MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 5
Set 5 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 203 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 5 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers
1. Which one of the following changes in vital signs is characteristic of brain injury:
- A. Increase in pulse rate.
- B. increase in blood pressure.
- C. Decrease in blood pressure.
- D. Constant respiratory rate.
Answer: B — increase in blood pressure.
Cushing’s triad, a clinical manifestation of increased intracranial pressure due to brain injury, includes hypertension (increased blood pressure), bradycardia, and irregular respirations. While pulse often slows, an increase in blood pressure is a hallmark sign.
2. “Raccoon eyes” indicates:
- A. Possible head injury
- B. Possible eye injury
- C. Possible scalp laceration
- D. Possible fracture of the jaw
Answer: A — Possible head injury
“Raccoon eyes” (periorbital ecchymosis) is a classic sign of a basilar skull fracture. The appearance of bruising around the eyes occurs as blood pools in the tissues following a fracture at the base of the cranium.
3. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle crash. The rider is dazed and walking around. You should:
- A. Not worry about spinal injury because the person is mobile.
- B. Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly.
- C. Advise the person to lie down in case of fainting.
- D. Determine the chief complaint and provide first aid for it.
Answer: B — Suspect spinal injury and manage accordingly.
In the event of a high-energy mechanism of injury like a motorcycle crash, spinal injury must always be assumed regardless of the patient's mobility. Immobilization protocols are critical until spinal injury can be clinically excluded to prevent neurological damage.
4. When managing a possible spinal injury:
- A. Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and ensuring neutral alignment
- B. The cervical immobilization device is applied by the police.
- C. Apply a cervical immobilization device before assessing the patient.
- D. Transport the patient in the position of greatest comfort.
Answer: A — Responders must provide initial stabilization by supporting the head and ensuring neutral alignment
The primary objective in managing a suspected spinal injury is to maintain the head in a neutral, in-line position. This stabilizes the cervical spine and prevents movement that could exacerbate potential cord injury during assessment and extrication.
5. A helmet must be removed from a patient:
- A. When the helmet has a face mask that interferes with the responder’s ability to assist with ventilations
- B. If the patient will be immobilized to a long spinal immobilizaton device.
- C. If there are no airway or breathing problems.
- D. It is a full- face helmet.
Answer: A — When the helmet has a face mask that interferes with the responder’s ability to assist with ventilations
A helmet should only be removed if it prevents the rescuer from providing life-saving airway management or ventilation. Otherwise, the helmet provides effective stabilization of the head and should remain in place during immobilization.
6. When dealing with pelvic injuries you must always consider the possibility of:
- A. Ruptured spleen.
- B. Ruptured bladder.
- C. Spinal injuries.
- D. Rib fractures.
Answer: C — Spinal injuries.
The pelvic ring protects internal structures; trauma causing pelvic fractures is often associated with significant force, which is frequently transmitted to the spine. Consequently, all pelvic injury patients must be managed with spinal precautions.
7. To properly measure a cervical collar, you:
- A. Measure the distance from the cheekbone to the shoulder blade.
- B. Measure the distance from the corner of the mouth to the ear lobe.
- C. Measure the distance from the ear lobe to the shoulder.
- D. Measure the distance from the trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw 22 Poisons, Bites and Stings
Answer: D — Measure the distance from the trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw 22 Poisons, Bites and Stings
A cervical collar must be sized correctly to ensure it provides adequate support without causing hyperextension or flexion. The standard measurement is the distance from the top of the trapezius muscle to the bottom of the chin (angle of the jaw).
8. Contact dermatitis occurs when:
- A. poison enters the eye of a contact lens wearer.
- B. poison is injected under the skin.
- C. The skin comes in contact with a poisonous substance.
- D. Hot gases are inhaled.
Answer: C — The skin comes in contact with a poisonous substance.
Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory skin reaction caused by direct contact with an irritant or allergen. Onboard ships, this is often triggered by exposure to hazardous chemicals, paints, or specific marine flora/fauna.
9. Carbon monoxide:
- A. Is not life-threatening.
- B. May result from fires or automobile exhaust.
- C. Requires the administration of low concentration O2.
- D. Has a very distinct odour
Answer: B — May result from fires or automobile exhaust.
Carbon monoxide is a toxic, colorless, and odorless gas commonly produced by incomplete combustion in engines or fires. Because it binds to hemoglobin more effectively than oxygen, it poses a severe, life-threatening risk of hypoxia.
10. A child has swallowed an unknown poisonous substance. You should:
- A. Call your local Poison Control Centre and follow directions.
- B. Dilute the poison with several glasses of cool water.
- C. Give a solution of mild liquid dish detergent and water.
- D. Use activated charcoal. 14 23 Anatomy and Physiology
Answer: A — Call your local Poison Control Centre and follow directions.
In any suspected poisoning case, immediate contact with a professional Poison Control Centre is the standard procedure. They provide the most accurate medical guidance based on the specific substance and the casualty's age.
11. The external layer of the skin is called::
- A. Epidermis.
- B. Dermis.
- C. Cutaneous tissue.
- D. Adipose tissue.
Answer: A — Epidermis.
The skin consists of three main layers: the epidermis (outermost), the dermis (middle/vascularized), and the subcutaneous/adipose tissue. The epidermis provides the primary barrier against environmental hazards and pathogens.
12. Muscles are attached to the bones by:
- A. Tendons.
- B. Cartilage.
- C. Meninges.
- D. Ligaments.
Answer: A — Tendons.
Tendons are specialized fibrous connective tissues that anchor skeletal muscles to bones, allowing for force transmission and movement. In contrast, ligaments connect bone to bone to stabilize joints.
13. The appendix is located in which quadrant of the abdomen:
- A. Lower right.
- B. Lower left.
- C. Upper right.
- D. Upper left.
Answer: A — Lower right.
The appendix is anatomically situated in the lower right quadrant (LRQ) of the abdomen. Pain or tenderness in this area is a significant indicator of potential appendicitis, a common surgical emergency.
14. The white exterior portion of the eye is called the:
- A. Cornea.
- B. Pupil.
- C. Sclera.
- D. Iris.
Answer: C — Sclera.
The sclera is the dense, white, fibrous outer layer of the eye that provides structural integrity and protection. It surrounds the iris and pupil, protecting the internal contents of the globe.
15. A skeletal injury to the lower back could result from direct trauma to the:
- A. Lumbar vertebrae.
- B. Thoracic vertebrae.
- C. Coccygeal vertebrae.
- D. Cervical vertebrae.
Answer: A — Lumbar vertebrae.
The lumbar vertebrae are located in the lower back region and support the majority of the body's weight. Direct trauma to this area frequently results in musculoskeletal injury or potential spinal cord complications.
16. The pulse point located in the upper portion of the thigh is called the:
- A. Femoral.
- B. Brachial.
- C. Temporal.
- D. Popliteal.
Answer: A — Femoral.
The femoral artery is the primary pulse point located in the inguinal area (upper thigh). It is crucial for assessing circulation in the lower extremities and is a key site for controlling major hemorrhage.
17. Which one of the following is a function of the skin?
- A. Production of proteins.
- B. Regulation of body temperature.
- C. Regulation of oxygen levels.
- D. Removal of carbon dioxide.
Answer: B — Regulation of body temperature.
The skin plays a vital role in thermoregulation by adjusting blood flow and promoting perspiration to dissipate heat. This is essential for maintaining systemic homeostasis in varying maritime working environments.
18. Urine is expelled from the body through the:
- A. Urethra.
- B. Ureters.
- C. Bladder.
- D. Kidneys.
Answer: A — Urethra.
The urinary system filters blood through the kidneys, stores urine in the bladder, and expels it from the body via the urethra. The urethra serves as the final common pathway for the urinary system.
19. Insulin is produced in the:
- A. Liver.
- B. Gall bladder.
- C. Spleen.
- D. Pancreas.
Answer: D — Pancreas.
Insulin is a hormone produced by the beta cells within the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. It is essential for regulating glucose metabolism by facilitating the uptake of sugar into the cells.
20. When communicating with patients:
- A. Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact.
- B. Stay as close to the patient as possible.
- C. Use medical terminology to enhance credibility.
- D. Hide facts if the situation is serious.
Answer: A — Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact.
Effective communication requires building rapport; staying at eye level shows respect and reduces anxiety. Maintaining eye contact signals attentiveness and ensures the patient feels heard during a medical emergency.
21. In cases of behavioural disorders, the responder should:
- A. Always use restraints.
- B. Force the patient to make decisions.
- C. Play along with auditory or visual hallucinations.
- D. Give the patient a choice in the treatment
Answer: D — Give the patient a choice in the treatment
When treating behavioral disorders, maintaining the patient's dignity and autonomy is crucial. Giving the patient choices, whenever safe to do so, helps reduce escalation and encourages cooperation with the medical provider.
22. The best way to prevent a Critical Incident Stress situation from becoming worse is:
- A. Force the responder to talk about the situation.
- B. Ignore it.
- C. Ensure early use of proper medication.
- D. Be familiar with the signs and symptoms.
Answer: D — Be familiar with the signs and symptoms.
Understanding the signs of Critical Incident Stress (CIS) is the best preventative measure, as it allows responders to recognize early warning signs in themselves or peers. This enables timely debriefing and support interventions.
23. Remove a contact lense only if:
- A. The eyeball is injured.
- B. Transport time is short.
- C. The casualty is wearing hard lenses.
- D. There is a chemical burn to the eye.
Answer: D — There is a chemical burn to the eye.
Contact lenses should generally remain in place unless there is a chemical burn, where they may trap the chemical against the cornea. In such cases, removing the lens is critical to allow effective irrigation of the eye.
24. You discover a particle embedded in the casualty’s cornea. You should:
- A. Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help.
- B. Flush the eye with water for 10 minutes.
- C. Remove the particle with a moist corner of a facial tissue or clean cloth.
- D. Use a splinter forcep to remove the particle.
Answer: A — Cover the eye and transport the casualty to medical help.
Embedded particles in the cornea are dangerous to manipulate. Attempting to remove them can cause permanent vision damage; therefore, the eye should be covered to prevent further irritation and the patient transported for specialized care.
25. Signs and symptoms of intense light burns to the eyes include:
- A. Discolouration of the orbits.
- B. Bleeding from the conjunctiva.
- C. Lacerations to the globe.
- D. Gritty feeling in the eyes.
Answer: D — Gritty feeling in the eyes.
Intense light burns (e.g., arc welding or severe UV exposure) cause inflammation of the corneal surface. A common symptomatic complaint from the patient is a persistent 'gritty' sensation, as if sand is trapped under the eyelids.
26. Eye injuries that include lacerations:
- A. Iindicate possible skull fracture.
- B. Require moderate pressure on the eye to control bleeding.
- C. Usually involve a great deal of bleeding.
- D. Should be covered with clean, moist dressings.
Answer: C — Usually involve a great deal of bleeding.
Lacerations to the globe involve vascular tissues of the eye, which can lead to significant hemorrhage. Immediate, gentle, and non-pressure dressing is required to protect the integrity of the eye until medical consultation.
27. Irrigate eyes with:
- A. Diluted vinegar.
- B. An appropriate chemical antidote.
- C. Saline solution.
- D. Sodium bicarbonate.
Answer: C — Saline solution.
Saline solution is the preferred medium for irrigating eyes as it is isotonic and least likely to cause further tissue irritation. It effectively flushes away debris or chemicals without disturbing the eye's natural pH balance.
28. Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen include:
- A. Excessive hunger or thirst.
- B. Hypertension and brachycardia.
- C. Distension with rebound tenderness.
- D. Fever with deep, shallow breathing.
Answer: C — Distension with rebound tenderness.
The 'acute abdomen' is a surgical emergency characterized by severe, sudden onset abdominal pain. Rebound tenderness—pain upon release of pressure—is a hallmark clinical sign indicating potential peritonitis or inflammation.
29. Signs that a hernia is serious include:
- A. Pale, ashen skin colour at site.
- B. Hernia is above the diaphragm.
- C. Pain and tenderness at site.
- D. Hernia can be pushed back into body.
Answer: C — Pain and tenderness at site.
A hernia becomes serious when it is 'strangulated' or incarcerated, cutting off blood supply. Pain and tenderness at the site are primary indicators that the tissues are compromised and require urgent medical intervention.
30. Which one of the following is not crucial in cases of abdominal distress:
- A. Monitor the patient for signs of hypovolemic shock.
- B. Give oxygen by non-rebreather mask.
- C. Be prepared to deal with vomiting.
- D. Establish the cause of the pain.
Answer: D — Establish the cause of the pain.
While assessing the patient is important, the definitive diagnosis of abdominal pain is often impossible in the field. The priority is identifying life-threatening symptoms and shock, rather than diagnosing the specific anatomical cause of the distress.
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