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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 3

Set 3 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 203 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 3 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR, you should:

  • A. Pinch the nostrils closed before blowing air into the casualty.
  • B. Keep the mouth and nose closed betweenbreaths.
  • C. Hold the casualty's mouth closed.
  • D. Tilt the head back less than for the mouth-to-mouth method of AR.
Answer: C — Hold the casualty's mouth closed.
When performing mouth-to-nose resuscitation, it is essential to hold the casualty's mouth closed to ensure that the air forced through the nostrils enters the lungs rather than escaping through the mouth.

2. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the ratio of compressions to ventilations should be:

  • A. 15:2
  • B. 30:2
  • C. 5:1
  • D. 35:2
Answer: B — 30:2
Current international standards for adult CPR, as established by the ILCOR and AHA, specify a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2 for a single rescuer to ensure adequate circulation.

3. A guideline for normal systolic blood pressure in an adult male would be:

  • A. 65 plus the man's age up to 120 mm. Hg.
  • B. 100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm. Hg.
  • C. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm. Hg.
  • D. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm. Hg.
Answer: B — 100 plus the man's age up to 150 mm. Hg.
A commonly used clinical guideline for estimating systolic pressure in adults is 100 plus the person's age, typically capped at approximately 150 mmHg.

4. A rapid body survey should take no longer than:

  • A. 60 seconds
  • B. 30 seconds
  • C. 90 seconds
  • D. 45 seconds
Answer: B — 30 seconds
The primary survey and rapid body survey must be concise to identify immediate life-threats. A duration of 30 seconds is the target to prioritize stabilizing the airway, breathing, and circulation.

5. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway place the flange at the corner of the mouth with the tip reaching:

  • A. The patient's earlobe
  • B. The angle of the patient's jaw
  • C. Two fingerswidth from the flange.
  • D. The top of the patient's ear
Answer: A — The patient's earlobe
To ensure an oropharyngeal airway is the correct size, the flange should rest against the lips, and the tip should reach the level of the earlobe or the angle of the jaw.

6. ASA should be offered to the patient with chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:

  • A. Before the first dose of nitro
  • B. After the second dose of nitro
  • C. After the first dose of nitro
  • D. After the third dose of nitro
Answer: C — After the first dose of nitro
Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA/aspirin) is commonly administered to cardiac patients during an active heart attack. It should be given after the initial assessment and the first dose of nitroglycerin to help prevent further clot formation.

7. When suctioning a non-breathing adult casualty, a first aider should:

  • A. Insert the tip with the curved side towards the tongue.
  • B. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip touches the mouth.
  • C. Insert the suction tip deep into the larynx.
  • D. Suction for no more than 15 seconds.
Answer: D — Suction for no more than 15 seconds.
Suctioning is an invasive procedure that removes oxygen from the airway. Therefore, it is strictly limited to 15 seconds to prevent hypoxia and potential cardiac arrhythmias.

8. Which of the following devices provides the highest percentage of O2 delivery?

  • A. Plastic face mask.
  • B. Non-rebreathing mask.
  • C. Nasal cannula.
  • D. Partial rebreathing mask.
Answer: B — Non-rebreathing mask.
A non-rebreathing mask with a reservoir bag allows for the delivery of high-concentration oxygen, typically providing between 80% to 90% oxygen, which is the highest among standard delivery masks.

9. You suspect a patient's pain is due to a myocardial infarction rather than angina because the pain:

  • A. Radiates to the neck, jaw and arms.
  • B. Is not relieved by rest or medication.
  • C. Is under the sternum.
  • D. Lasts for about 3 minutes.
Answer: B — Is not relieved by rest or medication.
Angina is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin because it is caused by temporary myocardial ischemia. Pain that persists despite rest or medication suggests an ongoing myocardial infarction (heart attack).

10. A flail chest results when :

  • A. Three ribs are broken on each side of the chest.
  • B. Part of the spine becomes separated from the ribs.
  • C. The breastbone is broken in three places.
  • D. Several ribs are broken in more than one place.
Answer: D — Several ribs are broken in more than one place.
A flail chest occurs when a segment of the rib cage breaks due to trauma and detaches from the rest of the chest wall. This happens when multiple ribs are fractured in at least two places.

11. Status epilepticus refers to:

  • A. Continuous seizure activity.
  • B. Seizures caused by a high fever.
  • C. Seizures lasting longer than 2 minutes.
  • D. Normal seizure pattern in epilepsy.
Answer: A — Continuous seizure activity.
Status epilepticus is defined as a seizure lasting more than 5 minutes or a series of seizures where the patient does not regain consciousness between attacks; it is a medical emergency.

12. OPQRST is used to assess:

  • A. Level of consciousness
  • B. Hearing
  • C. Pain
  • D. Vision
Answer: C — Pain
OPQRST is a standardized mnemonic used in emergency medicine to conduct a comprehensive assessment of a patient's pain. It stands for Onset, Provocation, Quality, Radiation, Severity, and Time.

13. The recommended oxygen flow rate for nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:

  • A. 6-8 litres/min.
  • B. 10-15 litres/min.
  • C. 8-12 litres/min.
  • D. 1-6 litres/min.
Answer: D — 1-6 litres/min.
A nasal cannula is a low-flow oxygen delivery system. The standard clinical recommendation for a nasal cannula is 1 to 6 litres per minute to effectively increase the fractional inspired oxygen concentration without causing mucosal irritation.

14. When aligning the head in the eyes-front neutral position, watch for:

  • A. Pain, circulation, retention.
  • B. Pulse, movement, sensation.
  • C. Tingling, numbness, paralysis.
  • D. Crepitus, pain, resistance.
Answer: D — Crepitus, pain, resistance.
When performing spinal immobilization or aligning the head into a neutral position, the rescuer must monitor for signs of neurological impairment, specifically crepitus, increased pain, or physical resistance, which indicate potential spinal column compromise.

15. Manual support of the head and neck of the patient with suspected spinal injury can be released:

  • A. When a hard collar has been applied.
  • B. If the patient is unconscious.
  • C. Once the breathing has been checked.
  • D. When the patient is fully immobilized to a backboard.
Answer: D — When the patient is fully immobilized to a backboard.
Manual stabilization of the head and neck is vital to prevent movement of an unstable spinal injury. This support must only be released once the patient is fully secured and immobilized to a rigid backboard or stretcher.

16. To prepare a completely amputated part of the body for transportation to hospital with the casualty, you should:

  • A. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and keep it at body temperature.
  • B. Place it in a clean plastic bag filled with cold water.
  • C. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and keep it cool.
  • D. Wash it off and place it into a bag of crushed ice.
Answer: C — Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and keep it cool.
To preserve an amputated part, it should be wrapped in sterile, moist gauze or dressings, placed in a sealed plastic bag, and then placed in a container with cold water or a cooling pack. It should never be placed directly on ice, as this causes frostbite damage.

17. Hypovolemic shock results from:

  • A. Decreased volume of blood
  • B. An overdose of insulin.
  • C. Toxins produced by a severe infection.
  • D. The body's reaction to a foreign protein.
Answer: A — Decreased volume of blood
Hypovolemic shock occurs when there is a significant reduction in the volume of circulating blood or fluids, leading to inadequate tissue perfusion. This is commonly caused by severe hemorrhage, dehydration, or extensive burns.

18. A conscious casualty who has suffered a stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his airway open and help him breathe, you should:

  • A. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down.
  • B. Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side up.
  • C. Place him on his back.
  • D. Place him in a semisitting position.
Answer: A — Turn him into the recovery position with his unaffected side down.
For an unconscious stroke patient, the recovery position is essential to keep the airway clear. Placing the patient on their unaffected side ensures that any secretions or vomit can drain away from the airway without obstruction.

19. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder onto a concrete floor. You first action should be.

  • A. Take a SAMPLE history.
  • B. Perform a secondary survey.
  • C. Take charge and perform a scene survey.
  • D. Asess the rate and quality of breathing.
Answer: C — Take charge and perform a scene survey.
Before approaching any casualty, you must first perform a scene survey to ensure your own safety and the safety of others. Following the principles of ISPS and general safety, you must assess for hazards before beginning medical assistance.

20. To determine whether a c-spine injury has occurred, you should think about the Mechanism of Injury. This can best be described as:

  • A. The weather conditions at the time of the incident.
  • B. The circumstances after the injury.
  • C. The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body.
  • D. The area of the body that is injured
Answer: C — The force that causes the injury and the way it acts on the body.
Mechanism of Injury (MOI) refers to the physical forces acting on the body during an event, such as a fall or impact. Analyzing the MOI helps determine the likely severity and nature of potential hidden injuries, including spinal trauma.

21. The most critical factor in defibrillation is:

  • A. The patient’s previous cardiac history.
  • B. The type of defibrillator used.
  • C. The time from collapse to defibrillation.
  • D. The skill of the AED responder.
Answer: C — The time from collapse to defibrillation.
The most critical factor in successful defibrillation is the 'time to shock.' Early defibrillation significantly increases the chances of survival for a victim in ventricular fibrillation, as every minute delay reduces the success rate.

22. The AED will shock a patient:

  • A. With a sinus rhythm.
  • B. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
  • C. In ventricular fibrillation.
  • D. In asystole.
Answer: C — In ventricular fibrillation.
An Automated External Defibrillator (AED) is designed to treat lethal, shockable heart rhythms. Ventricular fibrillation is the primary shockable rhythm that the AED is programmed to identify and treat effectively.

23. In the hypothermic patient you should limit the number of shocks to a maximum of:

  • A. 4.
  • B. 3.
  • C. 2.
  • D. 1.
Answer: D — 1.
In a severely hypothermic patient, the heart is extremely irritable. Current guidelines often limit defibrillation attempts to a single shock, followed by continuing CPR, to avoid exacerbating cardiac instability during the rewarming process.

24. When transporting a patient, a shock should be administered:

  • A. When the vehicle is travelling at less than 20 km per hour.
  • B. When the vehicle is stopped.
  • C. Whenever the machine indicates shock necessary.
  • D. Only in a vehicle that is properly grounded.
Answer: B — When the vehicle is stopped.
Movement during defibrillation can cause artifacts and trigger false readings or impede the device's ability to analyze the rhythm correctly. For safety and accuracy, the vehicle must be brought to a complete stop before a shock is delivered.

25. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:

  • A. Two inches away from pacemaker.
  • B. Directly on pacemaker.
  • C. Within one inch of the pacemaker.
  • D. At least one inch away from pacemaker.
Answer: D — At least one inch away from pacemaker.
Electrode pads must be placed at least one inch away from any known implantable devices like pacemakers or ICDs. Placing pads directly over these devices can block the energy delivery or damage the internal electronics of the implant.

26. You have shocked a casualty and there are signs of circulation. You should:

  • A. Leave the AED attached to the casualty.
  • B. Remove the pads from the chest. 15 Burns
  • C. Disconnect the cables from the AED.
  • D. Remove the AED from the scene.
Answer: A — Leave the AED attached to the casualty.
Once an AED is attached and signs of life return, you should leave the pads in place and keep the AED connected. The device may need to continue monitoring for cardiac rhythm stability, and the casualty may require further shocks if they re-arrest.

27. Burns that involve all layers of the skin are:

  • A. Partial thickness.
  • B. Full thickness.
  • C. First degree.
  • D. Superficial.
Answer: B — Full thickness.
Full-thickness burns, historically known as third-degree burns, involve the destruction of all layers of the skin, including the epidermis and the dermis, often affecting underlying tissues as well.

28. In determining the amount of body surface burned, the area of the palm of the hand represents ____ % of the body surface.

  • A. Five
  • B. Two
  • C. Nine
  • D. One
Answer: D — One
The Rule of Nines is often used for larger areas, but for smaller or scattered burns, the 'Rule of Palm' is the standard; the surface area of the casualty's palm represents approximately 1% of their total body surface area.

29. The most immediate serious complication associated with burns is:

  • A. Infection
  • B. Scarring
  • C. Hypothermia
  • D. Shock
Answer: D — Shock
Hypovolemic shock is the most immediate life-threatening complication of severe burns due to the rapid loss of plasma and fluids through damaged skin, leading to systemic circulatory collapse.

30. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator when it bursts into flames. The caualty has a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the mouth and nose and both arms are reddened. You should classify this burn as:

  • A. Superficial
  • B. Moderate
  • C. Minor 16 Wound Management
  • D. Critical
Answer: D — Critical
Burns involving the face (especially with inhalation signs like a hoarse voice or singed hairs) and those involving circumferential or deep tissue damage are classified as critical, requiring immediate medical evacuation and specialized hospital care.

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