MFA exit exam questions and answers — Set 6 — Medical First Aid
Set 6 of the Medical First Aid (MFA) exit exam bank — 30 of 675 questions, with the correct option marked and a one-line explanation for every one. Read it end to end, jump to a single set, or search it — then sit the same bank as a timed paper. The real DG Shipping exit exam is 30 marks with 15 to pass.
These are the bank's original groupings. Practising deals the whole bank out again every time you reshuffle, so a practice “Set 3” is a different 30 questions each time — the set numbers below are the source file's, and are only used here so the key stays navigable. Options are listed in their original order with fixed letters; when you practise, those move too.
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Set 6 — 30 MFA exit exam questions with answers
1. At the scene of a MCI:
- A. Only conscious patients are assessed.
- B. All patients are transported immediately.
- C. Patients without a detectable pulse are given the highest priority.
- D. All patients are assessed quickly and triaged.
Answer: D — All patients are assessed quickly and triaged.
Triage is the process of rapidly sorting patients based on the severity of their injuries. This allows responders to identify those who need immediate intervention versus those whose care can be delayed without losing life.
2. Typically in a triage system:
- A. Those with minor injuries but suffering extreme pain are classified level 1.
- B. Those in cardiac arrest or not breathing are classified level 2.
- C. Those whose survival requires immediate care are classified level 3.
- D. Those who will survive if care is somewhat delayed are classified level 2.
Answer: D — Those who will survive if care is somewhat delayed are classified level 2.
In standard triage systems, casualties are categorized by priority. Level 2 (Yellow) patients are those with serious injuries who can wait for a short duration while those with immediate life-threats (Level 1/Red) are managed first.
3. The most knowledgable responder in the first ambulance is generally assigned to role of:
- A. Communications officer.
- B. Incident manager.
- C. Triage officer.
- D. Staging officer.
Answer: B — Incident manager.
The first qualified responder on the scene must assume the role of Incident Manager to establish command, initiate triage, and organize resources until more specialized support arrives.
4. Of the following casualties, which would you care for first? The casualty who is:
- A. In shock without apparent injuries, but conscious.
- B. Unconscious and lying on his stomach.
- C. Bleeding from the forehead, but conscious.
- D. Unconscious and lying on his back.
Answer: D — Unconscious and lying on his back.
According to the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority, an unconscious patient on their back is at immediate risk of airway obstruction (tongue or secretions). Stabilizing the airway takes precedence over other non-life-threatening injuries.
5. The factor which indicates a drug related emergency is life-threatening is:
- A. Dilated pupils slow to respond to light.
- B. Lack of coordination and slurred speech.
- C. Altered mental status.
- D. High, low or irregular pulse.
Answer: D — High, low or irregular pulse.
Irregular, abnormally high, or low pulses indicate cardiovascular or neurological instability, suggesting the drug may be causing systemic life-threatening failure rather than just behavioral changes.
6. Constant monitoring of the patient in a drug- related emergency is important because:
- A. The patient will likely try to take more of the drug.
- B. The patient is more likely to become violent. 29 Communications
- C. These patients are more likely to sue.
- D. The patient’s condition may change quickly.
Answer: D — The patient’s condition may change quickly.
Patients in drug-related emergencies are unstable and susceptible to rapid deterioration in consciousness, respiratory rate, or hemodynamic status. Continuous monitoring is essential to catch these changes and initiate life support if necessary.
7. The most accurate source of time for reporting purposes is:
- A. The patient’s watch.
- B. The responder’s watch.
- C. The local radio station.
- D. The dispatch unit.
Answer: D — The dispatch unit.
The dispatch unit maintains the official timeline of an emergency call. Using dispatch time ensures synchronization of records between the shipboard team and shore-side medical services, which is critical for legal and medical documentation.
8. An essential element of a responder’s verbal report includes:
- A. The patient’s response to the care given
- B. The patient’s telephone number.
- C. The name of the patient.
- D. The time of the incident.
Answer: A — The patient’s response to the care given
A verbal report (e.g., MIST or ATMIST) must emphasize the patient's reaction to interventions performed. This informs the next level of care about the success of prior treatment and the patient's stability.
9. Which one of the following is the best way to assess dehydration in the elderly:
- A. Check skin condition.
- B. Take an oral temperature.
- C. Assess the pulse rate.
- D. Check the mucous membranes in the eyes and mouth.
Answer: D — Check the mucous membranes in the eyes and mouth.
Dehydration in the elderly is best assessed by examining mucous membranes (mouth and eyes), which become dry and sticky as hydration levels fall. Skin turgor is less reliable in the elderly due to loss of skin elasticity.
10. An eighty-five year old lady has fallen down a flight of stairs. You suspect spinal injury and decide to put the patient on a spineboard. You should be aware that:
- A. Because of her age, she may be more prone to vomitting.
- B. K.E.D. is better for this patient.
- C. Spinal curvature may make it difficult and uncomfortable to put the patient on the board.
- D. It may be difficult to fit a cervical collar.
Answer: C — Spinal curvature may make it difficult and uncomfortable to put the patient on the board.
Elderly patients frequently suffer from kyphosis (spinal curvature). Placing them on a rigid spineboard can be dangerous if the voids created by the curvature are not adequately padded, causing discomfort and potential secondary spinal injury.
11. Which of the following is NOT a special consideration when assessing elderly patients:
- A. Radial pulses may be weakened by peripheral vascular disease.
- B. Mental status often reflects a fear of emergency responders. 31 Emergency Childbirth
- C. Geriatric patients often have a reduced gag reflex.
- D. Patients may not show signs of fever even in cases of serious infection.
Answer: B — Mental status often reflects a fear of emergency responders. 31 Emergency Childbirth
Elderly patients may indeed have diminished physiological responses, such as a lack of fever, weakened pulses, or reduced gag reflexes. However, their mental status often reflects underlying medical conditions rather than a simple 'fear of responders'.
12. Crowning occurs:
- A. In the first stage of labour.
- B. In the third stage of labour.
- C. In the second stage of labour.
- D. In the fourth stage of pregnancy.
Answer: C — In the second stage of labour.
Crowning is the stage where the baby's head becomes visible at the vaginal opening. This indicates that birth is imminent and the second stage of labor (expulsion) is occurring.
13. When suctioning a newborn you should use:
- A. V-Vac suction device.
- B. straw.
- C. bulb syringe.
- D. battery powererd suction device.
Answer: C — bulb syringe.
A bulb syringe is the safest and most effective tool for clearing mucus from the newborn’s mouth and nose. It allows for controlled suction without damaging the delicate tissues of the infant's airway.
14. To help control bleeding after the baby is born:
- A. Place the mother on her right side. 32 Pediatric Emergencies
- B. Elevate the mother’s legs above heart level.
- C. Massage the mother’s uterus.
- D. Pack the vagina with pads.
Answer: C — Massage the mother’s uterus.
Post-partum hemorrhage is often caused by uterine atony. Massaging the uterus stimulates it to contract, which constricts the bleeding blood vessels at the placental site and is the primary intervention for the mother.
15. One of the most difficult things to assess in infants and young children is:
- A. Blood pressure.
- B. Adequate perfusion.
- C. Level of consciousness.
- D. Pain.
Answer: D — Pain.
Assessing pain in infants and young children is notoriously difficult because they lack the verbal skills to describe it. Responders must rely on observation, such as crying, facial expressions, and body language, to infer the level of distress.
16. The onset of shock in infants and children:
- A. Usually progresses slowly.
- B. Usually results from cardiac problems.
- C. Is no different than adults.
- D. May be sudden and severe
Answer: D — May be sudden and severe
Infants and children possess superior physiological compensatory mechanisms that can mask shock symptoms until the child's body suddenly decompensates. Consequently, when clinical signs of shock appear, the progression is often rapid, sudden, and severe, necessitating immediate intervention.
17. Assessments of children should take into consideration:
- A. The skull has not completely fused, so head injuries are uncommon.
- B. Chest injury is likely to involve organs without damage to ribs.
- C. No splints should be used since all are designed for adult patients.
- D. Abdominal injuries are less serious since muscles are less developed.
Answer: B — Chest injury is likely to involve organs without damage to ribs.
Children have highly elastic chest walls and less developed musculature. This anatomy allows significant force to be transmitted to internal organs (like the heart or lungs) during impact, often resulting in severe internal organ injury even in the absence of visible rib fractures.
18. The responder who suspects a child to be the victim of abuse should:
- A. Question parents immediately.
- B. Gather evidence and question bystanders.
- C. Immediately remove the child from parents or caregivers.
- D. Focus on management of injuries to the child.
Answer: D — Focus on management of injuries to the child.
When suspecting child abuse, the primary focus must remain on the medical stabilization and management of the child's injuries. Questioning parents or gathering evidence is a matter for law enforcement and child protective services, not the first-aid responder, to avoid compromising the patient's care or legal integrity.
19. A child with history of a sore throat, fever and painful swallowing, has breathing difficulties. You should:
- A. Arrange for immediate transport to a medical facility.
- B. Begin abdominal thrusts.
- C. Start mouth-to-mouth artificial respiration.
- D. Stand by and encourage coughing.
Answer: A — Arrange for immediate transport to a medical facility.
A child presenting with a sore throat, fever, and difficulty breathing is highly suggestive of epiglottitis, a life-threatening airway obstruction. This is a medical emergency requiring rapid transport to a facility with advanced airway management capabilities; intervention attempts like back blows are contraindicated.
20. The mammalian reflex refers to:
- A. decrease in heart rate and constriction of blood vessels.
- B. An increase in heart rate and respiration.
- C. An increase in heart rate and constriction of pupils.
- D. decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood vessels.
Answer: A — decrease in heart rate and constriction of blood vessels.
The mammalian diving reflex is a physiological survival response triggered by cold water contact with the face. It causes bradycardia (decreased heart rate) and peripheral vasoconstriction (narrowing of blood vessels) to redirect oxygenated blood to essential organs like the brain and heart.
21. Three common scuba related emergencies are:
- A. Air embolism, barotrauma and the squeeze.
- B. Air embolism, decompression sickness and barotrauma.
- C. Decompression sickness, the bends and barotrauma.
- D. Air embolism, decompression sickness and mammalian reflex.
Answer: B — Air embolism, decompression sickness and barotrauma.
Air embolism, decompression sickness (the bends), and barotrauma are the three primary emergencies associated with scuba diving. These conditions are caused by rapid pressure changes and gas expansion/contraction within the body's tissues and air-filled cavities.
22. In cases of near drowning:
- A. Laryngospasm prevents water from entering the lungs.
- B. Abdominal thrusts should always be performed before ventilating the patient.
- C. The lungs are often filled with water and require deep suctioning.
- D. Manual suction devices are not powerful enough to remove water and fluids from the airway.
Answer: A — Laryngospasm prevents water from entering the lungs.
Laryngospasm is a protective reflex where the vocal cords spasm to prevent water entry into the trachea. In most near-drowning incidents, this spasm prevents significant amounts of water from actually entering the lungs, despite the patient appearing to have aspirated.
23. You have been helping at a water rescue when one of the divers begins to have problems. You suspect air embolism. This patient should receive:
- A. Inhaled steroids.
- B. Epinepherine.
- C. Oxygen at 15 lpm.
- D. Oxygen at 6 lpm.
Answer: C — Oxygen at 15 lpm.
Arterial Gas Embolism (AGE) is a critical dive-related emergency caused by gas bubbles entering the bloodstream. High-flow oxygen (15 lpm) via a non-rebreather mask is the definitive initial field treatment to help reduce bubble size and improve tissue oxygenation.
24. To reduce the risk of respiratory infection and pneumonia where medical care is delayed, responders should:
- A. Provide the patient with adequate hydration.
- B. Ensure the patient is kept warm and at rest.
- C. Have the patient breathe deeply and cough.
- D. Position the patient in the position of comfort.
Answer: C — Have the patient breathe deeply and cough.
Encouraging a patient to breathe deeply and cough regularly helps clear pulmonary secretions and prevents the collapse of lung tissue (atelectasis). This is a critical nursing intervention to minimize the risk of pneumonia in patients during prolonged transport or delayed medical care.
25. When positioning a patient, responders should consider that:
- A. Semi-sitting will improve blood flow to the heart.
- B. Knees raised will reduce pressure on the abdomen.
- C. Raising arms and legs will produce swelling.
- D. Recovery position will often improve breathing.
Answer: B — Knees raised will reduce pressure on the abdomen.
Placing a patient with abdominal pain or injury in a semi-fowler's position with the knees flexed helps relax the abdominal musculature. This relaxation reduces tension and pressure on the abdominal wall, significantly increasing the patient's comfort.
26. When caring for wounds over extended periods, always:
- A. Remove dressings and bandages regularly to check the wound.
- B. Apply a tourniquet to prevent excessive bleeding.
- C. Check regularly for signs of infection or reduced circulation.
- D. Clean wounds with antiseptic before applying dressings.
Answer: C — Check regularly for signs of infection or reduced circulation.
When managing wounds over extended durations, regular assessment for circulation, sensation, and movement (CSM) is vital. Checking for signs of secondary infection or constriction caused by bandages is essential for effective long-term wound healing and safety.
27. The maintenance of fluids and nutrition is key to extended patient care and can be provided by:
- A. Allow the patient to consume any foods they would like to make them feel more comfortable.
- B. Use small amounts of liquids and foods to determine whether the patient can tolerate the intake.
- C. Even if the patient is not thirsty or hungry the responder must insist on intake.
- D. Giving fluids and food to all patients regardless of MOI.
Answer: B — Use small amounts of liquids and foods to determine whether the patient can tolerate the intake.
If medical evacuation is delayed, small, frequent amounts of clear liquids help determine tolerance. Large volumes of fluids or food should be avoided, especially if surgery or anesthesia might be required upon arrival at a medical facility, to minimize the risk of aspiration.
28. When administering medication, responders should consider that:
- A. Right nutrition, , right method, right time, right person, right amount
- B. Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.
- C. Right medication, right amount, right person, right responsibility, right action
- D. Right medication, right action, right person, right time, right responsibility
Answer: B — Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.
The 'five rights' of medication administration are a global standard to ensure patient safety. They are the right medication, right amount, right person, right time, and right method of administration.
29. To give ear drops to an adult, the ear should be pulled:
- A. Downward and forward.
- B. Downward and backward.
- C. Upward and forward.
- D. Upward and backward.
Answer: D — Upward and backward.
When administering ear drops to an adult, the ear canal should be straightened by pulling the pinna (auricle) upward and backward. This technique aligns the canal for better penetration of the medication toward the tympanic membrane.
30. Provincial first aid legislation prescribes the contents of:
- A. First aid stations, training programs and equipment manufacturers.
- B. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and first aid manuals.
- C. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and training.
- D. First aid boxes, first aid reports and record keeping.
Answer: C — First aid boxes, first aid rooms and training.
Provincial or national workplace safety legislation typically mandates the provision and contents of first-aid kits, the standards for first-aid rooms, and the requirements for certified first-aid training. These regulations ensure a baseline standard of emergency care at work.
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