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MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 4

Set 4 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 203 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.

These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.

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Set 4 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers

1. An abrasion is:

  • A. The result of a sharp object driven through soft tissue.
  • B. Partial or complete loss of a body part.
  • C. deep break in the skin involving significant bleeding.
  • D. scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis.
Answer: D — scrape or rubbing away of the epidermis.
An abrasion is a superficial wound caused by friction or scraping of the epidermis. While they may be painful due to exposed nerve endings, they usually involve minimal bleeding.

2. A soft tissue injury resulting from the impact of a blunt object is called:

  • A. contusion.
  • B. laceration.
  • C. An avulsion.
  • D. concussion.
Answer: A — contusion.
A contusion, commonly known as a bruise, occurs when blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged by the impact of a blunt object, causing internal bleeding without breaking the skin surface.

3. The acronym SHARP refers to:

  • A. Signs of infection as assessed in wound injuries.
  • B. The assessment of the severity of a wound injury.
  • C. The depth of a penetrating wound and potential damage.
  • D. Signs and symptoms used to determine the need to transport.
Answer: A — Signs of infection as assessed in wound injuries.
In the context of wound management, the acronym SHARP—Swelling, Heat, Aches (Pain), Redness, and Pus—is used to identify the clinical signs of an infected wound.

4. Responders involved in wound management should consider:

  • A. The risk of infection continues until the wound is dressed and bandaged.
  • B. Gloves should be worn if you suspect the patient may be ill.
  • C. Wounds should be thoroughly flushed to prevent infection.
  • D. All open wounds are contaminated to some degree.
Answer: D — All open wounds are contaminated to some degree.
Practicing universal precautions and wound management standards requires assuming that all open wounds are contaminated by bacteria from the environment, requiring proper cleaning and protective measures to prevent infection.

5. Tetanus is a condition:

  • A. That is caused by a virus
  • B. That only occurs in the third world.
  • C. That can be prevented by immunization.
  • D. That involves specific infection in the lower jaw.
Answer: C — That can be prevented by immunization.
Tetanus is a serious bacterial infection that affects the nervous system and can lead to severe muscle contractions. It is entirely preventable through routine immunization and boosters.

6. Which one of the following factors increases the risk of life -threatening injury:

  • A. Low velocity.
  • B. High velocity.
  • C. High density.
  • D. Low energy.
Answer: B — High velocity.
The energy transfer in an injury is proportional to the velocity squared (KE = 1/2mv²). Therefore, high-velocity impacts significantly increase the risk of severe internal organ damage and life-threatening trauma.

7. Which action is part of first aid for a nosebleed?

  • A. Place an ice-pack on the back of the neck.
  • B. Lean the casualty backwards in a sitting postion.
  • C. Plug the nose with gauze.
  • D. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft parts of the nose.
Answer: D — Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft parts of the nose.
The correct first aid for a nosebleed is to have the casualty sit down and lean forward while pinching the soft part of the nose. Leaning backward is incorrect as it may lead to blood being swallowed or aspirated into the lungs.

8. To prevent further contamination and infection of a wound, you should cleanse the surrounding skin by:

  • A. Wiping away from the edges of the wound. 17 Heat and Cold Illness and Injury
  • B. Swabbing from one side of the wound to the other.
  • C. Wiping lightly over the edges of the wound.
  • D. Swabbing in circular motions around the wound.
Answer: A — Wiping away from the edges of the wound. 17 Heat and Cold Illness and Injury
To prevent introducing further contamination, you should always cleanse the skin by wiping away from the edges of the wound. This prevents pushing debris from the surrounding skin into the injury.

9. The body loses heat in a variety of ways including:

  • A. conduction, convection, evaporation and refrigeration.
  • B. radiation, refrigeration, evaporation and conduction.
  • C. radiation, conduction, evaporation and respiration.
  • D. submersion, convection, radiation and respiration.
Answer: C — radiation, conduction, evaporation and respiration.
The human body maintains homeostasis by losing heat through radiation, conduction, convection, evaporation, and respiration. These are the standard biophysical mechanisms of heat transfer.

10. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand with deep frostbite you should ensure that:

  • A. Capillary refill takes no longer than 15 seconds
  • B. The patient sees a doctor no later than 48 hrs after thawing
  • C. There is no danger of refreezing
  • D. Adequate pain relief medication is available
Answer: C — There is no danger of refreezing
If thawing frozen tissue, it is critical to ensure there is no chance of the area refreezing. Refreezing causes massive cellular destruction and irreversible damage to the tissue.

11. You have been called for an 81 year old unconscious male patient. He is in his living room. Despite the hot day, he is overly dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely hot to touch. You suspect:

  • A. Heat exhaustion.
  • B. Heatstroke. Lifting and Carrying
  • C. Stroke.
  • D. Hyperglycemia.
Answer: B — Heatstroke. Lifting and Carrying
Heatstroke is a medical emergency characterized by the body's inability to regulate temperature. A patient with hot, dry, flushed skin and altered mental status in a hot environment is exhibiting classic signs of heatstroke.

12. Body mechanics refers to:

  • A. Number of rescuers needed to move a patient
  • B. Positioning and movement of the body
  • C. special device to lift heavy loads
  • D. type of rescue carry
Answer: B — Positioning and movement of the body
Body mechanics refers to the coordinated use of muscles, bones, and the nervous system to move, lift, and carry objects or people efficiently and safely while preventing strain on the caregiver.

13. You are alone and must remove a casualty with a suspected spinal injury from a very hazardous situation. You should

  • A. Keep his body rigid, support his head and neck and roll him away from the scene.
  • B. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise.
  • C. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders, support his head and neck, and drag him lengthwise.
  • D. Tie his legs together and drag him feet first.
Answer: C — Grasp his clothing under his shoulders, support his head and neck, and drag him lengthwise.
In a hazardous scene where a spinal injury is suspected, the rescuer must prioritize moving the patient to safety. Dragging the patient lengthwise in the long axis of the body helps minimize spinal rotation and secondary injury.

14. To safely perform a chair carry you need

  • A. 4 rescuers
  • B. 2 rescuers
  • C. 3 rescuers
  • D. 5 rescuers 19 Musculoskeletal - Upper Limbs
Answer: C — 3 rescuers
A chair carry is a specialized technique that is most effective and stable when performed by three rescuers. One handles the head and neck, while the other two stabilize the chair and the patient's lower body.

15. Crepitus is:

  • A. type of fracture
  • B. grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together
  • C. type of splint
  • D. . Poor distal circulation
Answer: B — grating sound caused by bone ends rubbing together
Crepitus is the audible or palpable grating sensation caused by the rough ends of broken bones rubbing against each other during movement.

16. After discovering a possible fracture you should assess which of the following before and after splinting:

  • A. Pulse, motor function, sensation.
  • B. Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation
  • C. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion.
  • D. Crepitus, resistance, pain.
Answer: B — Capillary refill, pulse, and sensation
Assessing neurovascular status—specifically Pulse, Motor function, and Sensation (PMS)—is mandatory before and after splinting to ensure that the splint has not compromised blood flow or nerve integrity.

17. A worker has had his hand caught in a car door. You suspect several fractured bones in the hand. The hand should be splinted:

  • A. With the fingers taped together.
  • B. Flat against the splint.
  • C. In the position of function.
  • D. In a tight fist position.
Answer: C — In the position of function.
When splinting a hand, it should always be positioned in the 'position of function,' which is a natural, slightly curved shape similar to holding a ball, to prevent stiffness and loss of dexterity.

18. In the case of suspected fracture of the clavicle, emergency responders should use:

  • A. St. John tubular sling tied on the uninjured side.
  • B. Rigid splints to support the arm and support the shoulder.
  • C. An arm sling supported with broad bandages.
  • D. St. John tubular sling tied on the injured side.
Answer: A — St. John tubular sling tied on the uninjured side.
For a suspected clavicle fracture, a St. John tubular sling or similar support is used to keep the arm close to the body, with the sling tied on the uninjured side to distribute weight across the back.

19. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to come out of their proper position. This type of injury is called a:

  • A. Strain
  • B. Sprain
  • C. Fracture
  • D. Dislocation
Answer: D — Dislocation
A dislocation occurs when the bone ends forming a joint are forced out of their normal anatomical alignment. This usually requires professional medical reduction and immobilization.

20. After an extremity fracture has been immobilized, the responder should check for circulation:

  • A. At the site of the fracture. 20 Musculoskeletal - Lower Limbs
  • B. Distal to the injury.
  • C. In the injured limb only.
  • D. Proximal to the injury.
Answer: B — Distal to the injury.
After immobilization, it is vital to check the neurovascular status distal to the injury site. This ensures that the splinting process has not impaired circulation or nerve function in the hand or foot.

21. The longest, strongest bone in the body is the:

  • A. Tibia.
  • B. Fibula.
  • C. Humerus.
  • D. Femur.
Answer: D — Femur.
The femur is the largest, longest, and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip to the knee.

22. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes immobilization of the:

  • A. Femur and ankle.
  • B. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.
  • C. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
  • D. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
Answer: B — Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.
To effectively immobilize a tibia fracture, the joints immediately above and below the fracture must be secured. This includes the knee and the ankle joints.

23. You can best control the swelling and pain of an ankle sprain by:

  • A. Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation (RICE)
  • B. Compression, elevation and application of heat.
  • C. Tight bandages and a heating pad.
  • D. Rigid splints and bandages
Answer: A — Rest, immobilization, application of cold, and elevation (RICE)
The RICE protocol—Rest, Immobilization, Cold application, and Elevation—is the gold-standard first-aid treatment for sprains to reduce inflammation, swelling, and pain.

24. If the patient has an open fracture responders should :

  • A. Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends.
  • B. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture site.
  • C. Attempt to push bones back into the wound.
  • D. Apply pressure directly over the fracture to control bleeding.
Answer: A — Use bulky dressings to pad around the protruding bones ends.
With an open fracture, the primary goal is to prevent further infection. Bulky dressings should be applied around the protrusion; the bone must never be forced back, nor should pressure be applied directly over the bone end.

25. A traction splint could be used for which of the following injuries:

  • A. fractured pelvis.
  • B. mid-shaft femur fracture.
  • C. dislocated hip.
  • D. An injured knee joint.
Answer: B — mid-shaft femur fracture.
Traction splints are specifically designed to reduce pain and prevent further tissue damage in mid-shaft femur fractures by applying consistent tension to align the leg bones.

26. A concussion is best described as:

  • A. Temporary loss of brain function
  • B. Pooling of blood in the brain.
  • C. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord.
  • D. Tearing of brain tissue.
Answer: A — Temporary loss of brain function
A concussion is a mild traumatic brain injury resulting in a temporary disturbance of brain function, often without permanent structural damage, following a head impact.

27. You are examining the head of an infant who has been involved in a car crash. You need to be aware of:

  • A. Whether or not the infant can cry forcefully.
  • B. Infant’s pupils react differently than adults.
  • C. The startle reflex.
  • D. Soft spots in the infant’s skull.
Answer: D — Soft spots in the infant’s skull.
In infants, the presence of fontanelles (soft spots) means the skull is not fully ossified. Rescuers must be extremely careful during assessment and immobilization to avoid applying pressure to these areas.

28. When immobilizing a patient on a spine board, which part of the body is the first to be strapped?

  • A. Chest
  • B. Legs
  • C. Pelvis
  • D. Head
Answer: A — Chest
When securing a patient to a spine board, the torso (chest/pelvis) should be strapped first to stabilize the body, followed by the head, to ensure the patient does not shift during the strapping process.

29. Contusions are:

  • A. Almost always seen in children.
  • B. Usually associated with scalp lacerations
  • C. Usually controlled with direct pressure
  • D. Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain.
Answer: D — Very serious for the patient due to increased pressure in the brain.
Intracranial contusions are serious injuries where the brain surface is bruised, leading to swelling inside the confined space of the skull, which can cause rapidly increasing intracranial pressure.

30. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three basic functions. They are:

  • A. Eye, verbal and motor responses.
  • B. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary movement.
  • C. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye response.
  • D. Respiration rate, eye response, voluntary movement.
Answer: A — Eye, verbal and motor responses.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a clinical tool used to objectively assess the level of consciousness. It evaluates three parameters: Eye opening response, Verbal response, and Motor response, providing a total score that indicates the severity of head injury.

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