Skip to content
DG Exit Exam
Answer Key

MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 20 — Medical First Aid

Set 20 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

Bank last rebuilt .

30 of 30 shown · Set 20

Nothing in this set matches that. Try a shorter word, or search the whole key.

Set 20 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Which site is recommended for an intramuscular injection into the buttock?

  • A. Upper outer quadrant
  • B. Lower outer quadrant
  • C. Lower inner quadrant
  • D. Centre of the buttock
Answer: A — Upper outer quadrant
The upper outer quadrant of the buttock is used for gluteal intramuscular injections because it has a large muscle mass and avoids the sciatic nerve and major blood vessels lying in the other quadrants.

2. Apart from the buttock, which sites are commonly used for intramuscular injections?

  • A. The palm of the hand and the sole of the foot
  • B. The front of the neck
  • C. The deltoid muscle of the upper arm and the outer side of the thigh
  • D. The abdomen around the navel
Answer: C — The deltoid muscle of the upper arm and the outer side of the thigh
Intramuscular injections are given into large muscles: the deltoid of the upper arm for small volumes, the outer thigh (vastus lateralis) and the upper outer buttock, where nerves and large vessels are avoided.

3. A subcutaneous injection is given:

  • A. Into a vein
  • B. Deep into a large muscle at 90 degrees
  • C. Into the fatty tissue just under the skin, usually at about 45 degrees
  • D. Into the spinal canal
Answer: C — Into the fatty tissue just under the skin, usually at about 45 degrees
Subcutaneous injections deposit the drug into the fatty layer beneath the skin, usually by pinching up the skin and inserting the needle at about 45 degrees; intramuscular injections are given at 90 degrees into muscle.

4. Before giving a course of penicillin injections on board, why is a test dose given and the patient observed?

  • A. To find the correct needle size
  • B. To detect an allergic reaction, which can lead to life-threatening anaphylaxis
  • C. To check whether the patient has eaten
  • D. To check the patient's blood group
Answer: B — To detect an allergic reaction, which can lead to life-threatening anaphylaxis
Penicillin is a common cause of serious allergic reactions; the patient is first asked about allergy, a test dose is given and observed, and adrenaline must be ready because anaphylaxis can develop within minutes.

5. Which drug from the ship's medicine chest is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock?

  • A. Paracetamol tablets
  • B. Adrenaline (epinephrine) by intramuscular injection
  • C. Oral antibiotics
  • D. Morphine
Answer: B — Adrenaline (epinephrine) by intramuscular injection
Adrenaline given intramuscularly, usually into the outer thigh, reverses the airway swelling, bronchospasm and collapse of anaphylaxis; it is the first and most important drug, given as soon as anaphylaxis is recognised.

6. What is the maximum total dose of paracetamol for a healthy adult in 24 hours?

  • A. 1 gram
  • B. 4 grams
  • C. 10 grams
  • D. 2 grams
Answer: B — 4 grams
For a healthy adult the usual dose of paracetamol is 500 mg to 1 g every four to six hours, up to a maximum of 4 g in 24 hours; overdose can cause serious, delayed liver damage.

7. Aspirin should NOT be given to:

  • A. An adult with suspected heart attack who is not allergic
  • B. Adults with a headache
  • C. Children under 16 years and persons with bleeding stomach ulcers
  • D. Any person over 60
Answer: C — Children under 16 years and persons with bleeding stomach ulcers
Aspirin can cause Reye's syndrome in children under 16 and increases bleeding risk, so it is avoided in children and in people with stomach ulcers, bleeding disorders or aspirin allergy.

8. A serious side effect of morphine that must be watched for after it is given is:

  • A. Hair loss
  • B. Increased bleeding
  • C. High fever
  • D. Depression of breathing
Answer: D — Depression of breathing
Morphine and other opioids depress the respiratory centre, so breathing rate and level of consciousness must be monitored; it is generally avoided in head injury and breathing problems unless advised by radio medical advice.

9. Which drug counteracts an overdose of morphine or other opioids?

  • A. Aspirin
  • B. Atropine
  • C. Adrenaline
  • D. Naloxone
Answer: D — Naloxone
Naloxone is a specific opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the respiratory depression and sedation caused by morphine and other opioids; its effect may wear off before the opioid's, so the patient must be watched.

10. On a prescription or medicine label, the abbreviation 't.d.s.' means:

  • A. Three times a day
  • B. When required
  • C. Once daily
  • D. Twice daily
Answer: A — Three times a day
Common dosage abbreviations are o.d. (once daily), b.d. (twice daily), t.d.s. (three times a day), q.d.s. (four times a day) and p.r.n. (when required).

11. A patient on antibiotics feels better after two days. What should he be told?

  • A. Stop the tablets immediately
  • B. Take double the dose to finish sooner
  • C. Give the remaining tablets to another crew member
  • D. Complete the full course as prescribed
Answer: D — Complete the full course as prescribed
Stopping antibiotics early can allow the infection to return and encourages resistant bacteria, so the full prescribed course should be completed unless the doctor or radio medical advice says otherwise.

12. Crew members taking antihistamines or anti-seasickness tablets should be warned that:

  • A. They must be taken with alcohol
  • B. They may cause drowsiness, which can affect watchkeeping and machinery operation
  • C. They cure all allergies permanently
  • D. They will cause a high fever
Answer: B — They may cause drowsiness, which can affect watchkeeping and machinery operation
Many antihistamines and anti-seasickness drugs such as promethazine or hyoscine cause drowsiness and reduced alertness, so the Master or officer of the watch should be aware when watchkeepers or machinery operators take them.

13. Before injecting a drug intramuscularly, the plunger is gently drawn back. If blood appears in the syringe, the person giving the injection should:

  • A. Inject the drug quickly
  • B. Withdraw the needle and inject at another site with a fresh needle
  • C. Inject air first
  • D. Inject half the dose
Answer: B — Withdraw the needle and inject at another site with a fresh needle
Blood in the syringe indicates the needle tip is in a blood vessel; injecting there could give the drug intravenously with dangerous effects, so the needle is withdrawn and a new site used.

14. Oral rehydration salts (ORS) from the medicine chest are mainly used to treat:

  • A. Fractures
  • B. Burns of the eye
  • C. Bleeding wounds
  • D. Dehydration caused by diarrhoea and vomiting
Answer: D — Dehydration caused by diarrhoea and vomiting
Oral rehydration salts dissolved in clean water replace the water and salts lost through diarrhoea, vomiting or heavy sweating and are the main treatment for dehydration in conscious patients able to drink.

15. Before giving any medicine to a crew member, the most important questions to ask include:

  • A. His nationality
  • B. Whether he has any allergies and what other medicines he is taking
  • C. His rank
  • D. His next port of joining
Answer: B — Whether he has any allergies and what other medicines he is taking
Allergies and current medicines must always be checked first because drug allergy and interactions between medicines are major causes of harm; this information is also needed for radio medical advice.

16. The term 'side effect' of a medicine means:

  • A. The main intended action of the drug
  • B. The effect of taking it with food
  • C. An unwanted effect that may occur in addition to the intended action
  • D. The date the drug expires
Answer: C — An unwanted effect that may occur in addition to the intended action
A side effect is any unintended effect of a drug occurring alongside its intended action, such as drowsiness from antihistamines or stomach irritation from aspirin; known side effects are listed in the IMGS and drug leaflets.

17. What is the difference between sterilisation and disinfection?

  • A. Sterilisation only removes visible dirt
  • B. Disinfection destroys all spores, sterilisation does not
  • C. Sterilisation destroys all micro-organisms including spores, while disinfection reduces or kills most but not necessarily spores
  • D. There is no difference
Answer: C — Sterilisation destroys all micro-organisms including spores, while disinfection reduces or kills most but not necessarily spores
Sterilisation is the complete destruction of all micro-organisms including bacterial spores, whereas disinfection kills or reduces most harmful organisms but may leave resistant spores, so it is not sufficient for instruments entering tissue.

18. What must be done to surgical instruments BEFORE they are sterilised or disinfected?

  • A. They must be thoroughly cleaned to remove blood and tissue debris
  • B. They should be oiled
  • C. They should be wrapped while still dirty
  • D. Nothing, they go straight into the steriliser
Answer: A — They must be thoroughly cleaned to remove blood and tissue debris
Blood, pus and tissue left on instruments shield micro-organisms from heat or chemicals, so instruments are first scrubbed and rinsed, using gloves, before sterilisation or disinfection.

19. A standard cycle for sterilising instruments by steam under pressure in an autoclave is:

  • A. 121°C for 15 minutes
  • B. 60°C for 5 minutes
  • C. 200°C for 1 second
  • D. 100°C for 1 minute
Answer: A — 121°C for 15 minutes
Moist heat under pressure kills all micro-organisms including spores; a standard autoclave cycle is 121°C for 15 minutes (or 134°C for about 3 minutes), timed after the load reaches temperature.

20. Why is boiling instruments in water not regarded as true sterilisation?

  • A. It takes too long to cool
  • B. Boiling water is always contaminated
  • C. Some bacterial spores can survive at 100°C
  • D. It damages all metal instruments
Answer: C — Some bacterial spores can survive at 100°C
Boiling at 100°C kills most bacteria and viruses and is acceptable disinfection on board when no steriliser is available, but some bacterial spores can survive, so it does not achieve full sterility.

21. Which is the correct use of an antiseptic as compared with a disinfectant?

  • A. Antiseptics are only used on decks
  • B. Disinfectants are safe to drink
  • C. Both are only used on instruments
  • D. Antiseptics are applied to living tissue such as skin; disinfectants are used on inanimate objects and surfaces
Answer: D — Antiseptics are applied to living tissue such as skin; disinfectants are used on inanimate objects and surfaces
Antiseptics such as povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine are safe for skin and wounds, while disinfectants such as strong chlorine solutions are used on instruments, surfaces and equipment and may damage living tissue.

22. For disinfecting skin or small instruments, which strength of alcohol is most effective?

  • A. 100% absolute alcohol
  • B. Any strength is equally effective
  • C. About 70%
  • D. About 10%
Answer: C — About 70%
Alcohol at about 70% is a more effective disinfectant than absolute alcohol because the water present helps it penetrate and denature the proteins of micro-organisms; it does not reliably kill spores.

23. Disposable single-use needles and syringes, after use, should be:

  • A. Placed immediately, without recapping, in a puncture-proof sharps container
  • B. Recapped by hand and thrown in the garbage
  • C. Kept in the medicine chest for the next patient
  • D. Boiled and reused
Answer: A — Placed immediately, without recapping, in a puncture-proof sharps container
Single-use items must never be resterilised or reused; needles are not recapped by hand to avoid needlestick injury and are dropped straight into a puncture-proof sharps container for disposal ashore.

24. Before opening a sterile dressing or instrument pack, you should check that:

  • A. The pack is intact, dry and within its expiry date
  • B. The pack is warm
  • C. The pack has been opened before
  • D. The pack is large enough to use twice
Answer: A — The pack is intact, dry and within its expiry date
A sterile pack is only sterile if the wrapping is undamaged and dry and it is within date; a torn, wet or expired pack must be regarded as contaminated and not used for wounds or procedures.

25. The single most important measure to prevent the spread of infection when treating a casualty is:

  • A. Wearing a uniform
  • B. Thorough hand washing before and after patient contact, together with wearing gloves
  • C. Taking antibiotics yourself
  • D. Opening portholes
Answer: B — Thorough hand washing before and after patient contact, together with wearing gloves
Hand hygiene before and after every patient contact, combined with disposable gloves when handling blood or body fluids, is the most effective way of preventing transfer of infection between patient and carer.

26. Dry heat sterilisation in a hot-air oven is commonly carried out at:

  • A. 100°C for 10 minutes
  • B. 160°C for about 2 hours
  • C. 60°C for 2 hours
  • D. 300°C for 5 seconds
Answer: B — 160°C for about 2 hours
Dry heat is less efficient than moist heat, so it requires higher temperatures for longer, typically about 160°C for two hours (or 170°C for about one hour), and is suitable for glass and metal instruments.

27. Sterile instruments, once removed from their pack, should be:

  • A. Placed on any clean-looking surface
  • B. Wiped with a cloth before use
  • C. Handled only with sterile gloves or forceps and kept on a sterile field
  • D. Washed in tap water
Answer: C — Handled only with sterile gloves or forceps and kept on a sterile field
Sterile instruments become contaminated as soon as they touch unsterile hands or surfaces, so they are handled with sterile forceps or gloves and laid out only on a sterile towel or tray until used.

28. Autoclave indicator tape on an instrument pack shows:

  • A. The name of the patient
  • B. The exact number of bacteria killed
  • C. That the pack has been exposed to sterilising conditions
  • D. The expiry date of the instruments
Answer: C — That the pack has been exposed to sterilising conditions
Indicator tape changes colour when exposed to the temperature of an autoclave cycle, showing that the pack has been processed; it does not by itself prove sterility, so the pack must also be intact and dry.

29. According to WHO guidance, effective hand washing with soap and water should last about:

  • A. 40-60 seconds
  • B. 5 minutes
  • C. 5 seconds
  • D. 10 seconds
Answer: A — 40-60 seconds
WHO recommends that hand washing with soap and water, covering all surfaces of the hands and fingers, should take about 40-60 seconds; an alcohol hand rub takes about 20-30 seconds.

30. Reusable items such as a resuscitator face mask, after use on a casualty, should be:

  • A. Only wiped with a dry cloth
  • B. Stored immediately without cleaning
  • C. Washed and disinfected according to the manufacturer's instructions before being returned to service
  • D. Thrown overboard
Answer: C — Washed and disinfected according to the manufacturer's instructions before being returned to service
Masks and other reusable airway equipment are contaminated by saliva and secretions, so they must be cleaned and disinfected as instructed by the manufacturer, dried and repacked so they are ready for the next use.

Printing this? Use your browser's Print (Ctrl/⌘ + P) — the buttons, the search box and the site chrome drop out and the questions run on as plain text, so a set fits a few pages. Filter to one set first if you only want that set on paper.

Send this MFA answer key to your batch

Send on WhatsApp

More free tools for seafarers