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DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 18 — Medical First Aid

Set 18 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 18 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. A simple and good indicator of dehydration is:

  • A. Urine colour changing from pale to dark
  • B. An increase in urine output
  • C. A slow pulse
  • D. A moist mouth and tongue
Answer: A — Urine colour changing from pale to dark
When the body is short of water the kidneys conserve fluid, so urine becomes scanty and darker. Monitoring urine colour is a practical way of checking hydration on board, especially when working in hot conditions.

2. A hypothermia casualty may be given warm, sweet drinks only if they are:

  • A. Fully conscious and able to swallow
  • B. Unconscious, to warm them faster
  • C. Given a drink of alcohol first
  • D. Not shivering and unresponsive
Answer: A — Fully conscious and able to swallow
Warm sweet drinks can help rewarm a conscious, mildly hypothermic casualty. Nothing should be given by mouth to an unconscious or drowsy casualty because of the risk of choking and aspiration, and alcohol must never be given.

3. To slow the spread of venom after a snake bite on the leg, you should:

  • A. Immobilise the limb, with a splint if available, and keep the casualty still
  • B. Encourage the casualty to walk to the ship's hospital
  • C. Massage the limb to disperse the venom
  • D. Raise the bitten leg above the level of the heart
Answer: A — Immobilise the limb, with a splint if available, and keep the casualty still
Muscle movement pumps venom through the lymphatic system, so the bitten limb should be immobilised, ideally with a splint, and the casualty kept still and calm. The limb is kept at or below heart level while medical advice is obtained.

4. If back blows do not relieve choking in a conscious infant, the next step is to:

  • A. Give up to five chest thrusts
  • B. Give abdominal thrusts
  • C. Perform a blind finger sweep of the mouth
  • D. Hold the infant upside down and shake
Answer: A — Give up to five chest thrusts
For a choking infant, up to five back blows are followed, if unsuccessful, by up to five chest thrusts using two fingers on the breastbone. Abdominal thrusts are not used on infants because of the risk of injury to internal organs.

5. The decision to request helicopter evacuation of a seriously ill or injured crew member rests with:

  • A. The Master, usually after obtaining radio medical advice
  • B. The Chief Engineer
  • C. The ship's agent
  • D. The company's crewing department
Answer: A — The Master, usually after obtaining radio medical advice
The Master has overriding authority for the safety of the ship and crew and decides whether a medical evacuation by helicopter is needed, normally after consulting Radio Medical Advice (TMAS) and the coordinating rescue centre.

6. HIV infection can be transmitted by:

  • A. Sexual contact
  • B. Contaminated blood or shared needles
  • C. An infected mother to her baby
  • D. All of the above
Answer: D — All of the above
HIV is transmitted through sexual contact, through contaminated blood such as transfusions or shared needles and sharps, and from mother to child during pregnancy, birth or breastfeeding. It is not spread by casual contact.

7. When a crew member falls seriously ill at sea, medical advice can be obtained from:

  • A. Radio Medical Advice services (TMAS) ashore
  • B. Nowhere until the ship reaches port
  • C. Only the ship's agent at the next port
  • D. Only the Master of another ship
Answer: A — Radio Medical Advice services (TMAS) ashore
Telemedical Assistance Services (Radio Medical Advice) provide free medical advice to ships at sea via radio, satellite phone or email. The ship's officer in charge of medical care uses this advice together with the International Medical Guide for Ships.

8. Which hazard is commonly associated with entering an enclosed space?

  • A. Asphyxia or hypoxia due to oxygen deficiency
  • B. Sunstroke
  • C. Seasickness
  • D. Frostbite
Answer: A — Asphyxia or hypoxia due to oxygen deficiency
Enclosed spaces may be oxygen deficient because of rusting, inert gas, cargo or toxic gases. Entry without testing and permit can cause hypoxia, asphyxia and rapid death, so IMO Resolution A.1050(27) procedures must be followed.

9. Why is regular deep breathing encouraged for a casualty with rib fractures?

  • A. To prevent chest infection caused by shallow breathing
  • B. To realign the broken ribs
  • C. To increase bleeding and clear clots
  • D. To reduce the heart rate to normal
Answer: A — To prevent chest infection caused by shallow breathing
Pain from rib fractures causes casualties to breathe shallowly, so secretions collect in the lungs and pneumonia or lung collapse can develop. Regular deep breaths, with adequate pain relief, keep the lungs expanded.

10. Bluish discolouration of the lips or fingertips (cyanosis) may be caused by:

  • A. Poisoning or any condition causing lack of oxygen
  • B. Excess oxygen in the blood
  • C. High blood sugar
  • D. Sunburn
Answer: A — Poisoning or any condition causing lack of oxygen
Cyanosis indicates that the blood is poorly oxygenated. It can be caused by poisoning, airway obstruction, respiratory failure, heart failure or exposure to an oxygen-deficient atmosphere, and requires urgent assessment of breathing.

11. For two-rescuer CPR on an infant, the recommended ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is:

  • A. 15:2
  • B. 5:1
  • C. 30:1
  • D. 10:2
Answer: A — 15:2
Resuscitation guidelines recommend 30:2 for a single lay rescuer, but where two trained rescuers are present a ratio of 15 compressions to 2 breaths is used for infants and children, because their cardiac arrest is usually breathing-related.

12. A leaking exhaust gas pipe from a combustion engine is a likely source of:

  • A. Carbon monoxide
  • B. Chlorine
  • C. Ammonia
  • D. Oxygen enrichment
Answer: A — Carbon monoxide
Incomplete combustion in engines produces carbon monoxide, a colourless, odourless, toxic gas that binds to haemoglobin and prevents oxygen transport. Leaking exhaust lines in engine rooms or enclosed spaces can cause CO poisoning.

13. Which of the following should NOT be applied to a burn?

  • A. Ice
  • B. Cool running water
  • C. A clean, non-fluffy dressing
  • D. Cling film loosely laid over the burn
Answer: A — Ice
Ice causes further tissue damage by constricting blood vessels and may cause frostbite to injured skin. Burns should be cooled with cool running water for at least 20 minutes and then loosely covered with cling film or a clean, non-fluffy dressing.

14. For a snake bite, applying a tight tourniquet is:

  • A. Not recommended, as it can cause severe tissue damage and loss of the limb
  • B. Recommended for all snake bites
  • C. Recommended only on bites to the arm
  • D. Recommended if left in place for six hours
Answer: A — Not recommended, as it can cause severe tissue damage and loss of the limb
A tight tourniquet cuts off the blood supply to the limb and can concentrate venom locally, causing tissue death and possible amputation. Current first aid is to keep the casualty calm, immobilise the limb and obtain medical help.

15. Corrosive chemicals in powder form on a casualty's skin should first be:

  • A. Carefully brushed off, before flushing with water
  • B. Mixed with a little water to form a paste
  • C. Neutralised with vinegar
  • D. Covered with an ointment
Answer: A — Carefully brushed off, before flushing with water
Dry chemical powder should first be brushed off carefully, protecting the rescuer, because a small amount of water may react with it. The area is then flushed with large amounts of running water for at least 20 minutes.

16. A third-degree (full-thickness) burn damages:

  • A. All layers of the skin and possibly the underlying tissues
  • B. Only the uppermost layer of the skin
  • C. Only the hair on the skin surface
  • D. Only the outer layer and part of the dermis
Answer: A — All layers of the skin and possibly the underlying tissues
A full-thickness burn destroys the epidermis and dermis and may extend into fat, muscle or bone. The skin may look white, leathery or charred and may be painless because nerve endings are destroyed; it always needs medical care.

17. Removal of snake venom by sucking it out from the punctured skin is:

  • A. Ineffective and not recommended
  • B. The best first aid for all snake bites
  • C. Recommended only within five minutes of the bite
  • D. Recommended if the rescuer wears gloves
Answer: A — Ineffective and not recommended
Sucking or cutting the bite removes negligible venom, increases tissue damage and infection and endangers the rescuer. First aid is limited to calming the casualty, immobilising the limb and arranging medical treatment.

18. Heatstroke is a medical emergency in which the core body temperature rises from the normal 37°C to about:

  • A. 40°C or more
  • B. 37.5°C
  • C. 38°C
  • D. 36°C
Answer: A — 40°C or more
In heatstroke the body's temperature control fails and the core temperature rises to 40°C or more, often with hot dry skin and confusion. Rapid cooling and urgent medical advice are needed to prevent brain damage and death.

19. Where is the heart located in the human body?

  • A. In the chest, above the diaphragm and slightly to the left of the midline
  • B. Below the diaphragm, slightly to the right of the midline
  • C. In the abdomen behind the stomach
  • D. In the lower neck behind the windpipe
Answer: A — In the chest, above the diaphragm and slightly to the left of the midline
The heart is a muscular pump about the size of a fist, weighing roughly 300 g, lying in the chest between the lungs, above the diaphragm and slightly to the left of the breastbone. It pumps blood through the pulmonary and systemic circulations.

20. An organ is best described as:

  • A. A structure made up of tissues that performs a particular function
  • B. A single cell with its own function
  • C. A fluid that carries nutrients around the body
  • D. A type of white blood cell
Answer: A — A structure made up of tissues that performs a particular function
Cells of the same kind group together to form tissues, and different tissues combine to form organs such as the heart, liver or lungs. Each organ performs a particular function, and organs work together as body systems.

21. A tissue is:

  • A. A grouping of similar cells that work together
  • B. A single cell
  • C. A group of organs working together
  • D. A fluid surrounding the cells
Answer: A — A grouping of similar cells that work together
A tissue is a group of similar cells that work together to carry out a function, for example muscle, nervous, epithelial or connective tissue. Tissues in turn combine to make organs.

22. Tonsils are special collections of ____ tissue located at the entrances of the respiratory and digestive systems.

  • A. Lymphoid
  • B. Muscular
  • C. Bony
  • D. Fatty
Answer: A — Lymphoid
Tonsils are masses of lymphoid tissue in the throat that form part of the immune system. Placed at the entrance of the airway and food passage, they help trap and fight bacteria and viruses entering the body.

23. The lungs are composed of branching air tubes and millions of tiny air sacs called:

  • A. Alveoli
  • B. Villi
  • C. Nephrons
  • D. Ventricles
Answer: A — Alveoli
Each lung contains bronchial tubes ending in millions of alveoli, bound together by connective tissue. Gas exchange takes place across the thin alveolar walls, where oxygen enters the blood and carbon dioxide is removed.

24. In advanced (severe) hypothermia requiring immediate medical attention, a key sign is that:

  • A. Shivering stops and the casualty becomes drowsy or confused
  • B. The casualty shivers violently
  • C. The casualty has goose bumps
  • D. The hands and feet feel cold
Answer: A — Shivering stops and the casualty becomes drowsy or confused
Violent shivering is a sign of mild hypothermia. As the core temperature falls further, shivering stops and the casualty becomes confused, drowsy and eventually unconscious, with a risk of cardiac arrest; careful handling and medical care are urgent.

25. Which is the most typical symptom of a heart attack?

  • A. Persistent crushing or squeezing chest pain that may spread to the arm, neck or jaw
  • B. Brief sharp, stabbing twinges that worsen when the chest is pressed
  • C. An itchy skin rash on the chest
  • D. Pain that disappears completely within a few seconds
Answer: A — Persistent crushing or squeezing chest pain that may spread to the arm, neck or jaw
A heart attack typically causes persistent, crushing central chest pain that may spread to the arms, neck, jaw or back, often with breathlessness, sweating and nausea. Brief sharp stabbing pains are not a reliable sign of a heart attack.

26. When giving rescue breaths to an infant, the rescuer should:

  • A. Cover both the infant's mouth and nose with the mouth to form an airtight seal
  • B. Pinch the nose and give full adult-sized breaths into the mouth
  • C. Blow into the nose only, keeping the mouth open
  • D. Tilt the head fully back as far as it will go
Answer: A — Cover both the infant's mouth and nose with the mouth to form an airtight seal
An infant's face is small, so the rescuer seals their mouth over both the infant's mouth and nose and gives gentle puffs just enough to make the chest rise. The head is kept in a neutral position, not fully tilted back.

27. Under MLC 2006 Standard A4.1, the ship's medicine chest and medical equipment must be inspected by a competent person at intervals not exceeding:

  • A. 30 months
  • B. 6 months
  • C. 3 months
  • D. 12 months
Answer: D — 12 months
MLC 2006 Standard A4.1 requires the medicine chest and medical equipment to be properly maintained and inspected at regular intervals not exceeding 12 months, checking labelling, expiry dates, storage conditions and directions for use.

28. During the periodic inspection of the ship's medicine chest, which of the following must be checked?

  • A. Labelling, expiry dates, storage conditions and directions for use of all medicines
  • B. Only the controlled drugs register
  • C. Only the medical equipment, not the medicines
  • D. Only the quantity of painkillers
Answer: A — Labelling, expiry dates, storage conditions and directions for use of all medicines
The competent person inspecting the medicine chest under MLC 2006 Standard A4.1 must ensure that labelling, expiry dates and conditions of storage of all medicines and the directions for their use are checked and kept up to date.

29. Which publication, jointly produced by ILO, IMO and WHO, gives the recommended contents of the ship's medicine chest and guidance on treatment on board?

  • A. International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
  • B. IAMSAR Manual Volume III
  • C. IMDG Code Supplement - EmS Guide
  • D. Code of Safe Working Practices for Merchant Seafarers
Answer: A — International Medical Guide for Ships (IMGS)
The International Medical Guide for Ships, published by WHO with ILO and IMO, contains the recommended list of medicines and medical equipment for ships together with guidance for diagnosis and treatment by non-medical personnel.

30. A ship carrying dangerous goods must have on board, in addition to the normal medicine chest:

  • A. Blood for transfusion
  • B. A decompression chamber
  • C. A qualified ship's doctor regardless of crew size
  • D. The medicines, antidotes and equipment recommended in the MFAG for the cargo carried
Answer: D — The medicines, antidotes and equipment recommended in the MFAG for the cargo carried
Ships carrying dangerous goods must carry the medical first aid guidance (MFAG) and the specific medicines, antidotes and equipment it recommends for poisoning or injury by the dangerous substances carried.

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