MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 4 — Medical First Aid
Set 4 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 4 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers
1. Tetanus is a condition:
- A. That is caused by a virus
- B. That only occurs in the third world.
- C. That can be prevented by immunization.
- D. That involves specific infection in the lower jaw.
2. Which one of the following factors increases the risk of life -threatening injury:
- A. Low velocity.
- B. High velocity.
- C. High density.
- D. Low energy.
3. Which action is part of first aid for a nosebleed?
- A. Place an ice-pack on the back of the neck.
- B. Lean the casualty backwards in a sitting postion.
- C. Plug the nose with gauze.
- D. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft parts of the nose.
4. To prevent further contamination and infection of a wound, you should cleanse the surrounding skin by:
- A. Wiping away from the edges of the wound. 17 Heat and Cold Illness and Injury
- B. Swabbing from one side of the wound to the other.
- C. Wiping lightly over the edges of the wound.
- D. Swabbing in circular motions around the wound.
5. The body loses heat in a variety of ways including:
- A. conduction, convection, evaporation and refrigeration.
- B. radiation, refrigeration, evaporation and conduction.
- C. radiation, conduction, evaporation and respiration.
- D. submersion, convection, radiation and respiration.
6. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand with deep frostbite you should ensure that:
- A. Capillary refill takes no longer than 15 seconds
- B. The patient sees a doctor no later than 48 hrs after thawing
- C. There is no danger of refreezing
- D. Adequate pain relief medication is available
7. You have been called for an 81 year old unconscious male patient. He is in his living room. Despite the hot day, he is overly dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely hot to touch. You suspect:
- A. Heat exhaustion.
- B. Heatstroke. Lifting and Carrying
- C. Stroke.
- D. Hyperglycemia.
8. Body mechanics refers to:
- A. Number of rescuers needed to move a patient
- B. Positioning and movement of the body
- C. special device to lift heavy loads
- D. type of rescue carry
9. You are alone and must remove a casualty with a suspected spinal injury from a very hazardous situation. You should
- A. Keep his body rigid, support his head and neck and roll him away from the scene.
- B. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise.
- C. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders, support his head and neck, and drag him lengthwise.
- D. Tie his legs together and drag him feet first.
10. To safely perform a chair carry you need
- A. 4 rescuers
- B. 2 rescuers
- C. 3 rescuers
- D. 5 rescuers 19 Musculoskeletal - Upper Limbs
11. Crepitus is:
- A. type of fracture
- B. grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together
- C. type of splint
- D. . Poor distal circulation
12. After discovering a possible fracture you should assess which of the following before and after splinting:
- A. Pulse, motor function, sensation.
- B. Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation
- C. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion.
- D. Crepitus, resistance, pain.
13. A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted:
- A. With the fingers taped together.
- B. Flat against the splint.
- C. In the position of function.
- D. In a tight fist position.
14. In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use:
- A. St. John tubular sling tied on the uninjured side.
- B. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder.
- C. An arm sling supported with broad bandages.
- D. St. John tubular sling tied on the injured side.
15. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to come out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a:
- A. Strain
- B. Sprain
- C. Fracture
- D. Dislocation
16. After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation:
- A. At the site of the fracture. 20 Musculoskeletal - Lower Limbs
- B. Distal to the injury.
- C. In the injured limb only.
- D. Proximal to the injury.
17. The longest, strongest bone in the body is the:
- A. Tibia.
- B. Fibula.
- C. Humerus.
- D. Femur.
18. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the:
- A. Femur and ankle.
- B. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.
- C. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
- D. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
19. You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by:
- A. Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation (RICE)
- B. Compression, elevation and application of heat.
- C. Tight bandages and a heating pad.
- D. Rigid splints and bandages
20. If the patient has an open fracture responders should :
- A. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends.
- B. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site.
- C. Attempt to push bones back into the wound.
- D. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding.
21. A traction splint could be used for which of the following injuries:
- A. fractured pelvis.
- B. mid-shaft femur fracture.
- C. dislocated hip.
- D. An injured knee joint.
22. A concussion is best described as:
- A. Temporary loss of brain function
- B. Pooling of blood in the brain.
- C. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord.
- D. Tearing of brain tissue.
23. You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of:
- A. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully.
- B. Infant’s pupils react differently than adults.
- C. The startle reflex.
- D. Soft spots in the infant’s skull.
24. When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped?
- A. Chest
- B. Legs
- C. Pelvis
- D. Head
25. Contusions are:
- A. Almost always seen in children.
- B. Usually associated with scalp lacerations
- C. Usually controlled with direct pressure
- D. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain.
26. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are:
- A. Eye, verbal and motor responses.
- B. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement.
- C. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response.
- D. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement.
27. Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury:
- A. Increase in pulse rate.
- B. increase in blood pressure.
- C. Decrease in blood pressure.
- D. Constant respiratory rate.
28. “Raccoon eyes” indicates:
- A. Possible head injury
- B. Possible eye injury
- C. Possible scalp laceration
- D. Possible fracture of the jaw
29. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should:
- A. Not worry about spinal injury because the person is mobile.
- B. Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly.
- C. Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting.
- D. Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid for it.
30. When managing a possible spinal injury:
- A. Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and ensuring neutral alignment
- B. The cervical immobilization device is applied by the police.
- C. Apply a cervical immobilization device before assessing the patient.
- D. Transport the patient in the position of greatest comfort.
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