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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 22 — Medical First Aid

Set 22 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 22 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. Hepatitis B is mainly transmitted through:

  • A. Infected blood and body fluids, for example unprotected sex, shared needles or tattooing
  • B. Mosquito bites
  • C. Coughing and sneezing
  • D. Contaminated drinking water
Answer: A — Infected blood and body fluids, for example unprotected sex, shared needles or tattooing
Hepatitis B virus is carried in blood and body fluids and is spread by sexual contact, shared needles, unsafe tattooing or piercing and from mother to baby; it is preventable by vaccination.

2. Survivors rescued from cold water should, whenever possible, be lifted from the water:

  • A. Head first
  • B. By a single line around the chest only
  • C. Vertically by the arms
  • D. In a horizontal or near-horizontal position
Answer: D — In a horizontal or near-horizontal position
Lifting a hypothermic survivor vertically can cause a sudden fall in blood pressure and collapse or cardiac arrest when the water pressure on the body is removed, so survivors should be recovered horizontally where possible.

3. A rescued survivor with severe hypothermia should be handled:

  • A. Roughly, to stimulate circulation
  • B. Very gently, kept horizontal, without rubbing the limbs
  • C. By walking him around the deck
  • D. By placing him in a very hot bath immediately
Answer: B — Very gently, kept horizontal, without rubbing the limbs
A very cold heart is irritable and rough handling, exercise or rubbing the limbs can trigger ventricular fibrillation or send cold blood to the core, so severely hypothermic survivors are moved gently and kept horizontal.

4. When rewarming a hypothermic survivor on board, heat should be applied first to:

  • A. Only the legs
  • B. The hands and feet
  • C. Only the head
  • D. The trunk, armpits, groin and neck
Answer: D — The trunk, armpits, groin and neck
Warming the trunk core first prevents a dangerous further fall in core temperature that can occur if cold blood returns from rewarmed limbs; the casualty is insulated, wet clothes removed and warmth applied to the trunk.

5. Immersion foot (trench foot) is caused by:

  • A. Snake bite
  • B. Burns from hot decks
  • C. Freezing of the tissues below 0°C
  • D. Prolonged exposure of the feet to cold and wet conditions above freezing
Answer: D — Prolonged exposure of the feet to cold and wet conditions above freezing
Immersion foot is a non-freezing cold injury caused by prolonged exposure of the feet to cold water or wet conditions, as in survival craft, causing swelling, numbness and tissue damage.

6. The correct first aid for immersion foot is to:

  • A. Dry the feet carefully, warm them gently, elevate them and avoid walking on them
  • B. Soak them in very hot water
  • C. Burst the blisters
  • D. Rub the feet vigorously
Answer: A — Dry the feet carefully, warm them gently, elevate them and avoid walking on them
Feet with immersion injury are fragile; they are dried gently, kept warm and elevated, not rubbed or massaged, and protected from pressure and walking, as tissue damage and infection may follow.

7. In a survival craft, apart from the sick or injured, survivors should normally be given no drinking water during the first:

  • A. 3 days
  • B. 2 hours
  • C. 7 days
  • D. 24 hours
Answer: D — 24 hours
Survival guidance advises that no water be issued in the first 24 hours except to the sick or injured, because the body's own reserves can be used and the limited supply is conserved for later.

8. Why must survivors never drink sea water?

  • A. It contains too little salt
  • B. It causes seasickness only
  • C. Its high salt content increases dehydration and can cause kidney damage, delirium and death
  • D. It is too cold
Answer: C — Its high salt content increases dehydration and can cause kidney damage, delirium and death
Sea water contains more salt than the kidneys can excrete, so drinking it draws water out of the body, increasing dehydration and leading to delirium, kidney failure and death; urine must not be drunk either.

9. Seasickness is caused by:

  • A. Conflicting signals reaching the brain from the balance organs of the inner ear and the eyes
  • B. Lack of oxygen
  • C. A bacterial infection
  • D. Eating too much salt
Answer: A — Conflicting signals reaching the brain from the balance organs of the inner ear and the eyes
Motion sickness results from a mismatch between motion sensed by the balance organs of the inner ear and what the eyes see; vomiting causes loss of fluid and morale, so anti-seasickness medicine is taken early in survival craft.

10. Anti-seasickness tablets in a survival craft are most effective when taken:

  • A. Only at night
  • B. Only by those who have been seasick before
  • C. Only after vomiting has continued for a day
  • D. As soon as possible after boarding the craft
Answer: D — As soon as possible after boarding the craft
Anti-seasickness medicine works best when taken before symptoms are established, so survivors are advised to take it as soon as possible after boarding a survival craft, which also prevents dehydration from vomiting.

11. To reduce heat loss while waiting in cold water wearing a lifejacket, a single survivor should adopt the:

  • A. Swim continuously to keep warm
  • B. HELP (Heat Escape Lessening Posture) with knees drawn up and arms close to the chest
  • C. Remove clothing to swim more easily
  • D. Star position with arms and legs spread out
Answer: B — HELP (Heat Escape Lessening Posture) with knees drawn up and arms close to the chest
The HELP position protects the high heat-loss areas of armpits, chest and groin; groups should huddle together. Swimming and removing clothing increase heat loss and hasten hypothermia.

12. In survival craft, sunburn is best prevented by:

  • A. Wetting the skin with seawater frequently
  • B. Keeping the skin covered, staying in the shade of the canopy and using sun protection
  • C. Drinking extra seawater
  • D. Exposing the skin to harden it
Answer: B — Keeping the skin covered, staying in the shade of the canopy and using sun protection
Survivors are at risk of sunburn and dehydration from sun and reflected glare, so they stay under the canopy, keep skin covered with clothing, protect eyes and use sunscreen where available.

13. A survivor recovered from cold water appears lifeless, with no detectable pulse. Which statement is correct?

  • A. Resuscitation should be started and continued, since hypothermic victims may recover after prolonged CPR
  • B. He should be pronounced dead immediately
  • C. He should be rewarmed by rubbing before any CPR
  • D. CPR should not be attempted on cold victims
Answer: A — Resuscitation should be started and continued, since hypothermic victims may recover after prolonged CPR
Cold protects the brain, and hypothermic victims have recovered after prolonged resuscitation; CPR is started and continued while rewarming and seeking medical advice, as a victim should not be considered dead until warm.

14. For survivors with little water in a survival craft, which food should be avoided?

  • A. Carbohydrate foods such as biscuits
  • B. Glucose tablets
  • C. Protein-rich foods such as fish and meat, which increase the need for water
  • D. Barley sugar sweets
Answer: C — Protein-rich foods such as fish and meat, which increase the need for water
Digesting protein requires extra water to remove its waste products, so when water is scarce survivors eat carbohydrate rations such as biscuits and sweets and avoid fish and meat.

15. Wind blowing over a wet survivor on deck after rescue will:

  • A. Have no effect on body temperature
  • B. Stop shivering
  • C. Warm him up
  • D. Greatly increase heat loss by convection and evaporation
Answer: D — Greatly increase heat loss by convection and evaporation
Wind and wet clothing greatly increase heat loss through convection and evaporation, so rescued persons should be taken out of the wind, wet clothing removed and they should be dried, insulated and covered, including the head.

16. The Medical First Aid Guide for Use in Accidents Involving Dangerous Goods (MFAG) is published as part of:

  • A. MARPOL Annex V
  • B. The Supplement to the IMDG Code
  • C. The ISM Code
  • D. SOLAS Chapter III
Answer: B — The Supplement to the IMDG Code
The MFAG, together with the EmS Guide, is contained in the Supplement to the IMDG Code and gives first aid and medical advice for poisoning and injuries caused by dangerous goods carried by sea.

17. The TLV-TWA (Threshold Limit Value - Time Weighted Average) of a substance is:

  • A. The highest concentration allowed for 1 minute
  • B. The average concentration over an 8-hour day and 40-hour week to which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effect
  • C. The concentration that kills 50% of those exposed
  • D. The concentration at which the substance becomes flammable
Answer: B — The average concentration over an 8-hour day and 40-hour week to which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse effect
The TLV-TWA is the time-weighted average concentration for a normal 8-hour working day and 40-hour week to which nearly all workers may be exposed day after day without adverse health effects.

18. The TLV-STEL (Short Term Exposure Limit) refers to the maximum concentration to which a person may be exposed for a period of:

  • A. 8 hours
  • B. 15 minutes
  • C. 1 hour
  • D. 24 hours
Answer: B — 15 minutes
The STEL is the concentration to which workers may be exposed for a short period of up to 15 minutes without suffering irritation, chronic tissue damage or narcosis, provided the TLV-TWA is not exceeded.

19. The TLV-C (ceiling value) of a toxic substance is the concentration that:

  • A. Applies only to flammable gases
  • B. May be exceeded for up to 15 minutes
  • C. Is averaged over a week
  • D. Should never be exceeded, even instantaneously
Answer: D — Should never be exceeded, even instantaneously
The ceiling limit TLV-C is the concentration that should not be exceeded at any time during exposure; it is used for fast-acting substances where even brief excess exposure may be harmful.

20. Why is the smell of hydrogen sulphide (H2S) an unreliable warning of danger?

  • A. It has no smell at any concentration
  • B. It smells pleasant
  • C. It smells only when mixed with oxygen
  • D. At higher concentrations it quickly paralyses the sense of smell
Answer: D — At higher concentrations it quickly paralyses the sense of smell
H2S smells of rotten eggs at very low concentrations, but at higher, dangerous concentrations it rapidly deadens the sense of smell, so a person may think the gas has gone while being exposed to a lethal level.

21. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because it:

  • A. Has a strong warning smell
  • B. Burns the skin on contact
  • C. Is heavier than water
  • D. Combines with haemoglobin about 200-250 times more readily than oxygen, preventing oxygen transport
Answer: D — Combines with haemoglobin about 200-250 times more readily than oxygen, preventing oxygen transport
Carbon monoxide is colourless and odourless and binds to haemoglobin roughly 200-250 times more strongly than oxygen, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and starving the tissues of oxygen; treatment is fresh air and high-concentration oxygen.

22. A crew member has swallowed a corrosive cleaning chemical and is conscious. What is the correct first aid?

  • A. Give him alcohol
  • B. Make him vomit immediately
  • C. Lay him flat and give nothing
  • D. Do not induce vomiting; rinse the mouth and give small sips of water, and seek medical advice
Answer: D — Do not induce vomiting; rinse the mouth and give small sips of water, and seek medical advice
Inducing vomiting brings the corrosive back through the oesophagus, causing further burns and risk of aspiration; the mouth is rinsed, small sips of water may be given if he can swallow, and MFAG and radio medical advice followed.

23. Why must oil or grease never be used on the valves and fittings of an oxygen resuscitator?

  • A. Oil or grease in contact with high-pressure oxygen can ignite spontaneously and cause fire or explosion
  • B. It blocks the flowmeter
  • C. It makes the mask slippery
  • D. It contaminates the patient's food
Answer: A — Oil or grease in contact with high-pressure oxygen can ignite spontaneously and cause fire or explosion
High-pressure oxygen can cause oil, grease and similar substances to ignite violently; oxygen fittings must be kept clean and free of oil, and hands should be clean when handling resuscitator connections.

24. Which is a main component of a typical shipboard oxygen resuscitator?

  • A. Air compressor and spray gun
  • B. Oxygen cylinder with pressure-reducing valve, contents gauge, flowmeter, tubing and face masks
  • C. Fire extinguisher nozzle
  • D. Breathing air cylinder from the SCBA set
Answer: B — Oxygen cylinder with pressure-reducing valve, contents gauge, flowmeter, tubing and face masks
A resuscitator kit contains an oxygen cylinder fitted with a pressure regulator and contents gauge, a flow control or demand valve, connecting tubing, face masks and often a bag-valve unit, airways and suction.

25. A demand valve on an oxygen resuscitator delivers oxygen:

  • A. Only when the cylinder is empty
  • B. Only after defibrillation
  • C. Continuously to a non-breathing casualty
  • D. Only when the breathing casualty inhales, creating suction
Answer: D — Only when the breathing casualty inhales, creating suction
A demand valve opens only when the patient breathes in and creates negative pressure, so it suits a casualty who is breathing; a casualty who is not breathing needs ventilation with a bag-valve mask or manually triggered valve with oxygen.

26. When changing the oxygen cylinder of a resuscitator, which step is correct?

  • A. Remove the regulator while the cylinder valve is still open
  • B. Lubricate the threads with grease
  • C. Close the cylinder valve, release the pressure, change the cylinder, check the sealing washer, then open slowly and check for leaks and contents
  • D. Hammer the connection tight
Answer: C — Close the cylinder valve, release the pressure, change the cylinder, check the sealing washer, then open slowly and check for leaks and contents
The cylinder valve is closed and residual pressure vented before disconnection; the new cylinder is fitted with a sound washer, the valve opened slowly, connections checked for leaks and the contents gauge read before return to service.

27. After a resuscitator has been used, which action is required?

  • A. Store it as it is
  • B. Leave the cylinder valve open
  • C. Remove the cylinder permanently
  • D. Clean and disinfect masks, replace used items, check cylinder contents and replace or refill if necessary, and record the check
Answer: D — Clean and disinfect masks, replace used items, check cylinder contents and replace or refill if necessary, and record the check
After use the resuscitator must be made ready again: masks and tubing cleaned and disinfected, disposable items replaced, cylinder contents checked and the cylinder refilled or replaced, and the inspection recorded.

28. Long-term exposure to benzene vapour, as may occur when handling some petroleum cargoes, is particularly associated with:

  • A. Hair loss only
  • B. Hearing loss
  • C. Dental decay
  • D. Damage to the bone marrow and leukaemia
Answer: D — Damage to the bone marrow and leukaemia
Benzene is a recognised human carcinogen; repeated exposure can damage the blood-forming bone marrow, causing anaemia and leukaemia, so exposure is controlled by gas monitoring, ventilation and personal protection.

29. Skin contact with hydrofluoric acid requires, after thorough washing with water, the application of:

  • A. Hot water
  • B. Alcohol
  • C. Butter
  • D. Calcium gluconate gel
Answer: D — Calcium gluconate gel
Hydrofluoric acid penetrates deeply and binds calcium in the tissues; after copious water irrigation, calcium gluconate gel is massaged into the affected skin, as recommended by MFAG, and medical advice obtained.

30. Which antidote is used for poisoning by organophosphate pesticides, as listed in the MFAG?

  • A. Naloxone
  • B. Atropine
  • C. Vitamin C
  • D. Paracetamol
Answer: B — Atropine
Organophosphates inhibit cholinesterase, causing excessive secretions, small pupils, slow pulse and muscle twitching; atropine counteracts these effects and is the antidote listed for such poisoning.

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