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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 2

Set 2 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 203 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 2 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. What parameter must be verified prior to authorizing enclosed space entry for operational safety and hazard prevention related to Medical First Aid?

  • A. Visual inspection through access hatch without gas testing
  • B. Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
  • C. Temperature check only
  • D. Oxygen level at 15% with ventilation turned off
Answer: B — Atmospheric oxygen level at 20.9% and zero toxic/flammable gas concentration
Enclosed space safety requires verified atmospheric gas testing prior to entry.

2. What key responsibility belongs to seafarers performing watchkeeping duties for deck and engine room operational protocols under Medical First Aid?

  • A. Operating equipment beyond design pressure limits
  • B. Bypassing safety trips during routine operations
  • C. Leaving watchkeeping station unattended
  • D. Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Answer: D — Continuous monitoring of operational parameters and immediate reporting of anomalies
Continuous vigilance and prompt communication are core watchkeeping duties under STCW.

3. Which document contains detailed hazard data and emergency handling instructions for substances involved in deck and engine room operational protocols during Medical First Aid?

  • A. Ship's Cargo Manifest summary page
  • B. Bill of Lading description
  • C. Crew List document
  • D. Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Answer: D — Safety Data Sheet (SDS) / Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
Safety Data Sheets provide critical hazard identification, PPE requirements, and first aid response steps.

4. Which one of the following is not a system of the body:

  • A. Endocrine.
  • B. Respiratory.
  • C. Follicular.
  • D. Musculoskeletal.
Answer: C — Follicular.
The human body consists of major systems like the respiratory, musculoskeletal, and endocrine systems. The term 'follicular' relates to structures like hair follicles but is not classified as a major physiological body system.

5. Increased respiratory difficulty accompanied by a weak ineffective cough, wheezing, high-pitched crowing noises and cyanosis are signs of:

  • A. Mild airway obstruction
  • B. O.P.D.
  • C. Complete airway obstruction.
  • D. Severe airway obstruction
Answer: D — Severe airway obstruction
These signs (weak cough, wheezing, cyanosis, and high-pitched noises) indicate that the airway is significantly compromised but not yet fully blocked. This requires urgent intervention to prevent total obstruction.

6. The most important step in managing shock is to:

  • A. Give first aid for the illness or injury.
  • B. Give CPR as soon as possible.
  • C. Keep the patient warm.
  • D. Elevate the lower extremities.
Answer: A — Give first aid for the illness or injury.
While keeping a patient warm and positioning are supportive measures, the most critical step in managing shock is treating the underlying cause, such as controlling hemorrhage or managing the primary medical emergency.

7. A small percentage of casualties with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have hypoxic drive. These patients breathe because of a:

  • A. Low oxygen level.
  • B. Low carbon dioxide level.
  • C. High oxygen level.
  • D. High carbon dioxide level.
Answer: A — Low oxygen level.
Patients with chronic respiratory issues often adapt to high carbon dioxide levels, causing their drive to breathe to shift from CO2 sensitivity to reliance on low levels of oxygen in the blood.

8. The emergency responder is one link in the chain of services known as the:

  • A. Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.
  • B. Professional Emergency Care (PEC) system.
  • C. Community Medical Care (CMC) system.
  • D. Emergency Patient Care (EPC) system.
Answer: A — Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system.
The chain of survival in emergency response is formally organized under the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system, which coordinates care from the initial responder through to hospital arrival.

9. The acronym used to assist the emergency responder assessing the patient's level of responsiveness is:

  • A. AVPU.
  • B. EMCA.
  • C. SAMPLE.
  • D. OPQRST.
Answer: A — AVPU.
AVPU is the standard scale used in the primary survey to assess neurological function: Alert, Verbal, Pain, and Unresponsive. It provides a quick snapshot of the patient’s level of consciousness.

10. An industrial worker sustains a severe laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure to the wound fails to control the bleeding. The correct arterial pressure point to control the bleeding is the:

  • A. Femoral.
  • B. Carotid.
  • C. Brachial.
  • D. Radial.
Answer: C — Brachial.
The brachial artery, located on the inside of the upper arm, is the recognized pressure point to compress when controlling severe bleeding in the forearm or hand that direct pressure alone cannot stop.

11. Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the return of normal colour is done to check for:

  • A. Pain in the area.
  • B. lack of oxygen in the blood.
  • C. Normal blood circulation to that part.
  • D. The presence of fractured fingers.
Answer: C — Normal blood circulation to that part.
Capillary refill (checking the nail-bed) is a simple diagnostic test to evaluate peripheral circulation and perfusion. If color fails to return quickly, it suggests poor blood flow to the extremity.

12. Your primary survey of a casualty involved in a serious car collision shows only that he is confused. Later you find his pulse rate at 140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and his breathing irregular and gasping. These signs, along with the mechanism of injury, indicate:

  • A. An oncoming faint.
  • B. Onset of diabetic coma.
  • C. Internal bleeding.
  • D. Emotional stress.
Answer: C — Internal bleeding.
Signs of shock (tachycardia, cool/clammy skin, rapid/shallow breathing) in the context of trauma strongly suggest internal hemorrhage, which is a life-threatening condition requiring immediate medical evacuation.

13. For which one of the following infectious diseases is a vaccine presently available:

  • A. Herpes.
  • B. Hepatitis B.
  • C. Mononucleosis.
  • D. AIDS.
Answer: B — Hepatitis B.
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that can be prevented via vaccination. AIDS, Herpes, and Mononucleosis currently do not have effective, widely available vaccines.

14. Based on current research, which of the following statements about the AIDS virus is correct?

  • A. It can be found in blood and semen.
  • B. It can be transmitted by sharing eating utensils.
  • C. It can be transmitted by shaking hands.
  • D. It can be found in perspiration.
Answer: A — It can be found in blood and semen.
HIV/AIDS is transmitted through the exchange of bodily fluids like blood and semen. It is not transmitted via casual contact, such as shaking hands or sharing common items like cutlery.

15. In a hazmat situation airway management and immobilzation are carried out in the:

  • A. cold zone
  • B. hot zone
  • C. warm zone
  • D. neutral zone
Answer: C — warm zone
In a hazmat incident, the 'warm zone' is the designated area where decontamination and initial medical stabilization (including airway management) occur to prevent cross-contamination.

16. During the primary assessment of a responsive adult patient, you detect a breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute. You would categorize this as:

  • A. Above normal.
  • B. Indeterminate.
  • C. Normal.
  • D. Below normal.
Answer: A — Above normal.
The normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically 12–20 breaths per minute. A rate of 28 is clinically considered tachypneic (rapid breathing) and is therefore above the normal range.

17. A blood-soaked dressing on the arm indicates that bleeding has not yet been controlled. You should now:

  • A. Apply a tourniquet.
  • B. Remove the dressing and check the wound.
  • C. Place a clean dressing on top and apply more pressure.
  • D. Apply pressure to the femoral artery.
Answer: C — Place a clean dressing on top and apply more pressure.
Removing a blood-soaked dressing disturbs the clot that is already forming, which can worsen bleeding. It is standard practice to add clean dressings on top and maintain constant, firm pressure.

18. The type of shock that is caused by a severe infection is called:

  • A. Cardiogenic.
  • B. Septic shock
  • C. Hemorrhagic.
  • D. Psychogenic.
Answer: B — Septic shock
Septic shock occurs when a severe bacterial infection enters the bloodstream, causing a systemic inflammatory response that leads to vasodilation and a dangerous drop in blood pressure.

19. Which one of the following is considered a breach of duty:

  • A. inappropriate use of lights and siren.
  • B. insubordination.
  • C. failure to wear your name tag.
  • D. failure to obtain consent.
Answer: D — failure to obtain consent.
A first responder has a legal and ethical duty to obtain consent before treating a patient. Providing care without consent, except in life-threatening emergencies where the patient is unconscious, is considered a breach of duty.

20. Immediately before a seizure, the patient experiences an unpleasant odour. This phase is referred to as:

  • A. Aura.
  • B. Clonic.
  • C. Tonic.
  • D. Postical.
Answer: A — Aura.
An aura is a sensory warning (such as a specific odor, visual disturbance, or feeling) that often precedes the onset of a tonic-clonic seizure in many patients.

21. The emergency responder should assume a head/spinal injury in any unwitnessed situation where the patient is:

  • A. Responsive to pain.
  • B. Alert.
  • C. Not breathing.
  • D. Unresponsive.
Answer: D — Unresponsive.
In an unwitnessed fall or accident, the mechanism of injury (e.g., a fall from height) and the patient's unresponsive state necessitate that the responder assumes a spinal injury until proven otherwise.

22. The secondary assessment of the patient consists of a head to toe examination and a check of the:

  • A. Pressure points.
  • B. Manual stabilization of the head.
  • C. Procedures for administering CPR.
  • D. Vital signs.
Answer: D — Vital signs.
A secondary assessment is a methodical head-to-toe survey of the casualty, which includes documenting the patient's vital signs (pulse, respiration, blood pressure) to track changes in their condition.

23. You are taking blood pressure by palpation. A radial pulse indicates a blood pressure of at least:

  • A. 110 mmHg
  • B. 90 mmHg
  • C. 100 mmHg
  • D. 80 mmHg
Answer: D — 80 mmHg
If a radial pulse is palpable, it is generally accepted that the systolic blood pressure is at least 80 mmHg. If the radial pulse is absent but a carotid pulse is present, it is lower.

24. You are called for an asthma attack, treatments may include all except:

  • A. Bronchodilators
  • B. Metered dose inhaler
  • C. Nitroglycerin
  • D. Inhaled steroids
Answer: C — Nitroglycerin
Nitroglycerin is indicated for cardiac issues such as angina or myocardial infarction; it is not a treatment for asthma. Asthma is managed with bronchodilators and anti-inflammatories.

25. In topographic anatomy, the term "lateral" means:

  • A. Away from the head.
  • B. Nearer the head.
  • C. Away from the midline of the body
  • D. Nearer the midline of the body.
Answer: C — Away from the midline of the body
In anatomical terms, 'medial' refers to structures closer to the midline, while 'lateral' refers to structures situated further away from the midline of the body.

26. Which one of the following conditions may mimic the signs of acute alcohol intoxication?

  • A. Absence seizures.
  • B. Hypoglycemia
  • C. Anaphylactic shock.
  • D. Congestive heart failure.
Answer: B — Hypoglycemia
Hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) can cause symptoms like confusion, slurred speech, and ataxia, which are clinically similar to the signs of intoxication or a stroke.

27. Which one of the following breathing diseases is included in C.O.P.D.:

  • A. Dyspnea
  • B. Emphysema.
  • C. Hyperventilation
  • D. Croup.
Answer: B — Emphysema.
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is an umbrella term that includes emphysema and chronic bronchitis. Croup and dyspnea are specific conditions or symptoms, not types of COPD.

28. A condition where air builds up in the pleural space, collapses the lung and puts pressure on the heart is called:

  • A. Hemothorax
  • B. Tension pneumothorax
  • C. Open pneumothorax
  • D. Closed pneumothorax
Answer: B — Tension pneumothorax
A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening emergency where air entering the pleural space cannot escape, increasing intrathoracic pressure and shifting the mediastinum, which compresses the heart and reduces cardiac output.

29. Oxygen humidification is recommended if you are administering oxygen for longer than:

  • A. 90 minutes.
  • B. 60 minutes.
  • C. 30 minutes.
  • D. 15 minutes.
Answer: C — 30 minutes.
Oxygen therapy is drying to the mucous membranes. Humidification is standard procedure when oxygen is administered for an extended duration, generally defined as longer than 30 minutes.

30. You find a male patient with obvious difficulty breathing. He is using his neck muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red blotches on his chest, and his neck is swelling. You suspect :

  • A. Bronchitis.
  • B. Asthma.
  • C. Anaphylaxis.
  • D. Emphysema.
Answer: C — Anaphylaxis.
The combination of respiratory distress, cyanosis, and swelling of the neck/face is characteristic of a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) due to upper airway obstruction and edema.

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