid weak pulse, pale cold clammy skin and rapid shallow breathing are the classic signs of shock. The casualty should be laid down with legs raised if no contraindicating injury, kept warm and reassured, and medical help obtained.

19. A diabetic has eaten too little food and feels dizzy and lightheaded. The skin is pale with profuse sweating, the limbs tremble and the pulse is rapid. The urine glucose test is negative. What does the crew member need as soon as possible?

  • A. A sugar lump, sugary drink or something sweet
  • B. An insulin injection
  • C. Pain relievers such as aspirin
  • D. Antihistamines
Answer: A — A sugar lump, sugary drink or something sweet
These are signs of hypoglycaemia (low blood sugar), confirmed by the negative urine glucose. A conscious casualty should be given sugar, a sugary drink or sweets immediately. Insulin would lower the blood sugar further and could be fatal.

20. When performing basic life support, how do you check for normal breathing?

  • A. By performing chest compressions immediately
  • B. By asking the person whether they are breathing
  • C. By checking for a pulse at the wrist
  • D. By looking for chest movement, and listening and feeling for breath
Answer: D — By looking for chest movement, and listening and feeling for breath
With the airway open, the rescuer looks for chest movement, listens for breath sounds and feels for air on the cheek for no more than 10 seconds. Absent or abnormal gasping breathing means CPR must be started.

21. Angina pectoris causes severe chest pain when narrowed coronary arteries cannot supply enough oxygenated blood to the heart muscle; the pain usually stops with rest. Which medicine is taken when an angina attack occurs?

  • A. Pain relievers such as paracetamol
  • B. Antibiotics
  • C. Isosorbide dinitrate (sorbitrate) under the tongue
  • D. Antacid medication
Answer: C — Isosorbide dinitrate (sorbitrate) under the tongue
Angina is relieved by rest and a nitrate such as glyceryl trinitrate or isosorbide dinitrate placed under the tongue. Nitrates dilate the coronary and other blood vessels, increasing oxygen supply and reducing the heart's workload.

22. What do you do for a crew member who has a bleeding injury to the mouth when you are sure there is no head, neck or spinal injury?

  • A. Lay the person flat on their back
  • B. Have the person swallow the blood
  • C. Tilt the head well back
  • D. Keep the person seated with the head tilted slightly forward
Answer: D — Keep the person seated with the head tilted slightly forward
With no spinal injury suspected, the casualty sits with the head tilted slightly forward so blood drains out of the mouth instead of being swallowed or inhaled, while pressure is applied to the bleeding point with a pad.

23. Through which structure does food pass between the mouth and the stomach?

  • A. Oesophagus
  • B. Small intestine
  • C. Large intestine
  • D. Pancreas
Answer: A — Oesophagus
The oesophagus, or gullet, is a muscular tube that carries swallowed food from the pharynx down through the chest to the stomach by waves of muscular contraction called peristalsis.

24. If a crew member does not respond after a shock from an AED, how many minutes of CPR should be performed before the rhythm is checked again?

  • A. 3 minutes
  • B. 4 minutes
  • C. 2 minutes
  • D. 5 minutes
Answer: C — 2 minutes
After each shock CPR is resumed immediately, starting with compressions, for about 2 minutes (roughly five cycles of 30:2). The AED then reanalyses the heart rhythm and advises whether a further shock is needed.

25. Which of the following is NOT correct when performing CPR?

  • A. Follow the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio
  • B. Give chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute
  • C. Compress the adult chest at least 5 cm (2 inches) deep
  • D. Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth to check for foreign objects
Answer: D — Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth to check for foreign objects
Blind finger sweeps are not recommended because they can push an obstruction deeper or injure the casualty; only visible objects should be removed. The correct ratio, a rate of 100 to 120 per minute and adequate depth are all required.

26. How many bones are there in the average adult human body?

  • A. 306
  • B. 206
  • C. 505
  • D. 108
Answer: B — 206
The adult human skeleton has 206 bones. A newborn has around 300 bony elements, many of which fuse during growth, giving the adult total of 206.

27. Which two-digit radio special service code is used to obtain medical assistance?

  • A. 91
  • B. 38
  • C. 42
  • D. 68
Answer: B — 38
Under the ITU two-digit special service codes used with coast radio stations, code 32 is for radio medical advice and code 38 is for medical assistance, such as arranging evacuation of a patient or a doctor to come on board.

28. Which of the following signs is most consistent with a stroke?

  • A. Facial droop
  • B. Rapid heart rate
  • C. Swollen ankles
  • D. Coughing
Answer: A — Facial droop
A sudden drooping of one side of the face is a classic stroke sign and the first element of the FAST test (Face, Arms, Speech, Time). It results from interruption of blood supply to the part of the brain controlling the facial muscles.

29. Shock is a condition in which:

  • A. The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lungs.
  • B. The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart.
  • C. The circulatory system fails to deliver enough oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.
  • D. All of the above
Answer: C — The circulatory system fails to deliver enough oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.
Shock is a failure of the circulatory system to supply adequate oxygen-rich blood to all the organs and tissues of the body. It can follow blood loss, burns, severe infection or allergy, and if untreated leads to organ failure and death.

30. What is the most common reason an infant's heart stops?

  • A. Allergies
  • B. Injury
  • C. Breathing problems
  • D. SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)
Answer: C — Breathing problems
In infants and young children cardiac arrest is usually secondary to a breathing problem such as choking, respiratory infection or drowning, rather than a primary heart condition. This is why early rescue breaths are emphasised in infant resuscitation.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Practise these MFA questions as a timed paper All 675 MFA questions and answers MFA exit exam sets and syllabus All 24 STCW exit exam courses

Send this MFA answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers

Mariners DigestBrief for seafarers, Tue–SatSIRE PRO: Ship InspectionTanker inspection prepRightShip ProRISQ 3.2 dry-cargo inspection prepCOLREGS ReaderRules of the road, read aloud